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Planning of pharmacovigilance on the basis of the norms
The entire pharmacovigilance plan rotates the security completions of the cure. The plan is developed solely after a discussion with the regulators during thing progress. The technique can be a free record. In any case, it should have the exemplification of the whole undertaking. Meds with no bugs regularly go through an ordinary pharmacovigilance plan which ought to be satisfactory for post-support achievement checking with an additional exercises. Additional exercises are proposed to address concerns like anticipated perils or missing information for things with saw threats. The length of this report depends on the sudden new development and designing endeavor of the prescription. This pharmacovigilance plan expects a fundamental part in the development of the drug and should be reinforced constantly. This game-plan is revived as colossal information on the flourishing of the arrangement is found, and accomplishments are refined. Progression of the Pharmacovigilance Plan reliant on the Norms. Take Clinical Research Training. The improvement of a pharmacovigilance plan is the most central plan. This system is changed continually reliant on the achievement closes and the issues identified with a particular arrangement. Routine pharmacovigilance procedures are created on a wide degree of arrangements. These are done freed from the additional structures which are a piece of the pharmacovigilance plan. This consistently plan for the most part joins techniques and systems that guarantee that information essentially the total of the evaluated unfriendly outcomes uncovered are from the start amassed and later organized in an astounding manner. Routine frameworks in like manner join the improvement of reports for the authoritative arranged specialists. Uncommon achievement update reports (PSUR) and empowered hostile medicine reaction reports (ADR) are drawn up. Another sincere piece of this routine pharmacovigilant system intertwines the strong seeing of the achievement profile of the drug. This consolidates signal assertion, issue assessment, reviving of the inscriptions, and contact with the readied specialists. The local guidelines pick the rest. A philosophy for the achievement issues is acquainted and kept up subject with the objective of the proposed improvement of the cure. These consolidate rehearses proposed by the authentic medicine, the pondering these proposed rehearses achieved by the prescription, achievement profile of the arrangement, checking of the drug reliant on the security profile, the created accomplishments for appraisal and uncovering of the drug. An overall course of action for the arrangement joining the exercises for all individual security issues ought to be presented. It is practicable that accomplishments for the completion of the examinations and various types of appraisal and the solace of prospering results ought to be connected with the Pharmacovigilance Training. While in transit to achieving these accomplishments, the focal issues to be checked on include: •Results of the advancing or proposed security contemplates are to be open. •The responsiveness to the drug would have showed up at a particular level of depiction subject to the opposing effects of concern or settling a particular issue. The regulatory accomplishments are everything seen as agreed with these accomplishments. These are unequivocally used to change or revive the Pharmacovigilance plan.
Importance of Pharmacovigilance
Pharmacovigilance is a broad term to depict drug security. It depicts the assortment, thriving, evaluation, avoiding, and checking of the vindictive impacts of drugs and medications. It is a participation driven and real locale inside the medicine business. It is the security assessment of advertised solutions surveyed under objective or steady states of clinical use in immense associations. Pharmacovigilance plans to perceive dim flourishing issues as ahead of schedule as could be viewed as run of the mill. It additionally expects to perceive an option in the rehash of these pernicious impacts, assessing dangers, keeping patients away from being affected senselessly. Pharmacovigilance has developed essentially recently, and its significance in fact and in a general sense in the clinical thought industry has been seen. To forestall or chop down liberal perils, Pharmacovigilance is crucial. The high certainty of the threatening impacts of the prescriptions has expanded both mortality and grimness in offices and neighborhood. These ADRs are known as one of the gigantic purposes behind death any place on the world. To improve the medication and make it less risky to the customer, Pharmacovigilance acknowledges a gigantic part. Clinical Research Course. The information and viewpoint on the medication experts towards the security profile of the drugs anticipate a fundamental part in the patient's flourishing. These experts should be a ton of aware of the undesirable impacts of the medication and the rehash of event. They are also obligated for uncovering new or dull outcomes of the medication. Clinical advantages experts should comparably be a ton of careful that no solution is thoroughly alright for use. They should rehearse with a specific extent of shortcoming. Pharmacovigilance gives the confirmation that will stimulate the overall people to treat their sicknesses. It moreover gives confirmation about solution related issues like treatment disappointment, drug affiliations, wrong use, and so forth, making it clearly as far as possible inside a prescription affiliation. Making, maker, and market any medication/drug, the accumulating affiliation ought to cling to outrageous standards and rules. These guidelines and rules essentially base on the security of the client. It then again bases on the advantages secured by an enduring customer. Here's the clarification Pharmacovigilance is so basic for a drug affiliation: 1. Consumer thriving and consistent watchfulness: Pharmacovigilance guarantees the security of the patient and their general achievement all through the general improvement cycle, even after the medication is in a split second open keeping watch. Pharmacovigilance connects with the medications to be continually checked for new results and results or for any new information to be amassed and offered a clarification to the various experts dependably. Maybe than most divisions of a medicine affiliation, the pharmacovigilance district exclusively spins around the security of the patient. 2. Power and authority: The senior individual from the medication security pack has the circumstance to suggest the fulfillment of the improvement of a specific solution. This thought shuts the progress illustration of the medication. These senior managers also can do effectively the opposite. They can embrace the concerned specialists to take that specific drug off the market as well. This can be a quick result of boundless results or a gigantic heap of missing data about the solution. It can in like way be an aftereffect of another piece of data that can actuate this choice. 3. Moving forward: The remedy thriving profile stays with the drug moving. This recommends that it will deal with a cross-significant explanation. This piece of the affiliation holds by a wide margin the greater part of the power and can without an entirely wonderful stretch lead to new orchestrated strategies also as medication probabilities. Pharmacovigilance keeps up different sorts of general flourishing projects that give solid data to the able appraisal of the equilibrium of dangers and advantages. It empowers the got, level headed, and more4 appropriate use of different remedies. It further adds to the assessment of advantages, proficiency, hurt, results, and so on, also. Pharmacovigilance advances direction and clinical arranging by giving pharmacovigilance training, pharmacovigilance courses, clinical research training, clinical research courses, etc. Pharmacovigilance has been made cautious and made by the World Health Organization (WHO) with the standard suspicion for reacting to the sensational necessities to the subtleties of the security profile of prescriptions. With the current making advancement and quick improvement of medications, Pharmacovigilance has a huge load of significance and need. What is the conceivable fate of Pharmacovigilance? The predetermination of Pharmacovigilance taking into account its making significance in the area of recuperating. With the headway of Pharmacovigilance considering the creating in general individuals, augmentation in the measure of ADRs, and rising enthusiastic sicknesses, the importance of Pharmacovigilance is at the culmination. Innovative advances expect a central part later on for drug security. Cloud-based plans, robotized robots, man-made insight, and so on, are being brought into the universe of solutions. The extended advancement makes Pharmacovigilance Training even more astounding in the impression of precision and the security profile. The blend of patient-conveyed datasets held by clinical advantages trained professionals and the most recent AI models offer medicine affiliations the opportunity to make new snippets of data at a speed and scale that as of not long ago has not been conceivable. These experiences relax up not exclusively to the adequacy of the medication yet also to the individual satisfaction markers that can improve the medication.
(April-2021)Braindump2go 300-425 PDF and 300-425 VCE Dumps(Q181-Q201)
QUESTION 81 An engineer is trying to determine the most cost-effective way to deploy high availability for a campus enterprise wireless network that currently leverages three wireless LAN controllers. Which architecture should the engineer deploy? A.N+1 solution without SSO B.N+1 with SSO C.N+N solution without SSO D.N+N with SSO Answer: B QUESTION 82 During a post deployment site survey, issues are found with non-Wi-Fi interference. What should the engineer use to identify the source of the interference? A.Cisco Spectrum Expert B.wireless intrusion prevention C.Wireshark D.network analysis module Answer: A QUESTION 83 Refer to the exhibit. An enterprise is using wireless as the main network connectivity for clients. To ensure service continuity, a pair of controllers will be installed in a datacenter. An engineer is designing SSO on the pair of controllers. What needs to be included m the design to avoid having the secondary controller go into maintenance mode? A.The keep alive timer is too low which causes synchronization problems. B.The connection between the redundancy ports is missing. C.The redundancy port must be the same subnet as the redundancy mgmt. D.The Global Configuration of SSO is set to Disabled on the controller. Answer: A QUESTION 84 Campus users report a poor wireless experience. An engineer investigating the issue notices that in high-density areas the wireless clients fail to switch the AP to which are automatically connected. This sticky client behavior is causing roaming issues. Which feature must the engineer configure? A.load balancing and band select B.optimized roaming C.Layer 3 roaming D.Layer 2 roaming Answer: B QUESTION 85 An engineer changed me TPC Power Threshold for a wireless deployment from the default value to 65 dBm. The engineer conducts a new post deployment survey to validate the results. What is the expected outcome? A.increased received sensitivity B.decreased channel overlap C.decreased client signal strength D.increased cell size Answer: C QUESTION 86 A customer is looking for a network design with Cisco Hyperlocation using AP4800 for location tracking via a custom mobile app issues appeared in me past with refresh rates for location updates. What needs to be implemented to meet these requirements? A.Cisco FastLocate technology B.redundant CMX and fetch location in round-robin fashion C.device Bluetooth via the app D.Cisco CMX SDK in the location app Answer: A QUESTION 87 What is the attenuation value of a human body on a wireless signal? A.3 dB B.4 dB C.6 dB D.12 dB Answer: B QUESTION 88 Why is 802.11a connectivity reduced in an X-ray room? A.X-rays impact the 802.11a UNll-2 channels Vial cause access points to dynamically change channels. B.X-ray rooms exhibit increased signal attenuation C.X-rays within these rooms cause multipath issues. D.X-rays create significant non-Wi-Fi interference on the 802.11a band Answer: B QUESTION 89 A medium-sized hospitality company with 50 hotels needs to upgrade the existing WLAN m each hotel to 802Hn. During the site surveys tor each