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(April-2021)Braindump2go 200-201 PDF and 200-201 VCE Dumps(Q144-Q171)
QUESTION 144 Which action should be taken if the system is overwhelmed with alerts when false positives and false negatives are compared? A.Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system. B.Design criteria for reviewing alerts. C.Redefine signature rules. D.Adjust the alerts schedule. Answer: A QUESTION 145 What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive? A.True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach. B.True positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability. C.False positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach. D.False positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability. Answer: C QUESTION 146 An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task? A.Firepower B.Email Security Appliance C.Web Security Appliance D.Stealthwatch Answer: C QUESTION 147 Refer to the exhibit. Which technology generates this log? A.NetFlow B.IDS C.web proxy D.firewall Answer: D QUESTION 148 Which filter allows an engineer to filter traffic in Wireshark to further analyze the PCAP file by only showing the traffic for LAN 10.11.x.x, between workstations and servers without the Internet? A.src= and dst= B.ip.src== and ip.dst== C.ip.src= and ip.dst= D.src== and dst== Answer: B QUESTION 149 Which tool provides a full packet capture from network traffic? A.Nagios B.CAINE C.Hydra D.Wireshark Answer: D QUESTION 150 A company is using several network applications that require high availability and responsiveness, such that milliseconds of latency on network traffic is not acceptable. An engineer needs to analyze the network and identify ways to improve traffic movement to minimize delays. Which information must the engineer obtain for this analysis? throughput on the interface of the router and NetFlow records B.output of routing protocol authentication failures and ports used C.running processes on the applications and their total network usage D.deep packet captures of each application flow and duration Answer: C QUESTION 151 Refer to the exhibit. What is depicted in the exhibit? A.Windows Event logs B.Apache logs C.IIS logs D.UNIX-based syslog Answer: D QUESTION 152 Which technology should be used to implement a solution that makes routing decisions based on HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, and SSL session ID attributes? A.AWS B.IIS C.Load balancer D.Proxy server Answer: B QUESTION 153 An organization has recently adjusted its security stance in response to online threats made by a known hacktivist group. What is the initial event called in the NIST SP800-61? assault B.precursor C.trigger D.instigator Answer: B QUESTION 154 Which NIST IR category stakeholder is responsible for coordinating incident response among various business units, minimizing damage, and reporting to regulatory agencies? A.CSIRT B.PSIRT C.public affairs Answer: D QUESTION 155 Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack? A.detection and analysis activity C.preparation D.containment, eradication, and recovery Answer: D QUESTION 156 Which two elements are used for profiling a network? (Choose two.) A.session duration throughput C.running processes D.listening ports E.OS fingerprint Answer: DE QUESTION 157 Which category relates to improper use or disclosure of PII data? B.compliance C.regulated D.contractual Answer: C QUESTION 158 Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence? A.probabilistic B.indirect D.corroborative Answer: D QUESTION 159 Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in an investigation? (Choose two.) A.context B.session C.laptop D.firewall logs E.threat actor Answer: AE QUESTION 160 What is personally identifiable information that must be safeguarded from unauthorized access? of birth B.driver's license number C.gender code Answer: B QUESTION 161 In a SOC environment, what is a vulnerability management metric? A.code signing enforcement B.full assets scan C.internet exposed devices D.single factor authentication Answer: C QUESTION 162 A security expert is working on a copy of the evidence, an ISO file that is saved in CDFS format. Which type of evidence is this file? A.CD data copy prepared in Windows B.CD data copy prepared in Mac-based system C.CD data copy prepared in Linux system D.CD data copy prepared in Android-based system Answer: C QUESTION 163 Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST Special Publication 800-61 r2? (Choose two.) A.detection and analysis activity C.vulnerability management D.risk assessment E.vulnerability scoring Answer: AB QUESTION 164 Refer to the exhibit. What does this output indicate? A.HTTPS ports are open on the server. B.SMB ports are closed on the server. C.FTP ports are open on the server. D.Email ports are closed on the server. Answer: A QUESTION 165 Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center? A.The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident. B.The total incident escalations per week. C.The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident. D.The total incident escalations per month. Answer: C QUESTION 166 A developer is working on a project using a Linux tool that enables writing processes to obtain these required results: - If the process is unsuccessful, a negative value is returned. - If the process is successful, 0 value is returned to the child process, and the process ID is sent to the parent process. Which component results from this operation? A.parent directory name of a file pathname B.process spawn scheduled C.macros for managing CPU sets process created by parent process Answer: D QUESTION 167 An engineer discovered a breach, identified the threat's entry point, and removed access. The engineer was able to identify the host, the IP address of the threat actor, and the application the threat actor targeted. What is the next step the engineer should take according to the NIST SP 800-61 Incident handling guide? A.Recover from the threat. B.Analyze the threat. C.Identify lessons learned from the threat. D.Reduce the probability of similar threats. Answer: D QUESTION 168 Refer to the exhibit. What is shown in this PCAP file? A.Timestamps are indicated with error. B.The protocol is TCP. C.The User-Agent is Mozilla/5.0. D.The HTTP GET is encoded. Answer: A QUESTION 169 What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images? A.Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash. B.Tampered images are used as evidence. C.Untampered images are used for forensic investigations. D.Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence Answer: B QUESTION 170 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the definition from the left onto the phase on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model. Answer: QUESTION 171 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the elements from the left into the correct order for incident handling on the right. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go 200-201 PDF and 200-201 VCE Dumps Free Share:
Afinal, o que é VPN? Descubra como cuidar do seu acesso remoto!
