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Know about Celebrities with Covid19 positive and their medicine treatment Coronavirus is a nightmare for everyone. And, no matter where you live, how rich you are, and how many facilities you have. Once you get in contact with a Covid19 patient or just being around with the one unknowingly, then you definitely get the symptoms of covid 19. visit here: call us: +1(707) 510-0015 And celebrities' lives are about fame and limelight because they keep ongoing events, interviews, meetings, and public appearances with themselves. Despite taking several precautions and safety measures, there are top celebrities who got covid19 positive. And these are the top from the list: Donald & Melania Trump On 2 October 2012, Donald Trump tweeted on Twitter and announced the beginning of his and his wife Melania Trump's quarantine period as they both testes covid positive. And they both immediately got hospitalized and came back home to continue medical treatment at home. Although he canceled and postponed many events, Mr. and Mrs. Trump keep addressing the world through the social network. Well, if you haven't seen any positive news from their side. But I am hoping for the best. Neil Patrick Harris & David Burtka's Family Neil Patrick Harris is a gem of ‘How I met your Mother.’ He recently announced on 15 September 2020 that he and his family have experienced some symptoms of covid19. But now he and his family are fine and in a healthy status; they were diagnosed with Covid 19 Robert Pattinson Robert Pattinson is going to play a lead role in the upcoming series on ‘The Batman,’ and so he started shooting. Therefore, while shooting, he got diagnosed with covid19 on 3rd September 2020. However, he is good and healthy but hasn't heard anything from his side. Cristiano Ronaldo Who doesn't know the great soccer player ‘Ronaldo.’ He lives in the heart of many people. And his news of covid 19 positives on October 13 got tears in the eyes of his fans. Since then, he is in quarantine, and we are hoping to hear good news soon. Trey Songz He is a famous singer, and he recently came on Instagram live video that he is dealing with covid 19. On 5 October 2020, he confirmed that he is going to be self-quarantined. The tests are going on, and treatment is continuing. We are hoping for good for him. Kanye West Kanye West is a famous celebrity and has a happy family with a wife and four small kids. And he got the symptoms in mid-March, and now his family is stable and healthy. vaccine of covid19 We all know that vaccines of covid19 are not in the market yet by any country. Although, The USA is working hard on the vaccine of covid19. And only five topmost pharma companies are punching themselves hard on the vaccine. Bayer Pfizer Merck & Co Johnson & Johnson Eli Lilly Therefore, medical treatment majorly depends on the pharmaceutical method and another non-medical method. In terms of medical treatment, Benzodiazepine, Opioids drugs, and sedative-hypnotic drugs are widely available to treat fever, back pain, and mental illness. And, in order to get the non-medical treatment that includes medication, exercise, home remedies, and yoga to treat anxiety, depression, and isolation.
[October-2021]New Braindump2go CLF-C01 PDF and VCE Dumps[Q25-Q45]
QUESTION 25 A large organization has a single AWS account. What are the advantages of reconfiguring the single account into multiple AWS accounts? (Choose two.) A.It allows for administrative isolation between different workloads. B.Discounts can be applied on a quarterly basis by submitting cases in the AWS Management Console. C.Transitioning objects from Amazon S3 to Amazon S3 Glacier in separate AWS accounts will be less expensive. D.Having multiple accounts reduces the risks associated with malicious activity targeted at a single account. E.Amazon QuickSight offers access to a cost tool that provides application-specific recommendations for environments running in multiple accounts. Answer: AC QUESTION 26 An online retail company recently deployed a production web application. The system administrator needs to block common attack patterns such as SQL injection and cross-site scripting. Which AWS service should the administrator use to address these concerns? A.AWS WAF B.Amazon VPC C.Amazon GuardDuty D.Amazon CloudWatch Answer: A QUESTION 27 What does Amazon CloudFront provide? A.Automatic scaling for all resources to power an application from a single unified interface B.Secure delivery of data, videos, applications, and APIs to users globally with low latency C.Ability to directly manage traffic globally through a variety of routing types, including latency-based routing, geo DNS, geoproximity, and weighted round robin D.Automatic distribution of incoming application traffic across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances, containers, IP addresses, and AWS Lambda functions Answer: B QUESTION 28 Which phase describes agility as a benefit of building in the AWS Cloud? A.The ability to pay only when computing resources are consumed, based on the volume of resources that are consumed B.The ability to eliminate guessing about infrastructure capacity needs