hotel, what needs to be taken into consideration when determining the locations for each AP? A.Selecting AP locations where power is already available B.Selecting APs that can be hidden in ceiling panels lo provide a secure and clean aesthetic look. C.Selecting locations that make visual assessment of the AP operation easy D.Selecting locations that are easily accessed so maintenance and upgrades can be performed quickly Answer: A QUESTION 90 A network engineer needs to create a wireless design to bridge wired IP surveillance cameras in the parking lot through a mesh AP. To which operate mode of the AP should the cameras connect? A.RAP B.local C.FlexConnect D.MAP Answer: D QUESTION 91 An engineer at a global enterprise organization must ensure that a mesh deployment has the highest number of channels available to the backhaul regardless of region deployed. Which design meets this requirement? A.one controller per country code B.redundant controllers in the least restrictive regulatory domain C.redundant controllers in the most restrictive regulatory domain D.one controller per continent Answer: C QUESTION 92 An enterprise is using two wireless controllers to support the wireless network. The data center is located in the head office. Each controller has a corporate WLAN configured with the name CoprNET390595865WLC-1 and Copr-NET6837l638WLC-2. The APs are installed using a round-robin approach to load balance the traffic. What should be changed on the configuration to optimize roaming? A.Move all access points to one controller and use the other as N-1 HA. B.Use the same WLAN name for the corporate network on both controllers C.Move the controllers to an external data center with higher internet speeds D.Place the access points per floor on the same controller. Answer: D QUESTION 93 An engineer is conducting a Layer 2 site survey. Which type of client must the engineer match to the survey? A.best client available B.phone client C.normal client D.worst client available Answer: C QUESTION 94 A wireless engineer is using Ekahau Site Survey to validate that an existing wireless network is operating as expected. Which type of survey should be used to identify the end-to-end network performance? A.spectrum analysis B.passive C.GPS assisted D.active ping Answer: A QUESTION 95 The wireless learn must configure a new voice SSID for optimized roaming across multiple WLCs with Cisco 8821 phones. Which two WLC settings accomplish this goal? (Choose two) A.Configure mobility groups between WLCs B.Use Cisco Centralized Key Management for authentication. C.Configure AP groups between WLCs. D.Configure AVC profiles on the SSlD E.Use AVC to lag traffic voice traffic as best effort. Answer: BE QUESTION 96 An engineer is designing an outdoor mesh network to cover several sports fields. The core of the network is located In a building at the entrance of a sports complex. Which type of antenna should be used with the RAP for backhaul connectivity? A.5 GHz. 8-dBi omnidirectional antenna B.2.4 GHz. 8-dBi patch antenna C.2 4 GHz. 14-dBi omnidirectional antenna D.5 GHz. 14-dBi patch antenna Answer: A QUESTION 97 A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP with high gam antennas tor industrial, maintenance, or storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey devices and surveys several Aps. Which strategy will reduce the negative impact of the design? A.Resurvey and adjust the design B.Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design C.Deploy the specified access points per area type D.increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points Answer: A QUESTION 98 An engineer is designing a wireless network to support nigh availability. The network will need to support the total number of APs and client SSO. Live services should continue to work without interruption during the failover. Which two requirements need to be incorporated into the design to meet these needs? (Choose two) A.redundant vWLC B.controller high availability pair with one of the WLCs having a valid AP count license C.10 sec RTT D.back-to-back direct connection between WLCs E.WLC 7.5 code or more recent Answer: BD QUESTION 99 Refer to the exhibit. During a post Mesh deployment survey, an engineer notices that frame cessions occur when MAP-1 and MAP-3 talk to RAP-2. Which type of issue does the engineer need to address in the design? A.co-channel interference B.backhaul latency C.hidden node D.exposed node Answer: A QUESTION 100 An enterprise is using the wireless network as the main network connection for corporate users and guests. To ensure wireless network availability, two standalone controllers are installed in the head office APs are connected to the controllers using a round-robin approach to load balance the traffic. After a power cut, the wireless clients disconnect while roaming. An engineer tried to ping from the controller but fails. Which protocol needs to be allowed between the networks that the controllers are Installed? A.IP Protocol 67 B.IP Protocol 77 C.IP Protocol 87 D.IP Protocol 97 Answer: D QUESTION 101 An engineer must perform a pre deployment site survey. For a new building in a high-security area. The design must provide a primary signal RSSI of -65 dBM for the clients. Which two requirements complete this design? (Choose two) A.site access B.AP model C.WLC model D.HVAC access E.number of clients Answer: BE 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-425 PDF and 300-425 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/116pgsScHZoMX_x10f-SEvzUZ9ec2kgWd?usp=sharing
(April-2021)Braindump2go PT0-001 PDF and PT0-001 VCE Dumps(Q29-Q49)
QUESTION 230 At the information gathering stage, a penetration tester is trying to passively identify the technology running on a client's website. Which of the following approached should the penetration tester take? A.Run a spider scan in Burp Suite. B.Use web aggregators such as BuiltWith and Netcraft C.Run a web scraper and pull the website's content. D.Use Nmap to fingerprint the website's technology. Answer: A QUESTION 231 Which of the following BEST protects against a rainbow table attack? A.Increased password complexity B.Symmetric encryption C.Cryptographic salting D.Hardened OS configurations Answer: A QUESTION 232 A penetration tester is assessing the security of a web form for a client and enters ";id" in one of the fields. The penetration tester observes the following response: Based on the response, which of the following vulnerabilities exists? A.SQL injection B.Session hijacking C.Command injection D.XSS/XSRF Answer: C QUESTION 233 A penetration tester is connected to a client's local network and wants to passively identify cleartext protocols and potentially sensitive data being communicated across the network. Which of the following is the BEST approach to take? A.Run a network vulnerability scan. B.Run a stress test. C.Run an MITM attack. D.Run a port scan. Answer: C QUESTION 234 A penetration tester directly connects to an internal network. Which of the following exploits would work BEST for quick lateral movement within an internal network? A.Crack password hashes in /etc/shadow for network authentication. B.Launch dictionary attacks on RDP. C.Conduct a whaling campaign. D.Poison LLMNR and NBNS requests. Answer: A QUESTION 235 A penetration tester runs the following on a machine: Which of the following will be returned? A.1 B.3 C.5 D.6 Answer: B QUESTION 236 A penetration tester discovers an anonymous FTP server that is sharing the C:\drive. Which of the following is the BEST exploit? A.Place a batch script in the startup folder for all users. B.Change a service binary location path to point to the tester's own payload. C.Escalate the tester's privileges to SYSTEM using the at.exe command. D.Download, modify, and reupload a compromised registry to obtain code execution. Answer: B QUESTION 237 Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive type of penetration test on a network? A.Black box B.White box C.Gray box D.Red team E.Architecture review Answer: A QUESTION 238 An attacker performed a MITM attack against a mobile application. The attacker is attempting to manipulate the application's network traffic via a proxy tool. The attacker only sees limited traffic as cleartext. The application log files indicate secure SSL/TLS connections are failing. Which of the following is MOST likely preventing proxying of all traffic? A.Misconfigured routes B.Certificate pinning C.Strong cipher suites D.Closed ports Answer: B QUESTION 239 A company decides to remediate issues identified from a third-party penetration test done to its infrastructure. Management should instruct the IT team to: A.execute the hot fixes immediately to all vulnerabilities found. B.execute the hot fixes immediately to some vulnerabilities. C.execute the hot fixes during the routine quarterly patching. D.evaluate the vulnerabilities found and execute the hot fixes. Answer: D QUESTION 240 A penetration tester successfully exploits a system, receiving a reverse shell. Which of the following is a Meterpreter command that is used to harvest locally stored credentials? A.background B.hashdump C.session D.getuid E.psexec Answer: B QUESTION 241 A penetration tester is testing a web application and is logged in as a lower-privileged user. The tester runs arbitrary JavaScript within an application, which sends an XMLHttpRequest, resulting in exploiting features to which only an administrator should have access. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the vulnerability? A.Implement authorization checks. B.Sanitize all the user input. C.Prevent directory traversal. D.Add client-side security controls Answer: A QUESTION 242 During the exploitation phase of a penetration test, a vulnerability is discovered that allows command execution on a Linux web server. A cursory review confirms the system access is only in a low-privilege user context: www-data. After reviewing, the following output from /etc/sudoers: Which of the following users should be targeted for privilege escalation? A.Only members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, ADMINS, jedwards, and operator can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. B.All users on the machine can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. C.Bfranks, emann, members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. D.Jedwards, operator, bfranks, emann, OPERATOR, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. Answer: A QUESTION 243 During an engagement, a consultant identifies a number of areas that need further investigation and require an extension of the engagement. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the engagement may not be able to continue? A.The consultant did not sign an NDA. B.The consultant was not provided with the appropriate testing tools. C.The company did not properly scope the project. D.The initial findings were not communicated to senior leadership. Answer: C QUESTION 244 A penetration tester has been hired to perform a penetration test for an organization. Which of the following is indicative of an error-based SQL injection attack? A.a=1 or 1–– B.1=1 or b–– C.1=1 or 2–– D.1=1 or a–– Answer: A QUESTION 245 When negotiating a penetration testing contract with a prospective client, which of the following disclaimers should be included in order to mitigate liability in case of a future breach of the client's systems? A.The proposed mitigations and remediations in the final report do not include a cost-benefit analysis. B.The NDA protects the consulting firm from future liabilities in the event of a breach. C.The assessment reviewed the cyber key terrain and most critical assets of the client's network. D.The penetration test is based on the state of the system and its configuration at the time of assessment. Answer: D QUESTION 246 A tester was able to retrieve domain users' hashes. Which of the following tools can be used to uncover the users' passwords? (Choose two.) A.Hydra B.Mimikatz C.Hashcat D.John the Ripper E.PSExec F.Nessus Answer: BE QUESTION 247 A penetration tester is attempting to open a socket in a bash script but receives errors when running it. The current state of the relevant line in the script is as follows: Which of the following lines of code would correct the issue upon substitution? A.open 0<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}:${PORT} B.exec 0</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} C.exec 0</dev/tcp/$[HOST]:$[PORT] D.exec 3<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} E.open 3</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} F.open 