Se você tem uma empresa precisa se preocupar com muitas tarefas, ações e responsabilidades, principalmente se possui um espaço físico para trabalhar com seus demais funcionários. As empresas com espaço físico precisam oferecer aos trabalhadores uma boa infraestrutura para que realizem todas suas tarefas e na grande maioria das vezes, isso engloba uma conexão com a internet que seja boa e segura. Ao oferecer computadores e uma rede de internet aos seus funcionários, você precisa se preocupar e ficar atento à segurança do tráfego de dados e informações, afinal arquivos e o histórico da empresa estão atrelados à isso. E é nessa parte que o VPN entra para que você consiga cuidar do acesso remoto. A seguir, veja mais detalhes e entenda perfeitamente o que é VPN e como ele pode ajudar a sua empresa. VPN: o que é? VPN, em nossa língua, significa Rede Virtual Privada e a sua função principal é garantir o tráfego de dados de uma maneira muito mais segura e ainda permitir o acesso remoto protegido à rede interna de uma empresa. Se trata de uma ferramenta de segurança muito mais do que essencial para as empresas, pois você estará protegendo dados e informações referentes ao seu negócio e evitar que suas informações sejam roubadas ou acessadas por hackers. A VPN ganhou mais buscas nesse período em que a grande maioria das empresas estão com seus funcionários trabalhando em home office. Cada funcionário, na sua casa, ao se conectar à internet, é identificado pelo número de IP e os seus dados podem trafegar abertamente, isso significa que podem ser acessados por qualquer pessoa. Tendo uma rede privada, que é oferecida pela VPN, o usuário, os dados e as informações ficam protegidos e não é identificado tão facilmente. A VPN pode ser usada para interligar mais de uma unidade da empresa e para fornecer a conexão remota aos funcionários, por isso ela se tornou tão popular e procurada nos últimos meses. VPN: como funciona? A VPN funciona de uma maneira muito fácil e prática. Vamos dar alguns exemplos para que você consiga entender melhor. Quando acessamos o navegador do nosso computador, na barra de pesquisa e ao lado do endereço eletrônico, há um pequeno cadeado. Esse cadeado é sinônimo de segurança e ele está presente na grande maioria dos sites, e ele informa que a sua navegação está segura e que o seu tráfego de dados só poderá ser acessado pelo servidor daquela empresa/loja/companhia/site. Quando você usa a VPN, essa segurança é expandida para toda a sua conexão. Isso porque, alguns sites não possuem esse cadeado e essa segurança, deixando seus dados expostos. Quando você usa a VPN, a segurança é garantida em todas as situações. Você fica disfarçado e usa um endereço de IP falso. No caso das empresas, ao usar VPN, você se conecta diretamente ao firewall da sua empresa e assim ninguém consegue identificar o seu verdadeiro IP e fica protegido. A sua conexão também é criptografada para que ninguém tenha acesso aos dados que são carregados e baixados. VPN: por que investir? Você já entendeu o que é uma VPN e como ela funciona, mas ainda não está convencido de porquê usá-la na sua empresa? Bem, nós explicamos o motivo. Acontece que quando a sua empresa permite o acesso externo dos seus funcionários, de suas casas por exemplo, há uma troca de dados e informações entre as redes que fica exposta e há grandes riscos de hackers obterem todo esse tráfego e acabarem roubando as informações. Alguns trabalhadores gostam de ir em diferentes lugares para trabalhar como em livrarias e cafeterias com rede Wi-Fi. Essa é uma rede pública que pode ser acessada por qualquer um facilmente e ter acesso a dados como usuário e senha. Com a VPN, todo o acesso de seus funcionários estará 100% seguro e protegido. VPN: conheça os tipos Existem vários tipos de VPN para você escolher e contratar para a sua empresa. Você poderá conhecer três opções a seguir: - VPN Site a Site: é uma VPN muito usada em operações corporativas principalmente no caso de empresas que possuem unidades no Brasil e no exterior ou até mesmo em diferentes estados, pois ajuda a conectar a rede da matriz com as filiais. As empresas podem usar também esse tipo de VPN para se conectar a outras empresas. Nada mais é do que uma ponte virtual que ajuda a reunir redes de diferentes lugares, mantendo uma conexão mais segura e privada; - VPN PPTP: é o tipo mais comum que pode ser usado tanto por empresas quanto por pessoas comuns. Não exige a compra nem mesmo a instalação de um hardware extra, para acessar basta informar o login e a senha de usuários aprovada. Através da conexão com a internet, você se conecta com a rede VPN e se torna um usuário remoto, que não pode ser encontrado. Entretanto, esse tipo de VPN não oferece criptografia; - VPN L2TP: esse é um modelo que se combina com outra ferramenta de segurança para fornecer mais privacidade ainda. Ele forma um túnel entre dois pontos de conexão L2TP e uma VPN, enquanto acontece também a criptografia dos dados. Contrate VPN da SS3 Tecnologia A SS3 Tecnologia é uma empresa focada em serviços de Tecnologia da Informação para corporações que desejam garantir mais segurança, privacidade, agilidade e praticidade no seu ambiente de trabalho e a todos os seus funcionários. Entre os diversos serviços de gestão de TI que são oferecidos pela SS3, está a opção de você obter uma VPN para sua empresa e para os seus funcionários. Eles fazem toda a instalação de acordo com as necessidades da sua empresa, além de explicarem como funciona e ajudarem na criação das senhas para todos os seus colaboradores. Se torna um sistema muito prático e é um investimento excelente para a empresa, que estará garantindo a sua proteção e evitando problemas com hackers ou com vazamento de informações importantes.
