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2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-615 PDF Dumps(Q95-Q135)
QUESTION 95 Refer to the exhibit. The EEM script is applied in the default VDC to collect the outputs during high CPU utilization on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch for all VDCs. Which configuration set must be added to the script to fix the issue? A.switch(config-apple)# event snmp 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type exact entry-op ge entry-val 50 poll-interval 1 switch(config-apple)# action 0.2 cli enable switch(config-apple)# action 0.5 cli switchto vdc Core switch(config-apple)# action 0.8 cli switchto vdc Distribution B.switch(config-apple)# event snmp oid 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type exact entry-op ge entry-val 50 poll-interval 1 switch(config-apple)# action 0.2 cli enable switch(config-apple)# action 0.5 cli switchto vdc Core switch(config-apple)# action 0.8 cli switchto vdc Distribution C.switch(config-apple)# event snmp oid 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type exact entry-op ge entry-val 50 poll-interval 1 switch(config-apple)# action 0.2 cli config t switch(config-apple)# action 0.5 cli switchto vdc Core switch(config-apple)# action 0.8 cli switchto vdc Distribution D.switch(config-apple)# event snmp 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type exact entry-op ge entry-val 50 poll-interval 1 switch(config-apple)# action 0.2 cli config t switch(config-apple)# action 0.5 cli switchto vdc Core switch(config-apple)# action 0.8 cli switchto vdc Distribution Answer: B QUESTION 96 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer troubleshoots the HSRP configuration and notes that the remote end uses HSRP version 1. The engineer sets the local HSRP to version 1, but the problem continues. Which action resolves the issue? A.Change the local group number to 255 or less and request that the remote data center matches the group member in its configuration. B.Set the local group number as 300 in the remote data center configuration C.Run version 1 and version 2 HSRP on VLAN300 in the local data center. D.Reduce the priority of the local HSRP to below 100 to force the local HSRP to standby and then change the version to version 1. Answer: A QUESTION 97 An engineer must upgrade all components in a Cisco UCS domain to the same package version, but the upgrade process fails to complete. Which set of Auto Install actions resolves the problem? A.Install Infrastructure Firmware, then Install Server Firmware. B.Install infrastructure Firmware, then Install Hypervisor Firmware. C.Install Hypervisor Firmware, then Install Infrastructure Firmware D.Install Server Firmware, then Install Infrastructure Firmware Answer: A QUESTION 98 A Cisco UCSB-Series Blade Server is configured to boot a VMwareESXi host from an EMC VNX storage array by using a Fibre Channel SAN. The boot order is confirmed to be configured as expected but the server fails to boot from the SAN. Which action reserves the problem? A.Set the same WWPN pools for vHBA adapters B.Set the boot LUN to the highest LUN ID in the storage array C.Set the boot LUN to the lowest LUN ID in the storage array D.Set the same WWNN pools for vHBA adaptor Answer: C QUESTION 99 Refer to the Exhibit. An Engineer cannot log in to the Cisco IMC page of the Cisco UCS C220 server. Which action resolve the issue? A.Se the FQDN of the Cisco IMC webpage login page instead of the IP address for the connection to be secure. B.Use the DNS of the Cisco IMC webpage login page instead of the IP address for the connection to be secure. C.Replace the self-signed certificate that is installed on the Cisco IMC with a server certificate that is signed from the client corporate certificate. D.Replace the self-signed certificate that is installed on the Cisco IMC with a user certificate that is signed from the client corporate certificate. Answer: C QUESTION 100 An engineer must place a Cisco UCS B-Series Server in a single server pool in Cisco UCS Manager. The engineer creates a qualification policy, but the server is still seen in multiple pools. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.) A.Select the Server Pool Policy Qualification from the qualification drop-down menu in the Server Pool Policy B.Select the Server Pool Policy from the qualification drop-down menu in the Server Pool Policy Qualification C.Set the operating system qualifier inside the Server Pool Policy Qualification D.Set the number of vNICs qualifier inside the Server Pool Policy. E.Set the storage capacity qualifier inside the Server Poo. Policy Qualification. Answer: AC QUESTION 101 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer traces the packet flow from the Veth991 of a blade server toward the core switch. The switch reports performance issues. What is the role of the interface Eth1/7? A.IOM network interface B.fabric interconnect uplink interface C.IOM host interface D.server interface Answer: B QUESTION 102 Refer to the exhibit. A PC belongs to VLAN 68. The user experiences a large amount of packet loss when communicating with hosts that are outside of VLAN 68. Which action resolves the problem? A.Replace HSRP with GLBP B.Enable the peer-gateway feature C.Remove the HSRP configuration D.Configure ip arp synchronization on both switches. Answer: B QUESTION 103 A customer reports that the Chassis Management Controller fails to receive chassis information from Cisco UCS Manager. Which set of steps resolves the issue? A.1) Verify that the IOM firmware and Cisco UCS Manager are at different software levels 2) Verify that at least two physical cables between the IOM and fabric interconnect function properly. 3) Check for runtime link down status 4) Reseat the affected IOM. B.1) Verify that the IOM firmware and Cisco UCS Manager are at the same software level. 2) Verify that at least one physical cable between the IOM and fabric interconnect functions properly. 3) Check for runtime link down status 4) Reseat the affected IOM. C.1) Verify that the IOM firmware and Cisco UCS Manager are at the same software level. 2) Verify that at least two physical cables between the IOM and fabric interconnect function properly. 3) Check for runtime link down status. 4) Reseat the affected IOM. D.1) Verify that the IOM firmware and Cisco UCS Manager are at different software levels. 2) Verify that at least one physical cable between the IOM and fabric interconnect functions properly. 3) Check for runtime link down status. 4) Reseat the affected IOM. Answer: B QUESTION 104 Refer to the exhibit. During implementation of a Cisco UCS C-Series Server, an engineer receives the status that is shown in the exhibit. Which action resolves the issue? A.Reconfigure the Drive Type from "Removable" to "Non-Removable" B.Insert an SD card into SLOT-2 C.Configure the RAID that is associated with the card. D.Set SLOT-1 Sync Mode to "Auto" Answer: A QUESTION 105 A system administrator adds two vNICs to an existing service profile that is used to run a vSphere environment to support disjoint Layer 2 network connectivity. However, after the server is rebooted, the host is not accessible on the network. Which action resolves the issue? A.Remove all existing vNICs and add them in the desired order. B.Build a new service profile with the desired network configuration C.Add the disjoint Layer 2 VLANs to an existing vNIC rather than adding new vNICs D.Create a vNIC placement policy to avoid adapter renumbering Answer: C QUESTION 106 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys SAN environment with two interconnected Cisco MDS 9000 Series switches. When the engineer attempts a zone merge, it fails with the error that is presented in the exhibit. Which action resolves the issue? A.Import or export a zone set between the switches to synchronize the switches. B.Change the name of one of the zones to match the other zone set. C.Set the distribute policy of the zone to full. D.Ensure that the zone members have different names. Answer: A QUESTION 107 Refer to the exhibit. One of the vPC VTEPs fails to route VXLAN traffic to vPC connected hosts. When the issue was being diagnosed, it was discovered that the packets that were expected to be forwarded to the MAC address on the SWITCH-VTEP-1 are instead forwarded to the MAC address on SWITCH-VTEP-2 and then dropped. Which action resolves the issue? A.Configure a distributed anycast gateway on both peers B.Configure ip arp synchronize under the VPC domain on both peers C.Configure peer-gateway under the VPC domain on both peers D.Configure a different secondary IP address for one of the vPC peers Answer: C QUESTION 108 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer troubleshoots an OSPF neighborship problem between Router R2 and Router R10. Which action resolves the problem? A.Change area ID on Router R10 B.Resolve unicast reply from Router R2 C.Resolve authentication type