3</dev/tcp/$[HOST]/$[PORT] Answer: C QUESTION 248 A vulnerability scan report shows what appears to be evidence of a memory disclosure vulnerability on one of the target hosts. The administrator claims the system is patched and the evidence is a false positive. Which of the following is the BEST method for a tester to confirm the vulnerability exists? A.Manually run publicly available exploit code. B.Confirm via evidence of the updated version number. C.Run the vulnerability scanner again. D.Perform dynamic analysis on the vulnerable service. Answer: C QUESTION 249 A penetration tester has gained physical access to a facility and connected directly into the internal network. The penetration tester now wants to pivot into the server VLAN. Which of the following would accomplish this? A.Spoofing a printer's MAC address B.Abusing DTP negotiation C.Performing LLMNR poisoning D.Conducting an STP attack Answer: D QUESTION 250 During an engagement an unsecure direct object reference vulnerability was discovered that allows the extraction of highly sensitive PII. The tester is required to extract and then exfil the information from a web application with identifiers 1 through 1000 inclusive. When running the following script, an error is encountered: Which of the following lines of code is causing the problem? A.url = "https://www.comptia.org?id=" B.req = requests.get(url) C.if req.status ==200: D.url += i Answer: D QUESTION 251 A security team is switching firewall vendors. The director of security wants to scope a penetration test to satisfy requirements to perform the test after major architectural changes. Which of the following is the BEST way to approach the project? A.Design a penetration test approach, focusing on publicly released firewall DoS vulnerabilities. B.Review the firewall configuration, followed by a targeted attack by a read team. C.Perform a discovery scan to identify changes in the network. D.Focus on an objective-based approach to assess network assets with a red team. Answer: D QUESTION 252 A penetration tester has identified a directory traversal vulnerability. Which of the following payloads could have helped the penetration tester identify this vulnerability? A.‘or ‘folder’ like ‘file’; –– B.|| is /tmp/ C.“><script>document.location=/root/</script> D.&& dir C:/ E.../../../../../../../. Answer: E QUESTION 253 An individual has been hired by an organization after passing a background check. The individual has been passing information to a competitor over a period of time. Which of the following classifications BEST describes the individual? A.APT B.Insider threat C.Script kiddie D.Hacktivist Answer: B QUESTION 254 A senior employee received a suspicious email from another executive requesting an urgent wire transfer. Which of the following types of attacks is likely occurring? A.Spear phishing B.Business email compromise C.Vishing D.Whaling Answer: A 2021 Latest Braindump2go PT0-001 PDF and PT0-001 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1upxI-JhgoyePRzSCJXgkSKrKo53vlXSw?usp=sharing
پاسخگوی خودکار پیامکی
پاسخگوی خودکار پیامکی به شما امکان می دهند پیام های متنی فوری و خودکار را پس از دریافت پیام کوتاه از کلید واژه خاصی برای افراد ارسال کنید. پاسخگوی خودکار پیامکی یا منشی پیامکی ابزاری عالی برای ارائه اطلاعات درخواستی به افرادی هستند که پاسخ  فوری می خواهند. بیایید بررسی کنیم پاسخ دهندگان پیام های متنی چیست، چرا برای کسب و کار شما مهم هستند و نحوه راه اندازی آنها چیست. پاسخگوی خودکار پیامکی چیست؟ پاسخ دهندگان خودکار یا منشی پیامکی، پیام هایی هستند که پس از پیوستن مشترک به لیست شما به طور خودکار ارسال می شوند. اگر قبلاً یک کمپین ایمیل قطره ای راه اندازی کرده اید ، پاسخ دهندگان خودکار بسیار شبیه به هم هستند. پس از انتخاب مشترک خود، می توانید یک پاسخگوی خودکار به پیامک ایجاد کنید تا در فواصل زمانی مشخص ارسال شود. این به این معنی است که می توانید یک ساعت، یک .روز، یک هفته یا حتی یک ماه پس از ارسال پیام کوتاه به مشتریان خود، به لیست شما بپیوندند چرا باید از پاسخگوی خودکار به پیامک استفاده کنم؟ برداشت های اول مهم است. منشی پیامکی راهی آسان برای اطمینان از خوشامدگویی به جدیدترین موارد اضافه شده در لیست شما هستند. بعلاوه ، با خودکار کردن مدیریت سرنخ، میزان کار شما و تیم بازاریابی خود را کاهش می دهید. اگر می خواهید مشترکان را به مشتری تبدیل کنید ، تعامل منظم با مخاطبان ضروری است. مزایای پاسخگوی خودکار به پیامک 1. با خودکارسازی بازاریابی در وقت صرفه جویی کنید 2. با ارسال تخفیف و تبلیغات ، مشترکان را به مشتری تبدیل کنید 3. بدون تلاش و وقت اضافی روابط را ایجاد و برقرار کنید 4. هرگز فراموش نکنید که به مشتری جدید پیام دهید 5. از برقراری ارتباط مداوم با مخاطبان خود اطمینان حاصل کنید منشی پیامکی برای چه مواردی می توانند استفاده شوند؟ بسیاری از روش های آسان و راحت برای استفاده از منشی پیامکی وجود دارد. به هم پیوند دادن چندین پاسخ دهنده خودکار (به عنوان مثال با فاصله یک هفته) برای ایجاد یک برنامه تبلیغاتی آسان است که هر کسی در هر زمان می تواند به آن بپیوندد. در اینجا فقط چند روش مفید برای استفاده از پاسخگوی خودکار پیامکی وجود دارد: پیام های خوش آمد خود را به مشتریان جدید معرفی کنید و با ارسال یک سری متغیر از پیام های خوشامد ، نام تجاری خود را در ذهن خود نگه دارید. نکات و ترفندهای هفتگی با یک سری نکات و ترفندها تخصص صنعت خود را به نمایش بگذارید. مشترکان جدید بدون توجه به زمان ثبت نام ، با نکته شماره 1 شروع می کنند. سری کوپن های مبهم مشتریان خود را با کوپن ها و تبلیغات فریبنده فزاینده ای بازگردانید! یادآوری آسان آیا لازم است به بیماران یا مشتریان یادآوری کنید که در 6 ماه برنامه ریزی مجدد داشته باشند؟ اکنون فقط یک متن ساده است که می توانید تنظیم کنید و فراموش کنید. چه کسی پاسخ های خودکار من را دریافت می کند؟ می توانید برای هر لیست مخاطب خود یک سری پاسخ دهنده خودکار تنظیم کنید. مهم نیست که یک کاربر از کجا بپیوندد ، آنها به دنباله اضافه می شوند. خواه مخاطبی را از طریق وارد کردن ، از فرم وب یا حتی با استفاده از ویژگی همگام سازی Mailchimp ما اضافه کنید ، آنها به طور خودکار شروع به دریافت پیام می کنند بدون اینکه کار اضافی انجام شود. چرا همکاران اس ام اس را برای پاسخگوی خودکار پیامکی خود انتخاب کنیم پنل اس ام اس متنوعی وجود دارد که پاسخگوی خودکار به پیامک ارائه می دهند. حقیقت این است که این یک ویژگی اساسی است. مسئله این است که بسیاری از پنل پیامکی ها فاقد ویژگی های انعطاف پذیر لازم برای واقعاً برجسته بودن هستند. صد دلیل مختلف وجود دارد که hamkaransms بهترین گزینه شما است. در اینجا سه دلیل بزرگ وجود دارد که عبارتند از: راه اندازی آسان است وقت خود را برای درک سایر خدمات پیچیده بازاریابی پیامکی تلف نکنید. تنظیم پاسخگوی خودکار متن باید بسیار ساده باشد. در همکاران اس ام اس از زمانی که حساب خود را ایجاد می کنید تا راه اندازی منشی پیامکی فقط چند دقیقه طول می کشد. گزینه های انعطاف پذیر چه نیاز به ارسال پاسخ های کوتاه و ساده خودکار دارید یا پاسخ های بزرگتر با تصاویر. خواه فقط یک پیام متنی باشد یا مجموعه ای از تعاملات در طول زمان ، همکاران اس ام اس  ویژگی هایی را دارد که می توانید کارهای مورد نیاز خود را انجام دهد. بدون هزینه برای پیامک های ورودی هزینه ذاتی وجود دارد که تمام سامانه های پیامکی برای ارسال و دریافت پیامک متقبل می شوند. بیشترین هزینه هر دو را از شما می گیرند. همکاران اس ام اس این کار را نمی کند و فقط هزینه پیام های که ارسال نموده اید را دریافت می کند. نتیجه گیری با استفاده از HamkaranSMS می توانید به سرعت و به آسانی پاسخگوی اتوماتیک پیامکی تنظیم کنید. منشی پیامکی یا پاسخگوی خودکار به پیامک به مشتریان شما این امکان را می دهد تا کلمه کلیدی را به شماره ای اس ام اس کنند و سیستم به صورت خودکار با پیام کوتاه پاسخ دهد. ابزاری عالی برای ارائه اطلاعات درخواستی به افرادی هستند که پاسخ فوری می خواهند. منبع: پاسخگوی خودکار پیامکی
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WHO’s International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP)
People from more than one country and one medical or research institution can participate in a clinical trial. Different countries have different clinical research requirements, so one clinical trial may be enlisted on more than one registry. That clinical trial shall appear on the database of more than one registry. However, data on various clinical trial registries varies. . Take Clinical Research Course from the Best. The International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP) is a global initiative by WHO, responsible for linking clinical trial registers worldwide for ensuring a single point of access and the apparent identification of clinical trials. This was done with the view that participants, patients, families, and patient groups have easy access to information. The ICTRP was established with the aim to make information about all clinical trials that involve humans publicly available. It also aims to achieve the following: ● Improving the comprehensiveness, completeness, and accuracy of registered clinical trials data; ● Communicating and raising awareness of the need for registering clinical trials; ● Ensuring the accessibility of registered data; ● Building capacity for clinical trial registration; ● Encouraging the utilization of registered data; and ● Ensuring the sustainability of the ICTRP. . Take the Best Training in Clinical Research. The Secretariat of the ICTRP is housed by the World Health Organization in its headquarters in Geneva and is responsible for the following: ● Publishes the ICTRP search portal: A database and website that makes it possible for every person in the world to search for free data provided by clinical trial registries around the world. The data is updated weekly and meets WHO’s criteria for content and quality. ● Supports the WHO registry network: A forum created to establish and work together for the purpose of clinical trial registries. It aims to establish best practices for clinical trial registration and the collection of high-quality, accurate data. ● Supports different countries and regions: It aims to establish clinical trial registries or policies on trial registration.
Last-Minute Gifting Ideas
Brainstorming for some special gifts for your loved ones can be difficult at times especially if it's very last minute! There come many occasions where we are bound to gift our loved ones or our partners but we run out of ideas or there is so little time left. This article might turn out to be useful for you and give some inspiration to pick out some last-minute gifts for your loved ones. 1) Perfume I know it is a very common gift but it is a no-brainer and actually a very useful gift. You’ve got to make sure that it is a fragrance which is suitable for all occasions and mostly everywhere they go. The fragrance should at least last 8 to 10 hours. You can select from the wide range of perfume choices from this amazing alternative to eBay. 2) Personalized Cuff Links Giving something personalized adds a little personal touch to it which makes the gift all the more meaningful. There are various websites that design personalized cuff links with initials on them. I understand that getting something personalized is not possible last minute but you can always look for other designs across the web too. 3) Electronic Gadgets Gifting gadgets is a really cool option as well. If you specifically know what the other person wants then you can go for that as well. If they are into PlayStation or video games, you can gift them a PS5 if you have your budget. It would be a really cool gifting option. 4) Airpods or Headphones If your loved ones are really into music or love to have some music while working out or doing some chores, this would be the best gift for them. You would find various color options and models, make sure you choose the best one! 5) Kindle If your loved ones are into reading books a lot, this would be the perfect option for them. Most of the time, book lovers get short of space to store their books. In such cases, Kindle comes much handy. It takes minimal space and stores a maximum number of books. 6) Coffee Machine There are so many people who are immense coffee lovers. But it gets difficult to spend money each time they need to drink coffee or spend so much time beating it to get it ready. In such cases, gift them a coffee machine and they would be the happiest people on this planet. 7) Chocolates and Flowers Now I know it is a very easy-peasy option but for the last minute, it can do wonders and you can never go wrong with it. Because ultimately it is the thought process and feelings behind it that counts, isn’t it? So pick out their favorite chocolates and a super elegant flower arrangement and you’re good to go. 8) Watch I personally really like watches. If your loved one is a watch person or if they don’t have any watches yet, you can help them build a watch collection. So, this is a great idea too. You can find a wide variety of watches online as well as from your nearby shops. These were some last-minute options that would never go wrong. I really hope I came out as a help to you in finding a perfect gift for your loved ones last minute. So, get some amazing gifts for them!