C. The ability to support innovation through a reduction in the time that is required to make IT resources available to developers D. The ability to deploy an application in multiple AWS Regions around the world in minutes Answer: QUESTION 29 A company is undergoing a security audit. The audit includes security validation and compliance validation of the AWS infrastructure and services that the company uses. The auditor needs to locate compliance-related information and must download AWS security and compliance documents. These documents include the System and Organization Control (SOC) reports. Which AWS service or group can provide these documents? A.AWS Abuse team B.AWS Artifact C.AWS Support D.AWS Config Answer: B QUESTION 30 Which AWS Trusted Advisor checks are available to users with AWS Basic Support? (Choose two.) A.Service limits B.High utilization Amazon EC2 instances C.Security groups ?specific ports unrestricted D.Load balancer optimization E.Large number of rules in an EC2 security groups Answer: AC QUESTION 31 A company has a centralized group of users with large file storage requirements that have exceeded the space available on premises. The company wants to extend its file storage capabilities for this group while retaining the performance benefit of sharing content locally. What is the MOST operationally efficient AWS solution for this scenario? A.Create an Amazon S3 bucket for each users. Mount each bucket by using an S3 file system mounting utility. B.Configure and deploy an AWS Storage Gateway file gateway. Connect each user's workstation to the file gateway. C.Move each user's working environment to Amazon WorkSpaces. Set up an Amazon WorkDocs account for each user. D.Deploy an Amazon EC2 instance and attach an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) Provisioned IOPS volume. Share the EBS volume directly with the users. Answer: B QUESTION 32 Which network security features are supported by Amazon VPC? (Choose two.) A.Network ACLs B.Internet gateways C.VPC peering D.Security groups E.Firewall rules Answer: AD QUESTION 33 A company wants to build a new architecture with AWS services. The company needs to compare service costs at various scales. Which AWS service, tool, or feature should the company use to meet this requirement? A.AWS Compute Optimizer B.AWS Pricing Calculator C.AWS Trusted Advisor D.Cost Explorer rightsizing recommendations Answer: B QUESTION 34 An Elastic Load Balancer allows the distribution of web traffic across multiple: A.AWS Regions. B.Availability Zones. C.Dedicated Hosts. D.Amazon S3 buckets. Answer: B QUESTION 35 Which characteristic of the AWS Cloud helps users eliminate underutilized CPU capacity? A.Agility B.Elasticity C.Reliability D.Durability Answer: B QUESTION 36 Which AWS services make use of global edge locations? (Choose two.) A.AWS Fargate B.Amazon CloudFront C.AWS Global Accelerator D.AWS Wavelength E.Amazon VPC Answer: BC QUESTION 37 Which of the following are economic benefits of using AWS Cloud? (Choose two.) A.Consumption-based pricing B.Perpetual licenses C.Economies of scale D.AWS Enterprise Support at no additional cost E.Bring-your-own-hardware model Answer: AC QUESTION 38 A company is using Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling to scale its Amazon EC2 instances. Which benefit of the AWS Cloud does this example illustrate? A.High availability B.Elasticity C.Reliability D.Global reach Answer: B QUESTION 39 A company is running and managing its own Docker environment on Amazon EC2 instances. The company wants to alternate to help manage cluster size, scheduling, and environment maintenance. Which AWS service meets these requirements? A.AWS Lambda B.Amazon RDS C.AWS Fargate D.Amazon Athena Answer: C QUESTION 40 A company hosts an application on an Amazon EC2 instance. The EC2 instance needs to access several AWS resources, including Amazon S3 and Amazon DynamoDB. What is the MOST operationally efficient solution to delegate permissions? A.Create an IAM role with the required permissions. Attach the role to the EC2 instance. B.Create an IAM user and use its access key and secret access key in the application. C.Create an IAM user and use its access key and secret access key to create a CLI profile in the EC2 instance D.Create an IAM role with the required permissions. Attach the role to the administrative IAM user. Answer: A QUESTION 41 Who is responsible for managing IAM user access and secret keys according to the AWS shared responsibility model? A.IAM access and secret keys are static, so there is no need to rotate them. B.The customer is responsible for rotating keys. C.AWS will rotate the keys whenever required. D.The AWS Support team will rotate keys when requested by the customer. Answer: B QUESTION 42 A company is running a Microsoft SQL Server instance on premises and is migrating its application to AWS. The company lacks the resources need to refactor the application, but management wants to reduce operational overhead as part of the migration. Which database service would MOST effectively support these requirements? A.Amazon DynamoDB B.Amazon Redshift C.Microsoft SQL Server on Amazon EC2 D.Amazon RDS for SQL Server Answer: D QUESTION 43 A company wants to increase its ability to recover its infrastructure in the case of a natural disaster. Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework does this ability represent? A.Cost optimization B.Performance efficiency C.Reliability D.Security Answer: C QUESTION 44 Which AWS service provides the capability to view end-to-end performance metrics and troubleshoot distributed applications? A.AWS Cloud9 B.AWS CodeStar C.AWS Cloud Map D.AWS X-Ray Answer: D QUESTION 45 Which tasks require use of the AWS account root user? (Choose two.) A.Changing an AWS Support plan B.Modifying an Amazon EC2 instance type C.Grouping resources in AWS Systems Manager D.Running applications in Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) E.Closing an AWS account Answer: AE 2021 Latest Braindump2go CLF-C01 PDF and CLF-C01 VCE Dumps Free Share:
[October-2021]New Braindump2go 312-38 PDF and VCE Dumps[Q540-Q570]
QUESTION 540 Which of the following defines the extent to which an interruption affects normal business operations and the amount of revenue lost due to that interruption? A.RPO B.RFO C.RSP D.RTO Answer: D QUESTION 541 Which command is used to change the permissions of a file or directory? A.rmdir B.systemctl C.kill D.chmod Answer: D QUESTION 542 John, a network administrator, is configuring Amazon EC2 cloud service for his organization. Identify the type of cloud service modules his organization adopted. A.Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) B.Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS) C.Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) D.Storage-as-a-Service (SaaS) Answer: B QUESTION 543 Identify the type of event that is recorded when an application driver loads successfully in Windows. A.Success Audit B.Error C.Warning D.Information Answer: D QUESTION 544 Based on which of the following registry key, the Windows Event log audit configurations are recorded? A.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\Services\EventLog\ < ErrDev > B.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\EventLog\ < EntAppsvc > C.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\CurrentControlSet\Services\EventLog\< ESENT > D.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\EventLog\ < Event Log > Answer: D QUESTION 545 Which of the following is an example of MAC model? A.Chinese Waterfall model B.Clark-Beason integrity model C.Access control matrix model D.Bell-LaPadula model Answer: A QUESTION 546 How can a WAF validate traffic before it reaches a web application? A.It uses a role-based filtering technique B.It uses an access-based filtering technique C.It uses a sandboxing filtering technique D.It uses a rule-based filtering technique Answer: D QUESTION 547 Jason has set a firewall policy that allows only a specific list of network services and denies everything else. This strategy is known as a ____________. A.Default allow B.Default access C.Default accept D.Default deny Answer: D QUESTION 548 Which of the following things need to be identified during attack surface visualization? A.Attacker's tools, techniques, and procedures B.Authentication, authorization, and auditing in networks C.Regulatory frameworks, standards and, procedures for organizations D.Assets, topologies, and policies of the organization Answer: A QUESTION 549 John is a senior network security administrator working at a multinational company. He wants to block specific syscalls from being used by container binaries. Which Linux kernel feature restricts actions within the container? A.Cgroups B.LSMs C.Seccomp D.Userns Answer: C QUESTION 550 Which of the following is not part of the recommended first response steps for network defenders? A.Restrict yourself from doing the investigation B.Extract relevant data from the suspected devices as early as possible C.Disable virus protection D.Do not change the state of the suspected device Answer: D QUESTION 551 Which among the following tools can help in identifying IoEs to evaluate human attack surface? A.securiCAD B.Amass C.Skybox D.SET Answer: A QUESTION 552 In ______ method, event logs are arranged in the form of a circular buffer. A.Non-wrapping method B.LIFO method C.Wrapping method D.FIFO method Answer: D QUESTION 553 Which of the following indicators refers to potential risk exposures that attackers can use to breach the security of an organization? A.Indicators of attack B.Key risk indicators C.Indicators of exposure D.Indicators of compromise Answer: C QUESTION 554 Which of the following can be used to disallow a system/user from accessing all applications except a specific folder on a system? A.Hash rule B.Path rule C.Internet zone rule D.Certificate rule Answer: A QUESTION 555 Which of the following helps prevent executing untrusted or untested programs or code from untrusted or unverified third-parties? A.Application sandboxing B.Deployment of WAFS C.Application whitelisting D.Application blacklisting Answer: A QUESTION 556 Who is an IR custodian? A.An individual responsible for conveying company details after an incident B.An individual who receives the initial IR alerts and leads the IR team in all the IR activities C.An