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5 Reasons Why A Cyber Security Degree Is Worth It
Did you know a hacker attack happens every 39 seconds? And this means cyberterrorists and hackers have countless chances to exploit Organizations, individuals, and government institutions. Moreover, companies are prepared to pay a lot for cybersecurity specialists to defend their data from attacks. So, this makes getting a cybersecurity degree whether in school or online worth it. Here are more reasons you should go for it. There is high demand and short supply Cyber-attacks are more prevalent to individuals and companies in this digital era. However, the niche is not well exploited, and there is a deficit. According to experts, 82% of employers report a shortage of skilled cyber security experts. And about 71% of them know that the deficit causes damage to their organizations. Additionally, as per the cybersecurity workforce study, there is a worldwide shortage of 4.07 million cyber security experts. And to match the demand, the global workforce needs to grow by 145%. Return on Investment (ROI) When you think of the return on investment on a cyber security degree, it appears positive. The average cost is $6,826 at a public university or $28,890 at a private college outside the US. However, the current salaries for information security (InfoSec) are higher compared to other professions. For example, an InfoSec analyst earns an average of $98,350. However, the lowest earned by these experts is $56,750 and the highest $156,580. So, if you pursue the degree at an affordable university, a beginner's salary might offset your costs. Enviable Proficiency What if you enrolled for a cyber security degree online due to the demand? And you are excited about the salary. The question is, will these jobs still be there five years to come? Although a degree is no guarantee, there is a possibility. It is due to the rapid growth of this sector, and reports foretell it will continue. It predicted a 32% growth of InfoSec jobs by 2028. So, with the other sector's job growth expectations at 5%, the cyber security future looks brighter. You Gain Must Have Skills One primary reason to take a cyber security degree is the technical knowledge you acquire. In addition, most schools offer programs that cater to cyber operations. And this can enable you to hone skills used by workers daily. Some of these skills include: ● Data security – Helps you handle incidents that violate security policies. ● Security risk assessment-To be an efficient expert; you need to know how to evaluate and control risk. ● Audit and security compliance-You need to be well versed in conducting a security audit to detect defects. Variety cyber jobs In this field, there are many niches. And this makes it easy to match a job with your passion and skill set. Here are some of the job titles: ● White hat hacker - this is an ethical hacker. These pros try to beat illegal hackers at their game. ● Security architect-security architects design and build secure systems. ● Digital forensic analyst -Cyber Criminals may leave a trail. The digital forensics experts track this evidence down. ● Security software developers-Develop tools to curb potential threats like viruses, other kinds of malware. ● Information security analysts - They take care of the company's computer networks. ● Cryptographers- they convert readable data into a masked code keeping it protected, intact, and secret. So, is a cyber security degree important? Yes. And with low supply to demand of these pros makes it a promising career. So, now you can choose your perfect major and pursue it.
Why Your Business Needs Online Timesheets
A business gets a better vision of the future when it knows how its employees are performing. From a business point of view, productivity and tracking time allow you to improve the team’s performance, maximize resources, and gain accurate knowledge of how hours are being spent.  What is Online Timesheet? The timesheet is a data sheet that employers use to track the time of employees for a certain period of time. It is basically a record of time spent by the employees on a particular task, client, or project. There have been different ways to record the timesheet, like, paper, spreadsheet software, excel, and nowadays online timesheets software.  Why should Businesses use Timesheets? For any business to rise and shine, there should be effective work performed for effective results. Thus, a business owner wants its employees to utilize their work duration in a productive manner. Having a fleet of employees, it becomes quite difficult to understand each employee’s efficiency to finish their task.  Therefore, it turned out necessary to keep track of the employee’s dedication to complete the project. Here Timesheet comes into play. It will help to determine each employee’s work status. Accordingly, you can motivate the employee who is working slow.  This will help to meet deadlines and maintain the budget also. Advantages of Timesheets - Reduce Time Wastage Accurate billing Automates Billing Project Management Saves Company’s expenditure How do different business sectors use Timesheets? Various types of industries are using Online Timesheets in different terms. Let’s check out how: Law Firm – The law firm sector keeps a record of their client’s dealing hours and maintains a list of services they provide. Here, the timesheet assists in tracking the bill according to the client servicing hours. Freelancers – Many freelancers charge per hour with the clients. Thus, maintaining the time record is very necessary. To do this, freelancers use the Timesheet online calculator that helps to record the time precisely. This helps to keep transparency between you and the client. Accountants – The accountant’s profit depends on how the workers of the company spend time to complete the client’s project: the more billability, the more profit. Thus, to set a record of the time and bills, the Timesheet is required. But, correct software should be chosen for the accountants that can help in employee tracking and maintaining the online timesheet. One recommended software is WorkStatus, which includes an all-in-one feature.  Final Words With the growth in technology, time has become a vital part of businesses, and simultaneously a timesheet has been chosen by different industries, to know each hour’s production. An Online Timesheets Software like WorkStatus will help you provide an auto-update about the time schedules of the employees. This will help your business to drive to success. So, say bye-bye to paper timesheets and choose the software that will give accurate time notes, and your data will be safe and secured. Source : Why Your Business Needs Online Timesheets | Benefits & User Manual
Bring Impeccable Changes In Remote Work
Regular Monitoring of the remote workforce brings a lot of wins for organizations. This can become a swift and simple task for all managers to provide a permanent value to the organization. It can also ensure that every team member is aware of the latest projects activities or even their responsibilities and make everyone understand what is happening around them, either inside or outside the organization. Thus, when managers have regular communication with their remote teams, it helps a lot, especially when problems happen unexpectedly. And when they have been able to discuss issues as soon as possible, the problem will not lead to significant disruptions that may affect the overall process. Remote Monitoring & its Benefits Remote Monitoring is a process of tracking employees’ activities, internal communication, and performance without making them feel observed. The aim is to achieve better business success through employee satisfaction. You can use just one tool or combine it if you have various remote locations with specific requirements. Let’s explore some of its benefits below - 1. Employers can easily monitor their employee’s performance remotely without having to check upon them physically. 2. Online time tracker helps you in getting better results from each employee. 3. It helps in knowing how much time a person has invested in a project and whether the schedule is maintained. 4. It is very helpful to get in touch with your team members’ performance status from time to time. In addition to the enumerated time benefits above, productivity time tracking software provides a diverse range of time management features such as the time entry feature (which means that you can enter time manually), time card creation, auto time input from emails, and many more. Reasons to track activities of your remote workforce 1. To minimize the distractions 2. Add surveillance for insider threats 3. To develop clear productivity directives for a remote team 4. Project Management Tracking 5. Create an extra layer of security for weak remote networks Which software should be used for employee monitoring? Monitoring and tracking Employee Productivity and performance can be complex, but the right software will show increased quality from your team. When choosing a monitoring tool, you need to make sure it fits your company culture for everyone in the office. A Time Tracker Software should be able to meet the following requirements- · Activity monitoring · Time tracking · Task tracking · Better employee management · Remote access · Time wasted reports · Better productivity · Clear timesheets WorkStatus is one of the best Employees Monitoring Software that meets all the above requirements. Also Read : How Can Regular Monitoring in Remote Work Bring Impeccable Changes?