(April-2021)Braindump2go DAS-C01 PDF and DAS-C01 VCE Dumps(Q88-Q113)
QUESTION 88 An online gaming company is using an Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics SQL application with a Kinesis data stream as its source. The source sends three non-null fields to the application: player_id, score, and us_5_digit_zip_code. A data analyst has a .csv mapping file that maps a small number of us_5_digit_zip_code values to a territory code. The data analyst needs to include the territory code, if one exists, as an additional output of the Kinesis Data Analytics application. How should the data analyst meet this requirement while minimizing costs? A.Store the contents of the mapping file in an Amazon DynamoDB table. Preprocess the records as they arrive in the Kinesis Data Analytics application with an AWS Lambda function that fetches the mapping and supplements each record to include the territory code, if one exists. Change the SQL query in the application to include the new field in the SELECT statement. B.Store the mapping file in an Amazon S3 bucket and configure the reference data column headers for the .csv file in the Kinesis Data Analytics application. Change the SQL query in the application to include a join to the file's S3 Amazon Resource Name (ARN), and add the territory code field to the SELECT columns. C.Store the mapping file in an Amazon S3 bucket and configure it as a reference data source for the Kinesis Data Analytics application. Change the SQL query in the application to include a join to the reference table and add the territory code field to the SELECT columns. D.Store the contents of the mapping file in an Amazon DynamoDB table. Change the Kinesis Data Analytics application to send its output to an AWS Lambda function that fetches the mapping and supplements each record to include the territory code, if one exists. Forward the record from the Lambda function to the original application destination. Answer: C QUESTION 89 A company has collected more than 100 TB of log files in the last 24 months. The files are stored as raw text in a dedicated Amazon S3 bucket. Each object has a key of the form year-month- day_log_HHmmss.txt where HHmmss represents the time the log file was initially created. A table was created in Amazon Athena that points to the S3 bucket. One-time queries are run against a subset of columns in the table several times an hour. A data analyst must make changes to reduce the cost of running these queries. Management wants a solution with minimal maintenance overhead. Which combination of steps should the data analyst take to meet these requirements? (Choose three.) A.Convert the log files to Apace Avro format. B.Add a key prefix of the form date=year-month-day/ to the S3 objects to partition the data. C.Convert the log files to Apache Parquet format. D.Add a key prefix of the form year-month-day/ to the S3 objects to partition the data. E.Drop and recreate the table with the PARTITIONED BY clause. Run the ALTER TABLE ADD PARTITION statement. F.Drop and recreate the table with the PARTITIONED BY clause. Run the MSCK REPAIR TABLE statement. Answer: BCF QUESTION 90 A company has an application that ingests streaming data. The company needs to analyze this stream over a 5-minute timeframe to evaluate the stream for anomalies with Random Cut Forest (RCF) and summarize the current count of status codes. The source and summarized data should be persisted for future use. Which approach would enable the desired outcome while keeping data persistence costs low? A.Ingest the data stream with Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. Have an AWS Lambda consumer evaluate the stream, collect the number status codes, and evaluate the data against a previously trained RCF model. Persist the source and results as a time series to Amazon DynamoDB. B.Ingest the data stream with Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. Have a Kinesis Data Analytics application evaluate the stream over a 5-minute window using the RCF function and summarize the count of status codes. Persist the source and results to Amazon S3 through output delivery to Kinesis Data Firehouse. C.Ingest the data stream with Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose with a delivery frequency of 1 minute or 1 MB in Amazon S3. Ensure Amazon S3 triggers an event to invoke an AWS Lambda consumer that evaluates the batch data, collects the number status codes, and evaluates the data against a previously trained RCF model. Persist the source and results as a time series to Amazon DynamoDB. D.Ingest the data stream with Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose with a delivery frequency of 5 minutes or 1 MB into Amazon S3. Have a Kinesis Data Analytics application evaluate the stream over a 1-minute window using the RCF function and summarize the count of status codes. Persist the results to Amazon S3 through a Kinesis Data Analytics output to an AWS Lambda integration. Answer: B QUESTION 91 An online retailer needs to deploy a product sales reporting solution. The source data is exported from an external online transaction processing (OLTP) system for reporting. Roll-up data is calculated each day for the previous day's activities. The reporting system has the following requirements: - Have the daily roll-up data readily available for 1 year. - After 1 year, archive the daily roll-up data for occasional but immediate access. - The source data exports stored in the reporting system must be retained for 5 years. Query access will be needed only for re-evaluation, which may occur within the first 90 days. Which combination of actions will meet these requirements while keeping storage costs to a minimum? (Choose two.) A.Store the source data initially in the Amazon S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard-IA) storage class. Apply a lifecycle configuration that changes the storage class to Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive 90 days after creation, and then deletes the data 5 years after creation. B.Store the source data initially in the Amazon S3 Glacier storage class. Apply a lifecycle configuration that changes the storage class from Amazon S3 Glacier to Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive 90 days after creation, and then deletes the data 5 years after creation. C.Store the daily roll-up data initially in the Amazon S3 Standard storage class. Apply a lifecycle configuration that changes the storage class to Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive 1 year after data creation. D.Store the daily roll-up data initially in the Amazon S3 Standard storage class. Apply a lifecycle configuration that changes the storage class to Amazon S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard- IA) 1 year after data creation. E.Store the daily roll-up data initially in the Amazon S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard-IA) storage class. Apply a lifecycle configuration that changes the storage class to Amazon S3 Glacier 1 year after data creation. Answer: BE QUESTION 92 A company needs to store objects containing log data in JSON format. The objects are generated by eight applications running in AWS. Six of the applications generate a total of 500 KiB of data per second, and two of the applications can generate up to 2 MiB of data per second. A data engineer wants to implement a scalable solution to capture and store usage data in an Amazon S3 bucket. The usage data objects need to be reformatted, converted to .csv format, and then compressed before they are stored in Amazon S3. The company requires the solution to include the least custom code possible and has authorized the data engineer to request a service quota increase if needed. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Configure an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream for each application. Write AWS Lambda functions to read log data objects from the stream for each application. Have the function perform reformatting and .csv conversion. Enable compression on all the delivery streams. B.Configure an Amazon Kinesis data stream with one shard per application. Write an AWS Lambda function to read usage data objects from the shards. Have the function perform .csv conversion, reformatting, and compression of the data. Have the function store the output in Amazon S3. C.Configure an Amazon Kinesis data stream for each application. Write an AWS Lambda function to read usage data objects from the stream for each application. Have the function perform .csv conversion, reformatting, and compression of the data. Have the function store the output in Amazon S3. D.Store usage data objects in an Amazon DynamoDB table. Configure a DynamoDB stream to copy the objects to an S3 bucket. Configure an AWS Lambda function to be triggered when objects are written to the S3 bucket. Have the function convert the objects into .csv format. Answer: B QUESTION 93 A data analytics specialist is building an automated ETL ingestion pipeline using AWS Glue to ingest compressed files that have been uploaded to an Amazon S3 bucket. The ingestion pipeline should support incremental data processing. Which AWS Glue feature should the data analytics specialist use to meet this requirement? A.Workflows B.Triggers C.Job bookmarks D.Classifiers Answer: B QUESTION 94 A telecommunications company is looking for an anomaly-detection solution to identify fraudulent calls. The company currently uses Amazon Kinesis to stream voice call records in a JSON format from its on- premises database to Amazon S3. The existing dataset contains voice call records with 200 columns. To detect fraudulent calls, the solution would need to look at 5 of these columns only. The company is interested in a cost-effective solution using AWS that requires minimal effort and experience in anomaly-detection algorithms. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Use an AWS Glue job to transform the data from JSON to Apache Parquet. Use AWS Glue crawlers to discover the schema and build the AWS Glue Data Catalog. Use Amazon Athena to create a table with a subset of columns. Use Amazon QuickSight to visualize the data and then use Amazon QuickSight machine learning-powered anomaly detection. B.Use Kinesis Data Firehose to detect anomalies on a data stream from Kinesis by running SQL queries, which compute an anomaly score for all calls and store the output in Amazon RDS. Use Amazon Athena to build a dataset and Amazon QuickSight to visualize the results. C.Use an AWS Glue job to transform the data from JSON to Apache Parquet. Use AWS Glue crawlers to discover the schema and build the AWS Glue Data Catalog. Use Amazon SageMaker to build an anomaly detection model that can detect fraudulent calls by ingesting data from Amazon S3. D.Use Kinesis Data Analytics to detect anomalies on a data stream from Kinesis by running SQL queries, which compute an anomaly score for all calls. Connect Amazon QuickSight to Kinesis Data Analytics to visualize the anomaly scores. Answer: A QUESTION 95 An online retailer is rebuilding its inventory management system and inventory reordering system to automatically reorder products by using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. The inventory management system uses the Kinesis Producer Library (KPL) to publish data to a stream. The inventory reordering system uses the Kinesis Client Library (KCL) to consume data from the stream. The stream has been configured to scale as needed. Just before production deployment, the retailer discovers that the inventory reordering system is receiving duplicated data. Which factors could be causing the duplicated data? (Choose two.) A.The producer has a network-related timeout. B.The stream's value for the IteratorAgeMilliseconds metric is too high. C.There was a change in the number of shards, record processors, or both. D.The AggregationEnabled configuration property was set to true. E.The max_records configuration property was set to a number that is too high. Answer: BD QUESTION 96 A large retailer has successfully migrated to an Amazon S3 data lake architecture. The company's marketing team is using Amazon Redshift and Amazon QuickSight to analyze data, and derive and visualize insights. To ensure the marketing team has the most up-to-date actionable information, a data analyst implements nightly refreshes of Amazon Redshift using terabytes of updates from the previous day. After the first nightly refresh, users report that half of the most popular dashboards that had been running correctly before the refresh are now running much slower. Amazon CloudWatch does not show any alerts. What is the MOST likely cause for the performance degradation? A.The dashboards are suffering from inefficient SQL queries. B.The cluster is undersized for the queries being run by the dashboards. C.The nightly data refreshes are causing a lingering transaction that cannot be automatically closed by Amazon Redshift due to ongoing user workloads. D.The nightly data refreshes left the dashboard tables in need of a vacuum operation that could not be automatically performed by Amazon Redshift due to ongoing user workloads. Answer: B QUESTION 97 A marketing company is storing its campaign response data in Amazon S3. A consistent set of sources has generated the data for each campaign. The data is saved into Amazon S3 as .csv files. A business analyst will use Amazon Athena to analyze each campaign's data. The company needs the cost of ongoing data analysis with Athena to be minimized. Which combination of actions should a data analytics specialist take to meet these requirements? (Choose two.) A.Convert the .csv files to Apache Parquet. B.Convert the .csv files to Apache Avro. C.Partition the data by campaign. D.Partition the data by source. E.Compress the .csv files. Answer: BC QUESTION 98 An online retail company is migrating its reporting system to AWS. The company's legacy system runs data processing on online transactions using a complex series of nested Apache Hive queries. Transactional data is exported from the online system to the reporting system several times a day. Schemas in the files are stable between updates. A data analyst wants to quickly migrate the data processing to AWS, so any code changes should be minimized. To keep storage costs low, the data analyst decides to store the data in Amazon S3. It is vital that the data from the reports and associated analytics is completely up to date based on the data in Amazon S3. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage the Hive metadata. Create an AWS Glue crawler over Amazon S3 that runs when data is refreshed to ensure that data changes are updated. Create an Amazon EMR cluster and use the metadata in the AWS Glue Data Catalog to run Hive processing queries in Amazon EMR. B.Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage the Hive metadata. Create an Amazon EMR cluster with consistent view enabled. Run emrfs sync before each analytics step to ensure data changes are updated. Create an EMR cluster and use the metadata in the AWS Glue Data Catalog to run Hive processing queries in Amazon EMR. C.Create an Amazon Athena table with CREATE TABLE AS SELECT (CTAS) to ensure data is refreshed from underlying queries against the raw dataset. Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage the Hive metadata over the CTAS table. Create an Amazon EMR cluster and use the metadata in the AWS Glue Data Catalog to run Hive processing queries in Amazon EMR. D.Use an S3 Select query to ensure that the data is properly updated. Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage the Hive metadata over the S3 Select table. Create an Amazon EMR cluster and use the metadata in the AWS Glue Data Catalog to run Hive processing queries in Amazon EMR. Answer: A QUESTION 99 A media company is using Amazon QuickSight dashboards to visualize its national sales data. The dashboard is using a dataset with these fields: ID, date, time_zone, city, state, country, longitude, latitude, sales_volume, and number_of_items. To modify ongoing campaigns, the company wants an interactive and intuitive visualization of which states across the country recorded a significantly lower sales volume compared to the national average. Which addition to the company's QuickSight dashboard will meet this requirement? A.A geospatial color-coded chart of sales volume data across the country. B.A pivot table of sales volume data summed up at the state level. C.A drill-down layer for state-level sales volume data. D.A drill through to other dashboards containing state-level sales volume data. Answer: B QUESTION 100 A company hosts an on-premises PostgreSQL database that contains historical data. An internal legacy application uses the database for read-only activities. The company's business team wants to move the data to a data lake in Amazon S3 as soon as possible and enrich the data for analytics. The company has set up an AWS Direct Connect connection between its VPC and its on-premises network. A data analytics specialist must design a solution that achieves the business team's goals with the least operational overhead. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Upload the data from the on-premises PostgreSQL database to Amazon S3 by using a customized batch upload process. Use the AWS Glue crawler to catalog the data in Amazon S3. Use an AWS Glue job to enrich and store the result in a separate S3 bucket in Apache Parquet format. Use Amazon Athena to query the data. B.Create an Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL database and use AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) to migrate the data into Amazon RDS. Use AWS Data Pipeline to copy and enrich the data from the Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL table and move the data to Amazon S3. Use Amazon Athena to query the data. C.Configure an AWS Glue crawler to use a JDBC connection to catalog the data in the on-premises database. Use an AWS Glue job to enrich the data and save the result to Amazon S3 in Apache Parquet format. Create an Amazon Redshift cluster and use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to query the data. D.Configure an AWS Glue crawler to use a JDBC connection to catalog the data in the on-premises database. Use an AWS Glue job to enrich the data and save the result to Amazon S3 in Apache Parquet format. Use Amazon Athena to query the data. Answer: B QUESTION 101 A medical company has a system with sensor devices that read metrics and send them in real time to an Amazon Kinesis data stream. The Kinesis data stream has multiple shards. The company needs to calculate the average value of a numeric metric every second and set an alarm for whenever the value is above one threshold or below another threshold. The alarm must be sent to Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) in less than 30 seconds. Which architecture meets these requirements? A.Use an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream to read the data from the Kinesis data stream with an AWS Lambda transformation function that calculates the average per second and sends the alarm to Amazon SNS. B.Use an AWS Lambda function to read from the Kinesis data stream to calculate the average per second and sent the alarm to Amazon SNS. C.Use an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose deliver stream to read the data from the Kinesis data stream and store it on Amazon S3. Have Amazon S3 trigger an AWS Lambda function that calculates the average per second and sends the alarm to Amazon SNS. D.Use an Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics application to read from the Kinesis data stream and calculate the average per second. Send the results to an AWS Lambda function that sends the alarm to Amazon SNS. Answer: C QUESTION 102 An IoT company wants to release a new device that will collect data to track sleep overnight on an intelligent mattress. Sensors will send data that will be uploaded to an Amazon S3 bucket. About 2 MB of data is generated each night for each bed. Data must be processed and summarized for each user, and the results need to be available as soon as possible. Part of the process consists of time windowing and other functions. Based on tests with a Python script, every run will require about 1 GB of memory and will complete within a couple of minutes. Which solution will run the script in the MOST cost-effective way? A.AWS Lambda with a Python script B.AWS Glue with a Scala job C.Amazon EMR with an Apache Spark script D.AWS Glue with a PySpark job Answer: A QUESTION 103 A company wants to provide its data analysts with uninterrupted access to the data in its Amazon Redshift cluster. All data is streamed to an Amazon S3 bucket with Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose. An AWS Glue job that is scheduled to run every 5 minutes issues a COPY command to move the data into Amazon Redshift. The amount of data delivered is uneven throughout then day, and cluster utilization is high during certain periods. The COPY command usually completes within a couple of seconds. However, when load spike occurs, locks can exist and data can be missed. Currently, the AWS Glue job is configured to run without retries, with timeout at 5 minutes and concurrency at 1. How should a data analytics specialist configure the AWS Glue job to optimize fault tolerance and improve data availability in the Amazon Redshift cluster? A.Increase the number of retries. Decrease the timeout value. Increase the job concurrency. B.Keep the number of retries at 0. Decrease the timeout value. Increase the job concurrency. C.Keep the number of retries at 0. Decrease the timeout value. Keep the job concurrency at 1. D.Keep the number of retries at 0. Increase the timeout value. Keep the job concurrency at 1. Answer: B QUESTION 104 A retail company leverages Amazon Athena for ad-hoc queries against an AWS Glue Data Catalog. The data analytics team manages the data catalog and data access for the company. The data analytics team wants to separate queries and manage the cost of running those queries by different workloads and teams. Ideally, the data analysts want to group the queries run by different users within a team, store the query results in individual Amazon S3 buckets specific to each team, and enforce cost constraints on the queries run against the Data Catalog. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Create IAM groups and resource tags for each team within the company. Set up IAM policies that control user access and actions on the Data Catalog resources. B.Create Athena resource groups for each team within the company and assign users to these groups. Add S3 bucket names and other query configurations to the properties list for the resource groups. C.Create Athena workgroups for each team within the company. Set up IAM workgroup policies that control user access and actions on the workgroup resources. D.Create Athena query groups for each team within the company and assign users to the groups. Answer: A QUESTION 105 A manufacturing company uses Amazon S3 to store its data. The company wants to use AWS Lake Formation to provide granular-level security on those data assets. The data is in Apache Parquet format. The company has set a deadline for a consultant to build a data lake. How should the consultant create the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements? A.Run Lake Formation blueprints to move the data to Lake Formation. Once Lake Formation has the data, apply permissions on Lake Formation. B.To create the data catalog, run an AWS Glue crawler on the existing Parquet data. Register the Amazon S3 path and then apply permissions through Lake Formation to provide granular-level security. C.Install Apache Ranger on an Amazon EC2 instance and integrate with Amazon EMR. Using Ranger policies, create role-based access control for the existing data assets in Amazon S3. D.Create multiple IAM roles for different users and groups. Assign IAM roles to different data assets in Amazon S3 to create table-based and column-based access controls. Answer: C QUESTION 106 A company has an application that uses the Amazon Kinesis Client Library (KCL) to read records from a Kinesis data stream. After a successful marketing campaign, the application experienced a significant increase in usage. As a result, a data analyst had to split some shards in the data stream. When the shards were split, the application started throwing an ExpiredIteratorExceptions error sporadically. What should the data analyst do to resolve this? A.Increase the number of threads that process the stream records. B.Increase the provisioned read capacity units assigned to the stream's Amazon DynamoDB table. C.Increase the provisioned write capacity units assigned to the stream's Amazon DynamoDB table. D.Decrease the provisioned write capacity units assigned to the stream's Amazon DynamoDB table. Answer: C QUESTION 107 A company is building a service to monitor fleets of vehicles. The company collects IoT data from a device in each vehicle and loads the data into Amazon Redshift in near-real time. Fleet owners upload .csv files containing vehicle reference data into Amazon S3 at different times throughout the day. A nightly process loads the vehicle reference data from Amazon S3 into Amazon Redshift. The company joins the IoT data from the device and the vehicle reference data to power reporting and dashboards. Fleet owners are frustrated by waiting a day for the dashboards to update. Which solution would provide the SHORTEST delay between uploading reference data to Amazon S3 and the change showing up in the owners' dashboards? A.Use S3 event notifications to trigger an AWS Lambda function to copy the vehicle reference data into Amazon Redshift immediately when the reference data is uploaded to Amazon S3. B.Create and schedule an AWS Glue Spark job to run every 5 minutes. The job inserts reference data into Amazon Redshift. C.Send reference data to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. Configure the Kinesis data stream to directly load the reference data into Amazon Redshift in real time. D.Send the reference data to an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream. Configure Kinesis with a buffer interval of 60 seconds and to directly load the data into Amazon Redshift. Answer: A QUESTION 108 A company is migrating from an on-premises Apache Hadoop cluster to an Amazon EMR cluster. The cluster runs only during business hours. Due to a company requirement to avoid intraday cluster failures, the EMR cluster must be highly available. When the cluster is terminated at the end of each business day, the data must persist. Which configurations would enable the EMR cluster to meet these requirements? (Choose three.) A.EMR File System (EMRFS) for storage B.Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS) for storage C.AWS Glue Data Catalog as the metastore for Apache Hive D.MySQL database on the master node as the metastore for Apache Hive E.Multiple master nodes in a single Availability Zone F.Multiple master nodes in multiple Availability Zones Answer: BCF QUESTION 109 A retail company wants to use Amazon QuickSight to generate dashboards for web and in-store sales. A group of 50 business intelligence professionals will develop and use the dashboards. Once ready, the dashboards will be shared with a group of 1,000 users. The sales data comes from different stores and is uploaded to Amazon S3 every 24 hours. The data is partitioned by year and month, and is stored in Apache Parquet format. The company is using the AWS Glue Data Catalog as its main data catalog and Amazon Athena for querying. The total size of the uncompressed data that the dashboards query from at any point is 200 GB. Which configuration will provide the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements? A.Load the data into an Amazon Redshift cluster by using the COPY command. Configure 50 author users and 1,000 reader users. Use QuickSight Enterprise edition. Configure an Amazon Redshift data source with a direct query option. B.Use QuickSight Standard edition. Configure 50 author users and 1,000 reader users. Configure an Athena data source with a direct query option. C.Use QuickSight Enterprise edition. Configure 50 author users and 1,000 reader users. Configure an Athena data source and import the data into SPICE. Automatically refresh every 24 hours. D.Use QuickSight Enterprise edition. Configure 1 administrator and 1,000 reader users. Configure an S3 data source and import the data into SPICE. Automatically refresh every 24 hours. Answer: C QUESTION 110 A central government organization is collecting events from various internal applications using Amazon Managed Streaming for Apache Kafka (Amazon MSK). The organization has configured a separate Kafka topic for each application to separate the data. For security reasons, the Kafka cluster has been configured to only allow TLS encrypted data and it encrypts the data at rest. A recent application update showed that one of the applications was configured incorrectly, resulting in writing data to a Kafka topic that belongs to another application. This resulted in multiple errors in the analytics pipeline as data from different applications appeared on the same topic. After this incident, the organization wants to prevent applications from writing to a topic different than the one they should write to. Which solution meets these requirements with the least amount of effort? A.Create a different Amazon EC2 security group for each application. Configure each security group to have access to a specific topic in the Amazon MSK cluster. Attach the security group to each application based on the topic that the applications should read and write to. B.Install Kafka Connect on each application instance and configure each Kafka Connect instance to write to a specific topic only. C.Use Kafka ACLs and configure read and write permissions for each topic. Use the distinguished name of the clients' TLS certificates as the principal of the ACL. D.Create a different Amazon EC2 security group for each application. Create an Amazon MSK cluster and Kafka topic for each application. Configure each security group to have access to the specific cluster. Answer: B QUESTION 111 A company wants to collect and process events data from different departments in near-real time. Before storing the data in Amazon S3, the company needs to clean the data by standardizing the format of the address and timestamp columns. The data varies in size based on the overall load at each particular point in time. A single data record can be 100 KB-10 MB. How should a data analytics specialist design the solution for data ingestion? A.Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. Configure a stream for the raw data. Use a Kinesis Agent to write data to the stream. Create an Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics application that reads data from the raw stream, cleanses it, and stores the output to Amazon S3. B.Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose. Configure a Firehose delivery stream with a preprocessing AWS Lambda function for data cleansing. Use a Kinesis Agent to write data to the delivery stream. Configure Kinesis Data Firehose to deliver the data to Amazon S3. C.Use Amazon Managed Streaming for Apache Kafka. Configure a topic for the raw data. Use a Kafka producer to write data to the topic. Create an application on Amazon EC2 that reads data from the topic by using the Apache Kafka consumer API, cleanses the data, and writes to Amazon S3. D.Use Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS). Configure an AWS Lambda function to read events from the SQS queue and upload the events to Amazon S3. Answer: B QUESTION 112 An operations team notices that a few AWS Glue jobs for a given ETL application are failing. The AWS Glue jobs read a large number of small JOSN files from an Amazon S3 bucket and write the data to a different S3 bucket in Apache Parquet format with no major transformations. Upon initial investigation, a data engineer notices the following error message in the History tab on the AWS Glue console: "Command Failed with Exit Code 1." Upon further investigation, the data engineer notices that the driver memory profile of the failed jobs crosses the safe threshold of 50% usage quickly and reaches 90?5% soon after. The average memory usage across all executors continues to be less than 4%. The data engineer also notices the following error while examining the related Amazon CloudWatch Logs. What should the data engineer do to solve the failure in the MOST cost-effective way? A.Change the worker type from Standard to G.2X. B.Modify the AWS Glue ETL code to use the `groupFiles': `inPartition' feature. C.Increase the fetch size setting by using AWS Glue dynamics frame. D.Modify maximum capacity to increase the total maximum data processing units (DPUs) used. Answer: D QUESTION 113 A transport company wants to track vehicular movements by capturing geolocation records. The records are 10 B in size and up to 10,000 records are captured each second. Data transmission delays of a few minutes are acceptable, considering unreliable network conditions. The transport company decided to use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to ingest the data. The company is looking for a reliable mechanism to send data to Kinesis Data Streams while maximizing the throughput efficiency of the Kinesis shards. Which solution will meet the company's requirements? A.Kinesis Agent B.Kinesis Producer Library (KPL) C.Kinesis Data Firehose D.Kinesis SDK Answer: B 2021 Latest Braindump2go DAS-C01 PDF and DAS-C01 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1WbSRm3ZlrRzjwyqX7auaqgEhLLzmD-2w?usp=sharing
(April-2021)Braindump2go 350-401 PDF and 350-401 VCE Dumps(Q409-Q433)
QUESTION 409 A customer has 20 stores located throughout a city. Each store has a single Cisco AP managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analytics for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements? A.angle of arrival B.presence C.hyperlocation D.trilateration Answer: D QUESTION 410 A customer has a pair of Cisco 5520 WLCs set up in an SSO cluster to manage all APs. Guest traffic is anchored to a Cisco 3504 WLC located in a DM2. Which action is needed to ensure that the EolP tunnel remains in an UP state in the event of failover on the SSO cluster? A.Use the mobility MAC when the mobility peer is configured B.Use the same mobility domain on all WLCs C.Enable default gateway reachability check D.Configure back-to-back connectivity on the RP ports Answer: B QUESTION 411 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured RSPAN to troubleshoot an issue between switchl and switch2. The switches are connected using interface GigabitEthernet 1/1. An external packet capture device is connected to swich2 interface GigabitEthernet1/2. Which two commands must be added to complete this configuration? (Choose two) A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: BD QUESTION 412 Refer to the exhibit. Which Python code snippet prints the descriptions of disabled interfaces only? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: B QUESTION 413 Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is achieved with this Python code? A.displays the output of the show command in an unformatted way B.displays the output of the show command in a formatted way C.connects to a Cisco device using Telnet and exports the routing table information D.connects to a Cisco device using SSH and exports the routing table information Answer: B QUESTION 414 Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server? A.disk B.operating system C.VM configuration file D.applications Answer: A QUESTION 415 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts. Which command set accomplishes this task? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: A QUESTION 416 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a script that appends the output of the show process cpu sorted command to a file. Which action completes the configuration? A.action 4.0 syslog command "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" B.action 4.0 cli command "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" C.action 4.0 ens-event "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" D.action 4.0 publish-event "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" Answer: B QUESTION 417 Refer to the exhibit. Which action completes the configuration to achieve a dynamic continuous mapped NAT for all users? A.Configure a match-host type NAT pool B.Reconfigure the pool to use the 192.168 1 0 address range C.Increase the NAT pool size to support 254 usable addresses D.Configure a one-to-one type NAT pool Answer: C QUESTION 418 Which function is handled by vManage in the Cisco SD-WAN fabric? A.Establishes BFD sessions to test liveliness of links and nodes B.Distributes policies that govern data forwarding C.Performs remote software upgrades for WAN Edge. vSmart and vBond D.Establishes IPsec tunnels with nodes. Answer: B QUESTION 419 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between Switch1 and Switch2 and notices the console message on Switch2. Based on the output, which action resolves this issue? A.Configure less member ports on Switch2. B.Configure the same port channel interface number on both switches C.Configure the same EtherChannel protocol on both switches D.Configure more member ports on Switch1. Answer: B QUESTION 420 How do cloud deployments differ from on-prem deployments? A.Cloud deployments require longer implementation times than on-premises deployments B.Cloud deployments are more customizable than on-premises deployments. C.Cloud deployments require less frequent upgrades than on-premises deployments. D.Cloud deployments have lower upfront costs than on-premises deployments. Answer: B QUESTION 421 Refer to the exhibit. Extended access-list 100 is configured on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 in an inbound direction, but it does not have the expected behavior of allowing only packets to or from 192 168 0.0/16. Which command set properly configures the access list? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: D QUESTION 422 An engineer is concerned with the deployment of a new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements? A.Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000 B.Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000 C.Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000 D.Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000 Answer: C QUESTION 423 What is a characteristic of a WLC that is in master controller mode? A.All new APs that join the WLAN are assigned to the master controller. B.The master controller is responsible for load balancing all connecting clients to other controllers. C.All wireless LAN controllers are managed by the master controller. D.Configuration on the master controller is executed on all wireless LAN controllers. Answer: A QUESTION 424 Refer to the exhibit. The connection between SW1 and SW2 is not operational. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.) A.configure switchport mode access on SW2 B.configure switchport nonegotiate on SW2 C.configure switchport mode trunk on SW2 D.configure switchport nonegotiate on SW1 E.configure switchport mode dynamic desirable on SW2 Answer: CE QUESTION 425 An engineer must create an EEM applet that sends a syslog message in the event a change happens in the network due to trouble with an OSPF process. Which action should the engineer use? A.action 1 syslog msg "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" B.action 1 syslog send "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" C.action 1 syslog pattern "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" D.action 1syslog write "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" Answer: C QUESTION 426 An engineer runs the sample code, and the terminal returns this output. Which change to the sample code corrects this issue? A.Change the JSON method from load() to loads(). B.Enclose null in the test_json string in double quotes C.Use a single set of double quotes and condense test_json to a single line D.Call the read() method explicitly on the test_json string Answer: D QUESTION 427 In a Cisco DNA Center Plug and Play environment, why would a device be labeled unclaimed? A.The device has not been assigned a workflow. B.The device could not be added to the fabric. C.The device had an error and could not be provisioned. D.The device is from a third-party vendor. Answer: A QUESTION 428 Which of the following statements regarding BFD are correct? (Select 2 choices.) A.BFD is supported by OSPF, EIGRP, BGP, and IS-IS. B.BFD detects link failures in less than one second. C.BFD can bypass a failed peer without relying on a routing protocol. D.BFD creates one session per routing protocol per interface. E.BFD is supported only on physical interfaces. F.BFD consumes more CPU resources than routing protocol timers do. Answer: AB QUESTION 429 An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows: Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two) A.The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than location C. B.Location D has the strongest RF signal strength. C.The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing. D.The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than location A E.The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than location B Answer: DE QUESTION 430 What is an advantage of using BFD? A.It local link failure at layer 1 and updates routing table B.It detects local link failure at layer 3 and updates routing protocols C.It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 3 problems. D.It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 2 problems. Answer: C QUESTION 431 Which three resources must the hypervisor make available to the virtual machines? (Choose three) A.memory B.bandwidth C.IP address D.processor E.storage F.secure access Answer: ABE QUESTION 432 What is the function of vBond in a Cisco SDWAN deployment? A.initiating connections with SD-WAN routers automatically B.pushing of configuration toward SD-WAN routers C.onboarding of SDWAN routers into the SD-WAN overlay D.gathering telemetry data from SD-WAN routers Answer: A QUESTION 433 Which three methods does Cisco DNA Center use to discover devices? (Choose three.) A.CDP B.SNMP C.LLDP D.Ping E.NETCONF F.specified range of IP addresses Answer: ACF 2021 Latest Braindump2go 350-401 PDF and 350-401 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1EIsykNTrKvqjDVs9JMySv052qbrCpe8V?usp=sharing
National Scholarship Portal
National Scholarships Portal is a one-stop solution through which various services starting from student application, application receipt, processing, sanction, and disbursal of various scholarships to Students are enabled It is mandatory for all those eligible students to apply both under (Post Matric Scholarship) & NSP (National Scholarship Portal) to avail of this scholarship. To be noted those students who have applied under NSP Govt of India are only eligible to apply under Post Matric Scholarship Govt of Karnataka. How can I qualify for Post Matric Scholarship? 1. To qualify for Statutory Sick Pay (Post Matric Scholarship) employees must: 2. give you the correct notice. 3. have done some work under their contract. 4. have been sick for 4 or more days in a row (including non-working days) - known as a 'period of incapacity for work' earn an average of at least £120 per week. 5. have an employment contract. Who are eligible for the national scholarship portal? stream from the respective Board of Examination in Class XII of 10+2 pattern or equivalent and pursuing regular courses (not correspondence or distance mode) in Colleges/Institutions recognized by All India Council of Technical Education, UGC Act, 1956, Medical Council of India, Dental Council of India and respective What is the amount of NSP scholarship? National Scholarship Porta Ministry/Department Parental Income Amount Variation Disabilities 2.5 lakh Course Group & Hosteller/Day Scholar Degree of Disability Higher Education 6.0 lakh (4.5 lakh non-creamy) NA Minority Affairs 2.0 lakh Hosteller/Day Scholar Labor 1.0 to 1.2 lakh Gender How can I apply for PM Modi scholarship? PMSS Renewal application form 2020. Step 1- Visit the Official Website of the Prime Minister Scholarship Scheme of the Central Sainik Board i.e. desw.gov.in. Step 2- On the Homepage, Click on the Option ” Apply Online” button. Step 3- After this, the Login Form page will be displayed on the screen. Objectives · Provide a common portal for various Scholarships schemes of Central and State Governments · Ensure timely disbursement of Scholarships to students · Create a transparent database of scholars · Application of Direct Benefit Transfer · Avoid duplication in processing · Harmonisation of different Scholarships schemes & norms What is PM Modi Scholarship 2020? Candidates can now apply for the Prime Minister Scholarship Scheme 2020 which was recently launched by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi to encourage higher technical and professional education for the wards and widows of Ex/ Serving Army/Navy or Air Force personnel How do you get a scholarship? Where to find and apply for college scholarships 1. Look at your hobbies in a new way. You may not think of your hobbies and interests as a way to help pay for school, but you should. ... 2. Register for Scholarship Search. ... 3. Meet with your school counselor and others. ... 4. Consider scholarships for minority students. Do you get to keep extra scholarship money? What happens to leftover scholarship dollars. If you earned scholarships and grants that amount to more than your total cost of attendance, your school may send you a refund. ... Remember, scholarship money can be used to pay for any education expenses deemed necessary by your school. What if my scholarship is more than tuition? If you receive a general scholarship or grant aid in excess of the cost of tuition, fees, and books, the excess amount is taxable. In addition, specific scholarships or grants (e.g., health insurance grants) that are directed toward expenses other than tuition, fees, and books are subject to taxation. How long does it take to receive scholarship money? The funds for the majority of scholarships are deposited into your nominated bank account approximately three weeks after the census date once enrolment has been confirmed (some bursaries may differ in payment timeframes or be paid in installments throughout the Semester). What is an entrance scholarship? Entrance scholarships are monetary awards given to students that demonstrate one or more of the following: academic excellence; leadership abilities; extra-curricular involvement and research proposals. How do I get a scholarship to McGill University? To apply, log in to Minerva: 1. Select the Financial Aid/Awards tab. 2. Click on the Financial Aid Menu. 3. Apply for McGill Financial Aid. 4. Apply to Work-Study. 5. Update your financial aid profile. 6. Submit your application. Does McGill offer scholarships to international students? The Scholarships and Student Aid Office administers need-based Financial Aid Programs for future and current undergraduates from Canada, the US, and abroad. Our programs offer loans and bursaries to students in need of supplemental financial assistance and to those who are experiencing financial hardship. How do international students apply to McGill? How to apply in 7 easy steps 1. Know your deadlines. Mark your calendar with these important dates regarding your application. 2. Decide what to study. ... 3. Make sure you're eligible. ... 4. Get ready to apply. ... 5. Submit your application. ... 6. Apply for an entrance scholarship. ... 7. Submit documents and keep in touch. Does UBC give scholarships to international students? International Major Entrance Scholarships (IMES) are awarded to exceptional international students entering undergraduate programs at UBC. Students receive their IMES when they enter their first year at UBC and the scholarships are renewable for up to three additional years of study. What is an entrance scholarship? Entrance scholarships are monetary awards given to students that demonstrate one or more of the following: academic excellence; leadership abilities; extra-curricular involvement and research proposals How much money will I get from POST MATRIC SCHOLARSHIP? Listed below are the benefits received by the candidates through the Post Matric Scholarship: The candidates pursuing M. Phil will receive INR 8,000 towards the end of research work. The candidates pursuing a Ph.D. degree will receive INR 10,000 towards the end of their research work. Also Read:- SATA Login Sinkoth :-)
MS-700 Prüfungsfragen deutsch Managing Microsoft Teams
Garantie von Examen MS-700 Prüfungsfragen deutsch Managing Microsoft Teams---www.it-pruefungen.de Es wird garantiert, dass Sie die gewüsnchte Prüfung mit unseren Microsoft MS-700 Prüfungsfragen erfolgreich bestehen können. Wenn Sie die Managing Microsoft Teams MS-700 Prüfung mit unserem Produkt nicht bestehen, erhalten Sie volle Rückerstattung von der Zahlungsgebühr mit dem Screenshot Ihres fehlgeschlagenen Ergebnisberichts innerhalb von DREI Monaten. Microsoft MS-700 Prüfungsfragen Prüfungsunterlagen it-pruefungen.ch Info zu dieser Prüfungsvorbereitung MS-700 Prüfungsnummer:MS-700 Prüfungsname:Managing Microsoft Teams Version:V19.99 Anzahl:292 Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen MS-700 Updateservice Sobald die Microsoft MS-700 Prüfungsfragen Managing Microsoft Teams vom Prüfungszentrum geändert werden, werden wir unsere MS-700 Prüfungsfragen rechtzeitig aktualisieren. Wenn Sie Microsoft MS-700 Prüfungsfragen auf unserer Website erwerben, erhalten Sie kostenloses Update innerhalb von einem Jahr ab Kaufdatum. Wenn Sie feststellen, dass die Anzahl der MS-700Prüfungsfragen abweicht, setzen Sie sich bitte mit uns in Verbindung, um eine aktuelle Version zu erhalten. MS-700Übungsfragen--www.it-pruefungen.de Bevor Sie sich entscheiden, die Microsoft MS-700 Prüfungsfragen bei uns zu kaufen, können Sie unseren kostenlosen Microsoft MS-700 Übungsfragen testen. Sie können Microsoft MS-700 Übungsfragen auf der vorherigen Seite mehrmals testen. Formate von MS-700 Fragen Unsere Microsoft MS-700 Prüfungsfragen werden in zwei Versionen angeboten: PDF und Software-Format. MS-700 Managing Microsoft Teams PDF vesion: Es ist einfach und bequem, alle Fragen und Antworten zu lesen. Sie können auch sie ausdrucken, um alle Fragen und Antworten zu studieren. www.it-pruefungen.de----MS-700 Software version: Sie können alle Fragen und Antworten in einer echten Prüfungsumgebung üben.
