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Learn Ethical Hacking Basic To Advance
Suitability for Ethical Hacker It is main to have a Bachelor’s degree (BSc, BTech, BE, BCA) in IT (Information Technology) to become an ethical hacker. Contestants having an innovative diploma in network security can too opt for ethical hacking as a career. A CEH certification from a reputed ethical hacking institute in Bangalore improves the probabilities of success hired by some great names in the IT area. The list of international EC-Council certifications are: · Certified Ethical Hacker (EC-Council) · Certified Hacking Forensic Investigator CHFI (EC-Council) · Certified Intrusion Analyst (GCIA) can more advance the job visions · Technical skills essential · Wide-ranging knowledge in the zone of network security · Working knowledge of many operating systems · Sound working information of Microsoft and Linux servers, Cisco network switches, virtualization, Citrix and Microsoft Exchange. · Sound working information of the modern penetration software Top Institutes offering Courses for Ethical Hacker best ethical hacking training institute in bangalore 1. SSDN Technologies 2. Inventateq 3. Gicseh 4. 360digitmg 5. Indian cybersecurity solutions 6. FITA 7. Simplilearn Why should you pursue Ethical Hacking as a profession? With the increase of online thefts, ethical hacking has become one of the best widespread career choices. A growing figure of openings and cybercrimes have been described in current times. As per Gartner and Accenture’s reviews, the Information security marketplace is probable to scope $170.4 billion by 2022, and approximately 68% of industry leaders global feel that cybersecurity risks are rising. Thus, there is an increasing demand for ethical hackers in many businesses like government organisations, IT zones, law application, sections in National intelligence, economic organizations, etc. In fact, business organisations want ethical hackers to retain their information secure. It is with this growing demand that the ethical hacking pay in India is rather profitable. But before taking up the career, one need be awake that the situation does not just need educational experiences and practical services but also honesty, solid ethics, and most highly, a willingness to study to battle challenges. Job Outlines in Ethical Hacking The openings in the zone of cyber security are growing with various corporations becoming progressively aware of the need for online safety. The main zones of work comprise financial facilities security, wireless network security and information security in industries among others. After reaching the much desired CEH v11, an ethical hacker can go for the following roles: · Information Security Analyst · Security Analyst · Certified Ethical Hacker · Ethical Hacker · Security Consultant, (Computing / Networking / Information Technology) · Information Security Manager · Penetration Tester
What COVID-19 Impacted on Cleaning Robot in Semiconductors & Electronics Industry ?
Impact of COVID-19 on Cleaning Robot in Semiconductors & Electronics Industry ANALYSIS ON IMPACT OF COVID-19 ON THE MARKET The pandemic started with its epicenter in China in 2019 and has been continuously spreading by then to all over the world, so far 216 countries and territories have been affected with Covid-19, the U.S. being on the top with cases reaching about 4.38 million, followed by Brazil, India and then by many European countries such as Russia, Spain, Italy, and others. The COVID-19 cases reaching to the big named countries with strong dominance in the global market which has adversely affected the economy globally. The spread of the coronavirus has led to the global recession, many companies are being bound to take stringent actions of laying off their employees, small businesses are being shut, and manufacturing facilities are being put on hold. There has been a disruption in the supply chain of many industries due to restrictions in logistics and the closing of manufacturing facilities. In addition, the slowdown in the economy has lowered the spending capability of individuals and people are saving money for emergencies. However, now almost in every country, the factories are started to reopen by taking some prevention such as 20% -50% employees on the field, social distancing, extreme hygiene measures, and others to support the economy. It is supporting the economy and helping to lower the recession rate at a certain level. COVID-19 highly impacted the personal and domestic cleaning robots market due to the recession gripping the world and a decline in disposable income, the demand for personal and domestic robots declined. Also, the behavior of the individuals has certainly changed in the pandemic, people are now more concerned about their health and spending for future use due to incurred losses which lead to a decrease in the sale of cleaning robots. However, cleaning robots have a huge demand in the healthcare sector. During the time of social distancing, hospitals are demanding mobile robots integrated with UV-C light disinfection equipment to sanitize the wards and rooms to minimize any physical contact. For instance, In June 2020, According to the founder and chairman of Milagrow Robots, there has been a huge surge in demand for floor and window cleaning robots. The total sale is expected to be 300,000 to 400,000 cleaning robots in 2020 when compared to 10,000 cleaning robots in 2019. STEPS TAKEN BY MANUFACTURERS DURING COVID-19 SITUATION As the COVID-19 crisis continues to expand, makers would possibly face challenges on varied fronts. Producing firms would be searching for immediate measures to stay their workforces safe and their businesses solvent. Makers would conjointly have to be compelled to look on the far side of their economic viability. Because the COVID-19 pandemic intensifies, makers would possibly face continued downward pressure on demand, production, and revenues. They would continuously face cash-flow liquidity challenges and difficulties in managing debt obligations. In December 2020, LG Electronics announced the launch of the autonomous robot with disinfecting UV light for various B2B applications. This robot uses ultraviolet (UV-C) light to disinfect high-touch, high-traffic areas and is designed for hospitality, education, corporate, retail, restaurant, and transportation customers to reduce exposure to harmful bacteria and germs The pandemic may drive the enhancement of automation, digitalization, and artificial intelligence (AI) in almost all sectors. In a situation like social distancing automation and robotics could reduce dependence on human labor and increase productivity, preventing the chances of losses. The pandemic has boosted the growth of healthcare industries. As people need to maintain physical distancing, manufacturers can gain the advantage of this norm to address the mass public in hospitals and crowded places. Manufacturers were engaged in product development with advanced technologies, partnerships, and collaborations to gain a competitive advantage in the market. For instance, In January 2021, SAMSUNG announced the launch of new AI-powered robotic vacuum and laundry products. The new JetBot 90 AI+ features smart technologies that optimize the cleaning route and respond to its environment. The JetBot 90 AI+ is the world’s first smart robotic vacuum that helps to automate home cleaning in these Covid times IMPACT ON DEMAND The behavior of the individuals has certainly changed in the pandemic, people are now more concerned about their health. The government is also working on research and development to develop a vaccine and avoid any further pandemic as such. The government is using augmented and virtual reality for the known disasters which can help in reducing the effects of the disaster. The pandemic has boosted the digital transformation of industries, companies are focusing more on a digital platform to interact with their clients and customers. The pandemic has brought a huge demand for cleaning robots to ensure safety as COVID-19 has put cleaning and disinfection front and center in facility maintenance and at other places. Huge adoption of technology, automation, and smart buildings is gradually increasing the scope of growth for the cleaning robot market. IMPACT ON SUPPLY CHAIN The pandemic has brought a huge impact on the supply chain of the cleaning robot market. The logistics and transportation of assets deteriorated a lot. The supply chain was adversely affected as the lockdown prevailed in many regions globally, the government has limited the workers. Companies are making their operations work according to the government regulations by making limited workers work in different shifts. The supply chain is experiencing disruption in Chinese parts exports, large-scale manufacturing interruptions across Europe, and the closure of assembly plants in the U.S. The manufacturers were facing a shortage of raw material, shifting of production to other countries, liquidity crunch to delays in availability of models, and deferred launches. However, now there is an improvement in the supply chain as most of the facilities and travel restrictions have opened and working in most optimum capacity. CONCLUSION As the Covid-19 prevails the cleaning robot market has witnessed a gradual increase in the demand for cleaning robots and services. Most of the manufacturing facilities were closed bringing down the production of cleaning robots which leads to disruption in the supply chain. However, as the markets are getting digitally transformed and people are being more reliable on digital sources the market seems to be growing. Organizations operating under this market were building up new strategies to maintain all the safety measures at facilities and focusing on technological up-gradation to boost the growth of the market. Even after the pandemic automation of industries will continue to increase which acts as a major driver for the market. Growing demand from the healthcare, media & entertainment, and retail sector will act as a major boosting factor for the growth of the market in this pandemic.
