AbuEahsan
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Defeaning silence

I can hear the silence through the noisy open doors I layed still, crying, on the cold, hard floor The darkness was an abyss, a universe I lived in My hollow veins can be seen through my broken skin Who will hear me when everyone is deafened by the truth? I am crushed under the ignorant giant’s foot Helpless sobs echoed through the prison-like room The weight of the world is my doom But everyone is blinded by the masquerade I choose to show The real me is like a shadow no one knows My existence is still a question; so are the people in rounds When everything I say seemed to make no sound
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2020/June New Braindump2go E20-393 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Released Today! Following are some new E20-393 Real Exam Questions, QUESTION 267 A Storage administrator would like to increase the capacity of the FAST Cache by 400 GB. The current configuration consists of two 400 GB SAS Flash 2 drives. Which solution should be recommended for expanding the FAST Cache? A.Two 200 GB SAS Flash 2 drives B.Two 400 GB SAS Flash 2 drives C.Four 200 GB SAS Flash 3 drives D.One 400 GB SAS Flash 2 drive Answer: A QUESTION 268 Which UEM/CLI command is used to verify the FC ports designated as synchronous on the SPs? A./remote/sys show -fc B./remote/sys show -detail C./remote/sys show -summary D./remote/sys show -sp Answer: B QUESTION 269 What is the granularity of FAST VP when relocating data in the pool? A.128 MB B.256 MB C.512 MB D.1024 MB Answer: B QUESTION 270 According to best practices, what is the maximum latency of the link between local and remote systems when using synchronous replication? A.5 ms B.10 ms C.20 ms D.40 ms Answer: B QUESTION 271 What is the minimum requirement for a server to boot from a Dell EMC Unity XT storage system via iSCSI? A.Hardware iSCSI HBA B.TOE NIC C.Software iSCSI D.iSCSI Initiator Answer: D QUESTION 272 What is maximum amount of time allowed when saving a configuration from the Collect Service Information menu from Unsphere in order to avoid a time-out? A.45 minutes B.60 minutes C.90 minutes D.120 minutes Answer: B QUESTION 273 What is the default setting of Advanced Deduplication when Data Reduction is selected within Unisphere? A.Disabled for thick LUNs and enabled for thin LUNs B.Disabled for thin LUNs in an All-Flash pool C.Enabled for thin LUNs in an All-Flash pool D.Enabled for both thick and thin LUNs Answer: C QUESTION 274 What is a consideration when specifying a Dial Home suppression time for a Dell EMC Unity XT storage array? A.Can be lengthened or shortened B.The time zone where the array is located C.Should be set between 1 and 32 hours D.Can be enabled at any time Answer: C QUESTION 275 A storage administrator configured a Hybrid Dell EMC Unity XT storage system using one default port containing three disk types. They need additional Flash capacity. What is the correct way to expand the pool? A.Add a RAID Group of SAS Flash 4 drives to the pool B.Add 2 SAS Flash drives to the FAST Cache C.Add 1 SAS Flash drive to the pool D.Add a RAID Group of SAS Flash drives to the pool Answer: A QUESTION 276 What storage resources can be provisioned to a host that is connected to a Dell EMC Unity XT storage system via Fibre Channel? A.LUNs, CIFS shares, and Consistency Group LUNs B.VMFS datastores, NFS datastores, and VVol(file) datastores C.LUNs, Consistency Group LUNs, and NFS datastores D.Consistency Group LUNs, VMFS datastores, and VVol (block) datastores Answer: B QUESTION 277 The preferred production interface is active. What does the Dell EMC Unity XT system do once a NAS Server starts outbound traffic to an external service? A.Selects interfaces based on advanced static routes B.Uses Packet Reflect for outbound communication C.Uses the active production interface D.Selects the shortest path available Answer: C QUESTION 278 A company has a VMware host installed with FC HBAs that is connected to a Dell EMC Unity XT storage array. A 500 GB LUN is provisioned to this host from the Unity array and is in production. The VMware administrator has configured a new vSwitch with the NICs on the server intended for iSCSI traffic. The storage administrator is asked to configure software iSCSI and provision a new 1 TB LUN from the storage array via iSCSI. What is a consideration when satisfying this request? A.A connection must be established between the host iSCSI initiators and Unity iSCSI targets before provisioning the new LUN B.Any single host should connect to any single array using one protocol only C.The iSCSI configuration must use all the NIC connections to the host D.Two iSCSI target interfaces must be configured with IP addresses from separate subnets Answer: D QUESTION 279 A company with multiple remote offices has decided to use asynchronous replication. What systems support this capability? A.Dell EMC Unity XT and Dell EMC UnityVSA B.Dell EMC UnityVSA only C.Dell EMC UnityVSA and VNXe D.Dell EMC Unity XT only Answer: A QUESTION 280 How does Dell EMC Unity XT differ from Dell EMC UnityVSA? A.Unity