(April-2021)Braindump2go 200-301 PDF and 200-301 VCE Dumps(Q214-Q230)
QUESTION 450 An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface? A.ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B B.ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B C.ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B D.ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B Answer: A QUESTION 451 What describes the operation of virtual machines? A.Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources B.In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time. C.Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment. D.Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware Answer: B QUESTION 452 Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic? A.redundancy B.console C.distribution system D.service Answer: B QUESTION 453 Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet? unicast B.unique local D.multicast Answer: B QUESTION 454 An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result? A.logging trap 5 B.logging trap 2 C.logging trap 4 D.logging trap 3 Answer: C QUESTION 455 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go 200-301 PDF and 200-301 VCE Dumps Free Share:
Delivery ou Take Away. Qual a melhor opção para o seu restaurante? Com as medidas mais restritivas da pandemia, os restaurantes precisaram se adaptar para trabalhar nas modalidades delivery ou take away. Muitos já trabalhavam assim, mas outros tiveram que se reinventar para sobreviver. Antes de tudo, vamos entender as vantagens e diferenças entre essas duas modalidades O termo take away, ainda pouco conhecido por aqui, nada mais é do que as opções “para viagem”, “buscar no local” ou “para levar”. Nessa alternativa, o cliente retira o pedido no balcão do restaurante e leva para consumir em outro local. A vantagem do take away para os clientes é o menor tempo de espera, menos contato com outras pessoas, e isenção da taxa de entrega (o que pode não compensar pelo custo e tempo de locomoção até o restaurante). Já para os estabelecimentos, há uma economia de custos com equipes de entregas, redução de filas e menor contato entre funcionários e clientes. Por outro lado, quem opta pelo delivery, busca conveniência, segurança e conforto, uma vez que o pedido é enviado até o local definido pelo consumidor. Tanto o delivery, quanto o take away, se caracterizam pelo fato do consumo não ocorrer no local de produção, como os salões dos restaurantes. Além disso, as duas modalidades permitem pedidos via Whatsapp, telefone, redes sociais, site, market places e aplicativos próprios, ampliando a atuação, divulgação e canais de vendas do restaurante. Quando o restaurante opta por aplicativos de pedidos online, uma grande vantagem é o recurso de pagamento online, que gera mais segurança para o entregador e cliente. O Vina, app de delivery do ControleNaMão, oferece a modalidade de pagamento online! Além disso, um aplicativo próprio é menos custoso do que grandes plataformas de market place, o que pode representar uma economia significativa em grandes volumes de pedidos dentro do mês. Resumindo... delivery ou take away? Mesmo após a pandemia, estes modelos de compra ainda serão utilizados por boa parte dos consumidores. Ambos oferecem vantagens para quem compra e para quem vende! Se for possível para o seu negócio, ofereça ambas as opções! As chances de vendas são ampliadas desta forma. Caso precise optar por um dos modelos de venda, analise com seus clientes qual a forma mais benéfica e invista na qualidade dos seus produtos e do seu atendimento!
Basic Information About Quality Assurance Consultants
Quality is not a linear word; it has multiple definitions. When it comes to quality and its assurances, business lacks knowledge and expertise that is why they prefer contacting Quality management consultant. If you wanted to know more about quality assurance, read more. What is quality? The definition of quality also varies from person to person, but in organizations, there must be some standardization that can be documented and treated as quality. In simpler words, quality is fulfilling the customer needs and expectations on the parameter of durability, price, design, reliability, customer service, functionality, and others. What is assurance? Assurance gives credibility and makes a trust bridge between a business and its other stakeholders. It guarantees that the product or services is without any flaws and a customer will get 100 percent satisfaction and value for their money. In-house quality assurances do not make that much impact as compared to assurance from quality assurance consultant professionals. When a business spends on quality management consultants, it is an investment. The invested money gives returns in the form of more customers, high brand value, more expansion, and excellent future growth prospects. As a business, if you are looking for top-ranked Quality management consultants in Australia, contact PQAS. Quality assurance process Professionals from Quality management consulting services make a customized quality assurance process by considering aspirations, industry, business size, human resources capability, budget, and other requirements. Get Quality Assurance certification now. The process involves four stages:- 1. Planning- Once you contact quality management consultants from, they understand every detail of your requirements and also does the ground study. This is the first and crucial stage and all the important decisions are taken in that stage only. Based on the planning, the business gets into a contract with professional consultants and signs a deal. 2. Development and testing- Actual work starts at this stage. Quality management consultants in Australia develop a framework of guidelines/changes and start testing for its efficacy. A small sample size is taken and if the process is successful, the next process starts. Consultants train and prepare master trainers for further dissemination of the information and imparting the knowledge. 3. Monitoring- Any changes take time to give results and in that period it is essential to keep a watch on the process. This helps in mitigating the weaknesses and focusing on the strengths and opportunity areas of the work. 4. Executing- In the final stage, quality assurance consultants implement the work. They ensure that the business fulfills its objectives of implementing a quality assurance process. A business should adopt a quality assurance process periodically to ensure that the product/service is designed and implemented with prescribed procedures. It reduces errors and problems and gives a quality product.