What COVID-19 Impacted on Cleaning Robot in Semiconductors & Electronics Industry ?
Impact of COVID-19 on Cleaning Robot in Semiconductors & Electronics Industry ANALYSIS ON IMPACT OF COVID-19 ON THE MARKET The pandemic started with its epicenter in China in 2019 and has been continuously spreading by then to all over the world, so far 216 countries and territories have been affected with Covid-19, the U.S. being on the top with cases reaching about 4.38 million, followed by Brazil, India and then by many European countries such as Russia, Spain, Italy, and others. The COVID-19 cases reaching to the big named countries with strong dominance in the global market which has adversely affected the economy globally. The spread of the coronavirus has led to the global recession, many companies are being bound to take stringent actions of laying off their employees, small businesses are being shut, and manufacturing facilities are being put on hold. There has been a disruption in the supply chain of many industries due to restrictions in logistics and the closing of manufacturing facilities. In addition, the slowdown in the economy has lowered the spending capability of individuals and people are saving money for emergencies. However, now almost in every country, the factories are started to reopen by taking some prevention such as 20% -50% employees on the field, social distancing, extreme hygiene measures, and others to support the economy. It is supporting the economy and helping to lower the recession rate at a certain level. COVID-19 highly impacted the personal and domestic cleaning robots market due to the recession gripping the world and a decline in disposable income, the demand for personal and domestic robots declined. Also, the behavior of the individuals has certainly changed in the pandemic, people are now more concerned about their health and spending for future use due to incurred losses which lead to a decrease in the sale of cleaning robots. However, cleaning robots have a huge demand in the healthcare sector. During the time of social distancing, hospitals are demanding mobile robots integrated with UV-C light disinfection equipment to sanitize the wards and rooms to minimize any physical contact. For instance, In June 2020, According to the founder and chairman of Milagrow Robots, there has been a huge surge in demand for floor and window cleaning robots. The total sale is expected to be 300,000 to 400,000 cleaning robots in 2020 when compared to 10,000 cleaning robots in 2019. STEPS TAKEN BY MANUFACTURERS DURING COVID-19 SITUATION As the COVID-19 crisis continues to expand, makers would possibly face challenges on varied fronts. Producing firms would be searching for immediate measures to stay their workforces safe and their businesses solvent. Makers would conjointly have to be compelled to look on the far side of their economic viability. Because the COVID-19 pandemic intensifies, makers would possibly face continued downward pressure on demand, production, and revenues. They would continuously face cash-flow liquidity challenges and difficulties in managing debt obligations. In December 2020, LG Electronics announced the launch of the autonomous robot with disinfecting UV light for various B2B applications. This robot uses ultraviolet (UV-C) light to disinfect high-touch, high-traffic areas and is designed for hospitality, education, corporate, retail, restaurant, and transportation customers to reduce exposure to harmful bacteria and germs The pandemic may drive the enhancement of automation, digitalization, and artificial intelligence (AI) in almost all sectors. In a situation like social distancing automation and robotics could reduce dependence on human labor and increase productivity, preventing the chances of losses. The pandemic has boosted the growth of healthcare industries. As people need to maintain physical distancing, manufacturers can gain the advantage of this norm to address the mass public in hospitals and crowded places. Manufacturers were engaged in product development with advanced technologies, partnerships, and collaborations to gain a competitive advantage in the market. For instance, In January 2021, SAMSUNG announced the launch of new AI-powered robotic vacuum and laundry products. The new JetBot 90 AI+ features smart technologies that optimize the cleaning route and respond to its environment. The JetBot 90 AI+ is the world’s first smart robotic vacuum that helps to automate home cleaning in these Covid times IMPACT ON DEMAND The behavior of the individuals has certainly changed in the pandemic, people are now more concerned about their health. The government is also working on research and development to develop a vaccine and avoid any further pandemic as such. The government is using augmented and virtual reality for the known disasters which can help in reducing the effects of the disaster. The pandemic has boosted the digital transformation of industries, companies are focusing more on a digital platform to interact with their clients and customers. The pandemic has brought a huge demand for cleaning robots to ensure safety as COVID-19 has put cleaning and disinfection front and center in facility maintenance and at other places. Huge adoption of technology, automation, and smart buildings is gradually increasing the scope of growth for the cleaning robot market. IMPACT ON SUPPLY CHAIN The pandemic has brought a huge impact on the supply chain of the cleaning robot market. The logistics and transportation of assets deteriorated a lot. The supply chain was adversely affected as the lockdown prevailed in many regions globally, the government has limited the workers. Companies are making their operations work according to the government regulations by making limited workers work in different shifts. The supply chain is experiencing disruption in Chinese parts exports, large-scale manufacturing interruptions across Europe, and the closure of assembly plants in the U.S. The manufacturers were facing a shortage of raw material, shifting of production to other countries, liquidity crunch to delays in availability of models, and deferred launches. However, now there is an improvement in the supply chain as most of the facilities and travel restrictions have opened and working in most optimum capacity. CONCLUSION As the Covid-19 prevails the cleaning robot market has witnessed a gradual increase in the demand for cleaning robots and services. Most of the manufacturing facilities were closed bringing down the production of cleaning robots which leads to disruption in the supply chain. However, as the markets are getting digitally transformed and people are being more reliable on digital sources the market seems to be growing. Organizations operating under this market were building up new strategies to maintain all the safety measures at facilities and focusing on technological up-gradation to boost the growth of the market. Even after the pandemic automation of industries will continue to increase which acts as a major driver for the market. Growing demand from the healthcare, media & entertainment, and retail sector will act as a major boosting factor for the growth of the market in this pandemic.
