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Afinal, o que é VPN? Descubra como cuidar do seu acesso remoto!
Se você tem uma empresa precisa se preocupar com muitas tarefas, ações e responsabilidades, principalmente se possui um espaço físico para trabalhar com seus demais funcionários. As empresas com espaço físico precisam oferecer aos trabalhadores uma boa infraestrutura para que realizem todas suas tarefas e na grande maioria das vezes, isso engloba uma conexão com a internet que seja boa e segura. Ao oferecer computadores e uma rede de internet aos seus funcionários, você precisa se preocupar e ficar atento à segurança do tráfego de dados e informações, afinal arquivos e o histórico da empresa estão atrelados à isso. E é nessa parte que o VPN entra para que você consiga cuidar do acesso remoto. A seguir, veja mais detalhes e entenda perfeitamente o que é VPN e como ele pode ajudar a sua empresa. VPN: o que é? VPN, em nossa língua, significa Rede Virtual Privada e a sua função principal é garantir o tráfego de dados de uma maneira muito mais segura e ainda permitir o acesso remoto protegido à rede interna de uma empresa. Se trata de uma ferramenta de segurança muito mais do que essencial para as empresas, pois você estará protegendo dados e informações referentes ao seu negócio e evitar que suas informações sejam roubadas ou acessadas por hackers. A VPN ganhou mais buscas nesse período em que a grande maioria das empresas estão com seus funcionários trabalhando em home office. Cada funcionário, na sua casa, ao se conectar à internet, é identificado pelo número de IP e os seus dados podem trafegar abertamente, isso significa que podem ser acessados por qualquer pessoa. Tendo uma rede privada, que é oferecida pela VPN, o usuário, os dados e as informações ficam protegidos e não é identificado tão facilmente. A VPN pode ser usada para interligar mais de uma unidade da empresa e para fornecer a conexão remota aos funcionários, por isso ela se tornou tão popular e procurada nos últimos meses. VPN: como funciona? A VPN funciona de uma maneira muito fácil e prática. Vamos dar alguns exemplos para que você consiga entender melhor. Quando acessamos o navegador do nosso computador, na barra de pesquisa e ao lado do endereço eletrônico, há um pequeno cadeado. Esse cadeado é sinônimo de segurança e ele está presente na grande maioria dos sites, e ele informa que a sua navegação está segura e que o seu tráfego de dados só poderá ser acessado pelo servidor daquela empresa/loja/companhia/site. Quando você usa a VPN, essa segurança é expandida para toda a sua conexão. Isso porque, alguns sites não possuem esse cadeado e essa segurança, deixando seus dados expostos. Quando você usa a VPN, a segurança é garantida em todas as situações. Você fica disfarçado e usa um endereço de IP falso. No caso das empresas, ao usar VPN, você se conecta diretamente ao firewall da sua empresa e assim ninguém consegue identificar o seu verdadeiro IP e fica protegido. A sua conexão também é criptografada para que ninguém tenha acesso aos dados que são carregados e baixados. VPN: por que investir? Você já entendeu o que é uma VPN e como ela funciona, mas ainda não está convencido de porquê usá-la na sua empresa? Bem, nós explicamos o motivo. Acontece que quando a sua empresa permite o acesso externo dos seus funcionários, de suas casas por exemplo, há uma troca de dados e informações entre as redes que fica exposta e há grandes riscos de hackers obterem todo esse tráfego e acabarem roubando as informações. Alguns trabalhadores gostam de ir em diferentes lugares para trabalhar como em livrarias e cafeterias com rede Wi-Fi. Essa é uma rede pública que pode ser acessada por qualquer um facilmente e ter acesso a dados como usuário e senha. Com a VPN, todo o acesso de seus funcionários estará 100% seguro e protegido. VPN: conheça os tipos Existem vários tipos de VPN para você escolher e contratar para a sua empresa. Você poderá conhecer três opções a seguir: - VPN Site a Site: é uma VPN muito usada em operações corporativas principalmente no caso de empresas que possuem unidades no Brasil e no exterior ou até mesmo em diferentes estados, pois ajuda a conectar a rede da matriz com as filiais. As empresas podem usar também esse tipo de VPN para se conectar a outras empresas. Nada mais é do que uma ponte virtual que ajuda a reunir redes de diferentes lugares, mantendo uma conexão mais segura e privada; - VPN PPTP: é o tipo mais comum que pode ser usado tanto por empresas quanto por pessoas comuns. Não exige a compra nem mesmo a instalação de um hardware extra, para acessar basta informar o login e a senha de usuários aprovada. Através da conexão com a internet, você se conecta com a rede VPN e se torna um usuário remoto, que não pode ser encontrado. Entretanto, esse tipo de VPN não oferece criptografia; - VPN L2TP: esse é um modelo que se combina com outra ferramenta de segurança para fornecer mais privacidade ainda. Ele forma um túnel entre dois pontos de conexão L2TP e uma VPN, enquanto acontece também a criptografia dos dados. Contrate VPN da SS3 Tecnologia A SS3 Tecnologia é uma empresa focada em serviços de Tecnologia da Informação para corporações que desejam garantir mais segurança, privacidade, agilidade e praticidade no seu ambiente de trabalho e a todos os seus funcionários. Entre os diversos serviços de gestão de TI que são oferecidos pela SS3, está a opção de você obter uma VPN para sua empresa e para os seus funcionários. Eles fazem toda a instalação de acordo com as necessidades da sua empresa, além de explicarem como funciona e ajudarem na criação das senhas para todos os seus colaboradores. Se torna um sistema muito prático e é um investimento excelente para a empresa, que estará garantindo a sua proteção e evitando problemas com hackers ou com vazamento de informações importantes.