(April-2021)Braindump2go AWS-SysOps PDF and AWS-SysOps VCE Dumps(Q953-Q966)
QUESTION 953 A company is migrating its exchange server from its on-premises location to a VPC in the AWS Cloud. Users working from home connect using a secure, encrypted channel over the internet to the exchange server. However, after the migration to AWS, users are having trouble receiving email. The VPC flow log records display the following. A.SMTP traffic from the network interface was blocked by an outbound network ACL B.SMTP traffic from the network interface was blocked by an outbound security group C.SMTP traffic to the network interface was blocked by an inbound network ACL D.SMTP traffic to the network interface was blocked by an inbound security group Answer: A QUESTION 954 A SysOps administrator is configuring an application on AWS to be used over the internet by departments in other countries. For remote locations, the company requires a static public IP address to be explicitly allowed as a target for outgoing internet traffic. How should the SysOps administrator deploy the application to meet this requirement? A.Deploy the application on an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) cluster Configure an AWS App Mesh service mesh. B.Deploy the application as AWS Lambda functions behind an Application Load Balancer C.Deploy the application on Amazon EC2 instances behind an internet-facing Network Load Balancer D.Deploy the application on an Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) cluster behind an Amazon API Gateway Answer: C QUESTION 955 A SysOps administrator needs to register targets for a Network Load Balancer (NL8) using IP addresses. Which prerequisite should the SysOps administrator validate to perform this task? A.Ensure the NLB listener security policy is set to ELBSecuntyPohcy-TLS-1-2-Ext-2018-06, ELBSecuntyPolicy-FS-1-2-Res-2019-08 or ELBSecuntyPolicy-TLS-1-0-2015-04 B.Ensure the heath check setting on the NLB for the Matcher configuration is between 200 and 399 C.Ensure the targets are within any of these CIDR blocks: (RFC I918)r (RFC 6598): (RFC 1918), or (RFC 1918). D.Ensure the NLB is exposed as an endpoint service before registering the targets using IP addresses Answer: A QUESTION 956 A SysOps administrator must deploy a company's infrastructure as code (laC). The administrator needs to write a single template that can be reused for multiple environments in a safe, repeatable manner. How should the administrator meet this requirement by using AWS Cloud Formation? A.Use duplicate resource definitions for each environment selected based on conditions B.Use nested stacks to provision the resources C.Use parameter references and mappings for resource attributes D.Use AWS Cloud Formation StackSets to provision the resources Answer: B QUESTION 957 Which type routing protocol operates by exchanging the entire routing information? A.exterior gateway protocols protocols C.distance-vector protocols D.Path-vector protocols Answer: B QUESTION 958 Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming? A.Type field B.preamable C.Data field D.start of frame delimiter Answer: B QUESTION 959 Which command must be present in a Cisco device configuration to enable the device to resolve an FQDN? A.ip domain-name B.ip domain-lookup C.ip host D.ip name-server Answer: B QUESTION 960 A company has an application that is hosted on two Amazon EC2 instances in different Availability Zones. Both instances contain data that is critical for the company's business. Backups need to be retained for 7 days and need to be updated every 12 hours. Which solution will meet these requirements with the LEAST amount of effort? A.Use an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) scheduled rule to create snapshots of the Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes. B.Use Amazon Data Lifecycle Manager (Amazon DLM) to create a snapshot lifecycle policy for both instances. C.Create a batch job to generate automated snapshots of the Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes. D.Create an AWS Lambda function to copy the data to Amazon S3 Glacier. Answer: A QUESTION 961 A SysOps administrator is re-architecting an application. The SysOps administrator has moved the database from a public subnet, where the database used a public endpoint, into a private subnet to restrict access from the public network. After this change, an AWS Lambda function that requires read access to the database cannot connect to the database. The SysOps administrator must resolve this issue without compromising security. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Create an AWS PrivateLink interface endpoint for the Lambda function. Connect to the database using its private endpoint. B.Connect the Lambda function to the database VPC. Connect to the database using its private endpoint. C.Attach an IAM role to the Lambda function with read permissions to the database. D.Move the database to a public subnet. Use security groups for secure access. Answer: D QUESTION 962 A company that hosts a multi-tier ecommerce web application on AWS has been alerted to suspicious application traffic. The architecture consists of Amazon EC2 instances deployed across multiple Availability Zones behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). After examining the instance logs, a SysOps administrator determines that the suspicious traffic is an attempted SQL injection attack. What should the SysOps administrator do to prevent similar attacks? A.Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution with the ALB as the origin. Enable AWS Shield Advanced to protect from SQL injection attacks at edge locations. B.Create an AWS WAF web ACL, and configure a SQL injection rule to add to the web ACL. Associate the WAF web ACL with the ALB. C.Enable Amazon GuardDuty. Use Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) to trigger an AWS Lambda function every time GuardDuty detects SQL injection. D.Install Amazon Inspector on the EC2 instances, and configure a rules package. Use the findings reports to identify and block SQL injection attacks. Answer: A QUESTION 963 An Amazon EC2 instance has a secondary Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) volume attached that contains sensitive data. A new company policy requires the secondary volume to be encrypted at rest. Which solution will meet this requirement? A.Create a snapshot of the volume. Create a new volume from the snapshot with the Encrypted parameter set to true. Detach the original volume and attach the new volume to the instance. B.Create an encrypted Amazon Machine Image (AMI) of the EC2 instance. Launch a new instance with the encrypted AMI. Terminate the original instance. C.Stop the EC2 instance. Encrypt the volume with AWS CloudHSM. Start the instance and verify encryption. D.Stop the EC2 instance. Modify the instance properties and set the Encrypted parameter to true. Start the instance and verify encryption. Answer: A QUESTION 964 A SysOps administrator recently launched an application consisting of web servers running on Amazon EC2 instances, an Amazon ElastiCache cluster communicating on port 6379, and an Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance communicating on port 5432. The web servers are in the security group web-sg, the ElastiCache cluster is in the security group cache-sg, and the DB instance is in the security group database-sg. The application fails on start, with the error message "Unable to connect to the database". The rules in web-sg are as follows. Which change should the SysOps administrator make to web-sg to correct the issue without compromising security? A.Add a new inbound rule: database-sg TCP 5432 B.Add a new outbound rule: database-sg TCP 5432 C.Add a new outbound rule: All Traffic 0-65535 D.Change the outbound rule to: cache-sg TCP 5432 Answer: A QUESTION 965 A kernel patch for AWS Linux has been released, and systems need to be updated to the new version. A SysOps administrator must apply an in-place update to an existing Amazon EC2 instance without replacing the instance. How should the SysOps administrator apply the new software version to the instance? A.Add the instance to a patch group and patch baseline containing the desired patch by using AWS Systems Manager Patch Manager. B.Develop a new version of the instance's Amazon Machine Image (AMI). Apply that new AMI to the instance. C.Develop a new user data script containing the patch. Configure the instance with the new script. D.Run commands on the instance remotely using the AWS CLI. Answer: A QUESTION 966 A company needs to implement a system for object-based storage in a write-once, read-many (WORM) model. Objects cannot be deleted or changed after they are stored, even by an AWS account root user or administrators. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Set up Amazon S3 Cross-Region Replication and run daily updates. B.Set up Amazon S3 Object Lock in governance mode with S3 Versioning enabled. C.Set up Amazon S3 Object Lock in compliance mode with S3 Versioning enabled. D.Set up an Amazon S3 Lifecycle policy to move the objects to Amazon S3 Glacier. Answer: B 2021 Latest Braindump2go AWS-SysOps PDF and AWS-SysOps VCE Dumps Free Share:
(April-2021)Braindump2go NSE7_SDW-6.4 PDF and NSE7_SDW-6.4 VCE Dumps(Q11-Q27)
QUESTION 11 Which components make up the secure SD-WAN solution? A.FortiGate, FortiManager, FortiAnalyzer, and FortiDeploy B.Application, antivirus, and URL, and SSL inspection C.Datacenter, branch offices, and public cloud D.Telephone, ISDN, and telecom network Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the status of the VPN tunnel are true? (Choose two.) A.There are separate virtual interfaces for each dial-up client. B.VPN static routes are prevented from populating the FortiGate routing table. C.FortiGate created a single IPsec virtual interface that is shared by all clients. D. is one of the remote IP address that comes through index interface 1. Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 13 Refer to exhibits. Exhibit A shows the SD-WAN rules and exhibit B shows the traffic logs. The SD-WAN traffic logs reflect how FortiGate processed traffic. Which two statements about how the configured SD-WAN rules are processing traffic are true? (Choose two.) A.The implicit rule overrides all other rules because parameters widely cover sources and destinations. B.SD-WAN rules are evaluated in the same way as firewall policies: from top to bottom. C.The All_Access_Rules rule load balances Vimeo application traffic among SD-WAN member interfaces. D.The initial session of an application goes through a learning phase in order to apply the correct rule. Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 14 What are the two minimum configuration requirements for an outgoing interface to be selected once the SD-WAN logical interface is enabled? (Choose two.) A.Specify outgoing interface routing cost. B.Configure SD-WAN rules interface preference. C.Select SD-WAN balancing strategy. D.Specify incoming interfaces in SD-WAN rules. Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 15 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibit, which statement about FortiGate re-evaluating traffic is true? A.The type of traffic defined and allowed on firewall policy ID 1 is UDP. B.Changes have been made on firewall policy ID 1 on FortiGate. C.Firewall policy ID 1 has source NAT disabled. D.FortiGate has terminated the session after a change on policy ID 1. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16 What are two reasons why FortiGate would be unable to complete the zero-touch provisioning process? (Choose two.) A.The FortiGate cloud key has not been added to the FortiGate cloud portal. B.FortiDeploy has connected with FortiGate and provided the initial configuration to contact FortiManager. C.FortiGAte has obtained a configuration from the platform template in FortiGate cloud. D.A factory reset performed on FortiGate. E.The zero-touch provisioning process has completed internally, behind FortiGate. Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 17 Which two statements reflect the benefits of implementing the ADVPN solution to replace conventional VPN topologies? (Choose two.) A.It creates redundant tunnels between hub-and-spokes, in case failure takes place on the primary links. B.It dynamically assigns cost and weight between the hub and the spokes, based on the physical distance. C.It ensures that spoke-to-spoke traffic no longer needs to flow through the tunnels through the hub. D.It provides direct connectivity between all sites by creating on-demand tunnels between spokes. Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 18 Refer to the exhibit. Based on output shown in the exhibit, which two commands can be used by SD-WAN rules? (Choose two.) A.set cost 15. B.set source C.set priority 10. D.set load-balance-mode source-ip-based. Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the debug output are correct? (Choose two.) A.The debug output shows per-IP shaper values and real-time readings. B.This traffic shaper drops traffic that exceeds the set limits. C.Traffic being controlled by the traffic shaper is under 1 Kbps. D.FortiGate provides statistics and reading based on historical traffic logs. Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 20 In the default SD-WAN minimum configuration, which two statements are correct when traffic matches the default implicit SD-WAN rule? (Choose two.) A.Traffic has matched none of the FortiGate policy routes. B.Matched traffic failed RPF and was caught by the rule. C.The FIB lookup resolved interface was the SD-WAN interface. D.An absolute SD-WAN rule was defined and matched traffic. Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 21 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the trace evaluation by FortiGate is true? A.Packets exceeding the configured maximum concurrent connection limit are denied by the per-IP shaper. B.The packet exceeded the configured bandwidth and was dropped based on the priority configuration. C.The packet exceeded the configured maximum bandwidth and was dropped by the shared shaper. D.Packets exceeding the configured concurrent connection limit are dropped based on the priority configuration. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22 Refer to the exhibit. FortiGate has multiple dial-up VPN interfaces incoming on port1 that match only FIRST_VPN. Which two configuration changes must be made to both IPsec VPN interfaces to allow incoming connections to match all possible IPsec dial-up interfaces? (Choose two.) A.Specify a unique peer ID for each dial-up VPN interface. B.Use different proposals are used between the interfaces. C.Configure the IKE mode to be aggressive mode. D.Use unique Diffie Hellman groups on each VPN interface. Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 23 Refer to exhibits. Exhibit A shows the firewall policy and exhibit B shows the traffic shaping policy. The traffic shaping policy is being applied to all outbound traffic; however, inbound traffic is not being evaluated by the shaping policy. Based on the exhibits, what configuration change must be made in which policy so that traffic shaping can be applied to inbound traffic? A.The guaranteed-10mbps option must be selected as the per-IP shaper option. B.The guaranteed-10mbps option must be selected as the reverse shaper option. C.A new firewall policy must be created and SD-WAN must be selected as the incoming interface. D.The reverse shaper option must be enabled and a traffic shaper must be selected. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24 Refer to the exhibit. What must you configure to enable ADVPN? A.ADVPN should only be enabled on unmanaged FortiGate devices. B.Each VPN device has a unique pre-shared key configured separately on phase one. C.The protected subnets should be set to address object to all ( D.On the hub VPN, only the device needs additional phase one settings. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25 Which two statements describe how IPsec phase 1 main mode id different from aggressive mode when performing IKE negotiation? (Choose two.) A.A peer ID is included in the first packet from the initiator, along with suggested security policies. B.XAuth is enabled as an additional level of authentication, which requires a username and password. C.A total of six packets are exchanged between an initiator and a responder instead of three packets. D.The use of Diffie Hellman keys is limited by the responder and needs initiator acceptance. Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 26 What are two benefits of using FortiManager to organize and manage the network for a group of FortiGate devices? (Choose two.) A.It simplifies the deployment and administration of SD-WAN on managed FortiGate devices. B.It improves SD-WAN performance on the managed FortiGate devices. C.It sends probe signals as health checks to the beacon servers on behalf of FortiGate. D.It acts as a policy compliance entity to review all managed FortiGate devices. E.It reduces WAN usage on FortiGate devices by acting as a local FortiGuard server. Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 27 What would best describe the SD-WAN traffic shaping mode that bases itself on a percentage of available bandwidth? A.Per-IP shaping mode B.Shared policy shaping mode C.Interface-based shaping mode D.Reverse policy shaping mode Correct Answer: B 2021 Latest Braindump2go NSE7_SDW-6.4 PDF and NSE7_SDW-6.4 VCE Dumps Free Share:
(April-2021)Braindump2go COBIT-2019 PDF and COBIT-2019VCE Dumps(Q43-Q63)
QUESTION 43 The value that I&T delivers should be: A.aligned directly with the values on which the business is focused. B.focused exclusively on I&T investments that generate financial benefits. C.restricted to maintaining and increasing value derived from existing I&T investments. Answer: C QUESTION 44 COBIT addresses governance issues by doing which of the following? A.Grouping relevant governance components into objectives that can be managed to a required capability level B.Providing a full description of the entire IT environment within an enterprise C.Defining specific governance strategies and processes to implement in specific situations Answer: A QUESTION 45 Which of the following is a guiding principle in the development of COBIT? A.COBIT aligns with other related and relevant I&T standards, frameworks and regulations B.COBIT includes relevant content from other related I&T standards, frameworks and regulations. C.COBIT serves as a comprehensive standalone framework that covers all relevant I&T-related activities. Answer: A QUESTION 46 Which of the following is an element of governance? A.Building plans to align with the direction set by the governance body B.Monitoring activities designed to achieve enterprise objectives C.Evaluating stakeholder needs to determine enterprise objectives Answer: A QUESTION 47 In most cases, management of the enterprise is the responsibility of: A.the project management office. B.the executive management team. C.the board of directors. Answer: A QUESTION 48 Which of the following benefits derived from the use of COBIT is PRIMARILY associated with an external stakeholder? A.COBIT provides guidance on how to organize and monitor the performance of I&T across the enterprise. B.COBIT helps to manage the dependency on the use of external service providers. C.COBIT helps to ensure compliance with applicable rules and regulations. Answer: A QUESTION 49 Which of the following is MOST critical to ensuring the objective of managed availability and capacity? A.Allocation of budgets for business continuity B.Future prediction of I&T resource requirements C.Identification of single points of failure Answer: A QUESTION 50 Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit associated with the management objective "managed strategy?" A.Desired value is delivered through a roadmap of incremental changes B.Service delivery is facilitated by adopting the latest technology innovations C.Effective communication channels are established across all levels of management Answer: A QUESTION 51 Which of the following MUST be defined before determining alignment goals? A.External laws and regulations B.Stakeholder drivers and needs C.Governance and management objectives Answer: B QUESTION 52 Time-to-market is a market that is directly related to which of the following enterprise goals? A.Optimization of internal business process functionality B.Portfolio of competitive products and services C.Managed digital transformation programs Answer: B QUESTION 53 Which of the following would be an appropriate metric associated with an enterprise goal of "Business service continuity and availability"? A.Satisfaction levels of board and executive management with business process capabilities B.Ratio of significant incidents that were not identified in risk assessments vs. total incidents C.Number of business processing hours lost due to unplanned service interruptions Answer: C QUESTION 54 Which of the following enterprise goals is within the Customer dimension of the IT balanced scorecard? A.Delivery of programs on time and on budget B.Product and business innovation C.Quality of management information Answer: C QUESTION 55 Which of the following cascades to enterprise goals? A.Stakeholder needs B.Organizational objectives C.Enterprise strategy Answer: C QUESTION 56 Which of the following metrics would BEST enable an enterprise to evaluate an alignment goal specifically