Important Key Points of Social Media Marketing
While looking out for the SMM service expert team you are bound to reach social media marketing experts. SMM is an excellent way for businesses of all sizes to reach prospects and relevant customers. SMM is a form of online marketing that includes creating and sharing content on social media networks in order to achieve your marketing and advertising objectives. The activities like text posting and image-videos uploads, and other content that drives people’s engagement, as well as paid social media advertising involves in Social Media Marketing. The five fundamental pillars of Social Media Marketing Strategy. First of all, when you start creating social media marketing campaigns; define the objectives of your business. Whenever you creating a social media marketing campaign with no social strategy that is like wasting your efforts without the right direction. Planning and Publishing. Plan your campaign objectives in such a way, there is a high chance of getting your goals, Then publishing on social media is as simple as sharing a blog post, an image, or a video on a social media platform. Also, to ensure that you are maximizing your reach on social media, you need to publish great content that your audience likes, at the right timing and frequency. Listening and Engagement. As your business and social media continue to grow, conversations about your brand will also increase. Persons will comment on your social media posts, tag you in their social media posts, or send you a message directly. People could even talk about your brand on social media without letting you know. So you’re going to want to monitor your brand’s social media conversations. Analytics. Whether you are publishing content or engaging in social media, you should know how your social media marketing works in real-time. Track the reachability of people on social media monthly. The social media platforms themselves provide a basic level of this information. You can use the wide range of social media analytics tools available, such as hoot suite, to obtain more in-depth analytics information or to compare easily across social media platforms. Advertising. Today Social media advertising platforms are so powerful that you can determine exactly who to display your ads online. You can create target audiences based on their demographics, interests, behavior, and more. Endnote: When you run multiple social media advertising campaigns at once, you can consider making bulk changes, automating processes, and optimizing your ads using a social media advertising tool.
Learn Ethical Hacking Basic To Advance
Suitability for Ethical Hacker It is main to have a Bachelor’s degree (BSc, BTech, BE, BCA) in IT (Information Technology) to become an ethical hacker. Contestants having an innovative diploma in network security can too opt for ethical hacking as a career. A CEH certification from a reputed ethical hacking institute in Bangalore improves the probabilities of success hired by some great names in the IT area. The list of international EC-Council certifications are: · Certified Ethical Hacker (EC-Council) · Certified Hacking Forensic Investigator CHFI (EC-Council) · Certified Intrusion Analyst (GCIA) can more advance the job visions · Technical skills essential · Wide-ranging knowledge in the zone of network security · Working knowledge of many operating systems · Sound working information of Microsoft and Linux servers, Cisco network switches, virtualization, Citrix and Microsoft Exchange. · Sound working information of the modern penetration software Top Institutes offering Courses for Ethical Hacker best ethical hacking training institute in bangalore 1. SSDN Technologies 2. Inventateq 3. Gicseh 4. 360digitmg 5. Indian cybersecurity solutions 6. FITA 7. Simplilearn Why should you pursue Ethical Hacking as a profession? With the increase of online thefts, ethical hacking has become one of the best widespread career choices. A growing figure of openings and cybercrimes have been described in current times. As per Gartner and Accenture’s reviews, the Information security marketplace is probable to scope $170.4 billion by 2022, and approximately 68% of industry leaders global feel that cybersecurity risks are rising. Thus, there is an increasing demand for ethical hackers in many businesses like government organisations, IT zones, law application, sections in National intelligence, economic organizations, etc. In fact, business organisations want ethical hackers to retain their information secure. It is with this growing demand that the ethical hacking pay in India is rather profitable. But before taking up the career, one need be awake that the situation does not just need educational experiences and practical services but also honesty, solid ethics, and most highly, a willingness to study to battle challenges. Job Outlines in Ethical Hacking The openings in the zone of cyber security are growing with various corporations becoming progressively aware of the need for online safety. The main zones of work comprise financial facilities security, wireless network security and information security in industries among others. After reaching the much desired CEH v11, an ethical hacker can go for the following roles: · Information Security Analyst · Security Analyst · Certified Ethical Hacker · Ethical Hacker · Security Consultant, (Computing / Networking / Information Technology) · Information Security Manager · Penetration Tester
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QUESTION 172 The SOC team has confirmed a potential indicator of compromise on an endpoint. The team has narrowed the executable file's type to a new trojan family. According to the NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide, what is the next step in handling this event? A.Isolate the infected endpoint from the network. B.Perform forensics analysis on the infected endpoint. C.Collect public information on the malware behavior. D.Prioritize incident handling based on the impact. Answer: C QUESTION 173 Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications? A.sandbox B.application allow list C.application block list D.host-based firewall Answer: A QUESTION 174 An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department's servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation? A.Recovery B.Detection C.Eradication D.Analysis Answer: B QUESTION 175 Which data type is necessary to get information about source/destination ports? A.statistical data B.session data C.connectivity data D.alert data Answer: C QUESTION 176 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of attack is being executed? A.SQL injection B.cross-site scripting C.cross-site request forgery D.command injection Answer: A QUESTION 177 Which attack represents the evasion technique of resource exhaustion? A.SQL injection B.man-in-the-middle C.bluesnarfing D.denial-of-service Answer: D QUESTION 178 