Why Your Business Needs Online Timesheets
A business gets a better vision of the future when it knows how its employees are performing. From a business point of view, productivity and tracking time allow you to improve the team’s performance, maximize resources, and gain accurate knowledge of how hours are being spent.  What is Online Timesheet? The timesheet is a data sheet that employers use to track the time of employees for a certain period of time. It is basically a record of time spent by the employees on a particular task, client, or project. There have been different ways to record the timesheet, like, paper, spreadsheet software, excel, and nowadays online timesheets software.  Why should Businesses use Timesheets? For any business to rise and shine, there should be effective work performed for effective results. Thus, a business owner wants its employees to utilize their work duration in a productive manner. Having a fleet of employees, it becomes quite difficult to understand each employee’s efficiency to finish their task.  Therefore, it turned out necessary to keep track of the employee’s dedication to complete the project. Here Timesheet comes into play. It will help to determine each employee’s work status. Accordingly, you can motivate the employee who is working slow.  This will help to meet deadlines and maintain the budget also. Advantages of Timesheets - Reduce Time Wastage Accurate billing Automates Billing Project Management Saves Company’s expenditure How do different business sectors use Timesheets? Various types of industries are using Online Timesheets in different terms. Let’s check out how: Law Firm – The law firm sector keeps a record of their client’s dealing hours and maintains a list of services they provide. Here, the timesheet assists in tracking the bill according to the client servicing hours. Freelancers – Many freelancers charge per hour with the clients. Thus, maintaining the time record is very necessary. To do this, freelancers use the Timesheet online calculator that helps to record the time precisely. This helps to keep transparency between you and the client. Accountants – The accountant’s profit depends on how the workers of the company spend time to complete the client’s project: the more billability, the more profit. Thus, to set a record of the time and bills, the Timesheet is required. But, correct software should be chosen for the accountants that can help in employee tracking and maintaining the online timesheet. One recommended software is WorkStatus, which includes an all-in-one feature.  Final Words With the growth in technology, time has become a vital part of businesses, and simultaneously a timesheet has been chosen by different industries, to know each hour’s production. An Online Timesheets Software like WorkStatus will help you provide an auto-update about the time schedules of the employees. This will help your business to drive to success. So, say bye-bye to paper timesheets and choose the software that will give accurate time notes, and your data will be safe and secured. Source : Why Your Business Needs Online Timesheets | Benefits & User Manual
[September-2021]Braindump2go New SOA-C02 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q120-Q143)
QUESTION 120 A SysOps administrator is troubleshooting connection timeouts to an Amazon EC2 instance that has a public IP address. The instance has a private IP address of 172.31.16.139. When the SysOps administrator tries to ping the instance's public IP address from the remote IP address 203.0.113.12, the response is "request timed out." The flow logs contain the following information: What is one cause of the problem? A.Inbound security group deny rule B.Outbound security group deny rule C.Network ACL inbound rules D.Network ACL outbound rules Answer: D QUESTION 121 A company has multiple Amazon EC2 instances that run a resource-intensive application in a development environment. A SysOps administrator is implementing a solution to stop these EC2 instances when they are not in use. Which solution will meet this requirement? A.Assess AWS CloudTrail logs to verify that there is no EC2 API activity. Invoke an AWS Lambda function to stop the EC2 instances. B.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to stop the EC2 instances when the average CPU utilization is lower than 5% for a 30-minute period. C.Create an Amazon CloudWatch metric to stop the EC2 instances when the VolumeReadBytes metric is lower than 500 for a 30-minute period. D.Use AWS Config to invoke an AWS Lambda function to stop the EC2 instances based on resource configuration changes. Answer: B QUESTION 122 A SysOps administrator needs to configure a solution that will deliver digital content to a set of authorized users through Amazon CloudFront. Unauthorized users must be restricted from access. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that does not have public access blocked. Use signed URLs to access the S3 bucket through CloudFront. B.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that has public access blocked. Use an origin access identity (OAI) to deliver the content through CloudFront. Restrict S3 bucket access with signed URLs in CloudFront. C.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that has public access blocked. Use an origin access identity (OAI) to deliver the content through CloudFront. Enable field-level encryption. D.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that does not have public access blocked. Use signed cookies for restricted delivery of the content through CloudFront. Answer: B QUESTION 123 A company has attached the following policy to an IAM user: Which of the following actions are allowed for the IAM user? A.Amazon RDS DescribeDBInstances action in the us-east-1 Region B.Amazon S3 Putobject operation in a bucket named testbucket C.Amazon EC2 Describe Instances action in the us-east-1 Region D.Amazon EC2 AttachNetworkinterf ace action in the eu-west-1 Region Answer: C QUESTION 124 A company runs a web application on three Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The company notices that random periods of increased traffic cause a degradation in the application's performance. A SysOps administrator must scale the application to meet the increased traffic. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to monitor application latency and increase the size of each EC2 instance if the desired threshold is reached. B.Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to monitor application latency and add an EC2 instance to the ALB if the desired threshold is reached. C.Deploy the application to an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with a target tracking scaling policy. Attach the ALB to the Auto Scaling group. D.Deploy the application to an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with a scheduled scaling policy. Attach the ALB to the Auto Scaling group. Answer: C QUESTION 125 A company's public website is hosted in an Amazon S3 bucket in the us-east-1 Region behind an Amazon CloudFront distribution. The company wants to ensure that the website is protected from DDoS attacks. A SysOps administrator needs to deploy a solution that gives the company the ability to maintain control over the rate limit at which DDoS protections are applied. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Deploy a global-scoped AWS WAF web ACL with an allow default action. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to block matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the CloudFront distribution. B.Deploy an AWS WAF web ACL with an allow default action in us-east-1. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to block matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the S3 bucket. C.Deploy a global-scoped AWS WAF web ACL with a block default action. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to allow matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the CloudFront distribution. D.Deploy an AWS WAF web ACL with a block default action in us-east-1. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to allow matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the S3 bucket. Answer: B QUESTION 126 A company hosts an internal application on Amazon EC2 instances. All application data and requests route through an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection between the on-premises network and AWS. The company must monitor the application for changes that allow network access outside of the corporate network. Any change that exposes the application externally must be restricted automatically. Which solution meets these requirements in the MOST operationally efficient manner? A.Create an AWS Lambda function that updates security groups that are associated with the elastic network interface to remove inbound rules with noncorporate CIDR ranges. Turn on VPC Flow Logs, and send the logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that matches traffic from noncorporate CIDR ranges, and publish a message to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic with the Lambda function as a target. B.Create a scheduled Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that targets an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to check for public IP addresses on the EC2 instances. If public IP addresses are found on the EC2 instances, initiate another Systems Manager Automation document to terminate the instances. C.Configure AWS Config and a custom rule to monitor whether a security group allows inbound requests from noncorporate CIDR ranges. Create an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to remove any noncorporate CIDR ranges from the application security groups. D.Configure AWS Config and the managed rule for monitoring public IP associations with the EC2 instances by tag. Tag the EC2 instances with an identifier. Create an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to remove the public IP association from the EC2 instances. Answer: A QUESTION 127 A SysOps administrator needs to create alerts that are based on the read and write metrics of Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes that are attached to an Amazon EC2 instance. The SysOps administrator creates and enables Amazon CloudWatch alarms for the DiskReadBytes metric and the DiskWriteBytes metric. A custom monitoring tool that is installed on the EC2 instance with the same alarm configuration indicates that the volume metrics have exceeded the threshold. However, the CloudWatch alarms were not in ALARM state. Which action will ensure that the CloudWatch alarms function correctly? A.Install and configure the CloudWatch agent on the EC2 instance to capture the desired metrics. B.Install and configure AWS Systems Manager Agent on the EC2 instance to capture the desired metrics. C.Reconfigure the CloudWatch alarms to use the VolumeReadBytes metric and the VolumeWriteBytes metric for the EBS volumes. D.Reconfigure the CloudWatch alarms to use the VolumeReadBytes metric and the VolumeWriteBytes metric for the EC2 instance. Answer: C QUESTION 128 A company is partnering with an external vendor to provide data processing services. For this integration, the vendor must host the company's data in an Amazon S3 bucket in the vendor's AWS account. The vendor is allowing the company to provide an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) key to encrypt the company's data. The vendor has provided an IAM role Amazon Resource Name (ARN) to the company for this integration. What should a SysOps administrator do to configure this integration? A.Create a new KMS key. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the KMS key policy. Provide the new KMS key ARN to the vendor. B.Create a new KMS key. Create a new IAM user. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to an inline policy that is attached to the IAM user. Provide the new IAM user ARN to the vendor. C.Configure encryption using the KMS managed S3 key. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the KMS managed S3 key policy. Provide the KMS managed S3 key ARN to the vendor. D.Configure encryption using the KMS managed S3 key. Create an S3 bucket. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the S3 bucket policy. Provide the S3 bucket ARN to the vendor. Answer: C QUESTION 129 A company has an Auto Scaling group of Amazon EC2 instances that scale based on average CPU utilization. The Auto Scaling group events log indicates an InsufficientlnstanceCapacity error. Which actions should a SysOps administrator take to remediate this issue? (Select TWO. A.Change the instance type that the company is using. B.Configure the Auto Scaling group in different Availability Zones. C.Configure the Auto Scaling group to use different Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume sizes. D.Increase the maximum size of the Auto Scaling group. E.Request an increase in the instance service quota. Answer: AB QUESTION 130 A company stores files on 50 Amazon S3 buckets in the same AWS Region. The company wants to connect to the S3 buckets securely over a private connection from its Amazon EC2 instances. The company needs a solution that produces no additional cost. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Create a gateway VPC endpoint for each S3 bucket. Attach the gateway VPC endpoints to each subnet inside the VPC. B.Create an interface VPC endpoint for each S3 bucket. Attach the interface VPC endpoints to each subnet inside the VPC. C.Create one gateway VPC endpoint for all the S3 buckets. Add the gateway VPC endpoint to the VPC route table. D.Create one interface VPC endpoint for all the S3 buckets. Add the interface VPC endpoint to the VPC route table. Answer: C QUESTION 131 A company has a VPC with public and private subnets. An Amazon EC2 based application resides in the private subnets and needs to process raw .csv files stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. A SysOps administrator has set up the correct IAM role with the required permissions for the application to access the S3 bucket, but the application is unable to communicate with the S3 bucket. Which action will solve this problem while adhering to least privilege access? A.Add a bucket policy to the S3 bucket permitting access from the IAM role. B.Attach an S3 gateway endpoint to the VPC. Configure the route table for the private subnet. C.Configure the route table to allow the instances on the private subnet access through the internet gateway. D.Create a NAT gateway in a private subnet and configure the route table for the private subnets. Answer: B QUESTION 132 A large company is using AWS Organizations to manage hundreds of AWS accounts across multiple AWS Regions. The company has turned on AWS Config throughout the organization. The company requires all Amazon S3 buckets to block public read access. A SysOps administrator must generate a monthly report that shows all the S3 buckets and whether they comply with this requirement. Which combination of steps should the SysOps administrator take to collect this data? {Select TWO). A.Create an AWS Config aggregator in an aggregator account. Use the organization as the source. Retrieve the compliance data from the aggregator. B.Create an AWS Config aggregator in each account. Use an S3 bucket in an aggregator account as the destination. Retrieve the compliance data from the S3 bucket C.Edit the AWS Config policy in AWS Organizations. Use the organization's management account to turn on the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule for the entire organization. D.Use the AWS Config compliance report from the organization's management account. Filter the results by resource, and select Amazon S3. E.Use the AWS Config API to apply the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule in all accounts for all available Regions. Answer: CD QUESTION 133 A SysOps administrator launches an Amazon EC2 Linux instance in a public subnet. When the instance is running, the SysOps administrator obtains the public IP address and attempts to remotely connect to the instance multiple times. However, the SysOps administrator always receives a timeout error. Which action will allow the SysOps administrator to remotely connect to the instance? A.Add a route table entry in the public subnet for the SysOps administrator's IP address. B.Add an outbound network ACL rule to allow TCP port 22 for the SysOps administrator's IP address. C.Modify the instance security group to allow inbound SSH traffic from the SysOps administrator's IP address. D.Modify the instance security group to allow outbound SSH traffic to the SysOps administrator's IP address. Answer: C QUESTION 134 A recent organizational audit uncovered an existing Amazon RDS database that is not currently configured for high availability. Given the critical nature of this database, it must be configured for high availability as soon as possible. How can this requirement be met? A.Switch to an active/passive database pair using the create-db-instance-read-replica with the -- availability-zone flag. B.Specify high availability when creating a new RDS instance, and live-migrate the data. C.Modify the RDS instance using the console to include the Multi-AZ option. D.Use the modify-db-instance command with the --na flag. Answer: C QUESTION 135 A SysOps administrator noticed that the cache hit ratio for an Amazon CloudFront distribution is less than 10%. Which collection of configuration changes will increase the cache hit ratio for the distribution? (Select TWO.) A.Ensure that only required cookies, query strings, and headers are forwarded in the Cache Behavior Settings. B.Change the Viewer Protocol Policy to use HTTPS only. C.Configure the distribution to use presigned cookies and URLs to restrict access to the distribution. D.Enable automatic compression of objects in the Cache Behavior Settings. E.Increase the CloudFront time to live (TTL) settings in the Cache Behavior Settings. Answer: AE QUESTION 136 A company has mandated the use of multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all IAM users, and requires users to make all API calls using the CLI. However. users are not prompted to enter MFA tokens, and are able to run CLI commands without MFA. In an attempt to enforce MFA, the company attached an IAM policy to all users that denies API calls that have not been authenticated with MFA. What additional step must be taken to ensure that API calls are authenticated using MFA? A.Enable MFA on IAM roles, and require IAM users to use role credentials to sign API calls. B.Ask the IAM users to log into the AWS Management Console with MFA before making API calls using the CLI. C.Restrict the IAM users to use of the console, as MFA is not supported for CLI use. D.Require users to use temporary credentials from the get-session token command to sign API calls. Answer: D QUESTION 137 A company is running a flash sale on its website. The website is hosted on burstable performance Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The Auto Scaling group is configured to launch instances when the CPU utilization is above 70%. A couple of hours into the sale, users report slow load times and error messages for refused connections. A SysOps administrator reviews Amazon CloudWatch metrics and notices that the CPU utilization is at 20% across the entire fleet of instances. The SysOps administrator must restore the website's functionality without making changes to the network infrastructure. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Activate unlimited mode for the instances in the Auto Scaling group. B.Implement an Amazon CloudFront distribution to offload the traffic from the Auto Scaling group. C.Move the website to a different AWS Region that is closer to the users. D.Reduce the desired size of the Auto Scaling group to artificially increase CPU average utilization. Answer: B QUESTION 138 A gaming application is deployed on four Amazon EC2 instances in a default VPC. The SysOps administrator has noticed consistently high latency in responses as data is transferred among the four instances. There is no way for the administrator to alter the application code. The MOST effective way to reduce latency is to relaunch the EC2 instances in: A.a dedicated VPC. B.a single subnet inside the VPC. C.a placement group. D.a single Availability Zone. Answer: C QUESTION 139 A company uses AWS Organizations to manage multiple AWS accounts with consolidated billing enabled. Organization member account owners want the benefits of Reserved Instances (RIs) but do not want to share RIs with other accounts. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Purchase RIs in individual member accounts. Disable Rl discount sharing in the management account. B.Purchase RIs in individual member accounts. Disable Rl discount sharing in the member accounts. C.Purchase RIs in the management account. Disable Rl discount sharing in the management account. D.Purchase RIs in the management account. Disable Rl discount sharing in the member accounts. Answer: D QUESTION 140 An errant process is known to use an entire processor and run at 100%. A SysOps administrator wants to automate restarting the instance once the problem occurs for more than 2 minutes. How can this be accomplished? A.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the Amazon EC2 instance with basic monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance. B.Create a CloudWatch alarm for the EC2 instance with detailed monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance. C.Create an AWS Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered on a scheduled basis every 2 minutes. D.Create a Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered by EC2 health checks. Answer: B QUESTION 141 A company is expanding its fleet of Amazon EC2 instances before an expected increase of traffic. When a SysOps administrator attempts to add more instances, an InstanceLimitExceeded error is returned. What should the SysOps administrator do to resolve this error? A.Add an additional CIDR block to the VPC. B.Launch the EC2 instances in a different Availability Zone. C.Launch new EC2 instances in another VPC. D.Use Service Quotas to request an EC2 quota increase. Answer: D QUESTION 142 A company hosts its website on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The company manages its DNS with Amazon Route 53. and wants to point its domain's zone apex to the website. Which type of record should be used to meet these requirements? A.A CNAME record for the domain's zone apex B.An A record for the domain's zone apex C.An AAAA record for the domain's zone apex D.An alias record for the domain's zone apex Answer: D QUESTION 143 A company has launched a social media website that gives users the ability to upload images directly to a centralized Amazon S3 bucket. The website is popular in areas that are geographically distant from the AWS Region where the S3 bucket is located. Users are reporting that uploads are slow. A SysOps administrator must improve the upload speed. What should the SysOps administrator do to meet these requirements? A.Create S3 access points in Regions that are closer to the users. B.Create an accelerator in AWS Global Accelerator for the S3 bucket. C.Enable S3 Transfer Acceleration on the S3 bucket. D.Enable cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) on the S3 bucket. Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go SOA-C02 PDF and SOA-C02 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1SwmRv-OKTAJzLTMirp_O8l8tjGIFElzz?usp=sharing
KHETAN EDUCATION
In the current format of the CA Final SFM exams anywhere from 20 - 25 % of the paper is based on compulsory theory questions. Students should have a differentiated strategy to deal with this portion so as to secure good marks in this section. Students must prepare SFM theory portions properly as it is compulsory in the new curriculum. Theory answers should be very well articulated and must contain a definition along with detailed explanation. One should try to highlight the bullet points and underline the keywords related to the topic, remember, good content leads to better score. CA final Practice Manual (for SFM Old Syllabus Course) and ICAI module (for SFM New Syllabus Course) is a good starting point to prepare for theory in a structured manner. SFM theory, if prepared well, can get one very close to the passing marks required for this exam. To get posted or informed about CA FINAL SFM check our website https://capoint.in/. ICAI SFM Study Material The institute provides very good quality study material and one should not ignore the same. It is often observed that the students spend a lot of time, energy and effort looking for sfm notes, sfm downloads etc. however, ICAI study material i.e. CA final Practice Manual (for SFM Old Syllabus Course) and ICAI module (for SFM New Syllabus Course ) for SFM CA Final is comprehensive as well as exhaustive. SFM Syllabus and official curriculum is a good place to start along with the SFM Practice Manual provided by the institute. It gives one an exhaustive list of theory questions related to a particular topic. You can also check out the revision test papers [CA Final SFM RTP] in order to find out a list of questions that were asked in prior year papers [SFM CA Final Past Papers] As the subject is very wide in nature below are the benefits of practice manual or Icai Module: CA Final Practice Manual is a good way of benchmarking one self and one’s preparation. SFM Practice Manual helps one get a flair of a variety of questions that the institute can come up with. It’s a good reality check to understand the level and complexity of questions And of course, it is meant for practice. So, keep reviewing and practicing in order to make you perfectly prepared for the subject. Develop Conceptual Clarity on each topic The CA final SFM syllabus has 14 topics and usually theory questions can be asked from any of these topics. As one starts developing conceptual clarity on each of these topics it is also important that one starts skimming through related theoretical concepts so as to get a sense of type of theory questions asked and to get a better hold on the same. This helps one relate to the concept and build a connection. The above will come very handy just before the exams when one is preparing for theory section of the final exams. SFM theory key to Exemption As mentioned earlier SFM CA Final exams have compulsory SFM theory questions being in the paper to the tune of 20 - 25%. Students looking to secure exemption in CA final SFM should use this trick as it will help them get those extra 20 - 25 marks that could make a difference in getting exemption. If one is lucky and cracks both practical and theory sections alike then you are in for extremely marks. SFM Revision Remember to revise SFM theory before the exams. As the portion is exhaustive and given the fact that CA Final Students have to write exams back to back it becomes important for one to spend a reasonable amount of time revising the subject before the exams. Choose revision lectures of a faculty you are familiar with and one is comfortable with his / her nomenclature. As the topics are complex and there’s a lot to remember it helps immensely to do SFM revision to maximize the score. You can also opt for SFM Express SFM Express is a course specially developed and compiled by Archana Khetan- Khetan Education (www.khetaneducation.com) for students who are looking for a quick final evaluation of their preparation for the examination.
Camera hội nghị Jabra Panacast 20 lý tưởng cho cuộc họp cá nhân
Đã đến lúc trải nghiệm thế hệ cộng tác video di động, an toàn, thông minh tiếp theo với Camera hội nghị Jabra PanaCast 20. Bạn đã sẵn sàng cho cuộc họp hội nghị cá nhân với Jabra Panacast 20 của mình chưa? Camera hội nghị Jabra Panacast 20 Với một phương thức giao tiếp mới, hội nghị truyền hình đã tự đổi mới và giờ đây, video kết hợp là cần thiết:  Panacast 20 là một camera được thiết kế nhỏ gọn có thể mang đi khắp mọi nơi mà không ảnh hưởng về chất lượng hình ảnh và âm thanh. Jabra Panacast 20 thiết bị hội nghị truyền hình cá nhân cao cấp này sử dụng công nghệ tiên tiến để mang lại trải nghiệm thông minh, mạnh mẽ và hoàn toàn độc đáo - Camera 4K USB với Mic tích hợp - Chất lượng video 4K Ultra HD với xử lý hình ảnh tiên tiến - Thu phóng thông minh giúp lấy nét liên tục trên loa - Trường nhìn dọc và ngang: 54 ° / 180 ° - Trường nhìn xoay chéo 90 ° - Tự động điều chỉnh ánh sáng và chức năng Picture-in-Picture - Màn trập tích hợp để đảm bảo sự riêng tư của bạn - Kích thước nhỏ gọn, dễ dàng mang theo và cắm vào - Được tối ưu hóa cho Microsoft Teams và Zoom Jabra Panacast 20 là một thiết bị hội nghị USB với độ phân giải 4K, nó được thiết kế sử dụng cho mục đích cá nhân. Trường nhìn rộng 120 ° của nó không bị thiếu bất kỳ thứ gì và tính năng thu phóng thông minh (tự động định khung hình) thu hút người nói trong suốt bài thuyết trình. Chức năng Picture-to-Picture cũng rất thiết thực và cho phép bạn kết hợp luồng video thứ hai: lý tưởng cho các bài thuyết trình của bạn. Jabra PanaCast 20 là thiết bị hội nghị truyền hình chất lượng cao sử dụng công nghệ AI tiên tiến để mang đến cộng tác video di động, an toàn và thông minh tiếp theo. Máy ảnh PanaCast 20 plug-and-play mang đến trải nghiệm hội nghị truyền hình cá nhân, được sáng tạo lại hoàn toàn cho thế giới kết hợp ngày nay. Thiết bị hội nghị Jabra PanaCast 20 ghi hình vào bất kỳ màn hình nào và sử dụng bộ vi xử lý tiên tiến, AI tích hợp mạnh mẽ và camera 13 megapixel cao cấp, mang đến hình ảnh Ultra-HD 4K trong thời gian thực, sắc nét và rõ ràng như pha lê, hầu như không có độ trễ. Tính năng của Camera hội nghị Jabra Panacast 20 - Một webcam hiện đại và thông minh     + PanaCast 20 được Jabra giới thiệu là giải pháp giao tiếp tất cả trong một dành riêng cho không gian làm việc nhỏ như văn phòng cá nhân. Được thiết kế để tái tạo và hiện đại hóa hội nghị truyền hình, webcam thông minh này sẽ cho phép bạn tham gia vào các cuộc họp ảo với chất lượng nghe nhìn ngoạn mục và sẽ đảm bảo sự thành công của các cuộc họp của bạn. - Chức năng Picture-in-Picture để tác động đến bản trình bày của bạn     + Để tiếp thêm sinh lực cho các cuộc họp của bạn, Jabra PanaCast 20 kết hợp chức năng Hình ảnh trong Hình để cho phép bạn kết hợp luồng video thứ hai trong các cuộc họp ảo của mình, một chế độ lý tưởng khi bạn đang trình bày. Chế độ này hoạt động với bất kỳ nền tảng UC nào. - Camera độ phân giải Full HD với chức năng quay cận cảnh và toàn cảnh 4K     + Jabra cung cấp giải pháp hội nghị truyền hình với các tính năng thông