related to security of information and privacy? A.Ratio and extent of erroneous business decisions in which erroneous I&T-related information was a key factor B.Number of critical business processes supported by up-to-date infrastructure and applications C.Number of confidentiality incidents causing financial loss, business disruption or public embarrassment. Answer: C QUESTION 57 Which of the following would be an appropriate metric to align with a goal of "Delivery of programs on time, on budget, and meeting requirements and quality standards"? A.Percent of stakeholders satisfied with program/project quality B.Percent of business staff satisfied that IT service delivery meets agreed service levels C.Level of user satisfaction with the quality and availability of I&T-related management information Answer: A QUESTION 58 The alignment goal "Delivery of I&T services in line with business requirements" is organized into which IT balanced scorecard (BSC) dimension? A.Customer B.Financial C.Internal Answer: A QUESTION 59 Which of the following management objectives is related to optimization of system performance? A.Managed I&T management framework B.Managed availability and capacity C.Managed service agreements Answer: B QUESTION 60 The ability to rapidly turn business requirements into operational solutions is an example of which type of goal? A.An enterprise goal B.A strategic goal C.An alignment goal Answer: C QUESTION 61 Which of the following would BEST help to determine whether intended outcomes of IT governance are being achieved? A.Reviewing business satisfaction survey results B.Reviewing the balanced scorecard C.Reviewing the governance business case Answer: B QUESTION 62 The alignment goal titled "Knowledge, expertise and initiatives for business innovation" is aligned to which IT balanced scorecard (BSC) dimension? A.Customer B.Learning and Growth C.Internal Answer: B QUESTION 63 Which of the following comprises the "information flow" component of a governance system? A.People, skills and competencies B.Assignment of responsibility and accountability roles C.Process practices that include inputs and outputs Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go COBIT-2019 PDF and COBIT-2019 VCE Dumps Free Share:
The Skills You Need to Learn Azure
Azure is recognized for being easy, but it’s supportive to recognize some allied technologies before you dive head-first into a new stage. Here are some abilities that will support you learn Azure: Cloud computing: You should know how core facilities like networking, databases, servers and software function in the cloud. Earlier experience working with extra cloud stage like Amazon Web Services (AWS) or Google Cloud will give you abilities that change to Azure. Microsoft knowledge: Knowledge using products like Office 365 and PowerShell will support you realize how these facilities integrate with Azure. Programming: If you design on developing applications in Azure, knowledge of open-source outlines like ASP.NET and programming languages like SQL Server, HTML5 and JavaScript will support you get onward. Training Courses Microsoft Azure Training in Noida, Classroom and actual instructor-led training courses deliver hands-on training to help you master Azure. You’ll advance practical knowledge making virtual networks, deploying databases and designing web apps in Azure. Azure training supports you grow critical cloud services that many businesses are greatly looking for out. Sharpen Your Azure Skills with Certifications Earning an Azure certification will support you advance professional acknowledgement for your Azure ability, rise your career chances and boost your earning possible. Microsoft offers certifications at the learner, associate and knowledgeable level for IT professionals interested in top and managing Azure solutions.
Requirements for preclinical and clinical trial norms
Clinical trials run only after approval of a list of preclinical trial norms and protocols. Different national and international laws govern these norms and protocols. In India, The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (PCA Act) and The Breeding of and Experiments on Animals (Control and Supervision) Rules, 1998 (BEACS Rules) framed under the PCA Act regulate the preclinical trials or studies on animals. The BEACS Rules states that any protocol for preclinical trials must ensure that animals first considered for any experimental procedure should stand lowest on the phylogenetic scale, which may give scientifically valid results. The experiment should be so designed that a minimum number of animals are used to give statistically valid results, establishing a 95 percent degree of confidence. Take Clinical Research Training. Before experiments can be conducted on animals, experiment-specific permission is required from a designated committee or authority. As regulated by different laws regulating preclinical trials across the world, some of the crucial requirements include study rationale, study design, subject eligibility, study treatment, and background of the principal investigator. Generally, an ethics committee is also set up to review and approve the clinical trial prior to its operations commencement. The ethics committee is also responsible for reviewing and approving any changes or updates made to the clinical trial protocols prior to their implementation. However, prior approval from the ethics committee is not required when the implementation of updates is necessary for patients' health and safety.
Tìm hiểu về Ca trù
Ca trù hay còn gọi nôm na là hát cô đầu, hát nhà trò. Đây là loại hình diễn xướng thịnh hành từ thế kỷ 15 và từng là loại ca trong cung đình được yêu thích nhất. Ca trù chính là sự phối hợp nhuần nhuyễn và đỉnh cao giữa thi ca và âm nhạc. Ca trù là dạng nghệ thuật biểu diễn dùng nhiều thể văn chương như: phú, truyện, ngâm, nhưng thể văn chương phổ biến nhất là hát nói và hát kể. Hát nói xuất hiện sớm nhưng phải đợi đến đầu thế kỷ 19 mới có những tác phẩm lưu truyền đến nay như các tác phẩm của Nguyễn Công Trứ, Cao Bá Quát... Hát nói là sự phàm tục hoá những thể thánh ca. Trước khi có Hát nói, ở Việt Nam đã có những bài hát xoan, hát cửa đền, cửa chùa, những bài thét nhạc. Những thể ca trong các dịp tế lễ đó chuyển dần công dụng và được các tao nhân, mặc khách tổ chức ngay trong những cuộc giải trí riêng của họ. Các bài hát nói bắt đầu từ đó. Hát nói là biến thể của song thất lục bát. Các nhà viết sách thời xưa cho rằng Hát nói là một hình thức biến đổi của thể ngâm Song thất lục bát: Trong hát nói có Mưỡu là những câu thơ lục bát, nhiều câu 7 chữ có vần bằng, vần trắc, có cước vận, yêu vận. Nhưng khi đã phát triển, Hát nói là một thể tài hỗn hợp gồm: thơ, phú, lục bát, song thất, tứ tự, nói lối,... Trong lối Hát ca trù có nhiều loại như: Dâng hương, Giáo trống, Gủi thư, Thét nhạc thì Hát nói là lối thông dụng và có tính văn chương lý thú nhất; lời hát của thể cách hát nói như nỗi ai oán được thăng hoa thành nguồn cảm hứng bất tận. >> Xem thêm tại: CA TRÙ LÀ GÌ? Đặc điểm nghệ thuật của Ca trù Việt Nam >> Nhạc 8D là gì? Trào lưu 8D Music với âm thanh đa chiều
(April-2021)Braindump2go 350-901 PDF and 350-901 VCE Dumps(Q143-Q168)