A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs? A.event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name B.protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port C.event name, log source, time, source IP, and username D.protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name Answer: B QUESTION 179 Which event is a vishing attack? A.obtaining disposed documents from an organization B.using a vulnerability scanner on a corporate network C.setting up a rogue access point near a public hotspot D.impersonating a tech support agent during a phone call Answer: D QUESTION 180 What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying protocol 41 ? A.additional PPTP traffic due to Windows clients B.unauthorized peer-to-peer traffic C.deployment of a GRE network on top of an existing Layer 3 network D.attempts to tunnel IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network Answer: D QUESTION 181 What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive? A.True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them. B.True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless. C.False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately. D.False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged. Answer: C QUESTION 182 An organization's security team has detected network spikes coming from the internal network. An investigation has concluded that the spike in traffic was from intensive network scanning How should the analyst collect the traffic to isolate the suspicious host? A.by most active source IP B.by most used ports C.based on the protocols used D.based on the most used applications Answer: C QUESTION 183 What is an incident response plan? A.an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of operations B.an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and continuous improvements C.an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration ot operational services D.an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations Answer: C QUESTION 184 An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two servers where the remote server is unable to establish a successful session. Initial checks show that the remote server is not receiving an SYN-ACK while establishing a session by sending the first SYN. What is causing this issue? A.incorrect TCP handshake B.incorrect UDP handshake C.incorrect OSI configuration D.incorrect snaplen configuration Answer: A QUESTION 185 A security incident occurred with the potential of impacting business services. Who performs the attack? A.malware author B.threat actor C.bug bounty hunter D.direct competitor Answer: A QUESTION 186 Refer to the exhibit. An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized? A.indirect B.circumstantial C.corroborative D.best Answer: D QUESTION 187 W[^t is vulnerability management? A.A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points. B.A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats. C.A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses. D.A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications Answer: C QUESTION 188 A user received an email attachment named "Hr405-report2609-empl094.exe" but did not run it. Which category of the cyber kill chain should be assigned to this type of event? A.installation B.reconnaissance C.weaponization D.delivery Answer: A QUESTION 189 An engineer needs to configure network systems to detect command and control communications by decrypting ingress and egress perimeter traffic and allowing network security devices to detect malicious outbound communications. Which technology should be used to accomplish the task? A.digital certificates B.static IP addresses C.signatures D.cipher suite Answer: D QUESTION 190 What is a difference between data obtained from Tap and SPAN ports? A.Tap mirrors existing traffic from specified ports, while SPAN presents more structured data for deeper analysis. B.SPAN passively splits traffic between a network device and the network without altering it, while Tap alters response times. C.SPAN improves the detection of media errors, while Tap provides direct access to traffic with lowered data visibility. D.Tap sends traffic from physical layers to the monitoring device, while SPAN provides a copy of network traffic from switch to destination Answer: A QUESTION 191 Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number? A.availability B.confidentiality C.scope D.integrity Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go 200-201 PDF and 200-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1fTPALtM-eluHFw8sUjNGF7Y-ofOP3s-M?usp=sharing
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QUESTION 120 A SysOps administrator is troubleshooting connection timeouts to an Amazon EC2 instance that has a public IP address. The instance has a private IP address of 172.31.16.139. When the SysOps administrator tries to ping the instance's public IP address from the remote IP address 203.0.113.12, the response is "request timed out." The flow logs contain the following information: What is one cause of the problem? A.Inbound security group deny rule B.Outbound security group deny rule C.Network ACL inbound rules D.Network ACL outbound rules Answer: D QUESTION 121 A company has multiple Amazon EC2 instances that run a resource-intensive application in a development environment. A SysOps administrator is implementing a solution to stop these EC2 instances when they are not in use. Which solution will meet this requirement? A.Assess AWS CloudTrail logs to verify that there is no EC2 API activity. Invoke an AWS Lambda function to stop the EC2 instances. B.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to stop the EC2 instances when the average CPU utilization is lower than 5% for a 30-minute period. C.Create an Amazon CloudWatch metric to stop the EC2 instances when the VolumeReadBytes metric is lower than 500 for a 30-minute period. D.Use AWS Config to invoke an AWS Lambda function to stop the EC2 instances based on resource configuration changes. Answer: B QUESTION 122 A SysOps administrator needs to configure a solution that will deliver digital content to a set of authorized users through Amazon CloudFront. Unauthorized users must be restricted from access. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that does not have public access blocked. Use signed URLs to access the S3 bucket through CloudFront. B.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that has public access blocked. Use an origin access identity (OAI) to deliver the content through CloudFront. Restrict S3 bucket access with signed URLs in CloudFront. C.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that has public access blocked. Use an origin access identity (OAI) to deliver the content through CloudFront. Enable field-level encryption. D.