XT supports FAST VP only UnityVSA supports FAST VP and FAST Cache B.Unity XT supports host I/O limits and monitoring and reporting UnityVSA supports monitoring and reporting only C.UnityXT supports FAST VP and FAST Cache. UnityVSA supports FAST VP only D.UnityXT supports monitoring and reporting only UnityVSA supports host I/O limits and monitoring and reporting Answer: C QUESTION 281 By default, the storage system transfers log information on which network port? A.138 B.464 C.514 D.2049 Answer: C QUESTION 282 A storage administrator has added multiple resources to a single density-based Host I/O Limit policy for the following storage resources: - LUN A: 25 GB - LUN B: 25 GB - LUN C: 50 GB - Density-Based Limit 20: IOPS What is the total IOPS set by this policy? A.200 B.500 C.2000 D.2500 Answer: A 2020 Latest Braindump2go E20-393 PDF and E20-393 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1Ievqhrc5__kHr_JRfywLs0XQAm6lNpvz?usp=sharing
2020 Braindump2go 300-720 PDF and 300-720 VCE Dumps Free 300-720 Exam Questions!
May/2020 New Braindump2go 300-720 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Released Today! Following are some new 300-720 Real Exam Questions, QUESTION 16 What is the maximum message size that can be configured for encryption on the Cisco ESA? A.20 MB B.25 MB C.15 MB D.30 MB Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17 An analyst creates a new content dictionary to use with Forged Email Detection. Which entry will be added into the dictionary? A.mycompany.com B.Alpha Beta C.^Alpha\ Beta$ D.Alpha.Beta@mycompany.com Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18 Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist? A.message filter B.antivirus scanning C.outbreak filter D.antispam scanning Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19 Which two query types are available when an LDAP profile is configured? (Choose two.) A.proxy consolidation B.user C.recursive D.group E.routing Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 20 Which action is a valid fallback when a client certificate is unavailable during SMTP authentication on Cisco ESA? A.LDAP Query B.SMTP AUTH C.SMTP TLS D.LDAP BIND Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21 Email encryption is configured on a Cisco ESA that uses CRES. Which action is taken on a message when CRES is unavailable? A.It is requeued. B.It is sent in clear text. C.It is dropped and an error message is sent to the sender. D.It is encrypted by a Cisco encryption appliance. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22 Which two features of Cisco Email Security are added to a Sender Group to protect an organization against email threats? (Choose two.) A.NetFlow B.geolocation-based filtering C.heuristic-based filtering D.senderbase reputation filtering E.content disarm and reconstruction Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 23 Which two steps configure Forged Email Detection? (Choose two.) A.Configure a content dictionary with executive email addresses. B.Configure a filter to use the Forged Email Detection rule and dictionary. C.Configure a filter to check the Header From value against the Forged Email Detection dictionary. D.Enable Forged Email Detection on the Security Services page. E.Configure a content dictionary with friendly names. Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 24 What is the default behavior of any listener for TLS communication? A.preferred-verify B.off C.preferred D.required Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the Cisco ESA reactions to a possible DLP from the left onto the correct action types on the right. Select and Place: Correct Answer: QUESTION 26 Which two actions are configured on the Cisco ESA to query LDAP servers? (Choose two.) A.accept B.relay C.delay D.route E.reject Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 27 Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.) A.The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters. B.Message filters configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters. C.The filterconfig command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters. D.Message filters can be configured only from the CLI. E.Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface. Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 28 What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies? A.message splintering B.message exceptions C.message detachment D.message aggregation Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29 Which type of query must be configured when setting up the Spam Quarantine while merging notifications? A.Spam Quarantine Alias Routing Query B.Spam Quarantine Alias Consolidation Query C.Spam Quarantine Alias Authentication Query D.Spam Quarantine Alias Masquerading Query Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30 Which two factors must be considered when message filter processing is configured? (Choose two.) A.message-filter order B.lateral processing C.structure of the combined packet D.mail policies E.MIME structure of the message Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 31 How does the graymail safe unsubscribe feature function? A.It strips the malicious content of the URI before unsubscribing. B.It checks the URI reputation and category and allows the content filter to take an action on it. C.It redirects the end user who clicks the unsubscribe button to a sandbox environment to allow a safe unsubscribe. D.It checks the reputation of the URI and performs the unsubscribe process on behalf of the end user. Correct Answer: D 2020 Latest Braindump2go 300-720 PDF Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1CWQxEgDC6s96s0xdef_OXd8TQRMElfP0?usp=sharing