The Skills You Need to Learn Azure
Azure is recognized for being easy, but it’s supportive to recognize some allied technologies before you dive head-first into a new stage. Here are some abilities that will support you learn Azure: Cloud computing: You should know how core facilities like networking, databases, servers and software function in the cloud. Earlier experience working with extra cloud stage like Amazon Web Services (AWS) or Google Cloud will give you abilities that change to Azure. Microsoft knowledge: Knowledge using products like Office 365 and PowerShell will support you realize how these facilities integrate with Azure. Programming: If you design on developing applications in Azure, knowledge of open-source outlines like ASP.NET and programming languages like SQL Server, HTML5 and JavaScript will support you get onward. Training Courses Microsoft Azure Training in Noida, Classroom and actual instructor-led training courses deliver hands-on training to help you master Azure. You’ll advance practical knowledge making virtual networks, deploying databases and designing web apps in Azure. Azure training supports you grow critical cloud services that many businesses are greatly looking for out. Sharpen Your Azure Skills with Certifications Earning an Azure certification will support you advance professional acknowledgement for your Azure ability, rise your career chances and boost your earning possible. Microsoft offers certifications at the learner, associate and knowledgeable level for IT professionals interested in top and managing Azure solutions.
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(April-2021)Braindump2go SY0-601 PDF and SY0-601 VCE Dumps(Q307-Q314)
QUESTION 307 A systems analyst is responsible for generating a new digital forensics chain-of-custody form. Which of the following should the analyst Include in this documentation? (Select TWO). A.The order of volatility B.A checksum C.The location of the artifacts D.The vendor's name E.The date and time F.A warning banner Answer: AE QUESTION 308 A company is setting up a web server on the Internet that will utilize both encrypted and unencrypted web-browsing protocols. A security engineer runs a port scan against the server from the Internet and sees the following output: Which of the following steps would be best for the security engineer to take NEXT? A.Allow DNS access from the internet. B.Block SMTP access from the Internet C.Block HTTPS access from the Internet D.Block SSH access from the Internet. Answer: D QUESTION 309 Which of the following is the BEST reason to maintain a functional and effective asset management policy that aids in ensuring the security of an organization? A.To provide data to quantity risk based on the organization's systems. B.To keep all software and hardware fully patched for known vulnerabilities C.To only allow approved, organization-owned devices onto the business network D.To standardize by selecting one laptop model for all users in the organization Answer: B QUESTION 310 An attacker was easily able to log in to a company's security camera by performing a baste online search for a setup guide for that particular camera brand and model. Which of the following BEST describes the configurations the attacker exploited? A.Weak encryption B.Unsecure protocols C.Default settings D.Open permissions Answer: C QUESTION 311 A cloud administrator is configuring five compute instances under the same subnet in a VPC. Three instances are required to communicate with one another, and the other two must he logically isolated from all other instances in the VPC. Which of the following must the administrator configure to meet this requirement? A.One security group B.Two security groups C.Three security groups D.Five security groups Answer: B QUESTION 312 An analyst is trying to identify insecure services that are running on the internal network. After performing a port scan the analyst identifies that a server has some insecure services enabled on default ports. Which of the following BEST describes the services that are currently running and the secure alternatives for replacing them' (Select THREE) A.SFTP FTPS B.SNMPv2 SNMPv3 C.HTTP, HTTPS D.TFTP FTP E.SNMPv1, SNMPv2 F.Telnet SSH G.TLS, SSL H.POP, IMAP I.Login, rlogin Answer: BCF QUESTION 313 An attacker was easily able to log in to a company's security camera by performing a basic online search for a setup guide for that particular camera brand and model. Which of the following BEST describes the configurations the attacker exploited? A.Weak encryption B.Unsecure protocols C.Default settings D.Open permissions Answer: C QUESTION 314 A security architect at a large, multinational organization is concerned about the complexities and overhead of managing multiple encryption keys securely in a multicloud provider environment. The security architect is looking for a solution with reduced latency to allow the incorporation of the organization's existing keys and to maintain consistent, centralized control and management regardless of the data location. Which of the following would BEST meet the architect's objectives? A.Trusted Platform Module B.laaS C.HSMaaS D.PaaS E.Key Management Service Answer: E 2021 Latest Braindump2go SY0-601 PDF and SY0-601 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1VvH3gDuiIKHw7Kx_vZmMM4mpCRWbTVq4?usp=sharing