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that does not have public access blocked. Use signed cookies for restricted delivery of the content through CloudFront. Answer: B QUESTION 123 A company has attached the following policy to an IAM user: Which of the following actions are allowed for the IAM user? A.Amazon RDS DescribeDBInstances action in the us-east-1 Region B.Amazon S3 Putobject operation in a bucket named testbucket C.Amazon EC2 Describe Instances action in the us-east-1 Region D.Amazon EC2 AttachNetworkinterf ace action in the eu-west-1 Region Answer: C QUESTION 124 A company runs a web application on three Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The company notices that random periods of increased traffic cause a degradation in the application's performance. A SysOps administrator must scale the application to meet the increased traffic. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to monitor application latency and increase the size of each EC2 instance if the desired threshold is reached. B.Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to monitor application latency and add an EC2 instance to the ALB if the desired threshold is reached. C.Deploy the application to an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with a target tracking scaling policy. Attach the ALB to the Auto Scaling group. D.Deploy the application to an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with a scheduled scaling policy. Attach the ALB to the Auto Scaling group. Answer: C QUESTION 125 A company's public website is hosted in an Amazon S3 bucket in the us-east-1 Region behind an Amazon CloudFront distribution. The company wants to ensure that the website is protected from DDoS attacks. A SysOps administrator needs to deploy a solution that gives the company the ability to maintain control over the rate limit at which DDoS protections are applied. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Deploy a global-scoped AWS WAF web ACL with an allow default action. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to block matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the CloudFront distribution. B.Deploy an AWS WAF web ACL with an allow default action in us-east-1. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to block matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the S3 bucket. C.Deploy a global-scoped AWS WAF web ACL with a block default action. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to allow matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the CloudFront distribution. D.Deploy an AWS WAF web ACL with a block default action in us-east-1. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to allow matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the S3 bucket. Answer: B QUESTION 126 A company hosts an internal application on Amazon EC2 instances. All application data and requests route through an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection between the on-premises network and AWS. The company must monitor the application for changes that allow network access outside of the corporate network. Any change that exposes the application externally must be restricted automatically. Which solution meets these requirements in the MOST operationally efficient manner? A.Create an AWS Lambda function that updates security groups that are associated with the elastic network interface to remove inbound rules with noncorporate CIDR ranges. Turn on VPC Flow Logs, and send the logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that matches traffic from noncorporate CIDR ranges, and publish a message to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic with the Lambda function as a target. B.Create a scheduled Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that targets an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to check for public IP addresses on the EC2 instances. If public IP addresses are found on the EC2 instances, initiate another Systems Manager Automation document to terminate the instances. C.Configure AWS Config and a custom rule to monitor whether a security group allows inbound requests from noncorporate CIDR ranges. Create an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to remove any noncorporate CIDR ranges from the application security groups. D.Configure AWS Config and the managed rule for monitoring public IP associations with the EC2 instances by tag. Tag the EC2 instances with an identifier. Create an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to remove the public IP association from the EC2 instances. Answer: A QUESTION 127 A SysOps administrator needs to create alerts that are based on the read and write metrics of Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes that are attached to an Amazon EC2 instance. The SysOps administrator creates and enables Amazon CloudWatch alarms for the DiskReadBytes metric and the DiskWriteBytes metric. A custom monitoring tool that is installed on the EC2 instance with the same alarm configuration indicates that the volume metrics have exceeded the threshold. However, the CloudWatch alarms were not in ALARM state. Which action will ensure that the CloudWatch alarms function correctly? A.Install and configure the CloudWatch agent on the EC2 instance to capture the desired metrics. B.Install and configure AWS Systems Manager Agent on the EC2 instance to capture the desired metrics. C.Reconfigure the CloudWatch alarms to use the VolumeReadBytes metric and the VolumeWriteBytes metric for the EBS volumes. D.Reconfigure the CloudWatch alarms to use the VolumeReadBytes metric and the VolumeWriteBytes metric for the EC2 instance. Answer: C QUESTION 128 A company is partnering with an external vendor to provide data processing services. For this integration, the vendor must host the company's data in an Amazon S3 bucket in the vendor's AWS account. The vendor is allowing the company to provide an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) key to encrypt the company's data. The vendor has provided an IAM role Amazon Resource Name (ARN) to the company for this integration. What should a SysOps administrator do to configure this integration? A.Create a new KMS key. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the KMS key policy. Provide the new KMS key ARN to the vendor. B.Create a new KMS key. Create a new IAM user. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to an inline policy that is attached to the IAM user. Provide the new IAM user ARN to the vendor. C.Configure encryption using the KMS managed S3 key. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the KMS managed S3 key policy. Provide the KMS managed S3 key ARN to the vendor. D.Configure encryption using the KMS managed S3 key. Create an S3 bucket. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the S3 bucket policy. Provide the S3 bucket ARN to the vendor. Answer: C QUESTION 129 A company has an Auto Scaling group of Amazon EC2 instances that scale based on average CPU utilization. The Auto Scaling group events log indicates an InsufficientlnstanceCapacity error. Which actions should a SysOps administrator take to remediate this issue? (Select TWO. A.Change the instance type that the company is using. B.Configure the Auto Scaling group in different Availability Zones. C.Configure the Auto Scaling group to use different Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume sizes. D.Increase the maximum size of the Auto Scaling group. E.Request an increase in the instance service quota. Answer: AB QUESTION 130 A company stores files on 50 Amazon S3 buckets in the same AWS Region. The company wants to connect to the S3 buckets securely over a private connection from its Amazon EC2 instances. The company needs a solution that produces no additional cost. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Create a gateway VPC endpoint for each S3 bucket. Attach the gateway VPC endpoints to each subnet inside the VPC. B.Create an interface VPC endpoint for each S3 bucket. Attach the interface VPC endpoints to each subnet inside the VPC. C.Create one gateway VPC endpoint for all the S3 buckets. Add the gateway VPC endpoint to the VPC route table. D.Create one interface VPC endpoint for all the S3 buckets. Add the interface VPC endpoint to the VPC route table. Answer: C QUESTION 131 A company has a VPC with public and private subnets. An Amazon EC2 based application resides in the private subnets and needs to process raw .csv files stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. A SysOps administrator has set up the correct IAM role with the required permissions for the application to access the S3 bucket, but the application is unable to communicate with the S3 bucket. Which action will solve this problem while adhering to least privilege access? A.Add a bucket policy to the S3 bucket permitting access from the IAM role. B.Attach an S3 gateway endpoint to the VPC. Configure the route table for the private subnet. C.Configure the route table to allow the instances on the private subnet access through the internet gateway. D.Create a NAT gateway in a private subnet and configure the route table for the private subnets. Answer: B QUESTION 132 A large company is using AWS Organizations to manage hundreds of AWS accounts across multiple AWS Regions. The company has turned on AWS Config throughout the organization. The company requires all Amazon S3 buckets to block public read access. A SysOps administrator must generate a monthly report that shows all the S3 buckets and whether they comply with this requirement. Which combination of steps should the SysOps administrator take to collect this data? {Select TWO). A.Create an AWS Config aggregator in an aggregator account. Use the organization as the source. Retrieve the compliance data from the aggregator. B.Create an AWS Config aggregator in each account. Use an S3 bucket in an aggregator account as the destination. Retrieve the compliance data from the S3 bucket C.Edit the AWS Config policy in AWS Organizations. Use the organization's management account to turn on the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule for the entire organization. D.Use the AWS Config compliance report from the organization's management account. Filter the results by resource, and select Amazon S3. E.Use the AWS Config API to apply the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule in all accounts for all available Regions. Answer: CD QUESTION 133 A SysOps administrator launches an Amazon EC2 Linux instance in a public subnet. When the instance is running, the SysOps administrator obtains the public IP address and attempts to remotely connect to the instance multiple times. However, the SysOps administrator always receives a timeout error. Which action will allow the SysOps administrator to remotely connect to the instance? A.Add a route table entry in the public subnet for the SysOps administrator's IP address. B.Add an outbound network ACL rule to allow TCP port 22 for the SysOps administrator's IP address. C.Modify the instance security group to allow inbound SSH traffic from the SysOps administrator's IP address. D.Modify the instance security group to allow outbound SSH traffic to the SysOps administrator's IP address. Answer: C QUESTION 134 A recent organizational audit uncovered an existing Amazon RDS database that is not currently configured for high availability. Given the critical nature of this database, it must be configured for high availability as soon as possible. How can this requirement be met? A.Switch to an active/passive database pair using the create-db-instance-read-replica with the -- availability-zone flag. B.Specify high availability when creating a new RDS instance, and live-migrate the data. C.Modify the RDS instance using the console to include the Multi-AZ option. D.Use the modify-db-instance command with the --na flag. Answer: C QUESTION 135 A SysOps administrator noticed that the cache hit ratio for an Amazon CloudFront distribution is less than 10%. Which collection of configuration changes will increase the cache hit ratio for the distribution? (Select TWO.) A.Ensure that only required cookies, query strings, and headers are forwarded in the Cache Behavior Settings. B.Change the Viewer Protocol Policy to use HTTPS only. C.Configure the distribution to use presigned cookies and URLs to restrict access to the distribution. D.Enable automatic compression of objects in the Cache Behavior Settings. E.Increase the CloudFront time to live (TTL) settings in the Cache Behavior Settings. Answer: AE QUESTION 136 A company has mandated the use of multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all IAM users, and requires users to make all API calls using the CLI. However. users are not prompted to enter MFA tokens, and are able to run CLI commands without MFA. In an attempt to enforce MFA, the company attached an IAM policy to all users that denies API calls that have not been authenticated with MFA. What additional step must be taken to ensure that API calls are authenticated using MFA? A.Enable MFA on IAM roles, and require IAM users to use role credentials to sign API calls. B.Ask the IAM users to log into the AWS Management Console with MFA before making API calls using the CLI. C.Restrict the IAM users to use of the console, as MFA is not supported for CLI use. D.Require users to use temporary credentials from the get-session token command to sign API calls. Answer: D QUESTION 137 A company is running a flash sale on its website. The website is hosted on burstable performance Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The Auto Scaling group is configured to launch instances when the CPU utilization is above 70%. A couple of hours into the sale, users report slow load times and error messages for refused connections. A SysOps administrator reviews Amazon CloudWatch metrics and notices that the CPU utilization is at 20% across the entire fleet of instances. The SysOps administrator must restore the website's functionality without making changes to the network infrastructure. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Activate unlimited mode for the instances in the Auto Scaling group. B.Implement an Amazon CloudFront distribution to offload the traffic from the Auto Scaling group. C.Move the website to a different AWS Region that is closer to the users. D.Reduce the desired size of the Auto Scaling group to artificially increase CPU average utilization. Answer: B QUESTION 138 A gaming application is deployed on four Amazon EC2 instances in a default VPC. The SysOps administrator has noticed consistently high latency in responses as data is transferred among the four instances. There is no way for the administrator to alter the application code. The MOST effective way to reduce latency is to relaunch the EC2 instances in: A.a dedicated VPC. B.a single subnet inside the VPC. C.a placement group. D.a single Availability Zone. Answer: C QUESTION 139 A company uses AWS Organizations to manage multiple AWS accounts with consolidated billing enabled. Organization member account owners want the benefits of Reserved Instances (RIs) but do not want to share RIs with other accounts. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Purchase RIs in individual member accounts. Disable Rl discount sharing in the management account. B.Purchase RIs in individual member accounts. Disable Rl discount sharing in the member accounts. C.Purchase RIs in the management account. Disable Rl discount sharing in the management account. D.Purchase RIs in the management account. Disable Rl discount sharing in the member accounts. Answer: D QUESTION 140 An errant process is known to use an entire processor and run at 100%. A SysOps administrator wants to automate restarting the instance once the problem occurs for more than 2 minutes. How can this be accomplished? A.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the Amazon EC2 instance with basic monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance. B.Create a CloudWatch alarm for the EC2 instance with detailed monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance. C.Create an AWS Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered on a scheduled basis every 2 minutes. D.Create a Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered by EC2 health checks. Answer: B QUESTION 141 A company is expanding its fleet of Amazon EC2 instances before an expected increase of traffic. When a SysOps administrator attempts to add more instances, an InstanceLimitExceeded error is returned. What should the SysOps administrator do to resolve this error? A.Add an additional CIDR block to the VPC. B.Launch the EC2 instances in a different Availability Zone. C.Launch new EC2 instances in another VPC. D.Use Service Quotas to request an EC2 quota increase. Answer: D QUESTION 142 A company hosts its website on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The company manages its DNS with Amazon Route 53. and wants to point its domain's zone apex to the website. Which type of record should be used to meet these requirements? A.A CNAME record for the domain's zone apex B.An A record for the domain's zone apex C.An AAAA record for the domain's zone apex D.An alias record for the domain's zone apex Answer: D QUESTION 143 A company has launched a social media website that gives users the ability to upload images directly to a centralized Amazon S3 bucket. The website is popular in areas that are geographically distant from the AWS Region where the S3 bucket is located. Users are reporting that uploads are slow. A SysOps administrator must improve the upload speed. What should the SysOps administrator do to meet these requirements? A.Create S3 access points in Regions that are closer to the users. B.Create an accelerator in AWS Global Accelerator for the S3 bucket. C.Enable S3 Transfer Acceleration on the S3 bucket. D.Enable cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) on the S3 bucket. Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go SOA-C02 PDF and SOA-C02 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1SwmRv-OKTAJzLTMirp_O8l8tjGIFElzz?usp=sharing
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QUESTION 360 A firewall is configured with SSL Forward Proxy decryption and has the following four enterprise certificate authorities (Cas): i. Enterprise-Trusted-CA; which is verified as Forward Trust Certificate (The CA is also installed in the trusted store of the end-user browser and system ) ii. Enterpnse-Untrusted-CA, which is verified as Forward Untrust Certificate iii. Enterprise-lntermediate-CA iv. Enterprise-Root-CA which is verified only as Trusted Root CA An end-user visits https //www example-website com/ with a server certificate Common Name (CN) www example-website com The firewall does the SSL Forward Proxy decryption for the website and the server certificate is not trusted by the firewall. The end-user's browser will show that the certificate for www example-website com was issued by which of the following? A.Enterprise-Untrusted-CA which is a self-signed CA B.Enterprise-Trusted-CA which is a self-signed CA C.Enterprise-lntermediate-CA which was. in turn, issued by Enterprise-Root-CA D.Enterprise-Root-CA which is a self-signed CA Answer: B QUESTION 361 An administrator plans to deploy 15 firewalls to act as GlobalProtect gateways around the world Panorama will manage the firewalls. The firewalls will provide access to mobile users and act as edge locations to on-premises Infrastructure. The administrator wants to scale the configuration out quickly and wants all of the firewalls to use the same template configuration. Which two solutions can the administrator use to scale this configuration? (Choose two.) A.variables B.template stacks C.collector groups D.virtual systems Answer: BC QUESTION 362 A traffic log might list an application as "not-applicable" for which two reasons? (Choose two ) A.0The firewall did not install the session B.The TCP connection terminated without identifying any application data C.The firewall dropped a TCP SYN packet D.There was not enough application data after the TCP connection was established Answer: AD QUESTION 363 An administrator is considering upgrading the Palo Alto Networks NGFW and central management Panorama version. What is considered best practice for this scenario? A.Perform the Panorama and firewall upgrades simultaneously B.Upgrade the firewall first wait at least 24 hours and then upgrade the Panorama version C.Upgrade Panorama to a version at or above the target firewall version D.Export the device state perform the update, and then import the device state Answer: A QUESTION 364 An administrator needs to implement an NGFW between their DMZ and Core network EIGRP Routing between the two environments is required. Which interface type would support this business requirement? A.Layer 3 interfaces but configuring EIGRP on the attached virtual router B.Virtual Wire interfaces to permit EIGRP routing to remain between the Core and DMZ C.Layer 3 or Aggregate Ethernet