minh sẽ mang đến cho bạn những cuộc trao đổi nghe nhìn ngoạn mục. Webcam này được trang bị camera độ phân giải Full HD với độ phân giải 4K toàn cảnh nên chất lượng hình ảnh không gì sánh bằng: sắc nét và trong như pha lê, hầu như không có độ trễ hay độ trễ. Trường nhìn 90 ° của nó mang đến cơ hội chụp cận cảnh nhờ tính năng Thu phóng thông minh trực quan do AI điều khiển, vì vậy bạn luôn là trung tâm của sự chú ý và nó sẽ tự động theo dõi chuyển động của bạn. Làm thế nào để cài đặt thiết bị hội nghị Jabra PanaCast 20 của bạn? - Bạn không cần phải là chuyên gia CNTT để cài đặt giải pháp Plug & Play này. Chỉ cần kết nối Jabra PanaCast 20 của bạn qua USB với máy tính của bạn để bắt đầu hội nghị truyền hình ngay lập tức. Nếu bạn quyết định thêm tai nghe hoặc loa ngoài để hoàn thiện giải pháp của mình, tất cả những gì bạn cần làm là kết nối nó với máy tính của mình thông qua kết nối được chỉ định cho nó: USB hoặc Bluetooth. Tôi có thể sử dụng phụ kiện với Jabra PanaCast 20 không? - Rất dễ dàng ghép nối PanaCast 20 với Jabra Speak 750 nếu bạn đang ở văn phòng nhưng nếu bạn là người làm việc linh hoạt, bạn có thể sử dụng nó với Jabra Evolve 2 65. Cả hai thiết bị đều không dây với kết nối Bluetooth và được Microsoft Teams chứng nhận . Camera hội nghị Jabra Panacast 20 mang đến sự kết hợp tuyệt vời giữa hình ảnh chất lượng cao và cộng tác video an toàn, bất kể bạn đang tổ chức các cuộc trò chuyện của mình từ đâu luôn đảm bảo bạn có được trải nghiệm đầy đủ. Xem Thêm:  Jabra Panacast ............. Thông tin chi tiết xin liên hệ Công ty CP Liên Kết Công Nghệ Toàn Cầu - GTC Địa chỉ: Tầng 7, Số 49 trung Kính, Cầu Giấy, Hà Nội. Điện thoại: 024.777.99.777 E-mail:contact@gtctelecom.vn Website: https://gtctelecom.vn
[September-2021]Braindump2go New MS-101 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q336-Q347)
QUESTION 336 You plan to use Azure Sentinel and Microsoft Cloud App Security. You need to connect Cloud App Security to Azure Sentinel. What should you do in the Cloud App Security admin center? A.From Automatic log upload, add a log collector. B.From Automatic log upload, add a data source. C.From Connected apps, add an app connector. D.From Security extension, add a SIEM agent. Answer: D QUESTION 337 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You need to evaluate the tenant based on the standard industry regulations require that the tenant comply with the ISO 27001 standard. What should you do? A.From Policy in the Azure portal, select Compliance, and then assign a pokey B.From Compliance Manager, create an assessment C.From the Microsoft J6i compliance center, create an audit retention pokey. D.From the Microsoft 365 admin center enable the Productivity Score. Answer: B QUESTION 338 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that has sensitivity label support enabled for Microsoft and SharePoint Online. You need to enable unified labeling for Microsoft 365 groups. Which cmdlet should you run? A.set-unifiedGroup B.Set-Labelpolicy C.Execute-AzureAdLebelSync D.Add-UnifiedGroupLinks Answer: B QUESTION 339 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You configure sensitivity labels. Users report that the Sensitivity button is unavailability in Microsoft Word for the web. The sensitivity button is available in Word for Microsoft 365. You need to ensure that the users can apply the sensitivity labels when they use Word for the web. What should you do? A.Copy policies from Azure information Protection to the Microsoft 365 Compliance center B.Publish the sensitivity labels. C.Create an auto-labeling policy D.Enable sensitivity labels for files in Microsoft SharePoint Online and OneDrive. Answer: B QUESTION 340 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You plan to deploy a monitoring solution that meets the following requirements: - Captures Microsoft Teams channel messages that contain threatening or violent language. - Alerts a reviewer when a threatening or violent message is identified. What should you include in the solution? A.Data Subject Requests (DSRs) B.Insider risk management policies C.Communication compliance policies D.Audit log retention policies Answer: C QUESTION 341 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. you implement sensitivity Doris for your company. You need to automatically protect email messages that contain the word Confidential m the subject line. What should you create? A.a sharing policy from the Exchange admin center B.a mall flow rule from the Exchange admin center C.a message Dace from the Microsoft 365 security center D.a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Microsoft 365 compliance center Answer: B QUESTION 342 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains two groups named Group1 and Group2. You need to prevent the members or Group1 from communicating with the members of Group2 by using Microsoft Teams. The solution must comply with regulatory requirements and must not affect other user in the tenant. What should you use? A.information barriers B.communication compliance policies C.moderated distribution groups D.administrator units in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Answer: A QUESTION 343 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains devices registered for mobile device management. The devices are configured as shown in the following table. You plan to enable VPN access for the devices. What is the minimum number of configuration policies required? A.3 B.5 C.4 D.1 Answer: D QUESTION 344 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains 500 Windows 10 devices. The devices are enrolled in Microsoft intune. You plan to use Endpoint analytics to identify hardware issues. You need to enable Window health monitoring on the devices to support Endpoint analytics What should you do? A.Configure the Endpoint analytics baseline regression threshold. B.Create a configuration profile. C.Create a Windows 10 Security Baseline profile D.Create a compliance policy. Answer: B QUESTION 345 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You plan to implement Endpoint Protection device configuration profiles. Which platform can you manage by using the profile? A.Android B.CentOS Linux C.iOS D.Window 10 Answer: C QUESTION 346 You purchase a new computer that has Windows 10, version 2004 preinstalled. You need to ensure that the computer is up-to-date. The solution must minimize the number of updates installed. What should you do on the computer? A.Install all the feature updates released since version 2004 and all the quality updates released since version 2004 only. B.install the West feature update and the latest quality update only. C.install all the feature updates released since version 2004 and the latest quality update only. D.install the latest feature update and all the quality updates released since version 2004. Answer: B QUESTION 347 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 ES tenant. You have the alerts shown in the following exhibit. Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go MS-101 PDF and MS-101 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1KVZ6uvgke0CyiKN6s3PCc3F5LsZZYt7A?usp=sharing
[September-2021]Braindump2go New 200-201 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q172-Q191)
QUESTION 172 The SOC team has confirmed a potential indicator of compromise on an endpoint. The team has narrowed the executable file's type to a new trojan family. According to the NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide, what is the next step in handling this event? A.Isolate the infected endpoint from the network. B.Perform forensics analysis on the infected endpoint. C.Collect public information on the malware behavior. D.Prioritize incident handling based on the impact. Answer: C QUESTION 173 Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications? A.sandbox B.application allow list C.application block list D.host-based firewall Answer: A QUESTION 174 An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department's servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation? A.Recovery B.Detection C.Eradication D.Analysis Answer: B QUESTION 175 Which data type is necessary to get information about source/destination ports? A.statistical data B.session data C.connectivity data D.alert data Answer: C QUESTION 176 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of attack is being executed? A.SQL injection B.cross-site scripting C.cross-site request forgery D.command injection Answer: A QUESTION 177 Which attack represents the evasion technique of resource exhaustion? A.SQL injection B.man-in-the-middle C.bluesnarfing D.denial-of-service Answer: D QUESTION 178 A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs? A.event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name B.protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port C.event name, log source, time, source IP, and username D.protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name Answer: B QUESTION 179 Which event is a vishing attack? A.obtaining disposed documents from an organization B.using a vulnerability scanner on a corporate network C.setting up a rogue access point near a public hotspot D.impersonating a tech support agent during a phone call Answer: D QUESTION 180 What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying protocol 41 ? A.additional PPTP traffic due to Windows clients B.unauthorized peer-to-peer traffic C.deployment of a GRE network on top of an existing Layer 3 network D.attempts to tunnel IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network Answer: D QUESTION 181 What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive? A.True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them. B.True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless. C.False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately. D.False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged. Answer: C QUESTION 182 An organization's security team has detected network spikes coming from the internal network. An investigation has concluded that the spike in traffic was from intensive network scanning How should the analyst collect the traffic to isolate the suspicious host? A.by most active