Basic Information About Quality Assurance Consultants
Quality is not a linear word; it has multiple definitions. When it comes to quality and its assurances, business lacks knowledge and expertise that is why they prefer contacting Quality management consultant. If you wanted to know more about quality assurance, read more. What is quality? The definition of quality also varies from person to person, but in organizations, there must be some standardization that can be documented and treated as quality. In simpler words, quality is fulfilling the customer needs and expectations on the parameter of durability, price, design, reliability, customer service, functionality, and others. What is assurance? Assurance gives credibility and makes a trust bridge between a business and its other stakeholders. It guarantees that the product or services is without any flaws and a customer will get 100 percent satisfaction and value for their money. In-house quality assurances do not make that much impact as compared to assurance from quality assurance consultant professionals. When a business spends on quality management consultants, it is an investment. The invested money gives returns in the form of more customers, high brand value, more expansion, and excellent future growth prospects. As a business, if you are looking for top-ranked Quality management consultants in Australia, contact PQAS. Quality assurance process Professionals from Quality management consulting services make a customized quality assurance process by considering aspirations, industry, business size, human resources capability, budget, and other requirements. Get Quality Assurance certification now. The process involves four stages:- 1. Planning- Once you contact quality management consultants from www.pqas.com., they understand every detail of your requirements and also does the ground study. This is the first and crucial stage and all the important decisions are taken in that stage only. Based on the planning, the business gets into a contract with professional consultants and signs a deal. 2. Development and testing- Actual work starts at this stage. Quality management consultants in Australia develop a framework of guidelines/changes and start testing for its efficacy. A small sample size is taken and if the process is successful, the next process starts. Consultants train and prepare master trainers for further dissemination of the information and imparting the knowledge. 3. Monitoring- Any changes take time to give results and in that period it is essential to keep a watch on the process. This helps in mitigating the weaknesses and focusing on the strengths and opportunity areas of the work. 4. Executing- In the final stage, quality assurance consultants implement the work. They ensure that the business fulfills its objectives of implementing a quality assurance process. A business should adopt a quality assurance process periodically to ensure that the product/service is designed and implemented with prescribed procedures. It reduces errors and problems and gives a quality product.
Preclinical research
Before a drug or treatment can be tested on people, clinical researchers should ensure whether it can cause potential risks, side effects, or serious harms, also known as toxicity to the patients. Learn Clinical Research Courses. The two types of preclinical research include the following: ● In Vitro ● In Vivo In the US, the FDA stipulates that researchers must use good laboratory practices (GLP), as defined in medical product development regulations for preclinical laboratory studies. The GLP regulations set the minimum basic requirements for: ● study conduct ● personnel ● facilities ● equipment ● written protocols ● operating procedures ● study reports It also establishes a system of quality assurance for each preclinical study to ensure the safety and efficacy of products approved and regulated by the FDA. Generally, preclinical studies are not conducted on a very large scale. However, these studies must provide detailed information on dosing and toxicity levels. Clinical researchers review their results after preclinical testing. Conclusion Preclinical studies encompass various activities that serve as a link between drug discovery and preparation and the initiation of a clinical trial on humans. The laws regulating preclinical trial norms and requirements worldwide can package differences but generally have some common features. Rodent and non-rodent mammalian models are generally used to set forth general safety and identify toxicity patterns that reveal potential target organs likely to suffer the adverse effects. Take Clinical Research Training. Toxicology and safety studies also identify Therapeutic Index for deciding the initial starting doses in clinical trials. More than one or more species can be used for determining the drug's mean residence time in the body. The mean residence time of a drug in the body depends on inherent absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion properties.