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2020/May New Braindump2go CRT-450 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some Real CRT-450 Exam Questions! QUESTION 221 A developer is asked to create a custom Visualforce page that will be used as a dashboard component. Which three are valid controller options for this page? (Choose three.) A.Use a standard controller. B.Use a standard controller with extensions. C.Use a custom controller with extensions. D.Do not specify a controller. E.Use a custom controller. Answer: ABE QUESTION 222 A Platform Developer needs to implement a declarative solution that will display the most recent Closed Won date for all Opportunity records associated with an Account. Which field is required to achieve this declaratively? A.Roll-up summary field on the Opportunity object B.Cross-object formula field on the Opportunity object C.Roll-up summary field on the Account object D.Cross-object formula field on the Account object Answer: C QUESTION 223 Which three statements are true regarding the @isTest annotation? (Choose three.) A.A method annotated @isTest(SeeAllData=true) in a class annotated @isTest has access to all org data. (SeeAllData=false) B.A method annotated @isTest(SeeAllData=false) in a class annotated @isTest has access to all org data. (SeeAllData=true) C.A class containing test methods counts toward the Apex code limit regardless of any @isTest annotation. D.Products and Pricebooks are visible in a test even if a class is annotated @isTest . (SeeAllData=false) E.Profiles are visible in a test even if a class is annotated @isTest(SeeAllData=false). Answer: BCE QUESTION 224 What is the data type returned by the following SOSL search? [FIND `Acme*' IN NAME FIELDS RETURNING Account, Opportunity]; A.List<List<Account>, List<Opportunity>> B.Map<sObject, sObject> C.List<List<sObject>> D.Map<Id, sObject> Answer: C QUESTION 225 A company wants to create an employee rating program that allows employees to rate each other. An employee's average rating must be displayed on the employee record. Employees must be able to create rating records, but are not allowed to create employee records. Which two actions should a developer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A.Create a trigger on the Rating object that updates a fields on the Employee object. B.Create a lookup relationship between the Rating and Employee object. C.Create a roll-up summary field on the Employee and use AVG to calculate the average rating score. D.Create a master-detail relationship between the Rating and Employee objects. Answer: CD QUESTION 226 Which two SOSL searches will return records matching search criteria contained in any of the searchable text fields on an object? (Choose two.) A.[FIND `Acme*' IN ANY FIELDS RETURNING Account, Opportunity]; B.[FIND `Acme*' RETURNING Account, Opportunity]; C.[FIND `Acme*' IN ALL FIELDS RETURNING Account, Opportunity]; D.[FIND `Acme*' IN TEXT FIELDS RETURNING Account, Opportunity]; Answer: BC QUESTION 227 For which example task should a developer use a trigger rather than a workflow rule? A.To set the Name field of an expense report record to Expense and the Date when it is saved B.To send an email to a hiring manager when a candidate accepts a job offer C.To notify an external system that a record has been modified D.To set the primary Contact on an Account record when it is saved Answer: D QUESTION 228 Which feature should a developer use to update an inventory count on related Product records when the status of an Order is modified to indicate it is fulfilled? A.Process Builder process B.Lightning component C.Visualforce page D.Workflow rule Answer: A QUESTION 229 A developer has JavaScript code that needs to be called by controller functions in multiple Aura components by extending a new abstract component. Which resource in the abstract Aura component bundle allows the developer to achieve this? A.helper.js B.controller.js C.superRender.js D.renderer.js Answer: A QUESTION 230 Which option should a developer use to create 500 Accounts and make sure that duplicates are not created for existing Account Sites? A.Sandbox template B.Data Loader C.Data Import Wizard D.Salesforce-to-Salesforce Answer: C QUESTION 231 Which two components are available to deploy using the Metadata API? (Choose two.) A.Lead Conversion Settings B.Web-to-Case C.Web-to-Lead D.Case Settings Answer: AD QUESTION 232 Which three statements are true regarding cross-object formulas? (Choose three.) A.Cross-object formulas can reference fields from objects that are up to 10 relationships away. B.Cross-object formulas can reference fields from master-detail or lookup relationships. C.Cross-object formulas can reference child fields to perform an average. D.Cross-object formulas can expose data the user does not have access to in a record. E.Cross-object formulas can be referenced in roll-up summary fields. Answer: ABD QUESTION 233 Which two statements are true about Apex code executed in Anonymous Blocks? (Choose two.) A.The code runs with the permissions of the user specified in the runAs() statement. B.The code runs with the permissions of the logged in user. C.The code runs in system mode having access to all objects and fields. D.All DML operations are automatically rolled back. E.Successful DML operations are automatically committed. Answer: BE QUESTION 234 From which two locations can a developer determine the overall code coverage for a sandbox? (Choose two.) A.The Apex Test Execution page B.The Test Suite Run panel of the Developer Console C.The Apex classes setup page D.The Tests tab of the Developer Console Answer: AD QUESTION 235 Which two practices should be used for processing records in a trigger? (Choose two.) A.Use a Map to reduce the number of SOQL calls. B.Use @future methods to handle DML operations. C.Use a Set to ensure unique values in a query filter. D.Use (callout=true) to update an external system. Answer: AC QUESTION 236 Which two statements are acceptable for a developer to use inside procedural loops? (Choose two.) A.delete contactList; B.contactList.remove(i); C.Contact con = new Contact(); D.Account a = [SELECT Id, Name FROM Account WHERE Id = :con.AccountId LIMIT 1]; Answer: BC 2020 Latest Braindump2go CRT-450 PDF and CRT-450 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/19cHJAv_ewLB7hsYSMVnLcVyIJ8ZWLuAv?usp=sharing
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May/2020 New Braindump2go 300-735 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new 300-735 Exam Questions! QUESTION 26 Which API is designed to give technology partners the ability to send security events from their platform/service/appliance within a mutual customer's environment to the Umbrella cloud for enforcement? A.Cisco Umbrella Management API B.Cisco Umbrella Security Events API C.Cisco Umbrella Enforcement API D.Cisco Umbrella Reporting API Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27 Which two event types can the eStreamer server transmit to the requesting client from a managed device and a management center? (Choose two.) A.user activity events B.intrusion events C.file events D.intrusion event extra data E.malware events Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 28 A security network engineer must implement intrusion policies using the Cisco Firepower Management Center API. Which action does the engineer take to achieve the goal? A.Make a PATCH request to the URI /api/fmc_config/v1/domain/{DOMAIN_UUID}/policy/intrusionpolicies. B.Make a POST request to the URI /api/fmc_config/v1/domain/{DOMAIN_UUID}/policy/intrusionpolicies. C.Intrusion policies can be read but not configured using the Cisco Firepower Management Center API. D.Make a PUT request to the URI /api/fmc_config/v1/domain/{DOMAIN_UUID}/policy/intrusionpolicies. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29 Which curl command lists all tags (host groups) that are associated with a tenant using the Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise API? A.curl -X PUT"Cookie:{Cookie Data}"https://{stealthwatch_host}/smc-configuration/rest/v1/tenants/{tenant_id}/tags B.curl -X POST -H"Cookie:{Cookie Data}"https://{stealthwatch_host}/smc-configuration/rest/v1/tenants/tags C.curl -X GET -H"Cookie:{Cookie Data}"https://{stealthwatch_host}/smc-configuration/rest/v1/tenants/{tenant_id}/tags D.curl -X GET -H"Cookie:{Cookie Data}"https://{stealthwatch_host}/smc-configuration/rest/v1/tenants/tags Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30 Refer to the exhibit. The security administrator must temporarily disallow traffic that goes to a production web server using the Cisco FDM REST API. The administrator sends an API query as shown in the exhibit. What is the outcome of that action? A.The given code does not execute because the mandatory parameters, source, destination, and services are missing. B.The given code does not execute because it uses the HTTP method "PUT". It should use the HTTP method "POST". C.The appropriate rule is updated with the source, destination, services, and other fields set to "Any" and the action set to "DENY". Traffic to the production web server is disallowed, as expected. D.A new rule is created with the source, destination, services, and other fields set to "Any" and the action set to "DENY". Traffic to the production web server is disallowed, as expected. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31 FILL BLANK Fill in the blank to complete the statement with the correct technology. Cisco Investigate provides access to data that pertains to DNS security events and correlations collected by the Cisco security team. Correct Answer: Umbrella QUESTION 32 Refer to the exhibit. The script outputs too many results when it is queried against the Cisco Umbrella Reporting API. Which two configurations restrict the returned result to only 10 entries? (Choose two.) A.Add params parameter in the get and assign in the {"return": "10"} value. B.Add ?limit=10 to the end of the URL string. C.Add params parameter in the get and assign in the {"limit": "10"} value. D.Add ?find=10 to the end of the URL string. E.Add ?return=10 to the end of the URL string. Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 33 DRAG DROP A Python script is being developed to return the top 10 identities in an organization that have made a DNS request to "www.cisco.com". Drag and drop the code to complete the Cisco Umbrella Reporting API query to return the top identities. Not all options are used. Select and Place: Correct Answer: QUESTION 34 Which two destinations are supported by the Cisco Security Management Appliance reporting APIs? (Choose two.) A.email B.Microsoft Word file C.FTP D.web E.csv file Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 35 What are two capabilities of Cisco Firepower Management Center eStreamer? (Choose two.) A.eStreamer is used to get sources for intelligence services. B.eStreamer is used to send malware event data. C.eStreamer is used to get a list of access control policies. D.eStreamer is used to send policy data. E.eStreamer is used to send intrusion event data. Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 36 Refer to the exhibit. A security engineer created a script and successfully executed it to retrieve all currently open alerts. Which print command shows the first returned alert? A.print(response[data][0]) B.print(response[results][0]) C.print(response.json()[data][0]) D.print(response.json()[results][0]) Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit. A network operator must create a Python script that makes an API request to Cisco Umbrella to do a pattern search and return all matched URLs with category information. Which code completes the script? A.URL = BASE_URL + "/find/exa\[a-z\]ple.com" PARAMS = { "categoryinclude" : "true"} B.URL = BASE_URL + "/find/exa\[a-z\]ple.com" PARAMS = { "returncategory" : "true"} C.URL = BASE_URL + "/find/exa\[a-z\]ple.com" PARAMS = { "includeCategory" : "true"} D.URL = BASE_URL + "/find/exa\[a-z\]ple.com" PARAMS = { "returnCategory" : "true"} Correct Answer: D QUESTION 38 Which two statements describe the characteristics of API styles for REST and RPC? (Choose two.) A.REST-based APIs function in a similar way to procedures. B.REST-based APIs are used primarily for CRUD operations. C.REST and RPC API styles are the same. D.RPC-based APIs function in a similar way to procedures. E.RPC-based APIs are used primarily for CRUD operations. Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 39 What are two benefits of Ansible when managing security platforms? (Choose two.) A.End users can be identified and tracked across a network. B.Network performance issues can be identified and automatically remediated. C.Policies can be updated on multiple devices concurrently, which reduces outage windows. D.Anomalous network traffic can be detected and correlated. E.The time that is needed to deploy a change is reduced, compared to manually applying the change. Correct Answer: CE 2020 Latest Braindump2go 300-735 PDF and 300-735 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1m19PdiWiEdzrVfv_C_JxguM15u1-V5mx?usp=sharing
Marriage Prediction time in astrology: Easy Method to Know Exact age & date
Ensure Your Marriage Life with accurate Marriage Prediction free reports. Know about How to Marry a perfect partner with Free Marriage prediction by date of birth. Find accurate Marriage Predictions about your Marital Life. At last Get an overview of Free Marriage Prediction in Hindi by date of birth. Marriage is not only the Union of 2 souls but also a significant for 2 existing families and then 2 future dynasties. Another factor is that with the literate status of females in society, the overall perception of marriage has become totally different. The society is no longer a male-dominated society. Therefore, Marriage astrology in Vedic Astrology has all the answers related to marriage when, how, and married life afterward. Are you worried about when will I get married? At What age will I get married? Why is my marriage getting delayed? Will my married life be successful? Who is my perfect match? Get answers to your every marriage prediction questions as per your marriage horoscope. we are here to solve all your marriage problems and guide you to perfect married life by using our Marriage date Prediction Calculator! Some Myths There is No Astrology Software or no online website that can give you information about the exact time of your Marriage. You have to do it Manually by checking your natal birth chart. Marriage age prediction cannot be automated because there are many factors which no software can check. Moreover, Intuition also plays an important role. So, if you are one of them searching Marriage prediction Calculator, Stop right now. You will not be able to get any correct Prediction. Just open your Horoscope and follow the given steps, you will be able to find your Marriage date prediction from kundali. But Remember the Method explained below is for first Marriage. If you want to Know about second Marriage, read How to Know the Time of Second Marriage? Marriage Astrology by date of birth Marriage astrology is a Specialized task and it has 3 major Parts- Knowing the exact time of Marriage, Understanding Marital Happiness, and Marriage Matching. Here we will give you a Proper and step by step guide on How to predict marriage Timing in astrology easily yet effectively and this will be going to help you in marriage prediction by date of birth from Horoscope. Planets & Houses Responsible for Marriage Astrology Early and delay marriage depends upon the planets located in the horoscopes. Jupiter plays a key role in the horoscope of female natives for cheerful married life. If Jupiter and 7th house lord is well placed and has a good aspect, peaceful marriage can be predicted. The 2nd house should be free from affliction On the other hand, Venus is the significator of Male natives. If Venus and 7th lord is well placed and having good aspects, good quality of marital life is possible. Thus, while matching horoscope, 1st House (Personality and Self), 2nd house (Wealth and Growth of family), 4th house(General Happiness and comfort), 5th House of Lady (love and Progeny), 7th house (Spouse), 8th house (house of Longevity of native) and 12th house (Bed comforts) should be examined appropriately. Role of Navamsa chart in Marriage Prediction by date of birth and Time Navamsa is one of the most important Divisional charts in Marriage astrology. It has very high importance in Marriage date Prediction. You Should Check the below Points during Marriage age Prediction. If the Saturn afflicts the 7th house and 7th Lord of birth chart or Navamsa or if the 8th lord afflicts the 7th house or 7th Lord in your birth chart or Navamsa chart, it can delay your Marriage. It is a very complex way to resolve issues.so neat study of free navamsa chart prediction for marriage can guide you effectively. Even Higher Affliction can also deny Marriage and a person may not get Married in entire Life. You Should consult us by avail on TABIJ.IN or call us @ +919776190123 for better understanding.
Want To Get Hired Fast? 3 Things You Must Consider
These days, getting a good job is not so easy. In every field, the number of competitors is increasing day by day. Most people think that, if they randomly apply for 10-15 job posts, they will surely get 2-3 responses. But things are not so easy! To get a successful job interview, one must consider some important factors that many job seekers don’t care about. In most cases, their applications take place in the trash. While there are some factors to consider, this article will focus on three significant factors to emphasize and focus on. Consider an effective resume: Do you know why most people get rejected before an interview? Because they don’t produce a resume that looks professional and makes a good impact. Hiring managers scan a resume for 6-10 seconds only. If they don’t find anything attractive and relevant, they immediately reject that. An effective resume is the ultimate solution for instant rejection. You may write a proper resume for your purpose or hire a professional resume writer. There are many tools and articles available on the internet to get some knowledge on an effective resume. Send a cover letter for every job application: A cover letter introduces you to a recruiter or an organization. It shows your interest in a specific vacancy, draws attention to your resume, and motivates the reader to interview you. Sometimes, people send their resumes without a cover letter. Recruiters don’t even count this type of approach. A professional cover letter is mandatory for any job application, whether the application process is by post or via email. A cover letter must be specific for every single job vacancy and hold important information. Most employers read a resume only if they find the cover letter useful. Create a Linkedin profile: Linkedin is the largest and most popular professional networking platform in the world. Not only job seekers, but many organizations and recruiters have an account with Linkedin. If you do not have an account there, it is strongly recommended to create one. Make this account as professional as you can and build a strong connection base. Sometimes, recruiters visit the applicant’s Linkedin profile. It is a great idea to mention your Linkedin account as a professional profile in your resume. It shows that you are confident and ready to get interviewed. So, hurry up! Plan for these things to give your career a boost. First, you should try to get these things ready on your own. There are many ‘how-to’ articles available on the internet you may take help from. This will help you revise your career updates and make you confident. If you find it difficult to manage all these things, you can take help from any reputed resume writing services where creative resume makers will prepare all those things for you.