source IP B.by most used ports C.based on the protocols used D.based on the most used applications Answer: C QUESTION 183 What is an incident response plan? A.an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of operations B.an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and continuous improvements C.an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration ot operational services D.an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations Answer: C QUESTION 184 An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two servers where the remote server is unable to establish a successful session. Initial checks show that the remote server is not receiving an SYN-ACK while establishing a session by sending the first SYN. What is causing this issue? A.incorrect TCP handshake B.incorrect UDP handshake C.incorrect OSI configuration D.incorrect snaplen configuration Answer: A QUESTION 185 A security incident occurred with the potential of impacting business services. Who performs the attack? A.malware author B.threat actor C.bug bounty hunter D.direct competitor Answer: A QUESTION 186 Refer to the exhibit. An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized? A.indirect B.circumstantial C.corroborative D.best Answer: D QUESTION 187 W[^t is vulnerability management? A.A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points. B.A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats. C.A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses. D.A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications Answer: C QUESTION 188 A user received an email attachment named "Hr405-report2609-empl094.exe" but did not run it. Which category of the cyber kill chain should be assigned to this type of event? A.installation B.reconnaissance C.weaponization D.delivery Answer: A QUESTION 189 An engineer needs to configure network systems to detect command and control communications by decrypting ingress and egress perimeter traffic and allowing network security devices to detect malicious outbound communications. Which technology should be used to accomplish the task? A.digital certificates B.static IP addresses C.signatures D.cipher suite Answer: D QUESTION 190 What is a difference between data obtained from Tap and SPAN ports? A.Tap mirrors existing traffic from specified ports, while SPAN presents more structured data for deeper analysis. B.SPAN passively splits traffic between a network device and the network without altering it, while Tap alters response times. C.SPAN improves the detection of media errors, while Tap provides direct access to traffic with lowered data visibility. D.Tap sends traffic from physical layers to the monitoring device, while SPAN provides a copy of network traffic from switch to destination Answer: A QUESTION 191 Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number? A.availability B.confidentiality C.scope D.integrity Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go 200-201 PDF and 200-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1fTPALtM-eluHFw8sUjNGF7Y-ofOP3s-M?usp=sharing
[September-2021]Braindump2go New 312-50v11 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q946-Q976)
QUESTION 946 Geena, a cloud architect, uses a master component in the Kubernetes cluster architecture that scans newly generated pods and allocates a node to them. This component can also assign nodes based on factors such as the overall resource requirement, data locality, software/hardware/policy restrictions, and internal workload interventions. Which of the following master components is explained in the above scenario? A.Kube-controller-manager B.Kube-scheduler C.Kube-apiserver D.Etcd cluster Answer: B QUESTION 947 _________ is a type of phishing that targets high-profile executives such as CEOs, CFOs, politicians, and celebrities who have access to confidential and highly valuable information. A.Spear phishing B.Whaling C.Vishing D.Phishing Answer: B QUESTION 948 Peter, a system administrator working at a reputed IT firm, decided to work from his home and login remotely. Later, he anticipated that the remote connection could be exposed to session hijacking. To curb this possibility, he implemented a technique that creates a safe and encrypted tunnel over a public network to securely send and receive sensitive information and prevent hackers from decrypting the data flow between the endpoints. What is the technique followed by Peter to send files securely through a remote connection? A.DMZ B.SMB signing C.VPN D.Switch network Answer: C QUESTION 949 An attacker can employ many methods to perform social engineering against unsuspecting employees, including scareware. What is the best example of a scareware attack? A.A pop-up appears to a user stating, "You have won a free cruise! Click here to claim your prize!" B.A banner appears to a user stating, "Your account has been locked. Click here to reset your password and unlock your account." C.A banner appears to a user stating, "Your Amazon order has been delayed. Click here to find out your new delivery date." D.A pop-up appears to a user stating, "Your computer may have been infected with spyware. Click here to install an anti-spyware tool to resolve this issue." Answer: D QUESTION 950 Bill has been hired as a penetration tester and cyber security auditor for a major credit card company. Which information security standard is most applicable to his role? A.FISMA B.HITECH C.PCI-DSS D.Sarbanes-OxleyAct Answer: C QUESTION 951 Tony wants to integrate a 128-bit symmetric block cipher with key sizes of 128,192, or 256 bits into a software program, which involves 32 rounds of computational operations that include substitution and permutation operations on four 32-bit word blocks using 8-variable S-boxes with 4-bit entry and 4-bit exit. Which of the following algorithms includes all the above features and can be integrated by Tony into the software program? A.TEA B.CAST-128 C.RC5 D.serpent Answer: D QUESTION 952 Morris, an attacker, wanted to check whether the target AP is in a locked state. He attempted using different utilities to identify WPS-enabled APs in the target wireless network. Ultimately, he succeeded with one special command-line utility. Which of the following command-line utilities allowed Morris to discover the WPS-enabled APs? A.wash B.ntptrace C.macof D.net View Answer: A QUESTION 953 What type of virus is most likely to remain undetected by antivirus software? A.Cavity virus B.Stealth virus C.File-extension virus D.Macro virus Answer: B QUESTION 954 Ben purchased a new smartphone and received some updates on it through the OTA method. He received two messages: one with a PIN from the network operator and another asking him to enter the PIN received from the operator. As soon as he entered the PIN, the smartphone started functioning in an abnormal manner. What is the type of attack performed on Ben in the above scenario? A.Advanced SMS phishing B.Bypass SSL pinning C.Phishing D.Tap 'n ghost attack Answer: A QUESTION 955 Jack, a professional hacker, targets an organization and performs vulnerability scanning on the target web server to identify any possible weaknesses, vulnerabilities, and misconfigurations. In this process, Jack uses an automated tool that eases his work and performs vulnerability scanning to find hosts, services, and other vulnerabilities in the target server. Which of the following tools is used by Jack to perform vulnerability scanning? A.Infoga B.WebCopier Pro C.Netsparker D.NCollector Studio Answer: C QUESTION 956 Stephen, an attacker, targeted the industrial control systems of an organization. He generated a fraudulent email with a malicious attachment and sent it to employees of the target organization. An employee who manages the sales software of the operational plant opened the fraudulent email and clicked on the malicious attachment. This resulted in the malicious attachment being downloaded and malware being injected into the sales software maintained in the victim's system. Further, the malware propagated itself to other networked systems, finally damaging the industrial automation components. What is the attack technique used by Stephen to damage the industrial systems? A.Spear-phishing attack B.SMishing attack C.Reconnaissance attack D.HMI-based attack Answer: A QUESTION 957 Shiela is an information security analyst working at HiTech Security Solutions. She is performing service version discovery using Nmap to obtain information about the running services and their versions on a target system. Which of the following Nmap options must she use to perform service version discovery on the target host? A.-SN B.-SX C.-sV D.-SF Answer: C QUESTION 958 Kate dropped her phone and subsequently encountered an issue with the phone's internal speaker. Thus, she is using the phone's loudspeaker for phone calls and other activities. Bob, an attacker, takes advantage of this vulnerability and secretly exploits the hardware of Kate's phone so that he can monitor the loudspeaker's output from data sources such as voice assistants, multimedia messages, and audio files by using a malicious app to breach speech privacy. What is the type of attack Bob performed on Kate in the above scenario? A.Man-in-the-disk attack B.aLTEr attack C.SIM card attack D.ASpearphone attack Answer: B QUESTION 959 Jude, a pen tester, examined a network from a hacker's perspective to identify exploits and vulnerabilities accessible to the outside world by using devices such as firewalls, routers, and servers. In this process, he also estimated the threat of network security attacks and determined the level of security of the corporate network. What is the type of vulnerability assessment that Jude performed on the organization? A.External assessment B.Passive assessment C.A Host-based assessment D.Application assessment Answer: C QUESTION 960 Roma is a member of a security team. She was tasked with protecting the internal network of an organization from imminent threats. To accomplish this task, Roma fed threat intelligence into the security devices in a digital format to block and identify inbound and outbound malicious traffic entering the organization's network. Which type of threat intelligence