on Router R10 D.Change router ID on Router R10 Answer: B QUESTION 109 Refer to the exhibit. VSAN traffic is not routed as expected. Which action should be taken to resolve the issue? A.Reset the error packet counter B.Configure the hello timer to match the neighbor C.Configure the FSPF dead interval with a value higher than 80 seconds D.Reset the inactivity timer on switch-2 Answer: B QUESTION 110 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures an authentication domain through an LDAP provider on the Cisco UCS Manager for users from different companies to log into their respective organizations created in the UCS Manager. The engineer tests the configuration and notices that any user has login access to any organization in the UCS Manager. Which action should be taken to resolve the issue? A.Configure the Filter field with sAMAccountName=$company B.Configure the Attribute field with the company C.Configure the Attribute field with sAMAccountName=$company D.Configure the Filter field with the company Answer: A QUESTION 111 A network engineer is implementing the Cisco ACI Fabric and notices that the Leaf-1 switch is registered, has an assigned name, but is displayed as inactive in the APIC. After further investigation, it became clear that the leaf switch was recently moved from another Cisco ACI environment. Which action resolves the problem? A.Clean reload the Leaf-1 switch B.Define the new TEP address for Leaf-1 C.Change the clock offset from low to high between apic 1 and Leaf-1 D.Modify the ISIS interface peering IP address between apic 1 and Leaf-1 Answer: B QUESTION 112 A system administrator connects a Cisco Nexus 2248PQ FEX to a fabric interconnect to expand the ports that are available for connecting Cisco UCS C-Series Rack Servers. In Cisco UCS Manager, the administrator does not see the servers connected to this FEX. Which action should be taken to resolve the issue? A.The FEX must be exchanged so that it supports the connectivity between fabric interconnects and UCS Cseries servers B.The fabric interconnects must be rebooted before the FEX is recognized C.The transceivers must be exchanged to support the connectivity between the FEX and the fabric interconnects D.The ports that connect the FEX to the fabric interconnects must be configured as server ports Answer: D QUESTION 113 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer discovered a VFC interface in a down state on a Cisco Nexus Switch. Which action resolves the problem? A.Change the cable between the switch and the server B.Reset the Cisco Nexus port toward the file server C.Update the CNA firmware and driver versions D.Modify the fip keepalive message time to 30 seconds Answer: D QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring the FCoE N_Port virtualization storage area network. After the initial implementation, server 11 fails to connect to the disk array. Which action resolves the issue? A.On MDS interface vfc 1/1, change switchport mode configuration to VF B.On N9K interface vfc11, change switchport mode configuration to NP C.On N9K interface vfc11 and MDS interface vfc 1/1, change switchport mode configuration to F D.On N9K interface vfc11 and MDS interface vfc 1/1, change switchport mode configuration to E Answer: D QUESTION 115 Refer to the exhibits. An engineer is implementing the SAN based on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. When operating the environment, the engineer encounters the error shown. Which action resolves the issue? A.Copy VSAN 101 to the fabric binding database on the MDS-1 switch B.Add the World Wide Name of the neighboring switch to the MDS-1 switch C.Configure the port security feature on the MDS-1 switch D.Enable VSAN 101 on the peer MDS 2 switch fabric interconnect Answer: B 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-615 PDF and 300-615 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1feRQIR1T37PDk2nuwFIpnzVeG-bXMyGc?usp=sharing
2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-801 PDF Dumps(Q110-Q144)
QUESTION 110 A remote office has a less-than-optimal WAN connection end experiences packed loss, delay, and jitter. Which VoIP codec should be used in this situation? A.G.722.1 B.G.711alaw C.iLBC D.G.729A Answer: C QUESTION 111 A user reports transfer failures from an IP phone for calls received from a PSTN to another PSTN number. What is a reason for these failures? A.The incoming calling search space of the SIP trunk does not include the partition of the line in the IP phone. B.The service parameter related to Offnet to Offnet call Transfer is set to TRUE. C.The IP phone is configured with the Wrong region. D.The gateway is configured with the wrong device pool. Answer: B QUESTION 112 A customer is deploying a SIP IOS gateway for a customer who requires that in-bond DTMF relay is first priority and out-of-band DTMF relay is second priority. Which IOS entry sets the required priority? A.dtmf-relay cisco-rtp B.sip-notify dtmf-relay rtp-nte C.dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify D.dtmf-relay sip-kmpl cisco-rtp Answer: C QUESTION 113 Refer to the exhibit. This INVITE is sent to an endpoint that only supports G.729. What must be done for this call to succeed? A.Noting: both sides support G.729. B.Add a transcoder that supports G.711ualw and G.729. C.ADD a media termination point that supports G.711ulaw and G.729. D.Nothing: both sides support payload type 101. Answer: B QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. You deploy Mobile and Remote Access for Jabber and discover that Jabber for Windows does not register to cisco Unified Communications Manager while outside of the office. What is a cause of this issue? A.The DNS record should be created for _ cisco-uds _tcp example.com. B.The DNS record should be changed from _collab-edge._tcp.example.com to __collab-edge _tls.example.com. C.The DNS record type should be changed from SRV to A. D.Server 4.2.2.2 is not a valid DNS server. Answer: B QUESTION 115 What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and presence high-availability modes? A.Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby made provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing. B.Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing. C.Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, but is does not provide load balancing. D.Balanced mode provides user load failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, and is also provides load balancing. Answer: B QUESTION 116 Which two DNS records must be created to configure Service Discovery for on-premises Jabber? (Choose two.) A._cuplogin._tcp.cisco com pointing to a record of IM&P B._cisco-uds._tcp.cisco.com pointing to a record of Cisco Unified CM C._cuplogin._tls.cisco.com pointing to the IP address of IM&P D._cisco-uds._tls.cisco.com pointing to the IP address of Cisco Unified Communications manager E._xmpp._tls.cisco.com pointing to a record of IM&P Answer: AB QUESTION 117 An engineer implements QoS in the enterprise network. Which command can to verify the correct classification and marking on a cisco IOS switch? A.show policy-map B.show class-map interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 C.show access-lists D.show policy-map interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 Answer: D QUESTION 118 Which field is configured to change the caller ID information on a SIP route pattern? A.Calling party Transformation Mask B.Route partition C.Called party Transformation Mask D.Connected Line ID Presentation Answer: A QUESTION 119 Which protocol does prime collaboration Assurance use to poll the health status of different systems in the collaboration environment? A.SIP B.SMTP C.SCCP D.SNMP Answer: D QUESTION 120 Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.) A.PRACK B.UPDATE C.SUBSCRIBE D.NOTIFY E.REGISTER Answer: CD QUESTION 121 An engineer wants to manually deploy a Cisco Webex DX80 video endpoint to a remote user. Which type of provisioning is configured on the endpoint? A.CUBE B.CMS C.CUCM D.Edge Answer: D QUESTION 122 Which DiffServ marking is the most likely to drop packets? A.AF32 B.AF12 C.AF11 D.AF13 Answer: D QUESTION 123 Endpoint A is attempting to call endpoint B. Endpoint A only supports G.711 ulaw with a packetization rate of 20 ms, and endpoint B supports packetization rate of 30 ms for G.711ulaw. Which two media are resources are allocated to normalize packetization rates through transrating? A.Hardware MTP on Cisco IOS Software B.Software MTP on Cisco Unified Communication Manager C.Software MTP on Cisco IOS Software D.Software transcoder on Cisco unified Communications manager E.Hardware transcoder on Cisco IOS Software Answer: AE QUESTION 124 When configuring Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which configuration enables phones to automatically register to a Cisco Unified Communications publisher when the connection to the subscriber is lost? A.Cisco Unified CM Group