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Top Careers in IT Industry
Future and Careers in the Information Technology industry Today, Information Technology is a word known to almost every second person on the entire planet. From the starting of the 20th century, Information technology has been one of the most job-giving industries in the world. Learn Best Java Development Courses. The invention of the telephone by Mr. Graham Bells can be said as the start of the IT era. After it, computers and the internet were a milestone in the journey. During the pandemic, the Information Technology sector has gained its due importance as the world was seated at home still the world economy wheels were moving with help of the Information Technology industry. In the 21st century, Information technology is the biggest job maker industry of the world economy, and most of the revenue of the world economy is generated from Information technology and its affiliated industries and sectors. It is trending at top of the charts with the number one place in today’s world. Software Development has been the one of most important pillars of the IT industry. With the global wave of digitalization, it has become the most emerging career in the sector. It is providing highly payable jobs among all the industries. Here are The Key Jobs Trending in the Information Technology Sector. · Artificial Intelligence- Artificial Intelligence is the new age technology emerging rapidly in the world. Artificial intelligence is simply a machine developed into human-like intelligence but without human emotions. · Robotics Science – Robotics science is the branch of AI but in terms of technology and career, it also has equal importance in the IT industry. · Quantum Computing – Quantum Computing is hard to define in few words. It can be said that quantum computing is to make computers or develop them to do quantum calculations. · 5G- As communications have become a worldwide necessity for humans, even faster data transmission has more value than anything else, 5G is the key future Jobs in Information Technology. 5G technology will enable · Data Scientist Data Science has become an integral part of information Technology as all the systems are data-oriented. · Cloud Technology With the emerging data technology, Cloud technology will be the future of the Information Technology sector. · Software Testing · Cyber Security · Blockchain Developer · Computer Network Analyst · Software Developer · Project manager May it be Silicon Valley or Singapore or Bengaluru, all-important tech hubs and IT parks have become financial capitals in their respective countries as they are offering the best jobs in Information Technology Industry. Take Best Clinical Research Training for great on ground experience. Here is the list of high-paying jobs in the IT sector. · Data Scientist · Cloud Engineer · Web Developer · Software testing · System Engineer · Software Engineer In the Global Information technology industry, the Indian IT sector has continued to grow even after the pandemic and it had recorded 2.7 percent growth in the fiscal year. With the pandemic, concerns were made that the IT industry will saw job cuts and a decrease in productivity but after lockdown, the industry was first among other industries to recover and continue its growth.
(April-2021)Braindump2go 1Y0-231 PDF and 1Y0-231 VCE Dumps(Q21-Q41)
Question: 21 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to test a SAML authentication deployment to be used by internal users while accessing several externally hosted applications. During testing, the administrator notices that after successfully accessing any partner application, subsequent applications seem to launch without any explicit authentication request. Which statement is true regarding the behavior described above? A.It is expected if the Citrix ADC appliance is the common SAML identity provider (IdP) for all partners. B.It is expected due to SAML authentication successfully logging on to all internal applications. C.It is expected if all partner organizations use a common SAML service provider (SP). D.It indicates the SAML authentication has failed and the next available protocol was used. Answer: B Question: 22 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configured SNMP to send traps to an external SNMP system. When reviewing the messages, the administrator notices several entity UP and entity DOWN messages. To what are these messages related? A.Load-balancing virtual servers B.SSL certificate C.VLAN D.High availability nodes Answer: A Question: 23 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configured a new router that requires some incoming and outgoing traffic to take different paths through it. The administrator notices that this is failing and runs a network trace. After a short monitoring period, the administrator notices that the packets are still NOT getting to the new router from the Citrix ADC. Which mode should the administrator disable on the Citrix ADC to facilitate the successful routing of the packets? A.Layer3 B.USNIP C.MAC-based forwarding (MBF) D.USIP Answer: C Question: 24 A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Citrix ADC high availability (HA) pair with each Citrix ADC in a different subnet. What does the administrator need to do for HA to work in different subnets? A.Configure SyncVLAN B.Turn on Independent Network Configuration (INC) mode C.Turn on HA monitoring on all Interfaces D.Turn on fail-safe mode Answer: B Question: 25 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is managing a Citrix Gateway with a standard platform license and remote employees in the environment. The administrator wants to increase access by 3,000 users through the Citrix Gateway using VPN access. Which license should the administrator recommend purchasing? A.Citrix Gateway Express B.Citrix ADC Upgrade C.Citrix Gateway Universal D.Citrix ADC Burst Pack Answer: C Reference: https://support.citrix.com/content/dam/supportWS/kA560000000TNDvCAO/XD_and_XA_7.x_Licens ing_FAQ.pdf Question: 26 Which four steps should a Citrix Administrator take to configure SmartAccess? (Choose four.) A.Execute “set-BrokerSite -TrustRequestsSentToTheXMLServicePort $True” on any Citrix Delivery Controller in the Site. B.Enable Citrix Workspace control within StoreFront. C.Ensure that the SmartAccess filter name on the Delivery Group matches the name of the Citrix Gateway virtual server. D.Ensure that the SmartAccess filter name on the Delivery Group matches the name of the Citrix Gateway policy. E.Ensure that ICA Only is unchecked on the Citrix Gateway virtual server. F.Ensure that the Callback URL is defined in the Citrix Gateway configuration within Store Front. G.Ensure that ICA Only is checked on the Citrix Gateway virtual server. Answer: ACEF Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX227055 Question: 27 Which three Citrix Gateway elements can be configured by the Citrix Gateway Wizard? (Choose three.) A.The rewrite policy for HTTP to HTTPS redirect B.The responder policy for HTTP to HTTPS redirect C.The Citrix Gateway primary virtual server D.The bind SSL server certificate for the Citrix Gateway virtual server E.The primary and optional secondary authentications Answer: CDE Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/12-1/citrix-gateway-12.1.pdf (333) Question: 28 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configures an access control list (ACL) to block traffic from the IP address 10.102.29.5: add simpleacl rule1 DENY -srcIP 10.102.29.5 A week later, the administrator discovers that the ACL is no longer present on the Citrix ADC. What could be the reason for this? A.The administrator did NOT run the apply ACL command. B.The simple ACLs remain active for only 600 seconds. C.The simple ACLs remain active for only 60 seconds. D.The Citrix ADC has been restarted without saving the configurations. Answer: A Question: 29 While applying a new Citrix ADC device, a Citrix Administrator notices an issue with the time on the appliance. Which two steps can the administrator perform to automatically adjust the time? (Choose two.) A.Add an SNMP manager. B.Add an SNMP trap. C.Enable NTP synchronization. D.Add an NTP server. E.Configure an NTP monitor. Answer: CE Question: 30 A Citrix Network Engineer informs a Citrix Administrator that a data interface used by Citrix ADC SDX is being saturated. Which action could the administrator take to address this bandwidth concern? A.Add a second interface to each Citrix ADC VPX instance. B.Configure LACP on the SDX for management interface. C.Configure LACP on the SDX for the data interface. D.Configure a failover interface set on each Citrix ADC VPX instance. Answer: C Reference: https://training.citrix.com/public/Exam+Prep+Guides/241/1Y0- 241_Exam_Preparation_Guide_v01.pdf (22) Question: 31 Scenario: Users are attempting to logon through Citrix Gateway. They successfully pass the Endpoint Analysis (EPA) scan, but are NOT able to see the client choices at logon. What can a Citrix Administrator disable to allow users to see the client choices at logon? A.Quarantine groups B.Client choices globally C.Split tunneling D.nFactor authentication Answer: A Reference: https://www.carlstalhood.com/category/netscaler/netscaler-12/netscaler-gateway-12/ Question: 32 Scenario: To meet the security requirements of the organization, a Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Citrix Gateway virtual server with time-outs for user sessions triggered by the behaviors below: Inactivity for at least 15 minutes. No keyboard or mouse activity for at least 15 minutes Which set of time-out settings can the administrator configure to meet the requirements? A.Session time-out and client idle time-out set to 15 B.Session time-out and forced time-out set to 15 C.Client idle time-out and forced time-out set to 15 D.Client idle time-out and forced time-out set to 900 Answer: A Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/current-release/vpn-user-config/configure- pluginconnections/configure-time-out-settings.html Question: 33 A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Citrix Gateway virtual IP to allow incoming connections initiated exclusively from web browser sessions. Which advanced policy will accomplish this? A.REQ.HTTP.HEADER User-Agent NOTCONTAINS CitrixReceiver B.REQ.HTTP.HEADER User-Agent CONTAINS Chrome/78.0.3904.108 Safari/537.36 C.HTTP.REQ.HEADER(“User-Agent”).CONTAINS(“Mozilla”) D.HTTP.REQ.HEADER(“User-Agent”).CONTAINS(“CitrixReceiver”) Answer: A Reference: https://stalhood2.rssing.com/chan-58610415/all_p2.html Question: 34 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator currently manages a Citrix ADC environment for a growing retail company that may soon double its business volume. A Citrix ADC MPX 5901 is currently handling web and SSL transactions, but is close to full capacity. Due to the forecasted growth, the administrator needs to find a costeffective solution. Which cost-effective recommendation can the administrator provide to management to handle the growth? A.A license upgrade to a Citrix ADC MPX 5905 B.The addition of another MPX 5901 appliance C.A hardware upgrade to a Citrix ADC MPX 8905 D.A hardware upgrade to a Citrix ADC SDX 15020 Answer: A Question: 35 What can a Citrix Administrator configure to access RDP shortcuts? A.Split tunneling B.Bookmarks C.Next hop server D.Intranet applications Answer: B Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/current-release/rdp-proxy.html Question: 36 If a user device does NOT comply with a company’s security requirements, which type of policy can a Citrix Administrator apply to a Citrix Gateway virtual server to limit access to Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops resources? A.Session B.Responder C.Authorization D.Traffic Answer: A Reference:https://www.citrix.com/content/dam/citrix/en_us/documents/products- solutions/creating-andenforcing-advanced-access-policies-with-xenapp.pdf Question: 37 A Citrix Administrator has received a low disk space alert for /var on the Citrix ADC. Which type of files should the administrator archive to free up space? A.Syslog B.Nslog C.DNScache D.Nsconfig Answer: B Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX205014?recommended Question: 38 Which license type must be installed to configure Endpoint Analysis scans? A.Citrix Web App Firewall B.Universal C.Platform D.Burst pack Answer: B Reference:https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/current-release/citrix-gateway-licensing.html Question: 39 Which two features can a Citrix Administrator use to allow secure external access to a sensitive company web server that is load-balanced by the Citrix ADC? (Choose two.) A.Authentication, authorization, and auditing (AAA) B.Citrix Web App Firewall C.ICA proxy D.AppFlow E.Integrated caching Answer: AB Question: 40 Scenario: A Citrix ADC MPX is using one of four available 10G ports. A Citrix Administrator discovers a traffic bottleneck at the Citrix ADC. What can the administrator do to increase bandwidth on the Citrix ADC? A.Add two more 10G Citrix ADC ports to the network and configure VLAN. B.Add another 10G Citrix ADC port to the switch, and configure link aggregation control protocol (LACP). C.Purchase another Citrix ADC MPX appliance. D.Plug another 10G Citrix ADC port into the router. Answer: A Question: 41 Scenario: Client connections to certain virtual servers are abnormally high. A Citrix Administrator needs to be alerted whenever the connections pass a certain threshold. How can the administrator use Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to accomplish this? A.Configure TCP Insight on the Citrix ADM. B.Configure SMTP reporting on the Citrix ADM by adding the threshold and email address. C.Configure specific alerts for virtual servers using Citrix ADM. D.Configure network reporting on the Citrix ADM by setting the threshold and email address. Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go 1Y0-231 PDF and 1Y0-231 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1QWBrUQIP4dhwazi-gFooYmyX1m-iWAlw?usp=sharing