is used by Roma to secure the internal network? A.Technical threat intelligence B.Operational threat intelligence C.Tactical threat intelligence D.Strategic threat intelligence Answer: B QUESTION 961 Becky has been hired by a client from Dubai to perform a penetration test against one of their remote offices. Working from her location in Columbus, Ohio, Becky runs her usual reconnaissance scans to obtain basic information about their network. When analyzing the results of her Whois search, Becky notices that the IP was allocated to a location in Le Havre, France. Which regional Internet registry should Becky go to for detailed information? A.ARIN B.APNIC C.RIPE D.LACNIC Answer: C QUESTION 962 Joel, a professional hacker, targeted a company and identified the types of websites frequently visited by its employees. Using this information, he searched for possible loopholes in these websites and injected a malicious script that can redirect users from the web page and download malware onto a victim's machine. Joel waits for the victim to access the infected web application so as to compromise the victim's machine. Which of the following techniques is used by Joel in the above scenario? A.DNS rebinding attack B.Clickjacking attack C.MarioNet attack D.Watering hole attack Answer: B QUESTION 963 Juliet, a security researcher in an organization, was tasked with checking for the authenticity of images to be used in the organization's magazines. She used these images as a search query and tracked the original source and details of the images, which included photographs, profile pictures, and memes. Which of the following footprinting techniques did Rachel use to finish her task? A.Reverse image search B.Meta search engines C.Advanced image search D.Google advanced search Answer: C QUESTION 964 A security analyst uses Zenmap to perform an ICMP timestamp ping scan to acquire information related to the current time from the target host machine. Which of the following Zenmap options must the analyst use to perform the ICMP timestamp ping scan? A.-PY B.-PU C.-PP D.-Pn Answer: C QUESTION 965 Elante company has recently hired James as a penetration tester. He was tasked with performing enumeration on an organization's network. In the process of enumeration, James discovered a service that is accessible to external sources. This service runs directly on port 21. What is the service enumerated byjames in the above scenario? A.Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) B.File Transfer Protocol (FTP) C.Network File System (NFS) D.Remote procedure call (RPC) Answer: B QUESTION 966 Given below are different steps involved in the vulnerability-management life cycle. 1) Remediation 2) Identify assets and create a baseline 3) Verification 4) Monitor 5) Vulnerability scan 6) Risk assessment Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in vulnerability management. A.2-->5-->6-->1-->3-->4 B.2-->1-->5-->6-->4-->3 C.2-->4-->5-->3-->6--> 1 D.1-->2-->3-->4-->5-->6 Answer: A QUESTION 967 Tony is a penetration tester tasked with performing a penetration test. After gaining initial access to a target system, he finds a list of hashed passwords. Which of the following tools would not be useful for cracking the hashed passwords? A.John the Ripper B.Hashcat C.netcat D.THC-Hydra Answer: A QUESTION 968 Which Nmap switch helps evade IDS or firewalls? A.-n/-R B.-0N/-0X/-0G C.-T D.-D Answer: D QUESTION 969 Harper, a software engineer, is developing an email application. To ensure the confidentiality of email messages. Harper uses a symmetric-key block cipher having a classical 12- or 16-round Feistel network with a block size of 64 bits for encryption, which includes large 8 x 32-bit S-boxes (S1, S2, S3, S4) based on bent functions, modular addition and subtraction, key-dependent rotation, and XOR operations. This cipher also uses a masking key(Km1)and a rotation key (Kr1) for performing its functions. What is the algorithm employed by Harper to secure the email messages? A.CAST-128 B.AES C.GOST block cipher D.DES Answer: C QUESTION 970 Which of the following Google advanced search operators helps an attacker in gathering information about websites that are similar to a specified target URL? A.[inurl:] B.[related:] C.[info:] D.[site:] Answer: D QUESTION 971 The security team of Debry Inc. decided to upgrade Wi-Fi security to thwart attacks such as dictionary attacks and key recovery attacks. For this purpose, the security team started implementing cutting-edge technology that uses a modern key establishment protocol called the simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE), also known as dragonfly key exchange, which replaces the PSK concept. What is the Wi-Fi encryption technology implemented by Debry Inc.? A.WEP B.WPA C.WPA2 D.WPA3 Answer: C QUESTION 972 Stella, a professional hacker, performs an attack on web services by exploiting a vulnerability that provides additional routing information in the SOAP header to support asynchronous communication. This further allows the transmission of web-service requests and response messages using different TCP connections. Which of the following attack techniques is used by Stella to compromise the web services? A.XML injection B.WS-Address spoofing C.SOAPAction spoofing D.Web services parsing attacks Answer: B QUESTION 973 James is working as an ethical hacker at Technix Solutions. The management ordered James to discover how vulnerable its network is towards footprinting attacks. James took the help of an open- source framework for performing automated reconnaissance activities. This framework helped James in gathering information using free tools and resources. What is the framework used by James to conduct footprinting and reconnaissance activities? A.WebSploit Framework B.Browser Exploitation Framework C.OSINT framework D.SpeedPhish Framework Answer: C QUESTION 974 Thomas, a cloud security professional, is performing security assessment on cloud services to identify any loopholes. He detects a vulnerability in a bare-metal cloud server that can enable hackers to implant malicious backdoors in its firmware. He also identified that an installed backdoor can persist even if the server is reallocated to new clients or businesses that use it as an laaS. What is the type of cloud attack that can be performed by exploiting the vulnerability discussed in the above scenario? A.Man-in-the-cloud (MITC) attack B.Cloud cryptojacking C.Cloudborne attack D.Metadata spoofing attack Answer: C QUESTION 975 Which among the following is the best example of the third step (delivery) in the cyber kill chain? A.An intruder sends a malicious attachment via email to a target. B.An intruder creates malware to be used as a malicious attachment to an email. C.An intruder's malware is triggered when a target opens a malicious email attachment. D.An intruder's malware is installed on a target's machine. Answer: C QUESTION 976 Dayn, an attacker, wanted to detect if any honeypots are installed in a target network. For this purpose, he used a time-based TCP fingerprinting method to validate the response to a normal computer and the response of a honeypot to a manual SYN request. Which of the following techniques is employed by Dayn to detect honeypots? A.Detecting honeypots running on VMware B.Detecting the presence of Honeyd honeypots C.A Detecting the presence of Snort_inline honeypots D.Detecting the presence of Sebek-based honeypots Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go 312-50v11 PDF and 312-50v11 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/13uhEZnrNlkAP8a1O5NNI-yHndoWuz7Cj?usp=sharing
Important Key Points of Social Media Marketing
While looking out for the SMM service expert team you are bound to reach social media marketing experts. SMM is an excellent way for businesses of all sizes to reach prospects and relevant customers. SMM is a form of online marketing that includes creating and sharing content on social media networks in order to achieve your marketing and advertising objectives. The activities like text posting and image-videos uploads, and other content that drives people’s engagement, as well as paid social media advertising involves in Social Media Marketing. The five fundamental pillars of Social Media Marketing Strategy. First of all, when you start creating social media marketing campaigns; define the objectives of your business. Whenever you creating a social media marketing campaign with no social strategy that is like wasting your efforts without the right direction. Planning and Publishing. Plan your campaign objectives in such a way, there is a high chance of getting your goals, Then publishing on social media is as simple as sharing a blog post, an image, or a video on a social media platform. Also, to ensure that you are maximizing your reach on social media, you need to publish great content that your audience likes, at the right timing and frequency. Listening and Engagement. As your business and social media continue to grow, conversations about your brand will also increase. Persons will comment on your social media posts, tag you in their social media posts, or send you a message directly. People could even talk about your brand on social media without letting you know. So you’re going to want to monitor your brand’s social media conversations. Analytics. Whether you are publishing content or engaging in social media, you should know how your social media marketing works in real-time. Track the reachability of people on social media monthly. The social media platforms themselves provide a basic level of this information. You can use the wide range of social media analytics tools available, such as hoot suite, to obtain more in-depth analytics information or to compare easily across social media platforms. Advertising. Today Social media advertising platforms are so powerful that you can determine exactly who to display your ads online. You can create target audiences based on their demographics, interests, behavior, and more. Endnote: When you run multiple social media advertising campaigns at once, you can consider making bulk changes, automating processes, and optimizing your ads using a social media advertising tool.