interfaces but configuring EIGRP on subinterfaces only D.Tunnel interfaces to terminate EIGRP routing on an IPsec tunnel (with the GlobalProtect License to support LSVPN and EIGRP protocols) Answer: D QUESTION 365 When you configure a Layer 3 interface what is one mandatory step? A.Configure Security profiles, which need to be attached to each Layer 3 interface B.Configure Interface Management profiles which need to be attached to each Layer 3 interface C.Configure virtual routers to route the traffic for each Layer 3 interface D.Configure service routes to route the traffic for each Layer 3 interface Answer: A QUESTION 366 An administrator has a PA-820 firewall with an active Threat Prevention subscription. The administrator is considering adding a WildFire subscription. How does adding the WildFire subscription improve the security posture of the organization1? A.Protection against unknown malware can be provided in near real-time B.WildFire and Threat Prevention combine to provide the utmost security posture for the firewall C.After 24 hours WildFire signatures are included in the antivirus update D.WildFire and Threat Prevention combine to minimize the attack surface Answer: D QUESTION 367 Which three statements accurately describe Decryption Mirror? (Choose three.) A.Decryption Mirror requires a tap interface on the firewall B.Decryption, storage, inspection and use of SSL traffic are regulated in certain countries C.Only management consent is required to use the Decryption Mirror feature D.You should consult with your corporate counsel before activating and using Decryption Mirror in a production environment E.Use of Decryption Mirror might enable malicious users with administrative access to the firewall to harvest sensitive information that is submitted via an encrypted channel Answer: ABC QUESTION 368 As a best practice, which URL category should you target first for SSL decryption? A.Online Storage and Backup B.High Risk C.Health and Medicine D.Financial Services Answer: A QUESTION 369 An administrator wants to enable zone protection Before doing so, what must the administrator consider? A.Activate a zone protection subscription. B.To increase bandwidth no more than one firewall interface should be connected to a zone C.Security policy rules do not prevent lateral movement of traffic between zones D.The zone protection profile will apply to all interfaces within that zone Answer: A QUESTION 370 What are two characteristic types that can be defined for a variable? (Choose two ) A.zone B.FQDN C.path group D.IP netmask Answer: BD QUESTION 371 What are three valid qualifiers for a Decryption Policy Rule match? (Choose three ) A.Destination Zone B.App-ID C.Custom URL Category D.User-ID E.Source Interface Answer: ADE QUESTION 372 Given the following configuration, which route is used for destination 10.10.0.4? A.Route 4 B.Route 3 C.Route 1 D.Route 3 Answer: A QUESTION 373 When an in-band data port is set up to provide access to required services, what is required for an interface that is assigned to service routes? A.The interface must be used for traffic to the required services B.You must enable DoS and zone protection C.You must set the interface to Layer 2 Layer 3. or virtual wire D.You must use a static IP address Answer: A QUESTION 374 What does SSL decryption require to establish a firewall as a trusted third party and to establish trust between a client and server to secure an SSL/TLS connection? A.link state B.stateful firewall connection C.certificates D.profiles Answer: C QUESTION 375 When setting up a security profile which three items can you use? (Choose three ) A.Wildfire analysis B.anti-ransom ware C.antivirus D.URL filtering E.decryption profile Answer: ACD QUESTION 376 A variable name must start with which symbol? A.$ B.& C.! D.# Answer: A QUESTION 377 An administrator needs to troubleshoot a User-ID deployment. The administrator believes that there is an issue related to LDAP authentication. The administrator wants to create a packet capture on the management plane. Which CLI command should the administrator use to obtain the packet capture for validating the configuration? A.> ftp export mgmt-pcap from mgmt.pcap to <FTP host> B.> scp export mgmt-pcap from mgmt.pcap to {usernameQhost:path> C.> scp export pcap-mgmt from pcap.mgiat to (username@host:path) D.> scp export pcap from pcap to (usernameQhost:path) Answer: C QUESTION 378 What are two common reasons to use a "No Decrypt" action to exclude traffic from SSL decryption? (Choose two.) A.the website matches a category that is not allowed for most users B.the website matches a high-risk category C.the web server requires mutual authentication D.the website matches a sensitive category Answer: AD QUESTION 379 During SSL decryption which three factors affect resource consumption1? (Choose three ) A.TLS protocol version B.transaction size C.key exchange algorithm D.applications that use non-standard ports E.certificate issuer Answer: ABC QUESTION 380 An internal system is not functioning. The firewall administrator has determined that the incorrect egress interface is being used. After looking at the configuration, the administrator believes that the firewall is not using a static route. What are two reasons why the firewall might not use a static route"? (Choose two.) A.no install on the route B.duplicate static route C.path monitoring on the static route D.disabling of the static route Answer: C QUESTION 381 Before you upgrade a Palo Alto Networks NGFW what must you do? A.Make sure that the PAN-OS support contract is valid for at least another year B.Export a device state of the firewall C.Make sure that the firewall is running a version of antivirus software and a version of WildFire that support the licensed subscriptions. D.Make sure that the firewall is running a supported version of the app + threat update Answer: B QUESTION 382 Which User-ID mapping method should be used in a high-security environment where all IP address-to-user mappings should always be explicitly known? A.PAN-OS integrated User-ID agent B.LDAP Server Profile configuration C.GlobalProtect D.Windows-based User-ID agent Answer: A QUESTION 383 Given the following snippet of a WildFire submission log. did the end-user get access to the requested information and why or why not? A.Yes. because the action is set to "allow '' B.No because WildFire categorized a file with the verdict "malicious" C.Yes because the action is set to "alert" D.No because WildFire classified the seventy as "high." Answer: B QUESTION 384 An administrator needs to gather information about the CPU utilization on both the management plane and the data plane. Where does the administrator view the desired data? A.Monitor > Utilization B.Resources Widget on the Dashboard C.Support > Resources D.Application Command and Control Center Answer: A 2021 Latest Braindump2go PCNSE PDF and PCNSE VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1VvlcN8GDfslOVKt1Cj-E7yHyUNUyXuxc?usp=sharing