B.Device Pool C.SRST D.Route Group Answer: A QUESTION 125 Which two elements of a dial plan define the domains that are accessible and are assigned to an endpoint? (Choose two.) A.Call Admissions Control B.Route patterns C.Calling Search Spaces D.Translation patterns E.partitions Answer: CE QUESTION 126 An engineer with ID378163512 is designing a new dial plan for a customer that has offices in several countries on four continents around the world. This client also want to integrate with a Microsoft Lync backend, Which dial plan type does the engineer recommend? A.SIP URI B.TEHQ C.H.323 D.E.164 Answer: D QUESTION 127 Which version is used to provide encryption for SNMP management traffic in collaboration deployments? A.SNMPv1 B.SNMPv3 C.SNMPv2 D.SNMPv2c Answer: B QUESTION 128 Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets? A.CSRC (Contributing Source ID) B.Timestamp C.Sequence number D.SSRC (Synchronization identifier) Answer: C QUESTION 129 Refer to the exhibit. When making a call to a MRA client, what are the combinations of protocol on each of the different sections A-B-C? A.IP TCP/TLS(A) +SIP TCP/TLS (B) +TLS (C) B.SIP TLS (A) +SIP TLS (B) +SIP TLS (C) C.SIP TCP/TLS (A) + SIP TLS (B) + SIP TLS (C) D.SIP TCP/TLS +SIP TCP/TLS (B) + SIP TCP/TLS (C) Answer: C QUESTION 130 An engineer is designing a load balancing solution for two Cisco Unified Border routers. The first router (cube1.abc.com) takes 60% of the calls and the second router (cute2.abc.com) takes 40% of the calls, Assume all DNS A records have been created. Which two SRV records are needed for a load balanced solution? (Choose two.) A.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 1 40 5060 cube2.abc.com B.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 3 60 5060 cube2.abc.com C.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 60 1 5060 cube1.abc.com D.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 2 60 5060 cube1.abc.com E.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 1 60 5060 cube1.abc.com Answer: AE QUESTION 131 Refer to the exhibit. A call to an international number has failed. Which action corrects this problem? A.Assign a transcoder to the MRGL of the gateway. B.Strip the leading 011 from the called party number C.Add the bearer-cap speech command to the voice port. D.Add the isdn switch-type primart-dms100 command to the serial interface. Answer: B QUESTION 132 Which user group is targeted by MRA services? A.Call center agents who dial out to remote customers B.Mobile workers in a host desk environment at HQ who log in every morning at possibility a different phone C.Production floor users who need wireless mobility in remote areas of the factory D.On-the-go mobile workforce who connect to corporate phone services using their own mobile device Answer: D QUESTION 133 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager feature is to determine the maximum bit rate for a call between two video-endpoints? A.Partitions B.Locations C.Regions D.transformations Answer: C QUESTION 134 When a 8800 series phone is registered over MRA, where does it register? A.Cisco Unified Communications Manager B.Expressway-C C.Cisco Unified Presence Server D.Expressway-E Answer: A QUESTION 135 An engineer must manually provision a Cisco IP Phone 8845 using SIP. Which two fields must be configured for a successful provision? (Choose two.) A.Media resources group list B.SIP profile C.CSS D.Location E.Device security profile Answer: BE QUESTION 136 What is the correct statement about CUCM and Cisco IM&P backups? A.Backups should the scheduled during hours to avoid system performance issues. B.Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account. C.Backups are saved as unencrypted tar files. D.Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communication Manager and Cisco IM and Presence servers. Answer: A QUESTION 137 Due to service provider restriction, Cisco Unified Communications Manager cannot send video in the SDP. Which two options on Cisco Unified CM are configured to suppress video in the SDP is outgoing invites? (Choose two.) A.Check the Send send-receive SDP in mid-call INVITE check box on the SIP trunk SIP profile. B.Add the audio forced command to voice service voip on the Unified Border Elements. C.Check the Retry Call as Audio on the SIP trunk D.Set Video bandwidth in the Region settings to 0. E.Change the Video Capabilities dropdown on the endpoint to Disabled. Answer: CD QUESTION 138 There is a saturated link that has traffic shaping configured. How is incoming traffic processed? A.Excess traffic is queued for later transmission. B.Excess traffic is dropped. C.Traffic is compressed so that the traffic fits within the bandwidth of the link. D.Excess traffic is queued, and then dropped after the timer expires. Answer: A QUESTION 139 Refer to the exhibit. A customer submits this output, captured on a Cisco IOS router. Assuming that an MGCP gateway is configured with a ISDN BRI interface, which BRI changes resolve the issue? A.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 B.interface BRI0/1/0 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-multipoint-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 C.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-point-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 D.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-multipoint-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 Answer: C QUESTION 140 Which SNMP service must be activated manually on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager after installation? A.Cisco CallManager SNMP B.SNMP Master Agent C.Connection SNMP Agent D.Host Resources Agent Answer: A QUESTION 141 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer verifies the configured of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is necessary to enable MGCP? A.Device(config)# mgcp enable B.Device(config)# ccm-manager enable C.Device (config)# com-manager active D.Device (config)# mgcp Answer: D QUESTION 142 What are two key features of the Expressway series? (Choose two.) A.VPN connect toward the internal UC resources B.B2B calls C.IP to PSTN call connectivity D.Device registration over the internet E.SIP header modification Answer: BD QUESTION 143 An engineer deploys a Cisco Expressway edge server for a customer who wants to utilize all feature on the server. Which feature does the engineer configure on the Expressway edge? A.VTC bridge B.H.323 endpoint registration C.SIP gateway for PSTN providers D.MRA Answer: D QUESTION 144 An engineer is configuring a Cisco Unified Border Element to allow the video endpoints to negotiate without the Cisco Unified Border Element interfering in the process. What should the engineer configure on the Cisco Unified Border Element to support this process? 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2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-720 PDF Dumps(Q46-Q76)
QUESTION 46 Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.) A.The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters. B.Message filters configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters. C.The filterconfig command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters. D.Message filters can be configured only from the CLI. E.Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface. Answer: AD QUESTION 47 What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies? A.message splintering B.message exceptions C.message detachment D.message aggregation Answer: A QUESTION 48 Which default port is used by the Cisco ESA to quarantine the message on the Cisco Security Management Appliance? A.port 25fTCP B.port110/TCP C.port443/TCP D.port 6025/TCP E.port4766/UDP Answer: D QUESTION 49 When configuring CRES, where do you enable read receipts? A.In the encryption profile B.In the content filter condition menu C.In the content filter action menu D.In the mail policy Answer: A QUESTION 50 Which type of query must be configured when setting up the Spam Quarantine while merging notifications? A.Spam Quarantine Alias Routing Query B.Spam Quarantine Alias Consolidation Query C.Spam Quarantine Alias Authentication Query D.Spam Quarantine Alias Masquerading Query Answer: B QUESTION 51 Which two factors must be considered when message filter processing is configured? (Choose two.) A.message-filter order B.lateral processing C.structure of the combined packet D.mail policies E.MIME structure of the message Answer: AE QUESTION 52 How does the graymail safe unsubscribe feature function? A.It strips the malicious content of the URI before unsubscribing. B.It checks the URI reputation and category and allows the content filter to take an action on it. C.It redirects the end user who clicks the unsubscribe button to a sandbox environment to allow a safe unsubscribe. D.It checks the reputation of the URI and performs the unsubscribe process on behalf of the end user. Answer: D QUESTION 53 Which method enables an engineer to deliver a flagged message to a specific virtual gateway address in the most flexible way? A.Set up the interface group with the flag. B.Issue the altsrchost command. C.Map the envelope sender address to the host. D.Apply a filter on the message. Answer: D QUESTION 54 An administrator is trying to enable centralized PVO but receives the error, "Unable to proceed with Centralized Policy, Virus and Outbreak Quarantines configuration as esa1 in Cluster has content filters / DLP actions available at a level different from the cluster level." What is the cause of this error? A.Content filters are configured at the machine-level on esa1. B.DLP is configured at the cluster-level on esa2. C.DLP is configured at the domain-level on esa1. D.DLP is not configured on host1. Answer: A QUESTION 55 Which feature must be configured before an administrator can use the outbreak filter for nonviral threats? A.quarantine threat level B.antispam C.data loss prevention D.antivirus Answer: B QUESTION 56 Which type of attack is prevented by configuring file reputation filtering and file analysis features? A.denial of service B.zero-day C.backscatter D.phishing Answer: B QUESTION 57 Which two service problems can the Cisco Email Security Appliance solve? (Choose two.) A.DLP B.IPS C.Antispam D.URL filtering Answer: AC QUESTION 58 Which of the following types of DNS records deals with mail delivery for a specific domain? A.A B.TXT C.MX D.PTR Answer: C QUESTION 59 When DKIM signing is configured, which DNS record must be updated to load the DKIM public signing key? A.AAAA record B.PTR record C.TXT record D.MX record Answer: C QUESTION 60 Which attack is mitigated by using Bounce Verification? A.spoof B.denial of service C.eavesdropping D.smurf Answer: B QUESTION 61 When outbreak filters are configured, which two actions are used to protect users from outbreaks? (Choose two.) A.redirect B.return C.drop D.delay E.abandon Answer: AD QUESTION 62 Which two features are applied to either incoming or outgoing mail policies? (Choose two.) A.Indication of Compromise B.application filtering C.outbreak filters D.sender reputation filtering E.antivirus Answer: CE QUESTION 63 What must be configured to allow the Cisco ESA to encrypt an email using the Cisco Registered Envelope Service? A.provisioned email encryption profile B.message encryption from a content filter that select "Message Encryption" over TLS C.message encryption from the mail flow policies with "CRES" selected D.content filter to forward the email to the Cisco Registered Envelope server Answer: A QUESTION 64 Which two configurations are used on multiple LDAP servers to connect with Cisco ESA? (Choose two.) A.load balancing B.SLA monitor C.active-standby D.failover E.active-active Answer: AD QUESTION 65 What is the default port to deliver emails from the Cisco ESA to the Cisco SMA using the centralized Spam Quarantine? A.8025 B.6443 C.6025 D.8443 Answer: C QUESTION 66 Which two steps are needed to disable local spam quarantine before external quarantine is enabled? (Choose two.) A.Uncheck the Enable Spam Quarantine check box. B.Select Monitor and click Spam Quarantine. C.Check the External Safelist/Blocklist check box. D.Select External Spam Quarantine and click on Configure. E.Select Security Services and click Spam Quarantine. Answer: AB QUESTION 67 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the steps to configure Cisco ESA to use SPF/SIDF verification from the left into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 68 Drag and Drop Question An Encryption Profile has been set up on the Cisco ESA. Drag and drop the steps from the left for creating an outgoing content filter to encrypt emails that contains the subject "Secure:" into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 69 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the Cisco ESA reactions to a possible DLP from the left onto the correct action types on the right. Answer: QUESTION 70 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the AsyncOS methods for performing DMARC verification from the left into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 71 A network administrator is modifying an outgoing mail policy to enable domain protection for the organization. A DNS entry is created that has the public key. Which two headers will be used as matching criteria in the outgoing mail policy? (Choose two.) A.message-ID B.sender C.URL reputation D.from E.mail-from Answer: BD QUESTION 72 To comply with a recent audit, an engineer must configure anti-virus message handling options on the incoming mail policies to attach warnings to the subject of an email. What should be configured to meet this requirement for known viral emails? A.Virus Infected Messages B.Unscannable Messages C.Encrypted Messages D.Positively Identified Messages Answer: C QUESTION 73 An administrator is managing multiple Cisco ESA devices and wants to view the quarantine emails from all devices in a central location. How is this accomplished? A.Disable the VOF feature before sending SPAM to the external quarantine. B.Configure a mail policy to determine whether the message is sent to the local or external quarantine. C.Disable the local quarantine before sending SPAM to the external quarantine. D.Configure a user policy to determine whether the message is sent to the local or external quarantine. Answer: B QUESTION 74 A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy match using a specific sender, the email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason of this? A.The Tram* header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. B.The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion. C.The To" header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. D.The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion. Answer: D QUESTION 75 An administrator identifies that, over the past week, the Cisco ESA is receiving many emails from certain senders and domains which are being consistently quarantined. The administrator wants to ensure that these senders and domain are unable to send anymore emails. Which feature on Cisco ESA should be used to achieve this? A.incoming mail policies B.safelist C.blocklist D.S/MIME Sending Profile Answer: A QUESTION 76 An engineer is testing mail flow on a new Cisco ESA and notices that messages for domain abc.com are stuck in the delivery queue. Upon further investigation, the engineer notices that the messages pending delivery are destined for 192.168.1.11, when they should instead be routed to 192.168.1.10. What configuration change needed to address this issue? A.Add an address list for domain abc.com. B.Modify Destination Controls entry for the domain abc.com. C.Modify the SMTP route for the domain and change the IP address to 192.168.1.10. D.Modify the Routing Tables and add a route for IP address to 192.168.1.10. Answer: C 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-720 PDF and 300-720 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1CWQxEgDC6s96s0xdef_OXd8TQRMElfP0?usp=sharing
2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF Dumps(Q46-Q76)
QUESTION 46 A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.) A.incident response playbooks B.asset vulnerability assessment C.report of staff members with asset relations D.key assets and executives E.malware analysis report Answer: BE QUESTION 47 Refer to the exhibit. At which stage of the threat kill chain is an attacker, based on these URIs of inbound web requests from known malicious Internet scanners? A.exploitation B.actions on objectives C.delivery D.reconnaissance Answer: C QUESTION 48 What should a security analyst consider when comparing inline traffic interrogation with traffic tapping to determine which approach to use in the network? A.Tapping interrogation replicates signals to a separate port for analyzing traffic B.Tapping interrogations detect and block malicious traffic C.Inline interrogation enables viewing a copy of traffic to ensure traffic is in compliance with security policies D.Inline interrogation detects malicious traffic but does not block the traffic Answer: A QUESTION 49 Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.) A.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3 B.Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network C.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections D.Move the webserver to the internal network E.Move the webserver to the external network Answer: AB QUESTION 50 According to GDPR, what should be done with data to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability? A.Perform a vulnerability assessment B.Conduct a data protection impact assessment C.Conduct penetration testing D.Perform awareness testing Answer: B QUESTION 51 A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow? A.Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker's motives, and identify missing patches B.Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody C.Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited D.Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation plan Answer: B QUESTION 52 A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching? A.Identify the business applications running on the assets B.Update software to patch third-party software C.Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit D.Fix applications according to the risk scores Answer: D QUESTION 53 An engineer is analyzing a possible compromise that happened a week ago when the company database servers unexpectedly went down. The analysis reveals that attackers tampered with Microsoft SQL Server Resolution Protocol and launched a DDoS attack. The engineer must act quickly to ensure that all systems are protected. Which two tools should be used to detect and mitigate this type of future attack? (Choose two.) A.firewall B.Wireshark C.autopsy D.SHA512 E.IPS Answer: AE QUESTION 54 A European-based advertisement company collects tracking information from partner websites and stores it on a local server to provide tailored ads. Which standard must the company follow to safeguard the resting data? A.HIPAA B.PCI-DSS C.Sarbanes-Oxley D.GDPR Answer: D QUESTION 55 An organization had a breach due to a phishing attack. An engineer leads a team through the recovery phase of the incident response process. Which action should be taken during this phase? A.Host a discovery meeting and define configuration and policy updates B.Update the IDS/IPS signatures and reimage the affected hosts C.Identify the systems that have been affected and tools used to detect the attack D.Identify the traffic with data capture using Wireshark and review email filters Answer: B QUESTION 56 An engineer is going through vulnerability triage with company management because of a recent malware outbreak from which 21 affected assets need to be patched or remediated. Management decides not to prioritize fixing the assets and accepts the vulnerabilities. What is the next step the engineer should take? A.Investigate the vulnerability to prevent further spread B.Acknowledge the vulnerabilities and document the risk C.Apply vendor patches or available hot fixes D.Isolate the assets affected in a separate network Answer: B QUESTION 57 A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs. Which technology should be used to accomplish this task? A.application whitelisting/blacklisting B.network NGFW C.host-based IDS D.antivirus/antispyware software Answer: A QUESTION 58 Which command does an engineer use to set read/write/execute access on a folder for everyone who reaches the resource? A.chmod 666 B.chmod 774 C.chmod 775 D.chmod 777 Answer: D QUESTION 59 A SIEM tool fires an alert about a VPN connection attempt from an unusual location. The incident response team validates that an attacker has installed a remote access tool on a user's laptop while traveling. The attacker has the user's credentials and is attempting to connect to the network. What is the next step in handling the incident? A.Block the source IP from the firewall B.Perform an antivirus scan on the laptop C.Identify systems or services at risk D.Identify lateral movement Answer: C QUESTION 60 A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company's infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage? A.Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches B.Analyze event logs and restrict network access C.Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity D.Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list Answer: A QUESTION 61 A patient views information that is not theirs when they sign in to the hospital's online portal. The patient calls the support center at the hospital but continues to be put on hold because other patients are experiencing the same issue. An incident has been declared, and an engineer is now on the incident bridge as the CyberOps Tier 3 Analyst. There is a concern about the disclosure of PII occurring in real- time. What is the first step the analyst should take to address this incident? A.Evaluate visibility tools to determine if external access resulted in tampering B.Contact the third-party handling provider to respond to the incident as critical C.Turn off all access to the patient portal to secure patient records D.Review system and application logs to identify errors in the portal code Answer: C QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script? A.Seeds for existing domains are checked B.A search is conducted for additional seeds C.Domains are compared to seed rules D.A list of domains as seeds is blocked Answer: B QUESTION 63 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is reverse engineering a suspicious file by examining its resources. What does this file indicate? A.a DOS MZ executable format B.a MS-DOS executable archive C.an archived malware D.a Windows executable file Answer: D QUESTION 64 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing a static analysis on a malware and knows that it is capturing keys and webcam events on a company server. What is the indicator of compromise? A.The malware is performing comprehensive fingerprinting of the host, including a processor, motherboard manufacturer, and connected removable storage. B.The malware is a ransomware querying for installed anti-virus products and operating systems to encrypt and render unreadable until payment is made for file decryption. C.The malware has moved to harvesting cookies and stored account information from major browsers and configuring a reverse proxy for intercepting network activity. D.The malware contains an encryption and decryption routine to hide URLs/IP addresses and is storing the output of loggers and webcam captures in locally encrypted files for retrieval. Answer: D QUESTION 65 An audit is assessing a small business that is selling automotive parts and diagnostic services. Due to increased customer demands, the company recently started to accept credit card payments and acquired a POS terminal. Which compliance regulations must the audit apply to the company? A.HIPAA B.FISMA C.COBIT D.PCI DSS Answer: D QUESTION 66 A customer is using a central device to manage network devices over SNMPv2. A remote attacker caused a denial of service condition and can trigger this vulnerability by issuing a GET request for the ciscoFlashMIB OID on an affected device. Which should be disabled to resolve the issue? A.SNMPv2 B.TCP small services C.port UDP 161 and 162 D.UDP small services Answer: A QUESTION 67 Refer to the exhibit. Which indicator of compromise is represented by this STIX? A.website redirecting traffic to ransomware server B.website hosting malware to download files C.web server vulnerability exploited by malware D.cross-site scripting vulnerability to backdoor server Answer: B QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring in this packet capture? A.TCP port scan B.TCP flood C.DNS flood D.DNS tunneling Answer: B QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling? A.The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices B.Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution C.Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority D.Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution Answer: B QUESTION 70 The incident response team receives information about the abnormal behavior of a host. A malicious file is found being executed from an external USB flash drive. The team collects and documents all the necessary evidence from the computing resource. What is the next step? A.Conduct a risk assessment of systems and applications B.Isolate the infected host from the rest of the subnet C.Install malware prevention software on the host D.Analyze network traffic on the host's subnet Answer: B QUESTION 71 An organization had several cyberattacks over the last 6 months and has tasked an engineer with looking for patterns or trends that will help the organization anticipate future attacks and mitigate them. Which data analytic technique should the engineer use to accomplish this task? A.diagnostic B.qualitative C.predictive D.statistical Answer: C QUESTION 72 A malware outbreak is detected by the SIEM and is confirmed as a true positive. The incident response team follows the playbook to mitigate the threat. What is the first action for the incident response team? A.Assess the network for unexpected behavior B.Isolate critical hosts from the network C.Patch detected vulnerabilities from critical hosts D.Perform analysis based on the established risk factors Answer: B QUESTION 73 Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report? A.Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified B.Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified C.Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified D.Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected Answer: D QUESTION 74 An organization is using a PKI management server and a SOAR platform to manage the certificate lifecycle. The SOAR platform queries a certificate management tool to check all endpoints for SSL certificates that have either expired or are nearing expiration. Engineers are struggling to manage problematic certificates outside of PKI management since deploying certificates and tracking them requires searching server owners manually. Which action will improve workflow automation? A.Implement a new workflow within SOAR to create tickets in the incident response system, assign problematic certificate update requests to server owners, and register change requests. B.Integrate a PKI solution within SOAR to create certificates within the SOAR engines to track, update, and monitor problematic certificates. C.Implement a new workflow for SOAR to fetch a report of assets that are outside of the PKI zone, sort assets by certification management leads and automate alerts that updates are needed. D.Integrate a SOAR solution with Active Directory to pull server owner details from the AD and send an automated email for problematic certificates requesting updates. Answer: D QUESTION 75 Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is being used? A.JSON B.HTML C.XML D.CSV Answer: C QUESTION 76 The incident response team was notified of detected malware. The team identified the infected hosts, removed the malware, restored the functionality and data of infected systems, and planned a company meeting to improve the incident handling capability. Which step was missed according to the NIST incident handling guide? A.Contain the malware B.Install IPS software C.Determine the escalation path D.Perform vulnerability assessment Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF and 350-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1AxXpeiNddgUeSboJXzaOVsnt5wFFoDnO?usp=sharing
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2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF Dumps(Q83-Q120)
QUESTION 83 Which statement about hot-potato routing architecture design is true? A.Hot-potato routing is the preferred architecture when connecting to content providers B.Hop-potato keeps traffic under the control of the network administrator for longer C.OSPF uses hot-potato routing if all ASBRs use the same value for the external metric D.Hot-potato routing is prone to misconfiguration as well as poor coordination between two networks Answer: A QUESTION 84 Two enterprise networks must be connected together. Both networks are using the same private IP addresses. The client requests from both sides should be translated using hide NAT (dynamic NAT) with the overload feature to save IF addresses from the NAT pools. Which design addresses this requirement using only one Cisco I OS NAT router for both directions? A.This is not possible, because two Cisco IOS NAT routers are required to do dynamic NAT, with overload in both directions. B.The ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands must be configured at the interfaces with the overload option in both directions. C.The overload feature is the default and does not have to be configured. D.Two different NAT pools must be used for the ip nat inside source and the ip nat outside source commands for the overload feature in both directions. E.The Nat Virtual interface must be used to achieve this requirement. Answer: D QUESTION 85 Refer to the exhibit. As part of a redesign project, you must predict multicast behavior. What happens to the multicast traffic received on the shared tree (*,G), if it is received on the LHR interface indicated*? A.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPF check against the multicast source B.It is switched give that no RPF check is performed C.It is switched due to a successful RPF check against the routing table D.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPk8t8ck against the multicast receiver. Answer: A QUESTION 86 A BGP route reflector in the network is taking longer than expected to coverage during large network changes. Troubleshooting shows that the router cannot handle all the TCP acknowledgements during route updates. Which action can be performed to tune the device performance? A.Increase the size of the hold queue. B.Increase the size of the large buffers. C.Decrease the size of the small buffers. D.Increase the keepalive timers for each BGP neighbor. Answer: A QUESTION 87 Which two application requirements are mandatory tor traffic to receive proper treatment when placed in the priority queue? (Choose two.) A.small transactions (HTTP-like behavior) B.WRED drop treatment C.tolerance to packet loss D.intolerance to jitter E.TCP-based application Answer: CD QUESTION 88 Which two conditions must be met for EIGRP to maintain an alternate loop-free path to a remote network? (Choose two.) A.The Reported Distance from a successor is lower than the local Feasible Distance. B.The Reported Distance from a successor is higher than the local Feasible Distance. C.The feasibility condition does not need to be met. D.The Feasible Distance from a successor is lower than the local Reported Distance. E.A feasible successor must be present. Answer: AE QUESTION 89 You are designing a new Ethernet-based metro-area network for an enterprise customer to connect 50 sites within the same city OSPF will be the routing protocol used. The customer is primarily concerned with IPv4 address conservation and convergence time. Which two combined actions do you recommend? (Choose two) A.Use a multipoint Metro-E service for router connections B.Use a single address per router for all P2P links C.Use P2P links between routers in a hub-and-spoke design D.Configure address aggregation at each site router E.Determine which OSPF routers will be DR/BDR Answer: AC QUESTION 90 Which two statements about MLD snooping are true? (Choose two) A.When MLD snooping is enabled, QoS is automatically enabled. B.A VLAN can support multiple active MLD snooping queries, as long as each one is associated to a different multicast group. C.AN MLD snooping querier election occurs when any MLD snooping querier goes down or if there is an IP address change on the active querier. D.When multiple MLD snooping queriers are enabled in a VLAN, the querier with the lowest IP address in the VLAN is elected as the active MLD snooping querier. Answer: CD QUESTION 91 Which two design option are available to dynamically discover the RP in an IPv6 multicast network? (Choose two) A.embedded RP B.MSDP C.BSR D.Auto-RP E.MLD Answer: AC QUESTION 92 Company A has a hub-and spoke topology over an SP-managed infrastructure. To measure traffic performance metrics. IP SLA senders on all spoke CE routers and an IP SLA responder on the hub CE router. What must they monitor to have visibility on the potential performance impact due to the constantly increasing number of spoke sites? A.memory usage on the hub router B.interface buffers on the hub and spoke routers C.CPU and memory usage on the spoke routers D.CPU usage on the hub router Answer: D QUESTION 93 Which two descriptions of CWDM are true? (Choose two) A.typically used over long distances, but requires optical amplification B.uses the 850nm band C.allows up to 32 optical earners to be multiplexed onto a single fiber D.shares the same transmission window as DWDM E.Passive CWDM devices require no electrical power Answer: DE QUESTION 94 SDWAN networks capitalize the usage of broadband Internet links over traditional MPLS links to offer more cost benefits to enterprise customers. However, due to the insecure nature of the public Internet, it is mandatory to use encryption of traffic between any two SDWAN edge devices installed behind NAT gateways. Which overlay method can provide optimal transport over unreliable underlay networks that are behind NAT gateways? A.TLS B.DTLS C.IPsec D.GRE Answer: C QUESTION 95 Company XYZ runs OSPF in their network. A design engineer decides to implement hot-potato routing architecture. How can this implementation be achieved? A.Enable iBGP and apply prepend to ensure all prefixes will have the same length of the AS path attribute value. B.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure the total metric calculation includes only the ext value and the value is the same in all ASBRs. C.Enable OSPF load-balancing over unequal cost path. D.