(April-2021)Braindump2go 200-201 PDF and 200-201 VCE Dumps(Q144-Q171)
QUESTION 144 Which action should be taken if the system is overwhelmed with alerts when false positives and false negatives are compared? A.Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system. B.Design criteria for reviewing alerts. C.Redefine signature rules. D.Adjust the alerts schedule. Answer: A QUESTION 145 What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive? A.True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach. B.True positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability. C.False positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach. D.False positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability. Answer: C QUESTION 146 An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task? A.Firepower B.Email Security Appliance C.Web Security Appliance D.Stealthwatch Answer: C QUESTION 147 Refer to the exhibit. Which technology generates this log? A.NetFlow B.IDS C.web proxy D.firewall Answer: D QUESTION 148 Which filter allows an engineer to filter traffic in Wireshark to further analyze the PCAP file by only showing the traffic for LAN 10.11.x.x, between workstations and servers without the Internet? A.src=10.11.0.0/16 and dst=10.11.0.0/16 B.ip.src==10.11.0.0/16 and ip.dst==10.11.0.0/16 C.ip.src=10.11.0.0/16 and ip.dst=10.11.0.0/16 D.src==10.11.0.0/16 and dst==10.11.0.0/16 Answer: B QUESTION 149 Which tool provides a full packet capture from network traffic? A.Nagios B.CAINE C.Hydra D.Wireshark Answer: D QUESTION 150 A company is using several network applications that require high availability and responsiveness, such that milliseconds of latency on network traffic is not acceptable. An engineer needs to analyze the network and identify ways to improve traffic movement to minimize delays. Which information must the engineer obtain for this analysis? A.total throughput on the interface of the router and NetFlow records B.output of routing protocol authentication failures and ports used C.running processes on the applications and their total network usage D.deep packet captures of each application flow and duration Answer: C QUESTION 151 Refer to the exhibit. What is depicted in the exhibit? A.Windows Event logs B.Apache logs C.IIS logs D.UNIX-based syslog Answer: D QUESTION 152 Which technology should be used to implement a solution that makes routing decisions based on HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, and SSL session ID attributes? A.AWS B.IIS C.Load balancer D.Proxy server Answer: B QUESTION 153 An organization has recently adjusted its security stance in response to online threats made by a known hacktivist group. What is the initial event called in the NIST SP800-61? A.online assault B.precursor C.trigger D.instigator Answer: B QUESTION 154 Which NIST IR category stakeholder is responsible for coordinating incident response among various business units, minimizing damage, and reporting to regulatory agencies? A.CSIRT B.PSIRT C.public affairs D.management Answer: D QUESTION 155 Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack? A.detection and analysis B.post-incident activity C.preparation D.containment, eradication, and recovery Answer: D QUESTION 156 Which two elements are used for profiling a network? (Choose two.) A.session duration B.total throughput C.running processes D.listening ports E.OS fingerprint Answer: DE QUESTION 157 Which category relates to improper use or disclosure of PII data? A.legal B.compliance C.regulated D.contractual Answer: C QUESTION 158 Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence? A.probabilistic B.indirect C.best D.corroborative Answer: D QUESTION 159 Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in an investigation? (Choose two.) A.context B.session C.laptop D.firewall logs E.threat actor Answer: AE QUESTION 160 What is personally identifiable information that must be safeguarded from unauthorized access? A.date of birth B.driver's license number C.gender D.zip code Answer: B QUESTION 161 In a SOC environment, what is a vulnerability management metric? A.code signing enforcement B.full assets scan C.internet exposed devices D.single factor authentication Answer: C QUESTION 162 A security expert is working on a copy of the evidence, an ISO file that is saved in CDFS format. Which type of evidence is this file? A.CD data copy prepared in Windows B.CD data copy prepared in Mac-based system C.CD data copy prepared in Linux system D.CD data copy prepared in Android-based system Answer: C QUESTION 163 Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST Special Publication 800-61 r2? (Choose two.) A.detection and analysis B.post-incident activity C.vulnerability management D.risk assessment E.vulnerability scoring Answer: AB QUESTION 164 Refer to the exhibit. What does this output indicate? A.HTTPS ports are open on the server. B.SMB ports are closed on the server. C.FTP ports are open on the server. D.Email ports are closed on the server. Answer: A QUESTION 165 Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center? A.The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident. B.The total incident escalations per week. C.The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident. D.The total incident escalations per month. Answer: C QUESTION 166 A developer is working on a project using a Linux tool that enables writing processes to obtain these required results: - If the process is unsuccessful, a negative value is returned. - If the process is successful, 0 value is returned to the child process, and the process ID is sent to the parent process. Which component results from this operation? A.parent directory name of a file pathname B.process spawn scheduled C.macros for managing CPU sets D.new process created by parent process Answer: D QUESTION 167 An engineer discovered a breach, identified the threat's entry point, and removed access. The engineer was able to identify the host, the IP address of the threat actor, and the application the threat actor targeted. What is the next step the engineer should take according to the NIST SP 800-61 Incident handling guide? A.Recover from the threat. B.Analyze the threat. C.Identify lessons learned from the threat. D.Reduce the probability of similar threats. Answer: D QUESTION 168 Refer to the exhibit. What is shown in this PCAP file? A.Timestamps are indicated with error. B.The protocol is TCP. C.The User-Agent is Mozilla/5.0. D.The HTTP GET is encoded. Answer: A QUESTION 169 What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images? A.Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash. B.Tampered images are used as evidence. C.Untampered images are used for forensic investigations. D.Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence Answer: B QUESTION 170 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the definition from the left onto the phase on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model. Answer: QUESTION 171 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the elements from the left into the correct order for incident handling on the right. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go 200-201 PDF and 200-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1fTPALtM-eluHFw8sUjNGF7Y-ofOP3s-M?usp=sharing
Requirements for preclinical and clinical trial norms
Clinical trials run only after approval of a list of preclinical trial norms and protocols. Different national and international laws govern these norms and protocols. In India, The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (PCA Act) and The Breeding of and Experiments on Animals (Control and Supervision) Rules, 1998 (BEACS Rules) framed under the PCA Act regulate the preclinical trials or studies on animals. The BEACS Rules states that any protocol for preclinical trials must ensure that animals first considered for any experimental procedure should stand lowest on the phylogenetic scale, which may give scientifically valid results. The experiment should be so designed that a minimum number of animals are used to give statistically valid results, establishing a 95 percent degree of confidence. Take Clinical Research Training. Before experiments can be conducted on animals, experiment-specific permission is required from a designated committee or authority. As regulated by different laws regulating preclinical trials across the world, some of the crucial requirements include study rationale, study design, subject eligibility, study treatment, and background of the principal investigator. Generally, an ethics committee is also set up to review and approve the clinical trial prior to its operations commencement. The ethics committee is also responsible for reviewing and approving any changes or updates made to the clinical trial protocols prior to their implementation. However, prior approval from the ethics committee is not required when the implementation of updates is necessary for patients' health and safety.
(April-2021)Braindump2go AWS-SysOps PDF and AWS-SysOps VCE Dumps(Q953-Q966)
QUESTION 953 A company is migrating its exchange server from its on-premises location to a VPC in the AWS Cloud. Users working from home connect using a secure, encrypted channel over the internet to the exchange server. However, after the migration to AWS, users are having trouble receiving email. The VPC flow log records display the following. A.SMTP traffic from the network interface was blocked by an outbound network ACL B.SMTP traffic from the network interface was blocked by an outbound security group C.SMTP traffic to the network interface was blocked by an inbound network ACL D.SMTP traffic to the network interface was blocked by an inbound security group Answer: A QUESTION 954 A SysOps administrator is configuring an application on AWS to be used over the internet by departments in other countries. For remote locations, the company requires a static public IP address to be explicitly allowed as a target for outgoing internet traffic. How should the SysOps administrator deploy the application to meet this requirement? A.Deploy the application on an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) cluster Configure an AWS App Mesh service mesh. B.Deploy the application as AWS Lambda functions behind an Application Load Balancer C.Deploy the application on Amazon EC2 instances behind an internet-facing Network Load Balancer D.Deploy the application on an Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) cluster behind an Amazon API Gateway Answer: C QUESTION 955 A SysOps administrator needs to register targets for a Network Load Balancer (NL8) using IP addresses. Which prerequisite should the SysOps administrator validate to perform this task? A.Ensure the NLB listener security policy is set to ELBSecuntyPohcy-TLS-1-2-Ext-2018-06, ELBSecuntyPolicy-FS-1-2-Res-2019-08 or ELBSecuntyPolicy-TLS-1-0-2015-04 B.Ensure the heath check setting on the NLB for the Matcher configuration is between 200 and 399 C.Ensure the targets are within any of these CIDR blocks: 10.0.0.0/8 (RFC I918)r 100.64.0.0/10 (RFC 6598): 172.16.0.0/12 (RFC 1918), or 192.168.0.0/16 (RFC 1918). D.Ensure the NLB is exposed as an endpoint service before registering the targets using IP addresses Answer: A QUESTION 956 A SysOps administrator must deploy a company's infrastructure as code (laC). The administrator needs to write a single template that can be reused for multiple environments in a safe, repeatable manner. How should the administrator meet this requirement by using AWS Cloud Formation? A.Use duplicate resource definitions for each environment selected based on conditions B.Use nested stacks to provision the resources C.Use parameter references and mappings for resource attributes D.Use AWS Cloud Formation StackSets to provision the resources Answer: B QUESTION 957 Which type routing protocol operates by exchanging the entire routing information? A.exterior gateway protocols B.link-state protocols C.distance-vector protocols D.Path-vector protocols Answer: B QUESTION 958 Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming? A.Type field B.preamable C.Data field D.start of frame delimiter Answer: B QUESTION 959 Which command must be present in a Cisco device configuration to enable the device to resolve an FQDN? A.ip domain-name B.ip domain-lookup C.ip host D.ip name-server Answer: B QUESTION 960 A company has an application that is hosted on two Amazon EC2 instances in different Availability Zones. Both instances contain data that is critical for the company's business. Backups need to be retained for 7 days and need to be updated every 12 hours. Which solution will meet these requirements with the LEAST amount of effort? A.Use an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) scheduled rule to create snapshots of the Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes. B.Use Amazon Data Lifecycle Manager (Amazon DLM) to create a snapshot lifecycle policy for both instances. C.Create a batch job to generate automated snapshots of the Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes. D.Create an AWS Lambda function to copy the data to Amazon S3 Glacier. Answer: A QUESTION 961 A SysOps administrator is re-architecting an application. The SysOps administrator has moved the database from a public subnet, where the database used a public endpoint, into a private subnet to restrict access from the public network. After this change, an AWS Lambda function that requires read access to the database cannot connect to the database. The SysOps administrator must resolve this issue without compromising security. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Create an AWS PrivateLink interface endpoint for the Lambda function. Connect to the database using its private endpoint. B.Connect the Lambda function to the database VPC. Connect to the database using its private endpoint. C.Attach an IAM role to the Lambda function with read permissions to the database. D.Move the database to a public subnet. Use security groups for secure access. Answer: D QUESTION 962 A company that hosts a multi-tier ecommerce web application on AWS has been alerted to suspicious application traffic. The architecture consists of Amazon EC2 instances deployed across multiple Availability Zones behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). After examining the instance logs, a SysOps administrator determines that the suspicious traffic is an attempted SQL injection attack. What should the SysOps administrator do to prevent similar attacks? A.Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution with the ALB as the origin. Enable AWS Shield Advanced to protect from SQL injection attacks at edge locations. B.Create an AWS WAF web ACL, and configure a SQL injection rule to add to the web ACL. Associate the WAF web ACL with the ALB. C.Enable Amazon GuardDuty. Use Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) to trigger an AWS Lambda function every time GuardDuty detects SQL injection. D.Install Amazon Inspector on the EC2 instances, and configure a rules package. Use the findings reports to identify and block SQL injection attacks. Answer: A QUESTION 963 An Amazon EC2 instance has a secondary Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) volume attached that contains sensitive data. A new company policy requires the secondary volume to be encrypted at rest. Which solution will meet this requirement? A.Create a snapshot of the volume. Create a new volume from the snapshot with the Encrypted parameter set to true. Detach the original volume and attach the new volume to the instance. B.Create an encrypted Amazon Machine Image (AMI) of the EC2 instance. Launch a new instance with the encrypted AMI. Terminate the original instance. C.Stop the EC2 instance. Encrypt the volume with AWS CloudHSM. Start the instance and verify encryption. D.Stop the EC2 instance. Modify the instance properties and set the Encrypted parameter to true. Start the instance and verify encryption. Answer: A QUESTION 964 A SysOps administrator recently launched an application consisting of web servers running on Amazon EC2 instances, an Amazon ElastiCache cluster communicating on port 6379, and an Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance communicating on port 5432. The web servers are in the security group web-sg, the ElastiCache cluster is in the security group cache-sg, and the DB instance is in the security group database-sg. The application fails on start, with the error message "Unable to connect to the database". The rules in web-sg are as follows. Which change should the SysOps administrator make to web-sg to correct the issue without compromising security? A.Add a new inbound rule: database-sg TCP 5432 B.Add a new outbound rule: database-sg TCP 5432 C.Add a new outbound rule: 0.0.0.0/0 All Traffic 0-65535 D.Change the outbound rule to: cache-sg TCP 5432 Answer: A QUESTION 965 A kernel patch for AWS Linux has been released, and systems need to be updated to the new version. A SysOps administrator must apply an in-place update to an existing Amazon EC2 instance without replacing the instance. How should the SysOps administrator apply the new software version to the instance? A.Add the instance to a patch group and patch baseline containing the desired patch by using AWS Systems Manager Patch Manager. B.Develop a new version of the instance's Amazon Machine Image (AMI). Apply that new AMI to the instance. C.Develop a new user data script containing the patch. Configure the instance with the new script. D.Run commands on the instance remotely using the AWS CLI. Answer: A QUESTION 966 A company needs to implement a system for object-based storage in a write-once, read-many (WORM) model. Objects cannot be deleted or changed after they are stored, even by an AWS account root user or administrators. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Set up Amazon S3 Cross-Region Replication and run daily updates. B.Set up Amazon S3 Object Lock in governance mode with S3 Versioning enabled. C.Set up Amazon S3 Object Lock in compliance mode with S3 Versioning enabled. D.Set up an Amazon S3 Lifecycle policy to move the objects to Amazon S3 Glacier. Answer: B 2021 Latest Braindump2go AWS-SysOps PDF and AWS-SysOps VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1-kckNIRM9eMaU2urIinqFqegqkOXzZ8e?usp=sharing
How English helps in making one feel confident and powerful?
How the English language lets you lead the stage? Through the sands of time, the British Empire expanded and ruled over several different countries. The British Empire acquired approximately a quarter of the earth’s surface and ruled it with an iron fist. This act has made it one of the most popular languages in today’s world. In the past, the British forced their language over the people they ruled over to speak English which has led to the widespread knowledge of the language. Many of these countries have also made English their official language, even if it isn’t their native language. The English language may have had a complex past, but it certainly has a bright future. Language Classes in Pune. As so many people know to speak the language helps in connecting with people globally. Today, fluent English can also help with careers and professional life. The language’s popularity has several perks in all respects today, making it extremely useful to know. A language is learned by catching several worlds and associating them together. The English language changes over the years, and its influence and derivations from various other languages make it easier to grasp and understand. How English helps in making one feel confident and powerful? The feeling of confidence comes from within. English being the most needed language in today’s world makes many feel nervous or insufficient. Many are also governed by their beliefs and dislike for the language due to cultural reasons and paradigms. But English is such a language that it brings a sense of power to the speaker. It also helps transmit that power in the form of confidence, which helps deliver the message with a more lasting impact on the audience or crowd. This sense of confidence may arise within the speaker either due to the popularity of the language or the ease of communicating and engaging with the listeners. It is how English helps one rule the stage. Here’s what brings out confidence and power with the knowledge of the English language: · English knowledge improves cognitive flexibility: One of the most significant benefits of learning a second language is cognitive flexibility. In layman’s terms, how stretchy one’s brain is. The ability to switch between languages is vital. It begins with the identification of the language. Thus, being multilingual improves cognitive flexibility. It also helps in improving concentration and focusing abilities. Even understanding a joke or choosing a descriptive word can be signs of cognitive flexibility. Increased cognitive flexibility and focus give a person the ability to connect and fit in with people more easily and boost confidence. · Travelling and cultural awareness: Learning another language can also help learn about another culture, as language is a critical aspect of culture. Learning English brings exposure to the culture of all the English-speaking countries. It is a popular language; it brings a substantial amount of learning and indulging with it. It helps one communicate better with people and impart their knowledge on the subject can make them more interesting, boosting confidence. Language Classes in Pune. Knowing English allows one to travel to countries across the world and interact with the people and the cultures there. · Long-term learning and improved life: Although the initial stages of learning the language may be tricky, eventually, with time, English becomes an integral part of a person’s life and gives a boost of confidence to the speaker. Accepting that mistakes will be made and improving them makes one feel the need to take more risks on the language front. Eventually, understanding that learning a language is a long-term process that involves continuous learning makes one feel at ease with the idea of trying new things. It expands one’s horizons and gives them the courage to try harder and get better in the language. Increased creativity: As learning English can help the brain become more flexible, it enhances the mind’s creativity. This flexibility can also lead to increased problem-solving capabilities and improve interaction with the world and its people. Because the English language is spoken by so many people worldwide, it is also the primary entertainment language. English knowledge can help indulge with these and can also influence a person’s thoughts and behaviour. Expanding connections and building relations: One of the best things about learning English is that it helps build connections with people around the world as English is one of the most popular languages today. English is a very social language, and learning is equivalent to social skills. As one begins learning English, practicing by having one-on-one conversations with English speakers becomes easy. Many online platforms and other institutes provide language Classes, English speaking classes, English speaking courses, etc., to improve one’s fluency in English. Expanding connections and building new relations, publically speaking in English, even makes one easily rule the stage. Getting comfortable in speaking English is not a hard task. Its popularity already has a great influence over most native languages as well. Hence, grasping it and mastering the language is not that challenging. The art of leading the stage all comes with the ease and fluency of this fine language.
Major Benefits of Short Term Training Programs for Students
The rise in the population mark of India has brought a flood of competition among young people for work. Rather than merely choosing degree programs, students nowadays are focusing more on keeping up with the learning process while also gaining financial independence. The integrated on-job training program -Short Term Training Programs is a chance for amateurs to attempt year learning based opportunity and prepare for entry-level positions in the IT companies. Short term trainings are exceptionally design for learning and getting prepared on specific points which candidates are discovering hard to comprehend or need to learning for upgrading their skills. In right now, the organization not only check's the basics of the fresher's candidates but also how deep knowledge they do have of their respective technology. Other short term training programs just helps students to learn basics of the technologies which are not enough for them to get a job at fresher level. There are a few basics factors which should be there in the mind of the students while showing up for any of the interviews at fresher's level - There communication skills must be up-to the mark i.e. both written as well as spoken. The basics fundamentals and ideas of the innovations for which they are appearing must be very strong. The students must also know the latest news and updates of the respective technology. For understanding advanced topics of any technology, one needs to have strong and clear fundamentals. In most the cases, students lacks clear fundamentals and basics and find it very difficult to grasp advanced topics which are greatly in demand for getting jobs and other career opportunities. Adjusting into professional workplace is another significant benefit of short term training program. The candidates get colossal measure of time for getting aware of working culture of the organization in which they are enrolled for career training program.