QUESTION 143 Refer to the exhibit. Which key value pair from the ios_ntp Ansible module creates the NTP server peer? A.state: absent B.state: False C.config: absent D.config: False Answer: D QUESTION 144 A developer deploys a SQLite database in a Docker container. Single-use secret keys are generated each time a user accesses the database. The keys expire after 24 hours. Where should the keys be stored? A.Outside of the Docker container in the source code of applications that connect to the SQLite database. B.In a separate file inside the Docker container that runs the SQLite database. C.In an encrypted database table within the SQLite database. D.In a separate storage volume within the Docker container. Answer: D QUESTION 145 While working with the Webex Teams API, on an application that uses end-to-end encryption, a webhook has been received. What must be considered to read the message? A.Webhook information cannot be used to read the message because of end-to-end encryption. The API key is needed to decrypt the message. B.Webhook returns the full unencrypted message. Only the body is needed to query the API. C.Webhook returns a hashed version of the message that must be unhashed with the API key. D.Webhook returns message identification. To query, the API is needed for that message to get the decrypted information. Answer: A QUESTION 147 What are two steps in the OAuth2 protocol flow? (Choose two.) A.The user is authenticated by the authorization server and granted an access token. B.The user's original credentials are validated by the resource server and authorization is granted. C.The user indirectly requests authorization through the authorization server. D.The user requests an access token by authentication and authorization grant presentation. E.The user requests the protected resource from the resource server using the original credentials. Answer: AE QUESTION 149 What is the gRPC Network Management Interface protocol? A.a unified management protocol for streaming telemetry and database logging B.a configuration management protocol for monitoring C.a protocol for configuration management and streaming telemetry D.a logging protocol used across database servers Answer: C QUESTION 150 An application has been developed for monitoring rooms in Cisco Webex. An engineer uses the application to retrieve all the messages from a Cisco Webex room, but the results are slowly presented. Which action optimizes calls to retrieve the messages from the /v1/messages endpoint? A.Define the ma property by using the pagination functionality. B.Set the beforeMessage property to retrieve the messages sent before a specific message ID. C.Avoid unnecessary calls by using a prior request to /v1/rooms to retrieve the last activity property. D.Filter the response results by specifying the created property in the request. Answer: A QUESTION 151 What are two principles according to the build, release, run principle of the twelve-factor app methodology? (Choose two.) A.Code changes are able to be made at runtime. B.Separation between the build, release, and run phases. C.Releases should have a unique identifier. D.Existing releases are able to be mutated after creation. E.Release stage is responsible for compilation of assets and binaries. Answer: BC QUESTION 152 A developer is building an application to access a website. When running the application, an HTTP 403 error code has been received. How should the application be modified to handle this code? A.Create a loop on cancel the operation and run a new one after the code is received. B.Use exponential backoff when retrying distributed services and other remote endpoints. C.Build a try/except around the urlopen to find errors occurring in the request. D.Redirect the request to an internal web server and make a new request from the internal resource. Answer: B QUESTION 153 When end-to-end encryption is implemented, which area is most vulnerable to exploitation? A.cryptographic key exchange B.endpoint security C.cryptographic key generation of data in transit Answer: B QUESTION 154 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing in the diagram to show how data is processed in Webex Teams. Not all options are used. Answer: Answer: B QUESTION 156 What are two benefits of using distributed log collectors? (Choose two.) A.supports multiple transport protocols such as TCP/UDP B.improves performance and reduces resource consumption C.provides flexibility due to a wide range of plugins and accepted log formats D.enables extension of logs with fields and export to backend systems E.buffers and resends data when the network is unavailable Answer: BE QUESTION 157 What are two features of On-Box Python for hosting an application on a network device? (Choose two.) A.It has direct access to Cisco IOS XE CLI commands. B.It is a Python interpreter installed inside the guest shell. C.It enables execution of XML scripts on a Cisco IOS XE router or switch. D.It supports Qt for graphical interfaces and dashboards. E.It has access to Cisco IOS XE web UI through a controller. Answer: AB QUESTION 158 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring Ansible to run playbooks against Cisco IOS XE Software. What should be configured in ansible.cfg as the connection type? A.network_cli B.ssh D.command Answer: B QUESTION 160 Refer to the exhibit. The JSON response is received from the Meraki location API. Which parameter is missing? A.apMac B.clientMac C.clientId D.accesspoint Answer: B QUESTION 161 Which two gRPC modes of model-driven telemetry are supported on Cisco IOS XE Software? (Choose two.) A.dial-in B.dial-out E.passive Answer: AB QUESTION 162 Refer to the exhibit. Which parameter is missing from the JSON response to confirm the API version that is used? A.version 4 B.v10 C.2 D.version 2 Answer: C QUESTION 163 What is a capability of the End User Monitoring feature of the AppDynamics platform? A.discovers traffic flows, nodes, and transport connections where network or application/network issues are developing B.monitoring local processes, services, and resource use, to explain problematic server performance C.identifies the slowest mobile and IoT network requests, to locate the cause of problems D.provides metrics on the performance of the database to troubleshoot performance-related issues Answer: C QUESTION 165 What is the function of dependency management? A.separating code into modules that execute independently B.utilizing a single programming language/framework for each code project C.automating the identification and resolution of code dependencies D.managing and enforcing unique software version names or numbers Answer: A QUESTION 167 Drag and Drop Question Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to provision a new UCS server. Not all options are used. Answer: QUESTION 168 Drag and Drop Question A Python application is being written to run inside a Cisco IOS XE device to assist with gathering telemetry data. Drag and drop the elements of the stack from the left onto the functions on the right to collect and display the telemetry streaming data. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go 350-901 PDF and 350-901 VCE Dumps Free Share: