Cards you may also be interested in
Best Intranet platform 2021: Explore our list of top 5 intranet
While exploring the best intranet platforms for your specific business requirements, decision-making might be quite hectic and confusing as well. The choices range from free open-source intranets to Costly custom-made advanced intranet suites, depending upon various factors such as budget, the extent of collaboration, average technical knowledge of the employees, and so on. Regardless of whether you are attempting to track down a simple correspondence and collaboration or are looking up to the data requirements or just intending to use it as a fun employee engagement platform, a lot of factors are there to contemplate. Best Intranet Platform 2021 List of Top 5 Intranet Apart from collaboration, SharePoint Intranet stands out as a great alternative data storage solution as well. While exploring the best intranet platforms that suit your business requirements, the number of options you would come across might appear puzzling. There we decided to come up with a list of the top 5 placeholders in Best intranet platform 2021 to ensure your ease of selection, without requiring extensive in-depth knowledge of the technicalities. So let’s delve through the list- Saketa Intranet Suite Let’s start with our own Employee Engagement Solution, Saketa Digital Workplace Solution for SharePoint and Office 365. Saketa leverages the power of the Office 365 applications and SharePoint Intranet Best Practices like department sites, news and events, a who is who page, faq etc. Just select the tools that matter most to your organization. We believe in delivering the best end-user experience. The look and feel is modern and intuitive and you can learn using it really easy with a welcome tour or our support team guiding the users through the portal. We constantly review user feedback to keep on evolving along with the changing market demands. Being based upon Office 365 SharePoint, it offers plenty of options to integrate the complimentary Saketa Business Apps as well as other third-party apps that you might be using. Thus, you don’t need to switch your entire business processes in order to adapt to this digital workplace. Rather, you are just upgrading your existing ones for the better, with this new employee engagement platform. Powell 365 Powell 365 mainly focuses on being personalized. It helps you improve your collaborative aspects of Office365 by helping you with best adoption. It brings in your whole workforce on a single collaboration platform with its super-efficient intranet solution. They have developed great features to tackle hybrid workplaces by letting their collaboration tools easily accessible to all. Thus, offering a comprehensive Digital Workplace platform dedicated to business communication and employee experience to bring in productivity. Powell 365 Intranet alternative: Saketa Intranet Suite Beezy Beezy is known for its diverse collaboration abilities and unifying them to create an awesome employee engagement experience. Being highly adaptable to different devices helps it stand out. Beezy assists with scaling communication and managing content, that in turn makes work fun and easy. Valo Intranet Suite Valo intranet aims at delivering the digital workplace experience you will fall in love with. It enhances your SharePoint and Office 365 for achieving a great digital workplace experience, seamless communication, and worthy teamwork. Valo intranet is the quick and simple company intranet to connect and collaborate. It also keeps everyone connected with org-wide messages, news or occasions and engaging them. It brings individuals, groups, and thoughts together to facilitate smooth collaboration. The Best Valo Intranet alternative: Saketa Intranet Suite Microsoft VIVA Microsoft Viva is Microsoft’s latest offering in the employee engagement space. It primarily focuses upon bringing devices digitally closer for engagement, learning and collaboration. Viva is intended to help workers learn, develop and flourish, with utter efficiency by utilizing the collaborative ability of Microsoft 365 and Microsoft Teams. With an array of amazing features, it is definitely worth looking forward to. Still confused and cannot decide the best option for your Organization? Looking for More Resources to help with Decision Making? We might be able to help. Reach us out at hello@saketa.com
(April-2021)Braindump2go 300-435 PDF and 300-435 VCE Dumps(Q98-Q114)
QUESTION 98 What is a benefit of developing an application in a Python virtual environment? A.The application operates in multiple target systems simultaneously. B.The application supports concurrency or multithreading. C.The application operates across systems that have different operating systems. D.The development environment is isolated from Python projects that already exist. Answer: B QUESTION 99 Refer to the exhibit. Which device type is functioning in a degraded state? A.access point B.distribution switch C.access switch D.wireless LAN controller Answer: C QUESTION 100 When working with MV Sense APIs, which type of protocol is MQTT based upon? A.publish-subscribe messaging protocol B.simple mail transport protocol C.heavyweight messaging protocol D.computer vision protocol Answer: A QUESTION 101 Refer to the exhibit. What is a characteristic of the tree? A.three optional metrics B.two leaf-lists C.ten leaf-lists D.three containers Answer: A QUESTION 102 Refer to the exhibit. A RESTCONF GET request is sent to a Cisco IOS XE device. The base URL of the request and the response in XML format are shown in the exhibit. What are the two YANG data nodes and modules referenced in the response? (Choose two.) A.description is a key field defined in the interface list B.The ethernetCsmacd type is imported from the iana-if-type module C.address is a container defined in the ietf-interfaces module D.ipv4 is a container defined in the ietf-ip module E.interface has the YANG data node type of container Answer: AB QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is included in the payload resulting from the script? A.ethernet 1 B.ethernet 100 C.ethernet 1/1 D.ethernet 0 Answer: D QUESTION 104 Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces named Loopback0, Loopback1, and Loopback2 must be created and enabled on a Cisco IOS XE target device in the lab group. Which loop must be added to the end of the Ansible "create int" task? A.with_items: "{{intlist}}" B.with_parent: "{{intlist}}" C.with_list: "{{intlist}}" D.with_groups: "{{intlist}}" Answer: C QUESTION 105 Refer to the exhibit. A Python script is used to configure a Cisco IOS XE router. The Loopback2 interface currently has a description of Management2 and an IP address/netmask of 10.222.34.22/32. What is the result of executing the script? A.The interface description remains the same. B.The router rejects all commands and the configuration remains the same. C.The interface is removed from the configuration. D.The interface description is removed from the configuration. Answer: A QUESTION 106 Refer to the exhibit. NTP server 10.1.1.20 must be configured on the target Cisco IOS XE device without using authentication and logging. Which state should be added on a new line at the end of the Ansible task? A.state: true B.state: started C.state: present D.state: installed Answer: C QUESTION 107 Refer to the exhibit. The configuration commands are entered in CLI config mode to configure a static telemetry subscription on a Cisco IOS XE device. The commands are accepted by the device, but the consumer receives no telemetry data. Which change must be made to ensure that the consumer receives the telemetry data? A.The IP address of the receiver must be set. B.The stream type must be set to YANG. C.The update policy period must be shortened. D.The sender IP address must be set. Answer: B QUESTION 109 What is an advantage of software-defined networks as compared to traditional networks? A.They simplify operations by creating a concrete copy of the network. B.They reduce complexity by coupling the control and the data plane. C.They enable older hardware to be repurposed without an investment in new infrastructure. D.They deliver a distributed management architecture that provides better resilience to errors. Answer: D QUESTION 110 What does Cisco DNA Center use to manage third-party devices? A.command runners B.multivendor SDK C.templates D.device packages Answer: D QUESTION 111 Refer to the exhibit. After executing the call, an engineer obtains the result of the Command Runner execution. The three commands show as blocklisted in the downloaded file. What is the cause of the error? A.The API user in Cisco DNA does not have write privileges on the devices. B.The engineer attempting to access the devices in Cisco DNA Center does not have privilege 15. C.The format of the JSON body must follow the CLI format. D.Command Runner supports only the show command and the read-only command. Answer: D QUESTION 112 Refer to the exhibit. Cisco SD-WAN deployment must be fixed using vManage APIs. A call to vEdge Hardware Health API returns the data in the exhibit (only a portion is shown). If the JSON shown in the exhibit is converted to a Python dictionary named "d", how is the "status" property referenced? A.d[`data'][`statusList'][`status'] B.nbvnbvvnbhg C.d{`data'}[0]{`statusList'}[0]{`status'} D.d[data][0][statusList][0][status] Answer: C QUESTION 113 What is a capability of Cisco SD-WAN vManage Certificate Management API? A.deletes existing installed certificates B.distributes the root certificate to client devices C.generates SSL certificates D.creates certificate signing requests Answer: D QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. A template is provided to a junior developer to automate the creation of a network on the Meraki dashboard. The new network needs to have the id 123456789 and support only wired network connections. What type needs to be added to the API? A.switch B.wireless C.appliance D.systemsManager Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-435 PDF and 300-435 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1aZd2kZQpLrc_X9Zy57wn5fhkgF2IMSG5?usp=sharing
How English helps in making one feel confident and powerful?
How the English language lets you lead the stage? Through the sands of time, the British Empire expanded and ruled over several different countries. The British Empire acquired approximately a quarter of the earth’s surface and ruled it with an iron fist. This act has made it one of the most popular languages in today’s world. In the past, the British forced their language over the people they ruled over to speak English which has led to the widespread knowledge of the language. Many of these countries have also made English their official language, even if it isn’t their native language. The English language may have had a complex past, but it certainly has a bright future. Language Classes in Pune. As so many people know to speak the language helps in connecting with people globally. Today, fluent English can also help with careers and professional life. The language’s popularity has several perks in all respects today, making it extremely useful to know. A language is learned by catching several worlds and associating them together. The English language changes over the years, and its influence and derivations from various other languages make it easier to grasp and understand. How English helps in making one feel confident and powerful? The feeling of confidence comes from within. English being the most needed language in today’s world makes many feel nervous or insufficient. Many are also governed by their beliefs and dislike for the language due to cultural reasons and paradigms. But English is such a language that it brings a sense of power to the speaker. It also helps transmit that power in the form of confidence, which helps deliver the message with a more lasting impact on the audience or crowd. This sense of confidence may arise within the speaker either due to the popularity of the language or the ease of communicating and engaging with the listeners. It is how English helps one rule the stage. Here’s what brings out confidence and power with the knowledge of the English language: · English knowledge improves cognitive flexibility: One of the most significant benefits of learning a second language is cognitive flexibility. In layman’s terms, how stretchy one’s brain is. The ability to switch between languages is vital. It begins with the identification of the language. Thus, being multilingual improves cognitive flexibility. It also helps in improving concentration and focusing abilities. Even understanding a joke or choosing a descriptive word can be signs of cognitive flexibility. Increased cognitive flexibility and focus give a person the ability to connect and fit in with people more easily and boost confidence. · Travelling and cultural awareness: Learning another language can also help learn about another culture, as language is a critical aspect of culture. Learning English brings exposure to the culture of all the English-speaking countries. It is a popular language; it brings a substantial amount of learning and indulging with it. It helps one communicate better with people and impart their knowledge on the subject can make them more interesting, boosting confidence. Language Classes in Pune. Knowing English allows one to travel to countries across the world and interact with the people and the cultures there. · Long-term learning and improved life: Although the initial stages of learning the language may be tricky, eventually, with time, English becomes an integral part of a person’s life and gives a boost of confidence to the speaker. Accepting that mistakes will be made and improving them makes one feel the need to take more risks on the language front. Eventually, understanding that learning a language is a long-term process that involves continuous learning makes one feel at ease with the idea of trying new things. It expands one’s horizons and gives them the courage to try harder and get better in the language. Increased creativity: As learning English can help the brain become more flexible, it enhances the mind’s creativity. This flexibility can also lead to increased problem-solving capabilities and improve interaction with the world and its people. Because the English language is spoken by so many people worldwide, it is also the primary entertainment language. English knowledge can help indulge with these and can also influence a person’s thoughts and behaviour. Expanding connections and building relations: One of the best things about learning English is that it helps build connections with people around the world as English is one of the most popular languages today. English is a very social language, and learning is equivalent to social skills. As one begins learning English, practicing by having one-on-one conversations with English speakers becomes easy. Many online platforms and other institutes provide language Classes, English speaking classes, English speaking courses, etc., to improve one’s fluency in English. Expanding connections and building new relations, publically speaking in English, even makes one easily rule the stage. Getting comfortable in speaking English is not a hard task. Its popularity already has a great influence over most native languages as well. Hence, grasping it and mastering the language is not that challenging. The art of leading the stage all comes with the ease and fluency of this fine language.
(April-2021)Braindump2go NSE7_SDW-6.4 PDF and NSE7_SDW-6.4 VCE Dumps(Q11-Q27)
QUESTION 11 Which components make up the secure SD-WAN solution? A.FortiGate, FortiManager, FortiAnalyzer, and FortiDeploy B.Application, antivirus, and URL, and SSL inspection C.Datacenter, branch offices, and public cloud D.Telephone, ISDN, and telecom network Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the status of the VPN tunnel are true? (Choose two.) A.There are separate virtual interfaces for each dial-up client. B.VPN static routes are prevented from populating the FortiGate routing table. C.FortiGate created a single IPsec virtual interface that is shared by all clients. D.100.64.3.1 is one of the remote IP address that comes through index interface 1. Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 13 Refer to exhibits. Exhibit A shows the SD-WAN rules and exhibit B shows the traffic logs. The SD-WAN traffic logs reflect how FortiGate processed traffic. Which two statements about how the configured SD-WAN rules are processing traffic are true? (Choose two.) A.The implicit rule overrides all other rules because parameters widely cover sources and destinations. B.SD-WAN rules are evaluated in the same way as firewall policies: from top to bottom. C.The All_Access_Rules rule load balances Vimeo application traffic among SD-WAN member interfaces. D.The initial session of an application goes through a learning phase in order to apply the correct rule. Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 14 What are the two minimum configuration requirements for an outgoing interface to be selected once the SD-WAN logical interface is enabled? (Choose two.) A.Specify outgoing interface routing cost. B.Configure SD-WAN rules interface preference. C.Select SD-WAN balancing strategy. D.Specify incoming interfaces in SD-WAN rules. Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 15 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibit, which statement about FortiGate re-evaluating traffic is true? A.The type of traffic defined and allowed on firewall policy ID 1 is UDP. B.Changes have been made on firewall policy ID 1 on FortiGate. C.Firewall policy ID 1 has source NAT disabled. D.FortiGate has terminated the session after a change on policy ID 1. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16 What are two reasons why FortiGate would be unable to complete the zero-touch provisioning process? (Choose two.) A.The FortiGate cloud key has not been added to the FortiGate cloud portal. B.FortiDeploy has connected with FortiGate and provided the initial configuration to contact FortiManager. C.FortiGAte has obtained a configuration from the platform template in FortiGate cloud. D.A factory reset performed on FortiGate. E.The zero-touch provisioning process has completed internally, behind FortiGate. Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 17 Which two statements reflect the benefits of implementing the ADVPN solution to replace conventional VPN topologies? (Choose two.) A.It creates redundant tunnels between hub-and-spokes, in case failure takes place on the primary links. B.It dynamically assigns cost and weight between the hub and the spokes, based on the physical distance. C.It ensures that spoke-to-spoke traffic no longer needs to flow through the tunnels through the hub. D.It provides direct connectivity between all sites by creating on-demand tunnels between spokes. Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 18 Refer to the exhibit. Based on output shown in the exhibit, which two commands can be used by SD-WAN rules? (Choose two.) A.set cost 15. B.set source 100.64.1.1. C.set priority 10. D.set load-balance-mode source-ip-based. Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the debug output are correct? (Choose two.) A.The debug output shows per-IP shaper values and real-time readings. B.This traffic shaper drops traffic that exceeds the set limits. C.Traffic being controlled by the traffic shaper is under 1 Kbps. D.FortiGate provides statistics and reading based on historical traffic logs. Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 20 In the default SD-WAN minimum configuration, which two statements are correct when traffic matches the default implicit SD-WAN rule? (Choose two.) A.Traffic has matched none of the FortiGate policy routes. B.Matched traffic failed RPF and was caught by the rule. C.The FIB lookup resolved interface was the SD-WAN interface. D.An absolute SD-WAN rule was defined and matched traffic. Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 21 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the trace evaluation by FortiGate is true? A.Packets exceeding the configured maximum concurrent connection limit are denied by the per-IP shaper. B.The packet exceeded the configured bandwidth and was dropped based on the priority configuration. C.The packet exceeded the configured maximum bandwidth and was dropped by the shared shaper. D.Packets exceeding the configured concurrent connection limit are dropped based on the priority configuration. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22 Refer to the exhibit. FortiGate has multiple dial-up VPN interfaces incoming on port1 that match only FIRST_VPN. Which two configuration changes must be made to both IPsec VPN interfaces to allow incoming connections to match all possible IPsec dial-up interfaces? (Choose two.) A.Specify a unique peer ID for each dial-up VPN interface. B.Use different proposals are used between the interfaces. C.Configure the IKE mode to be aggressive mode. D.Use unique Diffie Hellman groups on each VPN interface. Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 23 Refer to exhibits. Exhibit A shows the firewall policy and exhibit B shows the traffic shaping policy. The traffic shaping policy is being applied to all outbound traffic; however, inbound traffic is not being evaluated by the shaping policy. Based on the exhibits, what configuration change must be made in which policy so that traffic shaping can be applied to inbound traffic? A.The guaranteed-10mbps option must be selected as the per-IP shaper option. B.The guaranteed-10mbps option must be selected as the reverse shaper option. C.A new firewall policy must be created and SD-WAN must be selected as the incoming interface. D.The reverse shaper option must be enabled and a traffic shaper must be selected. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24 Refer to the exhibit. What must you configure to enable ADVPN? A.ADVPN should only be enabled on unmanaged FortiGate devices. B.Each VPN device has a unique pre-shared key configured separately on phase one. C.The protected subnets should be set to address object to all (0.0.0.0/0). D.On the hub VPN, only the device needs additional phase one settings. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25 Which two statements describe how IPsec phase 1 main mode id different from aggressive mode when performing IKE negotiation? (Choose two.) A.A peer ID is included in the first packet from the initiator, along with suggested security policies. B.XAuth is enabled as an additional level of authentication, which requires a username and password. C.A total of six packets are exchanged between an initiator and a responder instead of three packets. D.The use of Diffie Hellman keys is limited by the responder and needs initiator acceptance. Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 26 What are two benefits of using FortiManager to organize and manage the network for a group of FortiGate devices? (Choose two.) A.It simplifies the deployment and administration of SD-WAN on managed FortiGate devices. B.It improves SD-WAN performance on the managed FortiGate devices. C.It sends probe signals as health checks to the beacon servers on behalf of FortiGate. D.It acts as a policy compliance entity to review all managed FortiGate devices. E.It reduces WAN usage on FortiGate devices by acting as a local FortiGuard server. Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 27 What would best describe the SD-WAN traffic shaping mode that bases itself on a percentage of available bandwidth? A.Per-IP shaping mode B.Shared policy shaping mode C.Interface-based shaping mode D.Reverse policy shaping mode Correct Answer: B 2021 Latest Braindump2go NSE7_SDW-6.4 PDF and NSE7_SDW-6.4 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1ZF64HYe3ZFxcWI0ZQMeUB0F-CvAjFBqg?usp=sharing
خرید پنل اس ام اس مخابرات
اگر هدفتان خرید پنل اس ام اس از مخابرات است باید اولویت را بر روی کیفیت ارسال پیامک، نحوه ی پشتیبانی و آموزش کار با پنل اس ام اس، قدمت آن سامانه پیامکی و در نهایت تعرفه هر پیامک قرار دهید. سامانه پیامکی مخابرات به عنوان یکی از بهترین پنل اس ام اس های حال حاضر ایران دارای سابقه چندین ساله در زمینه ارائه سرویس های پیامکی انبوه تبلیغاتی و خدماتی است و همانند سامانه های مشابه که رابط مستقیم مخابرات هستند و با اپراتورهای سطح اول کشور کار می کنند تعرفه همسان با اندکی اختلاف ارائه می دهد.همچنین در پنل پیامکی مخابرات، آموزش استفاده از پنل اس ام اس را در قالب 18 فیلم آموزشی با کیفیت تهیه شده است، بطوریکه مشابه آن، در هیچ سایت دیگر ارائه دهنده پنل اس ام اس قابل مشاهده نیست و تضمین می دهیم با مشاهده فیلم های آموزش پنل اس م اس، استفاده از سامانه برای شما بسیار آسان شود. استفاده هوشمندانه از پنل پیامکی شانس زیادی برای افزایش فروش برند شما دارد و به طور کلی خرید پنل اس ام اس از مخابرات باعث میشود تجارت شما به سطح بهتری از بازدهی و محبوبیت برسد. البته توجه کنید پنل پیامکی مخابرات، سامانه پیامکی انبوه مخابرات، خرید پنل پیامک مخابرات، پنل پیامکی همراه اول و ایرانسل اصلا وجود ندارند. چرا که سامانه هایی نظیر مخابرات یا همراه اول و ایرانسل خدماتی مبتنی بر ارسال اس ام اس تبلیغاتی ارائه نمی دهند و شما به عنوان صاحب سرمایه و کسی که دارای کسب و کاری است، برای تبلیغ محصول و خدماتی که ارائه می دهید باید از پنل اس ام اس معتبر استفاده کنید که ساله در زمینه ارائه خدمات ارسال پیامک انبوه است. همانطورکه گفته شد ارسال پیام کوتاه تبلیغاتی، یک راه ارتباطی مستقیم میان برند ومشتری است به شرطی که آن پیام شخصی سازی شده باشد. به طور مثال شخصی که شغلش توزیع تجهیزات پزشکی می باشد نیازمند تبلیغات برای عموم مردم نیست و جامعه هدف کسب و کارش پزشکان، متخصصین و یا پنل اس ام اس برای بیمارستان می باشد. اگر شما صاحب کسب و کار کوچک هستید به تمام خدمات پنل اس ام اسی نیازی ندارید. مطابق با این نیاز روز، خدمات پیامکی پنل اس ام اس مخابرات توسط آژانسهای برتر بازاریابی به کسب و کارها کمک شایانی کرده اند. در فضای فزاینده رقابت فن آوری پیام کوتاه، انتخاب ارائه دهنده پیام کوتاه مناسب برای تجارت شما بیش از یک مقایسه قیمت دستگاه پنل اس ام اس مخابرات ساده است. تعرفه مناسب با تعرفه ارزان متفاوت است! اگرچه هزینه مهم است و پنل پیامک مخابرات ارزان مزایای خاص خود را دارد، اما جنبه های دیگری نیز وجود دارد که باید قبل از انتخاب نمایندگی پنل پیامک مخابرات در نظر گرفته شود. در ادامه شما را با روش های ارسال پیامک از طریق پنل پیامک مخابرات و نحوه استفاده از آن آشنا خواهیم نمود. متاسفانه اسم خرید پنل اس ام اس از مخابرات به ابزاری تبدیل شده است تا افراد سودجو از اعتماد من و شما به نفع خودشان سو استفاده کنند و خود را وابسته به مخابرات (حتی بعضا مخابرات) اعلام کنند. کلمات پنل پیامک مخابرات که برای خرید پنل س ام اس در گوگل جستجو می شوند و متاسفانه اسم مخابرات به ابزاری تبدیل شده است تا افراد سودجو از اعتماد من و شما به نفع خودشان سو استفاده کنند و خود را پنل اس ام اس مخابرات اعلام کنند. پنل پیامکی یا همان سامانه پیامکی مخابرات به فضایی اطلاق میشود که در آن قابلیت بازدید از منوهای مختلف، ویرایش مخاطبان برای ارسال پیامک انبوه و مدیریت و دسته بندی پیامهای خود را دارد. پنل پیامک انبوه یک سرویس است که شما را قادر می سازد تا کمپین های بازاریابی خود را به طور موثر، سریع و با هزینه ای مقرون به صرفه تحقق بخشید. پیامکی که توسط نمایندگی پنل اس ام اس و شرکت هایی که از مخابرات سرویس می گیرند به دست مشتریان میرسد، میتواند به آشنایی بیشتر و بهتر آنها با کسب و کار شما کمک شایانی کند و آنها میتوانند اطلاعات به اشتراک گذاشته شده از طریق پنل پیامکی را به طور مستقیم مرور کنند. این استفاده هوشمندانه از پنل پیامکی شانس زیادی برای افزایش فروش برند شما دارد و به طور کلی خرید پنل اس ام اس از مخابرات باعث میشود تجارت شما به سطح بهتری از بازدهی و محبوبیت برسد. یکی دیگر از قابلیت های مهم پنل اس ام اس مخابرات، دریافت پیامک هایی است که از طرف مشتریان ارسال می شوند. یادتان باشد که مخابرات، همراه اول و ایرانسل خدمات ارسال اس ام اس تبلیغاتی و خدماتی ندارند و متاسفانه شرکت های بسیاری برای کلاهبرداری از این نام سواستفاده میکنند. پنل اس ام اس نرم افزاری در فضای اینترنت است که شما را قادر می سازد تا به مخاطبان و لیست شماره هایی که دارید پیامک تبلیغاتی یا خدماتی ارسال کنید. بنابراین لازم است برای ارسال پیامک های تبلیغاتی و خدماتی خود از پنل پیامکی استفاده نمایید که تمام اپراتورها را پشتیبانی نماید. ارسال پیامک تبلیغاتی یک راه برای برقراری ارتباط خصوصی بین یک شرکت یا موسسه با مشتریانش است. در این بین شرکت های مذکور هزینه ها و انرژی زیادی را باید صرف تبلیغات خود کنند تا در بازار رقابتی بتوانند قد علم کنند. هزینه ارسال پیام کوتاه یک هزینه جاری است از این رو تعرفه ارسال پیامک در تعداد بالا روی هزینه ها تاثیر زیادی دارد. کسر هزینه بابت پیامکهای نرسیده : پیامکهای نرسیده برای یک سامانه هزینه ندارند. بومی بودن یک نرم افزار از بروز مشکلات اصلی برای آن جلوگیری خواهد کرد. توصیه میشود برای انتخاب پنل اس ام اس از شرکتی خرید کنید که سورس اصلی نرم افزار پنل پیامک مخابرات باشد. در این حالت مطمئن خواهید بود که نرم افزار ارسال پیامک شما، به صورت مداوم به روز رسانی می گردد. جهت تائید این مورد، میتوانید گواهی تائیدیه نرم افزار را از او بخواهید. ارسال پیامک انبوه با پنل اس ام اس مخابرات تبلیغاتی میتواند از طریق اپراتورهای متعددی انجام گیرد. منابع: https://studiumfc.umontreal.ca/blog/index.php?entryid=35630 https://www.hoaxbuster.com/forum/viewtopic.php?f=4&t=6405 http://gforge.wits.ac.za/gf/project/vre/fo...wse&forum_id=49 https://www.colcampus.com/eportfolios/30639...ms_panel_______ https://courses.ecornell.com/eportfolios/20...ms_panel_______ https://digitalmarketingiran.persianblog.ir...;ات http://forum.saranhosting.com/showthread.p...=87243#pid87243 http://mostafaf7t.rozblog.com/post/118/pro...-sms-panel.html https://liink.ir/3uou https://e1i.ir/5HcvNS http://g02.ir/8fORP https://sololink.ir/bI9y8 http://fan.fc-anji.ru/blogs/blog/47521.html https://myclc.clcillinois.edu/web/jeff_test...21404/maximized https://canvas.mooc.upc.edu/eportfolios/229...sms_panel______ https://uws-ce.instructure.com/eportfolios/...sms_panel______ http://tazehayerooz.blog.ir/1400/01/21/buy...ation-sms-panel http://forum.kishtech.ir/showthread.php?ti...24696#pid124696 http://tazehayerooz.blogfa.com/post/106 https://iebh.instructure.com/eportfolios/53...sms_panel______ https://lms.tuit.co.za/eportfolios/3786/Hom...sms_panel______ https://www.hoaxbuster.com/forum/viewtopic.php?f=4&t=6390 http://gforge.wits.ac.za/gf/project/vre/fo...wse&forum_id=49 https://b2n.ir/z85379 http://yun.ir/ztn7kf https://llli.ir/0606 https://xo0.ir/91580 https://myclc.clcillinois.edu/web/jeff_test...essage_28409250 https://studiumfc.umontreal.ca/blog/index.php?entryid=35506 https://aalrc.instructure.com/eportfolios/12759/Home/purchase_telecommunication_sms_panel_______ https://svdesdeva.instructure.com/eportfolios/4773/Pgina_inicial/purchase_telecommunication_sms_panel_______ https://l2x.ir/0qt https://ee9.ir/fHbeI https://canvas.ltcillinois.org/eportfolios/19823/Home/procure_telecommunication_sms_panel_______ http://khaterehmusic.ir/Forum/Post/289 http://mostafaf7.blog.ir/1400/01/24/procure-telecommunication-sms-panel http://digitalmarketingiran.loxblog.com/post/19/%D8%AE%D8%B1%DB%8C%D8%AF%20%D9%BE%D9%86%D9%84%20%D8%A7%D8%B3%20%D8%A7%D9%85%20%D8%A7%D8%B3%20%D8%A7%D8%B2%20%D9%85%D8%AE%D8%A7%D8%A8%D8%B1%D8%A7%D8%AA.htm https://edunow.today/eportfolios/4837/Home/procure_telecommunication_sms_panel_______ https://go2l.ir/2XWRI http://akoo.ir/kb https://dlp.dit.ac.tz/eportfolios/111/Home/buy_telecommunication_sms_panel______ https://lms.elearnlab.org/eportfolios/10/Pgina_de_Inicio/buy_telecommunication_sms_panel______ https://a77.ir/Dq6FJ http://snha.ir/5EOslc https://training.joniandfriends.org/eportfolios/4991/Home/purchase_telecommunication_sms_panel______ http://irandigitalmarketing.parsiblog.com/Posts/25/%d8%ae%d8%b1%d9%8a%d8%af+%d9%be%d9%86%d9%84+%d8%a7%d8%b3+%d8%a7%d9%85+%d8%a7%d8%b3+%d9%85%d8%ae%d8%a7%d8%a8%d8%b1%d8%a7%d8%aa/ http://mostafaf7j.blog.ir/1400/01/23/purchase_telecommunication_sms_panel http://www.f.mersit.ir/showthread.php?tid=4710 https://training.dwfacademy.com/eportfolios/13507/Home/purchase_telecommunication_sms_panel______ https://rizy.ir/E6Pu https://bv2.ir/zmyml
Delivery ou Take Away. Qual a melhor opção para o seu restaurante?
https://www.ciinformatica.com.br/delivery-ou-take-away/ Com as medidas mais restritivas da pandemia, os restaurantes precisaram se adaptar para trabalhar nas modalidades delivery ou take away. Muitos já trabalhavam assim, mas outros tiveram que se reinventar para sobreviver. Antes de tudo, vamos entender as vantagens e diferenças entre essas duas modalidades O termo take away, ainda pouco conhecido por aqui, nada mais é do que as opções “para viagem”, “buscar no local” ou “para levar”. Nessa alternativa, o cliente retira o pedido no balcão do restaurante e leva para consumir em outro local. A vantagem do take away para os clientes é o menor tempo de espera, menos contato com outras pessoas, e isenção da taxa de entrega (o que pode não compensar pelo custo e tempo de locomoção até o restaurante). Já para os estabelecimentos, há uma economia de custos com equipes de entregas, redução de filas e menor contato entre funcionários e clientes. Por outro lado, quem opta pelo delivery, busca conveniência, segurança e conforto, uma vez que o pedido é enviado até o local definido pelo consumidor. Tanto o delivery, quanto o take away, se caracterizam pelo fato do consumo não ocorrer no local de produção, como os salões dos restaurantes. Além disso, as duas modalidades permitem pedidos via Whatsapp, telefone, redes sociais, site, market places e aplicativos próprios, ampliando a atuação, divulgação e canais de vendas do restaurante. Quando o restaurante opta por aplicativos de pedidos online, uma grande vantagem é o recurso de pagamento online, que gera mais segurança para o entregador e cliente. O Vina, app de delivery do ControleNaMão, oferece a modalidade de pagamento online! Além disso, um aplicativo próprio é menos custoso do que grandes plataformas de market place, o que pode representar uma economia significativa em grandes volumes de pedidos dentro do mês. Resumindo... delivery ou take away? Mesmo após a pandemia, estes modelos de compra ainda serão utilizados por boa parte dos consumidores. Ambos oferecem vantagens para quem compra e para quem vende! Se for possível para o seu negócio, ofereça ambas as opções! As chances de vendas são ampliadas desta forma. Caso precise optar por um dos modelos de venda, analise com seus clientes qual a forma mais benéfica e invista na qualidade dos seus produtos e do seu atendimento!
How to Create an NFT Marketplace: Blockchain and Some Magic | Codica
This article was originally posted on Codica Blog. On March 11, 2021, the collage of artworks by an American digital artist Beeple was sold at Christie’s for an unthinkable $69 million. It is by far the most expensive non-fungible token that has ever been purchased. So what are non-fungible tokens? And what makes them so special that people eagerly spend tons of money on a unique digital item? In this article, we will try to answer all these questions. The definition of the term “non-fungible token” Basically, any unique digital asset linked to the blockchain can be classified as a non-fungible token. On NFT marketplaces, these items fall under such categories as: - Art; - Domain names; - Virtual world; - Collectibles; - Sports; - Music; - Memes. Below you can see the list of features that indicate that we deal with NFTs. - Tradability; - Easy interaction with other ecosystems; - Indivisibility; - Authenticity; - Liquidity; - Scarcity; - Programmability; - Non-interoperability. The most famous examples of non-fungible tokens Game characters When it comes to game characters as non-fungible tokens, we cannot but speak about CryptoKitties. This game appeared in 2017 as one of the first tries to use the blockchain for fun. The gamers get the chance to creed, collect, and purchase cure digital kittens. Texts Tweets fall under the category of text NFTs. Below, you can see the first tweet by Jack Dorsey, the Twitter founder. By the way, a non-fungible token marketplace Valuable sold it recently for $2.9 mln. Sport Sport also stepped up in the NFT game. Here we should mention a line of digital collectibles launched by the NBA. The line was a big success and has already brought $400 million in trading. Digital artworks Finally, we could not disregard the most expensive non-fungible token, which is a collage of artworks created by digital artist Beeple. This digital asset called “Everydays - The first 5000 days” was sold at Christie’s for a tremendous $69 million. What is an NFT marketplace, and how does it work? In simple terms, a non-fungible token marketplace is a platform where NFTs are stored and traded. Users can buy them for a fixed price or at an auction. The relations between buyers and sellers on non-fungible marketplaces are regulated by smart contracts that are self-executed transaction protocols. NFT marketplaces are divided into universal platforms and niche non-fungible marketplaces. The second type provides users with specific kinds of digital assets. The most famous NFT websites are OpenSea, Rariables, and Foundation. So how an NFT marketplace works, you may wonder. The schematic user flow provided below will make things easier for you. Step 1. Users sign up on an NFT platform. Step 2. They choose a preferred digital wallet. Step 3. A non-fungible token is being created. To this end, users need to upload a digital asset. Step 4. Digital items are listed for sale. Sellers can set a fixed price or choose a bid for an auction. Step 5. Item moderation takes place. Step 6. When new NFTs are approved, they are added to the list for sales. Step 7. The token owner starts accepting bids. Step 8. When the auction closes, they get a notification about top bids. Step 9. The NFT marketplace handles the transfer of digital assets and funds. How to build a non-fungible token marketplace? When it comes to NFT marketplace development, the process is pretty similar to building any other marketplace. You need to define your potential users, required functionality, and the development approach. 1. Choose the basic features When choosing the must-have functionality, we recommend that you start with the following features: - Storefront; - Advanced search function; - Diverse filters; - Listing creation; - Listing status; - Buying and auction functionality; - Digital wallet integration; - Ratings. 2. Select the suitable development approach Based on your specific business requirements and budget, you can either use ready-made software or turn to a software development company. The first option is cheaper, but you may be restricted by the functionality, provided out-of-the-box. A well-known example of ready-made tools is SDK offered by OpenSea. The second solution is more costly. However, your NFT platform will be fully scalable, and there will not be any issues with adding new functionality. Another benefit of a partnership with a software development company is the careful protection of sensitive information. It is crucial for non-fungible token marketplaces that should comply with security regulations. NFT marketplace development with Codica For more than six years, Codica team has been helping customers thrive by building fast-loading and user-friendly marketplaces for them. We follow the latest marketplace development trends to make our solutions secure, manageable, and user-friendly. In addition, we focus on using the latest technology stack. For example, we gained experience working with the blockchain, which is a promising tool for many domains. Today we want to share our best practices in implementing this advanced technology. Case study: Babel Cover We got a request from Babel Cover, a technology startup that provides early-stage insurance. The company asked to build a progressive web application that should enable users to purchase an insurance policy in a fast and secure way. We were challenged to ensure ultra-secure data storage and payment processing. The sensitive data and access to the private digital wallets where rewards are stored should be available solely for customers. Our solution was to integrate a blockchain solution called ChainLocker via API. With this approach, the insurance company gets the chance to access customers’ data only in case they have issues with the withdrawal of funds. This integration makes the PWA solution we have delivered a successful example of a secure web application for the insurance domain. Check the full case study to learn more about the project. Conclusion These days the topic of non-fungible tokens stirs interest among collectors of unique digital assets. Given this popularity, it seems that it is high time to build an NFT marketplace platform to meet the demands of this specific audience. The launch of such a business promises wonders to early adopters. If you have an idea of the NFT marketplace in mind, feel free to contact us. Our experienced team will implement the blockchain technology for your project and build a unique and scalable marketplace for you. For additional information about NFT marketplace development, check our full article: NFT Marketplace Development: What Is It and How Much Does It Cost?
SR-71 Blackbird Vs Mig-25 Foxbat Aircraft Comparison Between Two Fastest Aircraft in The World
Comparison Between Two Fastest Aircraft in The World In comparison between SR-71 Blackbird vs Mig-25 Foxbat Aircraft, was the Mig-25 Foxbat and the upgraded Mig-31 Foxhound capable of intercepting SR-71? This question came up regularly throughout the world back then. So, to put to rest, this question is the purpose of this article. During the cold war, the Russians were highly concerned about the United States XB-70 supersonic bomber project. In response, they built the Mig-25, which is design to be an interceptor for encountering air targets in all weather and conditions by day and night and in dense hostile electronic warfare environments. Now let’s look into the general specifications, SR-71 Blackbird vs Mig-25 Foxbat Aircraft https://softrv.com/sr-71-blackbird-vs-mig-25-foxbat-aircraft/ General Specifications The SR-71 was first developed as a black project from the Lockheed A-12 reconnaissance aircraft in the 1960s by the Lockheed skunkworks division. American aerospace engineer Clarence Kelly Johnson was responsible for many of the aircraft’s innovative concepts. An AMERICAN Aircraft, SR-71 BLACKBIRD A RUSSIAN Aircraft MIG-25 FOXBAT Shape The shape of the SR-71 is base on the Lockheed A-12. which was one of the first aircraft designed with a reduced radar cross-section. Production of the Mig-25 series ends in 1984 after the completion of 1186 aircraft. A sign of the cold war, the Mig-25 flew with Soviet allies and former Soviet republics, and the remaining in limited service in several export customers. Length, Width, and Height SR-71 Blackbird Vs Mig-25 Foxbat Aircraft, the length of SR-71 is about 32.74 meters long wingspan of over 16.94 meters and 5.64 meters. Mikoyan 25 Foxbat, on the other hand, is shorter narrow, and a little taller than a blackbird. Maximum weight The maximum take-off weight of the SR-71 blackbird is about 78,000 kilograms, and without fuel, the aircraft weighs 30,000 kilograms. The empty weight of Foxbat is about 20,000 kilograms. Its maximum take-off weight is about 36,720 kilograms, almost half of the blackbirds. Maximum speed And Range The maximum estimated speed of SR-71 blackbird aircraft is 3,529 kilometers per hour. It can also go beyond that. The maximum range of blackbirds is up to 5,900 kilometers and Foxbat of 3,470 kilometers. Maximum flight altitude The maximum altitude of Mig-25 can fly about 25,900 meters or 85,000 feet, whereas Foxbat can fly only up to 24,400 kilometers or 80,000 feet. The Mig-25 can sustain this altitude for 2 minutes due to engine overheating. Power The installed power of SR-71 blackbird is a Pratt and Whitney J58-1 continuous bleed after burning turbo ram jets developing 32,500 lb of thrust. The Mikoyan 25 Foxbat uses the Soyuz or Tumansky R-15B-300 turbojet engines with afterburn expanding 22,494 lb of thrust each. Armament Lastly, we have an armament originally. In comparison between SR-71 Blackbird Vs Mig-25 Foxbat Aircraft, the blackbird was build to provides weapons, but it was converted into a reconnaissance plane when it realizes that the plane flew faster than a rifle bullet. In simple terms, it would have shut itself down. The Foxbat, on the other hand, typically has four supersonic AA6 or R-40 accurate long-range air-to-air missiles, and other alternatives air-to-air missiles include 2 x AA7 (R-23) “Apex” or 2 x AA8 (R-60) “Aphid.” The aircraft also carries 4 x AA-11 (R-73A) “Archer” medium-range missiles and anti-radiation missiles.  In Conclusion It will depend on the reader to conclude whether a Mig-25 or a Mig-31 could have intercepted an SR-71. In my biased opinion, it would be: “Highly Unlikely.” The following facts are real: A Mig-25 or Mig-31 has never fired a missile at an SR-71. SR-71 Pilots state that the Mig-25/31 never posed a serious threat to their aircraft. The Mig-25 can only keep up Mach 2.8 for a short duration due to an engine overheat. The Mig-25 can only keep up an altitude of 78,740 feet for two minutes maximum. In 1973, Kelly Johnson, designer of the SR-71 Blackbird, stated that in the comparison between SR-71 Blackbird Vs Mig-25 Foxbat Aircraft, the Mig-25 Foxbat has the inherent capability to outperform the SR only in maneuverability. However,  he said, it would be the missile and not the aircraft that would require the maneuverability to intercept a Blackbird. The SR-71 routinely cruised at Mach 3.2 in continuous afterburner at 80-85,000 feet. The speed and altitude of an SR-71 coupled with superior Defensive electronics have prevented any intended intercept of the Blackbird either by land-based missiles or airborne Interceptor threats. Almost all SR-71 Blackbird Reconnaissance Aircraft are now in Museums throughout the United States, having flown for 32 years with the distinction of being the “Highest flying and fastest air-breathing aircraft in the world.”
(April-2021)Braindump2go 350-901 PDF and 350-901 VCE Dumps(Q143-Q168)
QUESTION 143 Refer to the exhibit. Which key value pair from the ios_ntp Ansible module creates the NTP server peer? A.state: absent B.state: False C.config: absent D.config: False Answer: D QUESTION 144 A developer deploys a SQLite database in a Docker container. Single-use secret keys are generated each time a user accesses the database. The keys expire after 24 hours. Where should the keys be stored? A.Outside of the Docker container in the source code of applications that connect to the SQLite database. B.In a separate file inside the Docker container that runs the SQLite database. C.In an encrypted database table within the SQLite database. D.In a separate storage volume within the Docker container. Answer: D QUESTION 145 While working with the Webex Teams API, on an application that uses end-to-end encryption, a webhook has been received. What must be considered to read the message? A.Webhook information cannot be used to read the message because of end-to-end encryption. The API key is needed to decrypt the message. B.Webhook returns the full unencrypted message. Only the body is needed to query the API. C.Webhook returns a hashed version of the message that must be unhashed with the API key. D.Webhook returns message identification. To query, the API is needed for that message to get the decrypted information. Answer: A QUESTION 147 What are two steps in the OAuth2 protocol flow? (Choose two.) A.The user is authenticated by the authorization server and granted an access token. B.The user's original credentials are validated by the resource server and authorization is granted. C.The user indirectly requests authorization through the authorization server. D.The user requests an access token by authentication and authorization grant presentation. E.The user requests the protected resource from the resource server using the original credentials. Answer: AE QUESTION 149 What is the gRPC Network Management Interface protocol? A.a unified management protocol for streaming telemetry and database logging B.a configuration management protocol for monitoring C.a protocol for configuration management and streaming telemetry D.a logging protocol used across database servers Answer: C QUESTION 150 An application has been developed for monitoring rooms in Cisco Webex. An engineer uses the application to retrieve all the messages from a Cisco Webex room, but the results are slowly presented. Which action optimizes calls to retrieve the messages from the /v1/messages endpoint? A.Define the ma property by using the pagination functionality. B.Set the beforeMessage property to retrieve the messages sent before a specific message ID. C.Avoid unnecessary calls by using a prior request to /v1/rooms to retrieve the last activity property. D.Filter the response results by specifying the created property in the request. Answer: A QUESTION 151 What are two principles according to the build, release, run principle of the twelve-factor app methodology? (Choose two.) A.Code changes are able to be made at runtime. B.Separation between the build, release, and run phases. C.Releases should have a unique identifier. D.Existing releases are able to be mutated after creation. E.Release stage is responsible for compilation of assets and binaries. Answer: BC QUESTION 152 A developer is building an application to access a website. When running the application, an HTTP 403 error code has been received. How should the application be modified to handle this code? A.Create a loop on cancel the operation and run a new one after the code is received. B.Use exponential backoff when retrying distributed services and other remote endpoints. C.Build a try/except around the urlopen to find errors occurring in the request. D.Redirect the request to an internal web server and make a new request from the internal resource. Answer: B QUESTION 153 When end-to-end encryption is implemented, which area is most vulnerable to exploitation? A.cryptographic key exchange B.endpoint security C.cryptographic key generation D.security of data in transit Answer: B QUESTION 154 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing in the diagram to show how data is processed in Webex Teams. Not all options are used. Answer: Answer: B QUESTION 156 What are two benefits of using distributed log collectors? (Choose two.) A.supports multiple transport protocols such as TCP/UDP B.improves performance and reduces resource consumption C.provides flexibility due to a wide range of plugins and accepted log formats D.enables extension of logs with fields and export to backend systems E.buffers and resends data when the network is unavailable Answer: BE QUESTION 157 What are two features of On-Box Python for hosting an application on a network device? (Choose two.) A.It has direct access to Cisco IOS XE CLI commands. B.It is a Python interpreter installed inside the guest shell. C.It enables execution of XML scripts on a Cisco IOS XE router or switch. D.It supports Qt for graphical interfaces and dashboards. E.It has access to Cisco IOS XE web UI through a controller. Answer: AB QUESTION 158 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring Ansible to run playbooks against Cisco IOS XE Software. What should be configured in ansible.cfg as the connection type? A.network_cli B.ssh C.shell D.command Answer: B QUESTION 160 Refer to the exhibit. The JSON response is received from the Meraki location API. Which parameter is missing? A.apMac B.clientMac C.clientId D.accesspoint Answer: B QUESTION 161 Which two gRPC modes of model-driven telemetry are supported on Cisco IOS XE Software? (Choose two.) A.dial-in B.dial-out C.call-in D.call-out E.passive Answer: AB QUESTION 162 Refer to the exhibit. Which parameter is missing from the JSON response to confirm the API version that is used? A.version 4 B.v10 C.2 D.version 2 Answer: C QUESTION 163 What is a capability of the End User Monitoring feature of the AppDynamics platform? A.discovers traffic flows, nodes, and transport connections where network or application/network issues are developing B.monitoring local processes, services, and resource use, to explain problematic server performance C.identifies the slowest mobile and IoT network requests, to locate the cause of problems D.provides metrics on the performance of the database to troubleshoot performance-related issues Answer: C QUESTION 165 What is the function of dependency management? A.separating code into modules that execute independently B.utilizing a single programming language/framework for each code project C.automating the identification and resolution of code dependencies D.managing and enforcing unique software version names or numbers Answer: A QUESTION 167 Drag and Drop Question Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to provision a new UCS server. Not all options are used. Answer: QUESTION 168 Drag and Drop Question A Python application is being written to run inside a Cisco IOS XE device to assist with gathering telemetry data. Drag and drop the elements of the stack from the left onto the functions on the right to collect and display the telemetry streaming data. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go 350-901 PDF and 350-901 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1mr2xSVIcLq2_l8ETudcq0FfZ3Ri8LMiL?usp=sharing
TOP 10 WORLD WAR 1 FIGHTER PLANES
World war 1 fought on the western front in which neither British nor German forces could gain more ground or force the other to retreat. Instead of moving around to fight large formal battles, each army stayed in trenches that mark their territory’s edges and attempted to wear the other side down with constant small attacks and occasional offensives. When the first World war broke out in 1914, aviation was beginning. During the war years, the role played by fighter aircraft would change a lot. At first, aircraft were mainly used by the British military for reconnaissance, but later new technological advances allowed pilots to drop bombs and shoot down enemy aircraft. So, without further delay, let’s talk about the TOP 10 WORLD WAR 1 FIGHTER PLANES, https://softrv.com/top-10-world-war-1-fighter-planes/ TOP 10 WORLD WAR 1 FIGHTER PLANES AT NUMBER 10 IS NIEUWPORT 11, FRANCE LENGTH: 5.5m (18.1ft) WEIGHT: 320kg (705lb) ARMAMENT: 1 x Lewis or Hotchkiss Machine Guns ENGINE: Le Rhone 9C (80hp) CEILING: 5,000m (16,000ft) RANGE: 250km (155mi) SPEED: 162kmh (100mph) The TOP 10 WORLD WAR 1 FIGHTER PLANES at number 10 is Nieuport 11. The Nieuport 11 was a French world war single-seat sesquiplane fighter aircraft. The type saw service with several of France’s military and give rise to the series of Nieuport fighters that remained in service until the 1920s. Like many world war aircraft, the Nieuport 11 saw use by many different countries. Armament was not state of the art even for world war 1 standards due to the lack of an interrupted gear. A single machine gun mounted above the upper wing fired above the propeller arc. Its mount allowed it to tipped back so the pilot could change the circular ammunition drum. AT NUMBER 9 IS ALBATROSS D.V, GERMANY LENGTH: 7.33m (24.1ft) WEIGHT: 687kg (1,515lb) ARMAMENT: 2 x LGM Machine Guns ENGINE: Mercedes D. lllau (200hp) CEILING: 5,700m (18,700ft) RANGE: 350km (217mi) SPEED: 186km (116mph) In the list of TOP 10 WORLD WAR 1 FIGHTER PLANES, the Albatross D-V comes at number 9. The Albatross D-V was a fighter aircraft built by the German air force during world war 1. The D-V was the final development of the albatross D1 family and the last albatross fighter to see operational service. Despite its well-known shortcomings in general obsolescence, approximately 2,500 D-V aircraft built before production halted in April 1918. Its armament was a double LMG machine gun fitted in front. It equips with the Mercedes piston engine developing 200 horsepower and a top speed of about 186 kilometers per hour. AT NUMBER 8 IS SOPWITH PUP, UK LENGTH: 5.8m (19.3ft) WEIGHT: 357kg (787lb) ARMAMENT: Vickers Machine Guns ENGINE: Le Rhone 9C (80hp) CEILING: 5,300m (17,500ft) RANGE: 542km (337mi) SPEED: 180kmh (112mph) The Sopwith Pup was a British single-seat biplane fighter aircraft built by the Sopwith aviation company. With pleasant flying characteristics and excellent maneuverability, the aircraft proved very successful. Newer German fighters eventually outclassed the Pup, but it wasn’t replaced entirely on the western front until 1917. The Pup’s Dolezal flying characteristics also made it ideal for aircraft carrier deck landing and takeoff experiments. It was fit with the Vickers machine fired forward through the propeller. Equipped with 80 horsepower engines up with Pup could attain a maximum speed of 180 kilometers per hour. AT NUMBER 7 IS SOPWITH CAMEL, UK LENGTH: 5.72m (18.9ft) WEIGHT: 422kg (930lb) ARMAMENT: 2 x Vickers Machine Guns ENGINE: Clerget 98(130hp) CEILING: 5,800m (19,000ft) RANGE: 480km (300mi) SPEED: 182kmh (113mph) The Sopwith Camel is at number 7 in the list of TOP 10 WORLD WAR 1 FIGHTER PLANES. The Sopwith Camel was a successor to the Sopwith Pup and became one of the great war’s best-known fighter aircraft. The Camel was power by a single rotary engine and is an arm with a twin synchronized Vickers Machine Gun. Though difficult to handle, it was highly maneuverable in an experienced pilot’s hands, a vital attribute in the era’s relatively low-speed low altitude dogfights. In total, Camel pilots had credit for downing 1,294 enemy aircraft more than any other allied fighter of the conflict. Unlike Pup, the Camel had a more potent engine that could fly a maximum speed of 182 kilometers per hour. LENGTH: 6.38m (20.11ft) WEIGHT: 640kg (1,410lb) ARMAMENT: 1 x Lewis + 1 x Vickers Machine Guns ENGINE: Hispano/Wolseley Viper (150hp) CEILING: 5,200m (17,000ft) RANGE: 480km (300mi) SPEED: 222kmh (138mph) The royal aircraft factory SE5 was a biplane fighter aircraft and was one of the fastest aircraft during world war 1. In most respects, the SE5 had superior performance to the rival saw with Camel, although it was less immediately responsive to the controls. The SE5 saw service with many countries from different continents. Its length was 6.38 meters, and its weight is 640 kilograms. The aircraft had a single Vickers machine gun. Unlike most world war one aircraft, the SE5 could carry 4 cooper bombs of 11 kilograms, each two under each lower wing. Its power plants were V8 engine that could develop 150 horsepower and a maximum speed of 222 kilometers per hour. AT NUMBER 5 IS SPAD Vll, FRANCE LENGTH: 6.08m (19.11ft) WEIGHT: 500kg (1,102lb) ARMAMENT: 1 x 0.303cal Vickers Machine Guns ENGINE: Hispano-Suiza (150hp) CEILING: 5,500m (18,000ft) RANGE: 400km (250mi) SPEED: 193kmh (120mph) The Spad S-Vll comes at number 5 in the list of TOP 10 WORLD WAR 1 FIGHTER PLANES. The Spad S-Vll the first highly successful biplane fighter aircraft during the first world war. S-Vll was renowned as a sturdy and rugged aircraft with good climbing and diving characteristics like its successor. It was also a stable gun platform all the pilots used to the more maneuverable Nieuport fighters found it heavy on the controls. A number of the famous aces flew it. It had served with more than 25 countries during the war. Like most world war 1 planes, it equips with a Vickers machine gun with a V8 engine developing 150 horsepower. Spad S-Vll could fly a range up to 400 kilometers and a maximum speed of 193 kilometers per hour. https://softrv.com/top-10-world-war-1-fighter-planes/ AT NUMBER 4 IS FOKKER DR-1, GERMANY LENGTH: 5.77m (18.11ft) WEIGHT: 406kg (895lb) ARMAMENT: 2 x 7.92mm Maschinengewehr Machine Guns ENGINE: Oberursel (110hp) CEILING: 6,100m (20,000ft) RANGE: 300km (190mi) SPEED: 180kmh (110mph) The Fokker DR-1 was arguably the most famous plane of world war 1. It was because it associates with the red baron. The airframe is made of steel tubing that covers aircraft doped canvas. When it was empty, it weighed 406 kilograms. It had 110 horsepower engine and could fly a maximum speed of 180 kilometers per hour for a maximum time of 1 hour and 30 minutes at a maximum altitude of 14,000 feet. Like most planes in world war 1, the Fokker DR-1 had a rotary engine with the propeller bolted directly onto the engine so that the engine and propeller rotated together. AT NUMBER 3 IS FOKKER D-Vll, GERMANY LENGTH: 6.95m (22.10ft) WEIGHT: 670kg (1,477lb) ARMAMENT: 2 x 7.92mm LMG 08/15 Machine Guns ENGINE: Mercedes/BMW Piston Engine (120–240hp) CEILING: 6,000m (19,680ft) RANGE: 266km (165mi) SPEED: 189kmh (165mph) The Fokker D-Vll was a German world war 1 fighter aircraft designed by Reinhold Platz comes at number 3 in the list of TOP 10 WORLD WAR 1 FIGHTER PLANES. Germany produced around 3,300 D-Vll aircraft in the second half of 1918. In service with the lift strike craft, the D-Vll quickly proved itself to be a formidable aircraft. The earliest production D-Vlls equips with 170 to 180 horsepower Mercedes, and production quickly switched to the intended standard engine, the higher compression 180 to 200 horsepower. This aircraft’s range was up to 266 kilometers and a maximum speed of 189 kilometers per hour. AT NUMBER 2 IS AIRCO DH4, UK LENGTH: 9.35m (30.8ft) WEIGHT: 1083kg (2,387lb) ARMAMENT: 303cal Vickers/Lewis Machine Guns + Bombs (up to 210kg) ENGINE: Rolls-Royce Eagle (375hp) CEILING: 6,700m (22,000ft) RANGE: 770km (478mi) SPEED: 230kmh (143mph) The Airco DH4 was a British two-seat biplane, the first British two-seat light day bomber to have an effective defensive armament. The DH4 intends to perform both aerial reconnaissance and day bomber missions. One of the design’s earlier aims was to be powered by a newly developed engine and tried it with several different engines, perhaps the best of which was the 375 horsepower Rolls-Royce Eagle engine. The aircraft’s armament and ordnance consisted of one Vickers Machine Gun for the pilot and one Lewis gun mounting for the observer. Either it could carry a pair of 100-kilogram bombs or a maximum payload of 450-kilogram bombs. AT NUMBER 1 IS SPAD Xlll, FRANCE LENGTH: 6.25m (20.6ft) WEIGHT: 601.5kg (1,326lb) ARMAMENT: 2 x Vickers/M1917/M1918 Machine Guns + 4 Cooper Bombs ENGINE: Hispano-Suiza (200hp) CEILING: 6,800m (22,300ft) RANGE: 276km (172mi) SPEED: 211kmh (131mph) At number 1 in the list of TOP 10 WORLD WAR 1 FIGHTER PLANES is Spad S-Xlll. The Spad S-Xlll was a further development of the successful spad S-Vll design, the latter eventually becoming outclassed by the newer and better German aircraft designs of world war 1. The S-Xlll would prove Spad’s success, adding yet another serviceable fighter aircraft to its resume and a formidable platform to the conflict. The S-Xlll featured an increased wingspan, more powerful engines, dual machine gun systems, and more subtle design changes over the S-Vll. In the end, over 8,400 examples would roll off the assembly lines. One of the main differences between Spad Vll and Spad Xlll was that it could carry 4 bombs of a total of about 50 kilograms.