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure that the total metric calculation includes external internal values. Answer: D QUESTION 96 What are two primary design constraints when a robust infrastructure solution is created? (Choose two.) A.monitoring capabilities B.project time frame C.staff experience D.component availability E.total cost Answer: BE QUESTION 97 SD-WAN can be used to provide secure connectivity to remote offices, branch offices, campus networks, data centers, and the cloud over any type of IP-based underlay transport network. Which two statements describe SD WAN solutions? (Choose two.) A.SD-WAN networks are inherently protected against slow performance. B.Control and data forwarding planes are kept separate. C.Improved operational efficiencies result In cost savings. D.Solutions include centralized orchestration, control, and zero-touch provisioning. E.Solutions allow for variations of commodity and specialized switching hardware. Answer: CD QUESTION 98 An architect designs a multi-controller network architecture with these requirements: - Achieve fast failover to control traffic when controllers fail. - Yield a short distance and high resiliency in the connection between the switches and the controller. - Reduce connectivity loss and enable smart recovery to improve the SDN survivability. - Improve connectivity by adding path diversity and capacity awareness for controllers. Which control plane component of the multi-controller must be built to meet the requirements? A.control node reliability B.controller stale consistency C.control path reliability D.controller clustering Answer: D QUESTION 99 Company XYZ is planning to deploy primary and secondary (disaster recovery) data center sites. Each of these sites will have redundant SAN fabrics and data protection is expected between the data center sites. The sites are 100 miles (160 km) apart and target RPO/RTO are 3 hrs and 24 hrs, respectively. Which two considerations must Company XYZ bear in mind when deploying replication in their scenario? (Choose two.) A.Target RPO/RTO requirements cannot be met due to the one-way delay introduced by the distance between sites. B.VSANs must be routed between sites to isolate fault domains and increase overall availability. C.Synchronous data replication must be used to meet the business requirements. D.Asynchronous data replication should be used in this scenario to avoid performance impact in the primary site. E.VSANs must be extended from the primary to the secondary site to improve performance and availability. Answer: CD Explanation: RPO and RTO tend to vary based on the application involved. These metrics tend to fluctuate between data that cannot be lost (i.e., low RPO but high RTO) such as financial and healthcare data as well as real-time systems that cannot be down (i.e., high RPO but low RTO) such as an E-commerce web server. QUESTION 100 Which undesired effect of increasing the jitter compensation buffer is true? A.The overall transport jitter decreases and quality improves. B.The overall transport jitter increases and quality issues can occur. C.The overall transport delay increases and quality issues can occur. D.The overall transport delay decreases and quality improves. Answer: C QUESTION 101 Which three tools are used for ongoing monitoring and maintenance of a voice and video environment? (Choose three.) A.flow-based analysis to measure bandwidth mix of applications and their flows B.call management analysis to identify network convergence-related failures C.call management analysis to identify CAC failures and call quality issues D.active monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter E.passive monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter F.flow-based analysis with PTP time-stamping to measure loss, latency, and jitter Answer: ACD QUESTION 102 Which two advantages of using DWDM over traditional optical networks are true? (Choose two.) A.inherent topology flexibility and service protection provided without penalty through intelligent oversubscription of bandwidth reservation B.ability to expand bandwidth over existing optical Infrastructure C.inherent topology flexibility with built-in service protection D.inherent topology flexibility with intelligent chromatic dispersion E.inherent topology flexibility with a service protection provided through a direct integration with an upper layer protocol Answer: AB QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. This network is running OSPF and EIGRP as the routing protocols. Mutual redistribution of the routing protocols has been configured on the appropriate ASBRs. The OSPF network must be designed so that flapping routes in EIGRP domains do not affect the SPF runs within OSPF. The design solution must not affect the way EIGRP routes are propagated into the EIGRP domains. Which technique accomplishes the requirement? A.route summarization the ASBR interfaces facing the OSPF domain B.route summarization on the appropriate ASBRS. C.route summarization on the appropriate ABRS. D.route summarization on EIDRP routers connecting toward the ASBR Answer: D QUESTION 104 Company XYZ is running OSPF in their network. They have merged with another company that is running EIGRP as the routing protocol. Company XYZ now needs the two domains to talk to each other with redundancy, while maintaining a loop free environment. The solution must scale when new networks are added into the network in the near future. Which technology can be used to meet these requirements? A.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs B.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags C.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags D.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs Answer: B QUESTION 105 Company XYZ is in the process of identifying which transport mechanism(s) to use as their WAN technology. Their main two requirements are. - a technology that could offer DPI, SLA, secure tunnels, privacy, QoS, scalability, reliability, and ease of management - a technology that is cost-effective Which WAN technology(ies) should be included in the design of company XYZ? A.Software-defined WAN should be the preferred choice because it complements both technologies, covers all the required features, and it is the most cost-effective solution. B.Internet should be the preferred option because it is cost effective and supports BFD, IP SLA. and IPsec for secure transport over the public Internet. C.Both technologies should be used. Each should be used to back up the other one; where the primary links are MPLS, the internet should be used as a backup link with IPsec (and vice versa). D.MPLS meets all these requirements and it is more reliable than using the Internet. It is widely used with defined best practices and an industry standard. Answer: A QUESTION 106 Which MPLS TE design consideration is true? A.MPLS TE replaces LDP and the dependency of the IGP to identify the best path. B.MPLS TE provides link and node protection C.MPLS TE optimizes the routing of IP traffic, given the constraints imposed by backbone capacity and application requirements. D.MPLS TE requires Layer 3 VPN full-mesh topology deployment Answer: C QUESTION 107 The network designer needs to use GLOP IP address in order make them unique within their ASN, which multicast address range will be considered? A.239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 B.224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 C.233.0.0.0 to 233.255.255.255 D.232.0.0.0 to 232.255.255.255 Answer: C QUESTION 108 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right. Answer: QUESTION 109 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the end-to-end network virtualization elements from the left onto the correct network areas on the right. Answer: QUESTION 110 Which two data plane hardening techniques are true? (Choose two) A.warning banners B.redundant AAA servers C.Control Plane Policing D.SNMPv3 E.infrastructure ACLs F.disable unused services G.routing protocol authentication Answer: CE QUESTION 111 You have been asked to design a high-density wireless network for a university campus. Which two principles would you apply in order to maximize the wireless network capacity? (Choose two.) A.Implement a four-channel design on 2.4 GHz to increase the number of available channels B.Choose a high minimum data rate to reduce the duty cycle. C.increases the number of SSlDs to load-balance the client traffic. D.Make use of the 5-GHz band to reduce the spectrum utilization on 2.4 GHz when dual-band clients are used. E.Enable 802.11n channel bonding on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz to increase the maximum aggregated cell throughput. Answer: BD QUESTION 112 Company XYZ is redesigning their QoS policy. Some of the applications used by the company are real- time applications. The QoS design must give these applications preference in terms of transmission. Which QoS strategy can be used to fulfill the requirement? A.weighted fair queuing B.weighted random early detection C.low-latency queuing D.first-in first-out Answer: C QUESTION 113 As part of workspace digitization, a large enterprise has migrated all their users to Desktop as a Sen/ice (DaaS), by hosting the backend system in their on-premises data center. Some of the branches have started to experience disconnections to the DaaS at periodic intervals, however, local users in the data center and head office do not experience this behavior. Which technology can be used to mitigate this issue? A.tail drop B.traffic shaping C.WRED D.traffic policing Answer: B QUESTION 114 A healthcare provider discovers that protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data. Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue? A.technical and physical access control B.administrative security management processes C.physical device and media control D.technical integrity and transmission security Answer: D QUESTION 115 Which two technologies enable multilayer segmentation? (Choose two.) A.policy-based routing B.segment routing C.data plane markings D.firewalls E.filter lists Answer: AD QUESTION 116 IPFIX data collection via standalone IPFIX probes is an alternative to flow collection from routers and switches. Which use case is suitable for using IPFIX probes? A.performance monitoring B.security C.observation of critical links D.capacity planning Answer: A QUESTION 117 Company XYZ wants to use the FCAPS ISO standard for network management design. The focus of the design should be to monitor and keep track of any performance issues by continuously collecting and analyzing statistical information to monitor, correct, and optimize any reduced responsiveness across the network. Which layer accomplishes this design requirement? A.fault management B.accounting management C.performance management D.security management Answer: C QUESTION 118 While designing a switched topology, in which two options is UplinkFast recommended? (Choose two ) A.when switches of different spanning-tree types are connected (for example. 802.1d connecting to 802.1w) B.on distribution layer switches C.when hello timers are changed to more aggressive values D.on access layer switches E.on the core switches Answer: AD QUESTION 119 You are using iSCSI to transfer files between a 10 Gigabit Ethernet storage system and a 1 Gigabit Ethernet server. The performance is only approximately 700 Mbps and output drops are occurring on the server switch port. Which action will improve performance in a cost-effective manner? A.Change the protocol to CIFS. B.Increase the queue to at least 1 GB C.Use a WRED random drop policy D.Enable the TCP Nagle algorithm on the receiver Answer: A QUESTION 120 Customer XYZ network consists of an MPLS core. IS-IS running as IGP a pair of BGP route reflectors for route propagation, and a few dozens of MPLS-TE tunnels for specific tactical traffic engineering requirements. The customer's engineering department has some questions about the use of the Overload Bit in the IS-IS networks and how it could be used to improve their current network design. Which two concepts about the Overload Bit are true? (Choose two.) A.It can be set on a router during the startup process for a fixed period of time B.Networks advertised within the LSPs of the respective node will become unreachable C.It forces the midpoint MPLS-TE node to reoptimize the primary tunnels going through the OL node. D.It can be set on a router until other interacting protocols have signaled convergence. E.It is not recommended on BGP Route Reflectors Answer: AD 2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF and 400-007 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1wV28HLjscHjQ8TOrCglIRRU5nn6jytDd?usp=sharing
EmploMatic Review - Profitable Job Finder Sites (App By Igor Burban)
EmploMatic Review: What Is It? EmploMatic is a cloud-based software that allows you to instantly build money-making Job Finder sites that get free traffic and generate affiliate commission from FIVE income streams. This is your chance to have your very own affiliate site that is 100% DONE FOR YOU and is filled with popular JOBS from the greatest businesses and brands. The websites already have 8.5 million job openings from the biggest corporations in the world, including Amazon, Costco, UPS, Walmart, and THOUSANDS of other well-known organizations. Every hour, new positions are uploaded and the websites are immediately updated. The most popular employment sites serve as the model for the "job search" system. Their top techniques are "stolen" by EmploMatic and developed. Read More: https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/emplomatic-review-profitable-job-finder-sites-app-igor-burban- Get Started In 3 Easy Steps It's Your Fast Lane To 100% Automated JOB SEARCH Sites STEP 1: Choose Which Jobs To Focus On Select which country/region/city or job titles you want to display on your site. Mix & match OR include ALL jobs on your site if you wish. A detailed behind-the-shoulder tutorial is included. STEP 2: Enter Your Affiliate IDs Add your affiliate IDs and all the links automatically become your affiliate links. Don’t have an affiliate account yet? No worries. Inside the dashboard I’ll show you how to instantly get approved for all affiliate programs. STEP 3: Sit Back and Let Your Site Earn Affiliate Commission Every time somebody comes to your site and clicks on ANY job result, you get paid. Plus, you get to profit from banner ads through affiliate sales. AND you earn commission from text ads when people click and fill out a simple form. They don’t even have to buy anything! Read More: https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/emplomatic-review-profitable-job-finder-sites-app-igor-burban-
2023년 초인기 웹 데이터 수집 소프트웨어 대비-TOP10
오늘날 웹 데이터 스크래핑은 많은 분야에서 널리 사용되고 있으며 괜찮은 수집 도구에 대한 사람들의 요구도 증가하고 있습니다. 오늘은 인기 웹 데이터 수집 도구 10가지를 소개하고 이러한 수집 도구의 특성을 구체적으로 비교합니다. 관심있으시면 같이 한번 보세요~ 1. ScrapeStorm AI-Powered Web Scraping Tool & Web Data Extractor | ScrapeStorm ScrapeStorm은 인공지능 기술을 기반으로 개발된 지능적이고 무료 웹 데이터 수집 소프트웨어로 웹 주소를 입력하면 리스트 데이터, 테이블 데이터 및 페이지 버튼을 지능적으로 식별할 수 있으며 수집 규칙을 구성할 필요가 없으며 원터치 수집을 지원합니다. 시각적 클릭 조작 인터페이스는 복잡한 수집 규칙을 생성하기 위해 몇 가지 간단한 절차만 필요하며 모든 웹 페이지의 데이터를 쉽게 수집할 수 있습니다. 풍모: l 데이터 스크래핑부터 내보내기까지 전 과정으로 무료로 사용할 수 있습니다. l ScrapeStorm은 여러 가지의 내보내기 방식을 지원합니다. TXT、EXCEL、CSV및HTML을 지원합니다. GoogleSheet및 데이터 베이스(MySQL、MongoDB、SQL Server、PostgreSQL)로 내보낼 수 있습니다. l ScrapeStorm은 스케쥴러, 자동 추출, 파일 다운로드, 가속 엔진, Webhook, API전환 등 다양한 기능을 가지고 있습니다. l ScrapeStorm은 Windows, Mac및 Linux를 지원합니다. 2. Parsehub ParseHub | Free web scraping - The most powerful web scraper Parsehub은 사용하기 쉬운 무료 웹 데이터 수집 도구입니다.  Parsehub는 홈페이지에서 데이터를 분석, 의미 있는 데이터로 변환할 수 있습니다. 풍모: l Parsehub는 JavaScript 렌더링, Ajax 크롤링, Cookies, Session 등의 메커니즘을 지원합니다. l 시각화된 조작 인터페이스입니다. l Parsehub는 무료로 사용할 수 있습니다. 3. ScraperAPI ScraperAPI - The Proxy API For Web Scraping ScraperAPI는 전 세계 1000여개 기업과 개발자를 위해 매달 20억건의 API 요청을 처리합니다. Scraper API는 GET 요청과 URL을 쉽게 통합할 수 있습니다. 문서에는 많은 고급 사용 사례도 제공됩니다. 풍모: l Scraper API는 GET 요청과 URL을 쉽게 통합할 수 있습니다. l ScraperAPI는 CAPTCHA 자동화를 실현할 수 있습니다. l IP 금지 및 안전 문자메시지를 차단할 수 없습니다. l 첫달은 무료, 다음달은 $29부터 결제하셔야 합니다. 4. Scrapinghub World's Leading Web Scraping Service | Zyte Scrapinghub는 수천 명의 개발자가 귀중한 데이터를 얻을 수 있도록 도와주는 클라우드 기반 데이터 추출 도구입니다. 오픈 소스 비전 데이터 크롤링 도구를 사용하여 프로그래밍 지식 없이 웹 사이트 데이터를 크롤링할 수 있습니다. 풍모: l Scrapinghub는 Crawlera를 사용하고, 로봇에 의해 보호되는 사이트를 쉽게 스크롤할 수 있습니다. l 사용자는 간단한 HTTP API를 통해 여러 IP와 위치에서 데이터를 탐색할 수 있습니다. l 유료로 사용해야 합니다. 5. ProWebScraper ProWebScraper - Fast and Powerful Web Scraping Tool ProWebScraper는 대규모 데이터 수집 및 내보내기에 매우 유용합니다. ProWebScraper는 비즈니스 운영, 마켓플레이스 스타트업, 데이터 과학자, 가격 책정 관리자 등을 위해 특별히 만들어진 수집 도구입니다. 풍모: l ProWebScraper는 CSV, JSON 및 API 내보내기 형식을 지원합니아. l ProWebScraper는 1000 페이지의 데이터를 크롤링할 수 있습니다. l ProWebScraper는 사용자 지정 CSS 및 Xpath 선택기를 톨해 숨겨진 데이터 추출할 수 있습니다. 6. Dexi.io Dexi.io - Digital Commerce Intelligence, Retail, Brands & E-Commerce 웹 브라우저 기반 웹 수집 도구인 Dexi.io 을 사용하면 모든 웹 사이트에서 데이터를 추출하고 데이터 추출, 작업 생성, 결과 내보내기 등 3가지 유형의 로봇을 제공할 수 있습니다. 풍모: l Dexi.io은 실시간 데이터 추출하는 유료 서비스를 제공합니다. l Dexi.io은 데이터를 JSON나 CSV파일로 내보낼 수 있습니다. 7. Octoparse Web Scraping Tool & Free Web Crawlers | Octoparse Octoparse는 운영자의 인터넷 실명제 실사 데이터를 기반으로 웹 데이터 수집, 모바일 인터넷 데이터 및 API 인터페이스 서비스와 같은 서비스를 통합하는 데이터 서비스 플랫폼입니다. 풍모: l Octoparse은 웹페이지 광고 차단 기능을 가지고 있습니다. l Octoparse은 Excel, TXT, HTML의 데이터 내보내기 방식을 지원합니다. 데이터 베이스로 내보낼 수도 있습니다. l Octoparse은 또한 내장된 Regex와 XPath 구성을 사용하여 데이터를 정확하게 찾을 수 있어 복잡한 구조의 웹사이트를 추출할 수 있습니다. 8. Import.io Enterprise scale eCommerce data to drive growth - Import.io Import.io 은 클릭 몇 번으로 웹 데이터를 자신의 앱이나 사이트에 통합할 수 있습니다. 모든 웹 사이트에 적응할 수 있으며 조작이 간단하고 자동으로 수집되며 수집 결과를 시각화할 수 있습니다. 풍모: l Import.io은 Windows, Mac OS X 및 Linux를 지원합니다. l 매주, 매일 또는 매시간 크롤링 작업을 예약할 수 있습니다. l Import.io은 구체적인 필드를 선택할 수 없고 자동으로 페이지를 넘길 수 없습니다. 9. Diffbot Diffbot | Knowledge Graph, AI Web Data Extraction and Crawling Diffbot을 사용하면 웹 페이지에서 다양한 유형의 데이터를 쉽게 수집할 수 있으며 Diffbot은 주로 복잡한 비정형 텍스트 데이터를 처리해야 하는 개발자를 대상으로 합니다. 풍모: l 자연어 처리 능력과 지식 정보 기능은 아주 강합니다. l 가격이 비교적 비싸고 가장 싼 플랜에도 $299/월입니다. 10. Data Steramer Datastreamer – The Data Pipeline for Data Products Data Steramer도구는 웹에서 소셜 미디어 콘텐츠를 가져오는 데에 도움이 됩니다. 자연어 처리를 사용하여 중요한 메타 데이터를 추출할 수 있습니다. 풍모: l Kibana및Elasticsearch 제공하는 통합 전체 택스트 검색 l Data Steramer은 사용하기 쉽고 포괄적인 관리 콘솔을 가지고 있습니다. 일반적으로 이러한 수집 도구는 고유한 특성을 가지며 여러분들이 자신의 필요에 따라 선택할 수 있습니다. 초보자의 경우ScrapeStorm이라는 수집 소프트웨어를 사용하는 것이 더 추천되며 스크랩스톰은 원터치 수집을 지원하며 조작이 매우 간단하고 기능이 풍부하여 쉽게 사용할 수 있습니다. 이상 본편의 공유내용입니다~적절한 웹데이터 수집도구를 선택하는데 도움이 되시길 바랍니다!