individual who makes a decision on the classifications and the severity of the incident identified D.An individual responsible for the remediation and resolution of the incident that occurred Answer: B QUESTION 557 Which of the following attack surface increase when you keep USB ports enabled on your laptop unnecessarily? A.Human attack surface B.Network attack surface C.Physical attack surface D.Software attack surface Answer: C QUESTION 558 Which among the following filter is used to detect a SYN/FIN attack? A.tcp.flags==0x002 B.tcp.flags==0x004 C.tcp.flags==0x003 D.tcp.flags==0x001 Answer: D QUESTION 559 In _______ mechanism, the system or application sends log records either on the local disk or over the network. A.Network-based B.Pull-based C.Push-based D.Host-based Answer: C QUESTION 560 Choose the correct order of steps to analyze the attack surface. A.Identify the indicators of exposure->visualize the attack surface->simulate the attack->reduce the attack surface B.Visualize the attack surface->simulate the attack->identify the indicators of exposure->reduce the attack surface C.Identify the indicators of exposure->simulate the attack->visualize the attack surface->reduce the attack surface D.Visualize the attack surface->identify the indicators of exposure->simulate the attack->reduce the attack surface Answer: D QUESTION 561 To provide optimum security while enabling safe/necessary services, blocking known dangerous services, and making employees accountable for their online activity, what Internet Access policy would Brian, the network administrator, have to choose? A.Prudent policy B.Paranoid policy C.Promiscuous policy D.Permissive policy Answer: A QUESTION 562 Emmanuel works as a Windows system administrator at an MNC. He uses PowerShell to enforce the script execution policy. He wants to allow the execution of the scripts that are signed by a trusted publisher. Which of the following script execution policy setting this? A.AllSigned B.Restricted C.RemoteSigned D.Unrestricted Answer: A QUESTION 563 Fargo, head of network defense at Globadyne Tech, has discovered an undesirable process in several Linux systems, which causes machines to hang every 1 hour. Fargo would like to eliminate it; what command should he execute? A.# update-rc.d -f [service name] remove B.# service [service name] stop C.# ps ax | grep [Target Process] D.# kill -9 [PID] Answer: D QUESTION 564 Elden is working as a network administrator at an IT company. His organization opted for a virtualization technique in which the guest OS is aware of the virtual environment in which it is running and communicates with the host machines for requesting resources. Identify the virtualization technique implemented by Elden's organization. A.Hybrid virtualization B.Hardware-assisted virtualization C.Full virtualization D.Para virtualization Answer: B QUESTION 565 Albert works as a Windows system administrator at an MNC. He uses PowerShell logging to identify any suspicious scripting activity across the network. He wants to record pipeline execution details as PowerShell executes, including variable initialization and command invocations. Which PowerShell logging component records pipeline execution details as PowerShell executes? A.Module logging B.Script block logging C.Event logging D.Transcript logging Answer: A QUESTION 566 Sophie has been working as a Windows network administrator at an MNC over the past 7 years. She wants to check whether SMB1 is enabled or disabled. Which of the following command allows Sophie to do so? A.Get-WindowsOptionalFeatures -Online -FeatureNames SMB1Protocol B.Get-WindowsOptionalFeature -Online -FeatureName SMB1Protocol C.Get-WindowsOptionalFeature -Online -FeatureNames SMB1Protocol D.Get-WindowsOptionalFeatures -Online -FeatureName SMB1Protocol Answer: B QUESTION 567 How is an "attack" represented? A.Motive (goal) + method B.Motive (goal) + method + vulnerability C.Asset + Threat + Vulnerability D.Asset + Threat Answer: A QUESTION 568 Identify the virtualization level that creates a massive pool of storage areas for different virtual machines running on the hardware. A.Fabric virtualization B.Storage device virtualization C.Server virtualization D.File system virtualization Answer: B QUESTION 569 Steven is a Linux system administrator at an IT company. He wants to disable unnecessary services in the system, which can be exploited by the attackers. Which among the following is the correct syntax for disabling a service? A.$ sudo system-ctl disable [service] B.$ sudo systemctl disable [service] C.$ sudo system.ctl disable [service] D.$ sudo system ctl disable [service] Answer: B QUESTION 570 Simran is a network administrator at a start-up called Revolution. To ensure that neither party in the company can deny getting email notifications or any other communication, she mandates authentication before a connection establishment or message transfer occurs. What fundamental attribute of network defense is she enforcing? A.Integrity B.Non-repudiation C.Confidentiality D.Authentication Answer: B 2021 Latest Braindump2go 312-38 PDF and 312-38 VCE Dumps Free Share:
Comparison of straight and corner sofas: which ones are better?