(April-2021)Braindump2go 200-201 PDF and 200-201 VCE Dumps(Q144-Q171)
QUESTION 144 Which action should be taken if the system is overwhelmed with alerts when false positives and false negatives are compared? A.Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system. B.Design criteria for reviewing alerts. C.Redefine signature rules. D.Adjust the alerts schedule. Answer: A QUESTION 145 What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive? A.True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach. B.True positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability. C.False positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach. D.False positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability. Answer: C QUESTION 146 An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task? A.Firepower B.Email Security Appliance C.Web Security Appliance D.Stealthwatch Answer: C QUESTION 147 Refer to the exhibit. Which technology generates this log? A.NetFlow B.IDS C.web proxy D.firewall Answer: D QUESTION 148 Which filter allows an engineer to filter traffic in Wireshark to further analyze the PCAP file by only showing the traffic for LAN 10.11.x.x, between workstations and servers without the Internet? A.src=10.11.0.0/16 and dst=10.11.0.0/16 B.ip.src==10.11.0.0/16 and ip.dst==10.11.0.0/16 C.ip.src=10.11.0.0/16 and ip.dst=10.11.0.0/16 D.src==10.11.0.0/16 and dst==10.11.0.0/16 Answer: B QUESTION 149 Which tool provides a full packet capture from network traffic? A.Nagios B.CAINE C.Hydra D.Wireshark Answer: D QUESTION 150 A company is using several network applications that require high availability and responsiveness, such that milliseconds of latency on network traffic is not acceptable. An engineer needs to analyze the network and identify ways to improve traffic movement to minimize delays. Which information must the engineer obtain for this analysis? A.total throughput on the interface of the router and NetFlow records B.output of routing protocol authentication failures and ports used C.running processes on the applications and their total network usage D.deep packet captures of each application flow and duration Answer: C QUESTION 151 Refer to the exhibit. What is depicted in the exhibit? A.Windows Event logs B.Apache logs C.IIS logs D.UNIX-based syslog Answer: D QUESTION 152 Which technology should be used to implement a solution that makes routing decisions based on HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, and SSL session ID attributes? A.AWS B.IIS C.Load balancer D.Proxy server Answer: B QUESTION 153 An organization has recently adjusted its security stance in response to online threats made by a known hacktivist group. What is the initial event called in the NIST SP800-61? A.online assault B.precursor C.trigger D.instigator Answer: B QUESTION 154 Which NIST IR category stakeholder is responsible for coordinating incident response among various business units, minimizing damage, and reporting to regulatory agencies? A.CSIRT B.PSIRT C.public affairs D.management Answer: D QUESTION 155 Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack? A.detection and analysis B.post-incident activity C.preparation D.containment, eradication, and recovery Answer: D QUESTION 156 Which two elements are used for profiling a network? (Choose two.) A.session duration B.total throughput C.running processes D.listening ports E.OS fingerprint Answer: DE QUESTION 157 Which category relates to improper use or disclosure of PII data? A.legal B.compliance C.regulated D.contractual Answer: C QUESTION 158 Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence? A.probabilistic B.indirect C.best D.corroborative Answer: D QUESTION 159 Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in an investigation? (Choose two.) A.context B.session C.laptop D.firewall logs E.threat actor Answer: AE QUESTION 160 What is personally identifiable information that must be safeguarded from unauthorized access? A.date of birth B.driver's license number C.gender D.zip code Answer: B QUESTION 161 In a SOC environment, what is a vulnerability management metric? A.code signing enforcement B.full assets scan C.internet exposed devices D.single factor authentication Answer: C QUESTION 162 A security expert is working on a copy of the evidence, an ISO file that is saved in CDFS format. Which type of evidence is this file? A.CD data copy prepared in Windows B.CD data copy prepared in Mac-based system C.CD data copy prepared in Linux system D.CD data copy prepared in Android-based system Answer: C QUESTION 163 Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST Special Publication 800-61 r2? (Choose two.) A.detection and analysis B.post-incident activity C.vulnerability management D.risk assessment E.vulnerability scoring Answer: AB QUESTION 164 Refer to the exhibit. What does this output indicate? A.HTTPS ports are open on the server. B.SMB ports are closed on the server. C.FTP ports are open on the server. D.Email ports are closed on the server. Answer: A QUESTION 165 Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center? A.The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident. B.The total incident escalations per week. C.The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident. D.The total incident escalations per month. Answer: C QUESTION 166 A developer is working on a project using a Linux tool that enables writing processes to obtain these required results: - If the process is unsuccessful, a negative value is returned. - If the process is successful, 0 value is returned to the child process, and the process ID is sent to the parent process. Which component results from this operation? A.parent directory name of a file pathname B.process spawn scheduled C.macros for managing CPU sets D.new process created by parent process Answer: D QUESTION 167 An engineer discovered a breach, identified the threat's entry point, and removed access. The engineer was able to identify the host, the IP address of the threat actor, and the application the threat actor targeted. What is the next step the engineer should take according to the NIST SP 800-61 Incident handling guide? A.Recover from the threat. B.Analyze the threat. C.Identify lessons learned from the threat. D.Reduce the probability of similar threats. Answer: D QUESTION 168 Refer to the exhibit. What is shown in this PCAP file? A.Timestamps are indicated with error. B.The protocol is TCP. C.The User-Agent is Mozilla/5.0. D.The HTTP GET is encoded. Answer: A QUESTION 169 What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images? A.Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash. B.Tampered images are used as evidence. C.Untampered images are used for forensic investigations. D.Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence Answer: B QUESTION 170 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the definition from the left onto the phase on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model. Answer: QUESTION 171 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the elements from the left into the correct order for incident handling on the right. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go 200-201 PDF and 200-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1fTPALtM-eluHFw8sUjNGF7Y-ofOP3s-M?usp=sharing
(April-2021)Braindump2go SY0-601 PDF and SY0-601 VCE Dumps(Q307-Q314)
QUESTION 307 A systems analyst is responsible for generating a new digital forensics chain-of-custody form. Which of the following should the analyst Include in this documentation? (Select TWO). A.The order of volatility B.A checksum C.The location of the artifacts D.The vendor's name E.The date and time F.A warning banner Answer: AE QUESTION 308 A company is setting up a web server on the Internet that will utilize both encrypted and unencrypted web-browsing protocols. A security engineer runs a port scan against the server from the Internet and sees the following output: Which of the following steps would be best for the security engineer to take NEXT? A.Allow DNS access from the internet. B.Block SMTP access from the Internet C.Block HTTPS access from the Internet D.Block SSH access from the Internet. Answer: D QUESTION 309 Which of the following is the BEST reason to maintain a functional and effective asset management policy that aids in ensuring the security of an organization? A.To provide data to quantity risk based on the organization's systems. B.To keep all software and hardware fully patched for known vulnerabilities C.To only allow approved, organization-owned devices onto the business network D.To standardize by selecting one laptop model for all users in the organization Answer: B QUESTION 310 An attacker was easily able to log in to a company's security camera by performing a baste online search for a setup guide for that particular camera brand and model. Which of the following BEST describes the configurations the attacker exploited? A.Weak encryption B.Unsecure protocols C.Default settings D.Open permissions Answer: C QUESTION 311 A cloud administrator is configuring five compute instances under the same subnet in a VPC. Three instances are required to communicate with one another, and the other two must he logically isolated from all other instances in the VPC. Which of the following must the administrator configure to meet this requirement? A.One security group B.Two security groups C.Three security groups D.Five security groups Answer: B QUESTION 312 An analyst is trying to identify insecure services that are running on the internal network. After performing a port scan the analyst identifies that a server has some insecure services enabled on default ports. Which of the following BEST describes the services that are currently running and the secure alternatives for replacing them' (Select THREE) A.SFTP FTPS B.SNMPv2 SNMPv3 C.HTTP, HTTPS D.TFTP FTP E.SNMPv1, SNMPv2 F.Telnet SSH G.TLS, SSL H.POP, IMAP I.Login, rlogin Answer: BCF QUESTION 313 An attacker was easily able to log in to a company's security camera by performing a basic online search for a setup guide for that particular camera brand and model. Which of the following BEST describes the configurations the attacker exploited? A.Weak encryption B.Unsecure protocols C.Default settings D.Open permissions Answer: C QUESTION 314 A security architect at a large, multinational organization is concerned about the complexities and overhead of managing multiple encryption keys securely in a multicloud provider environment. The security architect is looking for a solution with reduced latency to allow the incorporation of the organization's existing keys and to maintain consistent, centralized control and management regardless of the data location. Which of the following would BEST meet the architect's objectives? A.Trusted Platform Module B.laaS C.HSMaaS D.PaaS E.Key Management Service Answer: E 2021 Latest Braindump2go SY0-601 PDF and SY0-601 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1VvH3gDuiIKHw7Kx_vZmMM4mpCRWbTVq4?usp=sharing