(April-2021)Braindump2go COBIT-2019 PDF and COBIT-2019VCE Dumps(Q43-Q63)
QUESTION 43 The value that I&T delivers should be: A.aligned directly with the values on which the business is focused. B.focused exclusively on I&T investments that generate financial benefits. C.restricted to maintaining and increasing value derived from existing I&T investments. Answer: C QUESTION 44 COBIT addresses governance issues by doing which of the following? A.Grouping relevant governance components into objectives that can be managed to a required capability level B.Providing a full description of the entire IT environment within an enterprise C.Defining specific governance strategies and processes to implement in specific situations Answer: A QUESTION 45 Which of the following is a guiding principle in the development of COBIT? A.COBIT aligns with other related and relevant I&T standards, frameworks and regulations B.COBIT includes relevant content from other related I&T standards, frameworks and regulations. C.COBIT serves as a comprehensive standalone framework that covers all relevant I&T-related activities. Answer: A QUESTION 46 Which of the following is an element of governance? A.Building plans to align with the direction set by the governance body B.Monitoring activities designed to achieve enterprise objectives C.Evaluating stakeholder needs to determine enterprise objectives Answer: A QUESTION 47 In most cases, management of the enterprise is the responsibility of: A.the project management office. B.the executive management team. C.the board of directors. Answer: A QUESTION 48 Which of the following benefits derived from the use of COBIT is PRIMARILY associated with an external stakeholder? A.COBIT provides guidance on how to organize and monitor the performance of I&T across the enterprise. B.COBIT helps to manage the dependency on the use of external service providers. C.COBIT helps to ensure compliance with applicable rules and regulations. Answer: A QUESTION 49 Which of the following is MOST critical to ensuring the objective of managed availability and capacity? A.Allocation of budgets for business continuity B.Future prediction of I&T resource requirements C.Identification of single points of failure Answer: A QUESTION 50 Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit associated with the management objective "managed strategy?" A.Desired value is delivered through a roadmap of incremental changes B.Service delivery is facilitated by adopting the latest technology innovations C.Effective communication channels are established across all levels of management Answer: A QUESTION 51 Which of the following MUST be defined before determining alignment goals? A.External laws and regulations B.Stakeholder drivers and needs C.Governance and management objectives Answer: B QUESTION 52 Time-to-market is a market that is directly related to which of the following enterprise goals? A.Optimization of internal business process functionality B.Portfolio of competitive products and services C.Managed digital transformation programs Answer: B QUESTION 53 Which of the following would be an appropriate metric associated with an enterprise goal of "Business service continuity and availability"? A.Satisfaction levels of board and executive management with business process capabilities B.Ratio of significant incidents that were not identified in risk assessments vs. total incidents C.Number of business processing hours lost due to unplanned service interruptions Answer: C QUESTION 54 Which of the following enterprise goals is within the Customer dimension of the IT balanced scorecard? A.Delivery of programs on time and on budget B.Product and business innovation C.Quality of management information Answer: C QUESTION 55 Which of the following cascades to enterprise goals? A.Stakeholder needs B.Organizational objectives C.Enterprise strategy Answer: C QUESTION 56 Which of the following metrics would BEST enable an enterprise to evaluate an alignment goal specifically related to security of information and privacy? A.Ratio and extent of erroneous business decisions in which erroneous I&T-related information was a key factor B.Number of critical business processes supported by up-to-date infrastructure and applications C.Number of confidentiality incidents causing financial loss, business disruption or public embarrassment. Answer: C QUESTION 57 Which of the following would be an appropriate metric to align with a goal of "Delivery of programs on time, on budget, and meeting requirements and quality standards"? A.Percent of stakeholders satisfied with program/project quality B.Percent of business staff satisfied that IT service delivery meets agreed service levels C.Level of user satisfaction with the quality and availability of I&T-related management information Answer: A QUESTION 58 The alignment goal "Delivery of I&T services in line with business requirements" is organized into which IT balanced scorecard (BSC) dimension? A.Customer B.Financial C.Internal Answer: A QUESTION 59 Which of the following management objectives is related to optimization of system performance? A.Managed I&T management framework B.Managed availability and capacity C.Managed service agreements Answer: B QUESTION 60 The ability to rapidly turn business requirements into operational solutions is an example of which type of goal? A.An enterprise goal B.A strategic goal C.An alignment goal Answer: C QUESTION 61 Which of the following would BEST help to determine whether intended outcomes of IT governance are being achieved? A.Reviewing business satisfaction survey results B.Reviewing the balanced scorecard C.Reviewing the governance business case Answer: B QUESTION 62 The alignment goal titled "Knowledge, expertise and initiatives for business innovation" is aligned to which IT balanced scorecard (BSC) dimension? A.Customer B.Learning and Growth C.Internal Answer: B QUESTION 63 Which of the following comprises the "information flow" component of a governance system? A.People, skills and competencies B.Assignment of responsibility and accountability roles C.Process practices that include inputs and outputs Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go COBIT-2019 PDF and COBIT-2019 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1TLo1R01wAHnBejQkIRsQTjLob0ueBT86?usp=sharing