​Manufacturers usually offer sofas with straight and angled configurations. Many people may find their design quite understandable: straight models are stretched out in a straight line, and the second ones are placed in the corner of the room. But both varieties have many types, and it is difficult to choose the most suitable one. When thinking about whether to buy a straight or corner sofa, you need to consider its features, advantages and disadvantages. Direct models A straight sofa is stretched out in a line. Their main factor is the depth of the seat, which depends on whether there is a cot forming a sleeping place. In accordance with this, they can be equipped with a built-in folding bed (sofa bed) or without it. Models with clamshells often perform the function of a bed. When choosing such a product, you need to first determine its location, because when unfolded, it takes up quite a lot of space. This type of sofa is easy to turn into a comfortable bed, so there is no need to buy a regular bed. If it is to be used as a permanent sleeping place, it must have reliable sliding mechanisms. Furniture without a built-in clamshell is a compact solution compared to folding sofas. They are raised off the floor on their legs. The back of such a sofa is removed from its edge by almost 60 cm, which is on average equal to the length of the hip. These sofas are appropriate in the home living room and in offices. Also, straight models can be divided into two types, depending on where the sleeping area is located relative to the backrest: with a longitudinal berth; the sleeping place is perpendicular. Usually, the second option is characterized by a shorter length than the first. Sofas with a longitudinal sleeping area are made without cross seams. Interesting: How to Clean Velvet Sofa Methods? Corner services Sofas with a corner configuration in size can be compact, designed for three people, and for spacious rooms. The first type of corner sofas has a triple seat in the shape of the letter "G", and its protrusion is formed by an elongated couch. If such a small corner version is used for sleeping, then it must be equipped with a "dolphin" mechanism (all the pillows on the seat are involved in the transformation of the product into a sleeping place). Corner sofas for large spaces are full-fledged seating complexes made from parts of a modular system. You can find models for seats 3+3, 3+4 and more. Some sofas have such significant dimensions that their seats are curved twice, for example, in the shape of the letters P and S. They can have transformation functions and a sleeping place. These products are perfect for compact apartments, studio apartments, where you need to properly use the space. The corner of sofas of this type is formed using the "canape" design (standard or reduced version), as well as by means of a pedestal and attaching a chair module. Corner types can have identical sides or different lengths. U-shaped models are also available. Due to their practicality, modular corner sofas are the most popular. They are divided into two types: assembled from independent parts; with a strong connection of elements. Angular models that are rigidly connected will not be able to change frequently. If necessary, such a piece of furniture is disassembled and assembled in a different way, changing the location of the short and long parts. Sofas from independent sections allow you to change their design, type of placement and functional features more than once a day because their blocks are not connected to each other. But when choosing such a solution, you need to remember about its features: A sofa made from unrelated parts will cost more since it requires a lot of upholstery material, which determines the cost of the product.; Options with independent elements are usually chosen for large rooms, but they are not suitable for miniature rooms. In a room with a small area, it will be inconvenient to move modules, which will take up useful meters. Choosing a corner sofa Furniture design is very important, but you need to keep in mind its practical features. The fewer elements it contains in its frame, the better and more reliable it is in operation. It is desirable that the frame is made of beech, walnut or ash. Softwood products are more affordable, but not as durable and durable. The upholstery can be chosen according to the owner's taste. But wear-resistant materials will be preferred, for example, flock, natural or artificial leather, chenille, jacquard. The role of the filler together with the springs is usually played by a layer of felt, foam rubber or batting. In the case of foam rubber, the density should be at least 35 units. What's better for the kitchen? Often there are sofas in the kitchens. When choosing this piece of furniture, you need to take into account the size of the room, the style of the kitchen and personal preferences. A kitchen sofa will make the room cosier, and if it is equipped with a sleeping place, the kitchen will gain more functionality. Sliding kitchen sofas can have an angular or straight design. Straight allows you to place a maximum of three people on the sofa, and after unfolding, it moves forward. This type of furniture requires a spacious kitchen. Corner sofas are appropriate in small kitchens. They are characterized by a larger number of seats and the ability to unfold. At the same time, it increases in width, creating a comfortable sleeping place. Corner kitchen models can be made of different materials, such as leather, velour, suede, or jacquard. If it is used in the kitchen as a sleeping place, then synthetic materials are preferred: velour, flock, chenille. When choosing between a corner sofa and a straight sofa, you should take into account the layout of the room, its area and future purpose. Straight and angular options with the possibility of transformation will be the best solution for small rooms, a living room combined with a bedroom or dining room.