Kinh nghiệm giúp bạn chọn được nơi học lái xe ô tô với chi phí thấp nhất
Với những người đang có nhu cầu thi bằng lái xe ô tô thì họ luôn quan tâm đến vấn đề chi phí. Đặc biệt trong bối cảnh tình hình kinh tế đang gặp nhiều khó khăn như hiện nay, việc tối ưu hoá chi phí bỏ ra cho một khoá học bằng lái là điều hoàn toàn dễ hiểu. Có nên ghi danh các khoá học lái xe giá cực kỳ rẻ? Nhiều người thường không tìm hiểu chi tiết nên thường bị nhầm lẫn giữa học phí trọn gói và chi phí đầu vô, điều này vô tình khiến chúng ta bị nhầm tưởng học phí đơn vị A rẻ hơn rất nhiều so với đơn vị B. Học phí rẻ có nghĩa là tổng chi phí từ khi học đến khi có bằng ở mức thấp nhất, chứ không phải là chi phí nộp hồ sơ ban đầu thấp nhất! Học phí do cơ sở đào tạo quyết định Chi phí phải trả cho việc học lái xe thì không có sự quy định áp đặt của bộ. Mỗi cơ sở đào tạo lái xe| trung tâm đào tạo lái xe sẽ căn cứ vào các chi phí đầu tư cơ sở vật chất, trang thiết bị, đội ngũ…để đưa một mức giá phù hợp. Bạn nên tham khảo các mức giá của vài địa chỉ học để lựa chọn mức giá rẻ nhất. Tuy nhiên, phải luôn ghi nhớ, rẻ nhưng chất lượng phải tốt và tổng mức phí để tới khi có bằng là thấp nhất! Kinh nghiệm tìm trung tâm với giá rẻ nhất 1- Tiền hồ sơ và tiền học từ lúc bắt đầu tới khi học xong tại cơ sở là bao nhiêu? Bạn cần cộng chi phí hồ sơ, phí học lái xe, phí thi tốt nghiệp và cấp chứng chỉ nghề. Trong đó cần hỏi rõ số tiền học phí đó được học bao nhiêu giờ thực hành trong đó: học bao nhiêu giờ trong sân tập và bao nhiêu giờ ngoài đường? có tập trong sân huấn luyện không (để tiết kiệm tiền sân tập một số nơi khi đưa học viên vào sân tập có thu thêm tiền, hoặc không cho vào sân huấn luyện, tới khi sắp thi người học phải bỏ tiền ra thuê rất nhiều giờ xe chip mới thuộc được sa hình thi). 2- Tiền thuê xe chip (xe gắn thiết bị chấm điểm tự động) bao nhiêu tiền một giờ? Giá thuê xe chip học lái xe tại mỗi sân thi sát hạch khác nhau, nên ngay từ đầu bạn cần hỏi phí thuê xe chip tại sân đó là bao nhiêu tiền một giờ để nắm được giá trước. 3- Có phải đóng thêm tiền khi học đường trường không? Và có phải đóng tiền thi tốt nghiệp cấp chứng chỉ nghề không? Bạn cần hỏi rõ trong tiền học phí đã có tiền cho khoản đó chưa, để tránh bị phát sinh sau này. Xong bước đánh giá chi phí: Bạn đã đánh giá xong mức chi phí từ khi học lái xe đến khi đi thi sát hạch. khi đi thi sát hạch thì mức phí thi sát hạch và cấp bằng (585.000đ/người) giữa các trường bắt buộc giống nhau thống nhất trên cả nước. Kinh nghiệm đánh giá chất lượng trung tâm dạy học lái xe Dưới đây là 3 đặc điểm cơ bản của một địa chỉ đào tạo lái xe giá rẻ và chất lượng mà bạn nên lựa chọn. Bạn có thể tìm thông tin từ những người đã học hoặc các bài báo về cơ sở đó. 1- Cơ sở vật chất của địa điểm đào tạo Dĩ nhiên bạn học lái xe giá rẻ trong một địa điểm có cơ sở vật chất tốt sẽ giúp bạn học hiệu quả hơn, tăng khả năng đỗ hơn. Các cơ sở vật chất bạn cần chú ý đến đó là bàn ghế, phòng học, tài liệu học. Nên chú ý tài liệu học là tài liệu được biên soạn mới nhất, cập nhật đúng, đủ luật giao thông nhé! 2- Đội ngũ giáo viên, giảng dạy Đội ngũ giáo viên giảng dạy kinh nghiệm sẽ giúp bạn thêm hiểu câu hỏi lý thuyết trong bài thi lý thuyết lấy bằng. Đây là điều vô cùng quan trọng nếu bạn muốn vượt qua bài thi một cách dễ dàng. 3- Số lượng học viên thi bằng lái xe đạt Những trung tâm đăng ký học lái xe có số lượng học viên thì đỗ cao cũng là một tiêu chí bạn nên xem xét để lựa chọn.
Riveting Productivity & Time Tracking Tools
Employees and managers use productivity & time tracking tools to keep track of working hours for payroll, billing, and other activities. These tools allow the enterprises to estimate budgets, better productivity and ensure transparency and accuracy by notifying them about time-consuming and costly tasks through the dashboards. There is a steep rise in employee productivity monitoring software tools, especially during the COVID-19 outbreak when companies need to oversee better and evaluate the remote workforce. Market Growth As per Introspective Market Research, the global time tracking software market is expected to reach USD 1785.36 billion by 2026 from USD 425.32 billion in 2019, at a CAGR of 22.36%. Need of Employee Time tracking software Many companies are still using conventional paper timesheets for time tracking, due to which buddy punching and time theft are major concerns in such organizations. Almost 75–80% of businesses are affected by time theft, due to which companies are shifting towards the online automatic time tracker app and tools. As per statistics, on average, employees spend nearly 2 hours per day overcoming distractions at work, and approximately 90% admit to wasting the time of an organization. Time tracking tools remove the risks of time theft and buddy punching, thus contributing to better employee productivity and enhancing employee performance and engagement. But it is not a simple task to select the best tracking tool from the different tools available in the market. Check the complete list below - 1. WorkStatus WorkStatus is an online time tracking tool that provides an excellent medium for individuals and organizations to enhance employees’ productivity. It majorly focuses on delivering reliable & secure solutions that enable customers to focus on their core business objectives. Let’s have a look at some of its features below- · It gives you AI-powered time tracking with online timesheets · Track real-time progress with employee monitoring software · It allows you to create Geofences with a GPS time tracker · It enables you to define budgets with project budgeting 2. Hubstaff Hubstaff is another excellent productivity monitoring and control tool designed to improve time management for staff. It has dedicated web, mobile, and desktop apps that can be used to monitor invoicing, appraisals, and attendance via a single platform. Let’s have a look at some of its features below- · It has a compliance management module · It shows the browsing history of employees · Idle time monitoring & activity tracking · Automatic time capture 3. Time Doctor Time Doctor is a perfect application for hybrid work models and distributed teams. It can be easily deployed through cloud, desktop, and mobile apps. It comes with a robust support team that gives live training via documentation and videos. In this way, it helps companies to boost their productivity. Let’s find its unique features below- · Calendar management & browsing history · Invoicing & billing management module · It allows you to manage billable & non-billable hours · Automated time capture Conclusion We are now on the same platform to understand that time management tools at work can effectively boost a team’s overall productivity and streamline the payroll process. It is now self-explanatory to realize the worth of productivity monitoring tool and the need to implement the same in businesses and organizations. Sign up for the online time tracking software here. Read More : 8 Riveting Productivity & Time Tracking Tools