[October-2021]New Braindump2go AZ-400 PDF and VCE Dumps[Q214-Q223]
QUESTION 214 You have an Azure DevOps organization that contains a project named Project1. You need to create a published wiki in Project1. What should you do first? A.Modify the Storage settings of Project1. B.In Project1, create an Azure DevOps pipeline. C.In Project1, create an Azure DevOps repository. D.Modify the Team configuration settings of Project1. Answer: C QUESTION 215 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure DevOps organization named Contoso and an Azure subscription. The subscription contains an Azure virtual machine scale set named VMSS1 that is configured for autoscaling. You have a project in Azure DevOps named Project1. Project1 is used to build a web app named App1 and deploy App1 to VMSS1. You need to ensure that an email alert is generated whenever VMSS1 scales in or out. Solution: From Azure DevOps, configure the Service hooks settings for Project1. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 216 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure DevOps organization named Contoso and an Azure subscription. The subscription contains an Azure virtual machine scale set named VMSS1 that is configured for autoscaling. You have a project in Azure DevOps named Project1. Project1 is used to build a web app named App1 and deploy App1 to VMSS1. Solution: From Azure Monitor, configure the autoscale settings. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 217 You have an Azure solution that contains a build pipeline in Azure Pipelines. You experience intermittent delays before the build pipeline starts. You need to reduce the time it takes to start the build pipeline. What should you do? A.Split the build pipeline into multiple stages. B.Purchase an additional parallel job. C.Create a new agent pool. D.Enable self-hosted build agents. Answer: C QUESTION 218 You are evaluating the use of code review assignments in GitHub. Which two requirements can be met by using code review assignments' Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point A.Automatically choose and assign reviewers based on a list of available personnel B.Automatically choose and assign reviewers based on who has the most completed review requests. C.Ensure that each team member reviews an equal number of pull requests during any 30-day period. D.Automatically choose and assign reviewers based on who received the least recent review requests. Answer: AC QUESTION 219 You haw an Azure subscription that contains multiple Azure services. You need to send an SMS alert when scheduled maintenance is planned for the Azure services. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.Create an Azure Service Health alert. B.Enable Azure Security Center. C.Create and configure an action group D.Create and configure an Azure Monitor alert rule Answer: AD QUESTION 220 You have a project m Azure DevOps that has a release pipeline. You need to integrate work item tracking and an Agile project management system to meet the following requirements: - Ensure that developers can track whether their commits are deployed to production. - Report the deployment status. - Minimize integration effort. Which system should you use? A.Trello B.Jira C.Basecamp D.Asana Answer: B QUESTION 221 You have several Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) accounts. You need to ensure that users use multi-factor authentication (MFA) to access Azure apps from untrusted networks. What should you configure in Azure AD? A.access reviews B.managed identities C.entitlement management D.conditional access Answer: D QUESTION 222 You configure Azure Application Insights and the shared service plan tier for a web app. You enable Smart Detection. You confirm that standard metrics are visible in the logs, but when you test a failure, you do not receive a Smart Detection notification What prevents the Smart Detection notification from being sent? A.You must restart the web app before Smart Detection is enabled. B.Smart Detection uses the first 24 hours to establish the normal behavior of the web app. C.You must enable the Snapshot Debugger for the web app. D.The web app is configured to use the shared service plan tier. Answer: B QUESTION 223 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure DevOps organization named Contoso and an Azure subscription. The subscription contains an Azure virtual machine scale set named VMSS1 that is configured for autoscaling. You have a project in Azure DevOps named Project1. Project1 is used to build a web app named App1 and deploy App1 to VMSS1. You need to ensure that an email alert is generated whenever VMSS1 scales in or out. Solution: From Azure DevOps, configure the Notifications settings for Project1. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B 2021 Latest Braindump2go AZ-400 PDF and AZ-400 VCE Dumps Free Share: