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Shopify Banner Slider App

Shopify banner slider app responsive with small devices that help to increase the store conversion rate. You can add unlimited images in slider with multiple dimensions and play intervals. It enables you to place the slider on multiple pages such as the home page, categories page, product page or any other CMS pages. You can display images with 8 different styles. You can customize the play interval and dimension. Shopify banner app supports multiple play intervals such as continuously; stop at last, slide stop on click stop and on user navigation.
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Ways To Restoring SharePoint Files
Hello Readers! If you are also searching for the same “How to recover deleted files from SharePoint” then, you are on the right page. Today in this technical guide we are going to discuss the ways of restoring SharePoint files. Microsoft provides a feature to take the backup of SharePoint files online and makes it possible for the users to ask for Microsoft support for restoring backup files but as we know that the restoration is a blunt process that overwrites the complete site. But it is always a simple task to recover deleted files from the recycle bin folder. To restore the files to your SharePoint from the last 30 days you need to have the permission of an administrator to restore files. It must be required to understand that the file operation is the manual process that requires someone to access and restore the lost data. Before discussing the recovery process in SharePoint. Let’s first discuss the SharePoint. What is SharePoint? SharePoint is a Web-Based collaboration system that uses a workflow application, means it is a platform-independent application mainly designed for business purposes to empower business teams to coordinate and work together. SharePoint also provides the facility to the company of using the platform and ability to control access to information and have independency to automate workflow processes across business units. Benefits Of Using The SharePoint It increases the productivity and visibility of workers across all verticals in both small and large businesses. It provides essential features of secure sharing, workflow collaboration and content management. It is a maintained platform as its fundamental level is easy for the user to understand. How To Recover Deleted Files From SharePoint? If you are a site collector Administrator then follow these steps to recover the deleted files from the recycle bin:- Step 1: Initially, you need to log-in to your site as a site administrator. Step 2: Secondly, click on the gear icon at the top right corner of the SharePoint and then click on the Site Content option. Step 3: Now, in the site administration panel click on the recycle bin option. Step 4: In the recycle bin’s panel click on the Deleted from the end-user recycle bin. Step 5: Finally, select the items you want to restore and click on the Restore button. Note: If the items have also been deleted from the recycle bin then there is still a chance to recover your files back. To perform this advance recovery task the site administrator needs to go to the site setting section and choose the Recycle Bin from the option in the site collection Administration Setting. If all the above methods provided on Restoring SharePoint files fails, then you directly contact to Microsoft. If you are lucky then they can help you to restore your full Share Point site back to where it was at a certain period and date. If you are not a site collector Administrator then follow these steps to recover the deleted files from the recycle bin:- Step 1: Click on the Gear Icon (Setting button) and go to the recycle bin. Step 2: Here a Site Content page is displayed to you, you just need to select the site contents. Step 3: Here, click on the Recycle Bin button which is present on the upper-right corner to open the recycle bin. Step 4: Select the document which you deleted earlier for the recovery process and then click on the Restore Selection option. Note: You can also click on the link of the Deleted Selection in the recycle bin to remove file. However, doing this doesn’t mean that you are deleting your files permanently. Instead of this your file is moving to another recycle bin that is accessed by the site collection administrator. Read Also- Learn Multiple Ways to Open EML file on macOS Last Words In this technical blog, we are discussed the way of Restoring SharePoint files with the help of the manual ways for both the cases i.e., If a user is having site administration access and not. Recovery Process in SharePoint is not a much difficult task. But the thing you need to remember is that - never miss any Step to recover your files successfully.
Reasons to invest in a Uber for Plumber App development
Digitization is apparent in this modern era of smartphones. With several services turning towards the online medium, people are finding it challenging to locate and access plumbers for their household chores. They demand an on-demand plumber service app to access multiple plumbing professionals from a single place. In this blog, let’s discuss the reasons why plumbers should take their business online. ‘The demand for household services is everlasting’  Inevitably, every household in a locality needs a faucet fixed or a pipe unclogged. People in their jam-packed schedule cannot find plumbers instantly. Your on-demand app can be the virtual platform connecting plumbers to users in need. This way, your app increases customer engagements, plumbers get to enhance their business, and users’ demands are resolved. ‘Reaching out to a wider audience’  Instead of narrowing down your business prospects, you can significantly enlarge your profits with the aid of these on-demand apps. People, all across the locality, can access your services. What more to ask when you are engaged with work, earning revenue from multiple sources. ‘It paves the way for an additional source of income’  Besides your regular working hours, you can offer flexible services to your customers. With an on-demand app in hand, you can earn revenue through subscription models, advertisements, etc. Thus, by taking your business online, you add your income significantly. ‘Your app can be the first of its kind’  The market for plumbing services is fresh and unexplored by many entrepreneurs. Thus by developing an online platform, you can attract people more easily. You can be a pioneer for upcoming apps. By integrating top-notch features, your app can be a one-stop destination for people who need plumbing services. Bottom line,  On-demand apps are revolutionizing the way people access services. By providing services to users with just a few taps on their smartphones, you are providing them the utmost convenience and reliability. All the above-said reasons signify that the uber for Plumber App development can be beneficial as well as profitable.
Website design can build or break the customer experience. Effective and efficient web design could convert website visitors into potential customers. 50% of people would stop using a website if they found its layout or design unattractive. And over 40% of people reported website design as the most important key in establishing the authenticity of a business. No matter how good looking your online advertisements are, you could be losing valuable and potential customers if your website is not useful for sales. Great responsive web design will help you to convert more website visitors into good-paying customers, boosting your sales target and enhancing business performance. Every single detail of your website from product images and information to contact forms could potentially contribute to a customer’s decision to make a purchase online. People tend to trust websites that are designed well, and therefore, will want to engage more with them to get honest and correct information on it as Honesty is mandatory in it. This also helps in maintaining customer trust upon any e-commerce website. Since the design is one of the core ingredients for making your e-commerce website a success, so your website should make the purchase process as quick, easy, and stress-free. The homepage of your eCommerce web design should be eye-catching as this is what creates the first impression in your customer’s mind as you always heard the first impression is the last impression. It also tells your potential customers about who you are, what you do, and if they should be satisfied with your website or not. To ease the buying process for them, you’ll need to design your eCommerce web design fruitful. To show a product well on your e-commerce website, you need to take great photos of the product with eye-catching information about it. Having high-resolution photos can help showcase your product in an impressive way. Make sure you add the best product images and create photo galleries for each product so that users can click through them and see them by multiple angles so that you can impress your website visitors easily. A good and responsive website should also be Integrated with many Social media platforms – Facebook, Google Plus, Twitter, Pinterest, and YouTube, etc. Allow visitors to search for specific products through an easy search bar which will be in their mind when they enter your website. Having a search bar allows them to look for the product easily without having to scroll through pages of information they aren’t interested in. If a user cannot quickly find a way to search your site for the product they want, they are more likely to go for another website in search of it. The more you follow the best practices of web design the more you make it easy for visitors to come on your site and they will find the products they are looking for and make a purchase. So choose your eCommerce web design wisely.
2020 Braindump2go JN0-103 PDF and JN0-103 VCE Dumps Free JN0-103 Exam Questions!
2020/June New Braindump2go JN0-103 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Released Today! Following are some new JN0-103 Real Exam Questions, QUESTION 40 You notice traffic destined to is traversing an OSPF path rather than BGP path, Referring to Exhibit, What is causing this behavior? ***Exhibit is Missing*** A.The BGP route is missing a valid default next hop B.The BGP has a higher route preference C.The route does not have a valid BGP entry D.The BGP route's outgoing interface is down Answer: B QUESTION 41 What is the minimum system-defined user class required to issue clear commands? A.read-only B.super-user C.operator D.authorized Answer: C QUESTION 42 Which two commands would you use to reset the candidate configuration to the active configuration? (Choose two.) A.rollback 0 B.rollback 1 C.rollback 2 D.rollback Answer: AD QUESTION 43 Given the following configuration, set system authentication-order [ tacplus ] Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) A.If the TACACS+ server is available and rejects the username/password provided, the user is not allowed to access the device. B.If the TACACS+ server is available and rejects the username/password provided, the local password database is checked. C.If the TACACS+ server is not available, the user is not allowed to access the device. D.If the TACACS+ server is not available, the local user database is checked. Answer: AD QUESTION 44 Which two keystrokes will auto-complete a command? (Choose two.) A.Esc B.Tab C.Spacebar D.End Answer: BC QUESTION 45 Which keystroke is used to auto-complete user-defined variables? A.Spacebar B.Home C.Esc D.Tab Answer: D QUESTION 46 Routing policies contain which two type of statements? (Choose two.) A.and B.from C.default D.then Answer: BD QUESTION 47 Which command allows you to verify the syntax and consistency of your configuration without actually activating your configuration? A.User Interfaces B.commit verify C.commit check D.check commit E.commit no-activate Answer: C QUESTION 48 In your configuration, an interface contains multiple IP addresses belonging to the same subnet. You want to identify the IP address to use for packets sent to hosts on the same subnet. Which parameter would you use to accomplish this task? A.relative B.preferred C.primary D.patch Answer: B QUESTION 49 When you first log in to a router, how does the router indicate that factory defaults are being used? Junos Configuration Basics A.The router's host name is Amnesiac. B.The password you used to log in is junos. C.The router immediately enters configuration mode after you log in. D.The router allows you to enter configuration mode without logging in. Answer: A QUESTION 50 Which keystroke combination allows users to move the cursor to the end of the command line without deleting text? A.Ctrl + a B.Ctrl + e C.Ctrl + u D.Ctrl + w Answer: B QUESTION 51 Which command is used to replace the current configuration? A.load replace B.load patch C.load override D.load set Answer: C QUESTION 52 What is an "X" release of the Junos OS? A.a standard feature release B.a special feature release C.a feature velocity release D.a feature beta release Answer: B QUESTION 53 You are attempting to upgrade the Junos OS on your device, but there is not enough space to complete the upgrade. Which parameter, added to the request system software add command, would solve the problem? A.no-validate B.no-copy C.validate D.force Answer: B QUESTION 54 What are three functions of the RE? (Choose three.) A.to maintain the forwarding tables B.to enforce stateless firewall filters C.to manage the PFE D.to monitor the chassis E.to implement policing Answer: ACD QUESTION 55 What are two examples of transit traffic? (Choose two.) A.SCP traffic that is destined for the router's loopback interface. B.SCP traffic that enters one interface and exits another interface on the local router. C.SFTP traffic that enters and exits the same interface on the local router. D.SFTP traffic that enters one interface and is destined for another interface on the local router Answer: AD QUESTION 56 How would you change the display so that 40 lines will be displayed in the terminal program when you are logged into a Junos device? A.Issue the set cli screen-length 40 command from operational mode. B.Issue the set cli screen-length 40 command from configuration mode C.Set the display options in your terminal program. D.Set the window size of your terminal program. Answer: A 2020 Latest Braindump2go JN0-103 PDF and JN0-103 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1LppnJusi8cFnk1H8IHa4AaTQ-6MRC-iH?usp=sharing
2020 Braindump2go E20-393 PDF and E20-393 VCE Dumps Free E20-393 Exam Questions!
2020/June New Braindump2go E20-393 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Released Today! Following are some new E20-393 Real Exam Questions, QUESTION 267 A Storage administrator would like to increase the capacity of the FAST Cache by 400 GB. The current configuration consists of two 400 GB SAS Flash 2 drives. Which solution should be recommended for expanding the FAST Cache? A.Two 200 GB SAS Flash 2 drives B.Two 400 GB SAS Flash 2 drives C.Four 200 GB SAS Flash 3 drives D.One 400 GB SAS Flash 2 drive Answer: A QUESTION 268 Which UEM/CLI command is used to verify the FC ports designated as synchronous on the SPs? A./remote/sys show -fc B./remote/sys show -detail C./remote/sys show -summary D./remote/sys show -sp Answer: B QUESTION 269 What is the granularity of FAST VP when relocating data in the pool? A.128 MB B.256 MB C.512 MB D.1024 MB Answer: B QUESTION 270 According to best practices, what is the maximum latency of the link between local and remote systems when using synchronous replication? A.5 ms B.10 ms C.20 ms D.40 ms Answer: B QUESTION 271 What is the minimum requirement for a server to boot from a Dell EMC Unity XT storage system via iSCSI? A.Hardware iSCSI HBA B.TOE NIC C.Software iSCSI D.iSCSI Initiator Answer: D QUESTION 272 What is maximum amount of time allowed when saving a configuration from the Collect Service Information menu from Unsphere in order to avoid a time-out? A.45 minutes B.60 minutes C.90 minutes D.120 minutes Answer: B QUESTION 273 What is the default setting of Advanced Deduplication when Data Reduction is selected within Unisphere? A.Disabled for thick LUNs and enabled for thin LUNs B.Disabled for thin LUNs in an All-Flash pool C.Enabled for thin LUNs in an All-Flash pool D.Enabled for both thick and thin LUNs Answer: C QUESTION 274 What is a consideration when specifying a Dial Home suppression time for a Dell EMC Unity XT storage array? A.Can be lengthened or shortened B.The time zone where the array is located C.Should be set between 1 and 32 hours D.Can be enabled at any time Answer: C QUESTION 275 A storage administrator configured a Hybrid Dell EMC Unity XT storage system using one default port containing three disk types. They need additional Flash capacity. What is the correct way to expand the pool? A.Add a RAID Group of SAS Flash 4 drives to the pool B.Add 2 SAS Flash drives to the FAST Cache C.Add 1 SAS Flash drive to the pool D.Add a RAID Group of SAS Flash drives to the pool Answer: A QUESTION 276 What storage resources can be provisioned to a host that is connected to a Dell EMC Unity XT storage system via Fibre Channel? A.LUNs, CIFS shares, and Consistency Group LUNs B.VMFS datastores, NFS datastores, and VVol(file) datastores C.LUNs, Consistency Group LUNs, and NFS datastores D.Consistency Group LUNs, VMFS datastores, and VVol (block) datastores Answer: B QUESTION 277 The preferred production interface is active. What does the Dell EMC Unity XT system do once a NAS Server starts outbound traffic to an external service? A.Selects interfaces based on advanced static routes B.Uses Packet Reflect for outbound communication C.Uses the active production interface D.Selects the shortest path available Answer: C QUESTION 278 A company has a VMware host installed with FC HBAs that is connected to a Dell EMC Unity XT storage array. A 500 GB LUN is provisioned to this host from the Unity array and is in production. The VMware administrator has configured a new vSwitch with the NICs on the server intended for iSCSI traffic. The storage administrator is asked to configure software iSCSI and provision a new 1 TB LUN from the storage array via iSCSI. What is a consideration when satisfying this request? A.A connection must be established between the host iSCSI initiators and Unity iSCSI targets before provisioning the new LUN B.Any single host should connect to any single array using one protocol only C.The iSCSI configuration must use all the NIC connections to the host D.Two iSCSI target interfaces must be configured with IP addresses from separate subnets Answer: D QUESTION 279 A company with multiple remote offices has decided to use asynchronous replication. What systems support this capability? A.Dell EMC Unity XT and Dell EMC UnityVSA B.Dell EMC UnityVSA only C.Dell EMC UnityVSA and VNXe D.Dell EMC Unity XT only Answer: A QUESTION 280 How does Dell EMC Unity XT differ from Dell EMC UnityVSA? A.Unity XT supports FAST VP only UnityVSA supports FAST VP and FAST Cache B.Unity XT supports host I/O limits and monitoring and reporting UnityVSA supports monitoring and reporting only C.UnityXT supports FAST VP and FAST Cache. UnityVSA supports FAST VP only D.UnityXT supports monitoring and reporting only UnityVSA supports host I/O limits and monitoring and reporting Answer: C QUESTION 281 By default, the storage system transfers log information on which network port? A.138 B.464 C.514 D.2049 Answer: C QUESTION 282 A storage administrator has added multiple resources to a single density-based Host I/O Limit policy for the following storage resources: - LUN A: 25 GB - LUN B: 25 GB - LUN C: 50 GB - Density-Based Limit 20: IOPS What is the total IOPS set by this policy? A.200 B.500 C.2000 D.2500 Answer: A 2020 Latest Braindump2go E20-393 PDF and E20-393 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1Ievqhrc5__kHr_JRfywLs0XQAm6lNpvz?usp=sharing
2020 New Braindump2go 300-710 PDF and 300-710 VCE Dumps Free 300-710 Exam Questions!
June/2020 New Braindump2go 300-710 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new 300-710 Real Exam Questions! QUESTION 21 Which object type supports object overrides? A.time range B.security group tag C.network object D.DNS server group Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22 Which Cisco Firepower rule action displays an HTTP warning page? A.Monitor B.Block C.Interactive Block D.Allow with Warning Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23 What is the result of specifying of QoS rule that has a rate limit that is greater than the maximum throughput of an interface? A.The rate-limiting rule is disabled. B.Matching traffic is not rate limited. C.The system rate-limits all traffic. D.The system repeatedly generates warnings. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24 Which Firepower feature allows users to configure bridges in routed mode and enables devices to perform Layer 2 switching between interfaces? A.FlexConfig B.BDI C.SGT D.IRB Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25 In which two places can thresholding settings be configured? (Choose two.) A.on each IPS rule B.globally, within the network analysis policy C.globally, per intrusion policy D.on each access control rule E.per preprocessor, within the network analysis policy Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 26 In which two ways do access control policies operate on a Cisco Firepower system? (Choose two.) A.Traffic inspection can be interrupted temporarily when configuration changes are deployed. B.The system performs intrusion inspection followed by file inspection. C.They can block traffic based on Security Intelligence data. D.File policies use an associated variable set to perform intrusion prevention. E.The system performs a preliminary inspection on trusted traffic to validate that it matches the trusted parameters. Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 27 Which two types of objects are reusable and supported by Cisco FMC? (Choose two.) A.dynamic key mapping objects that help link HTTP and HTTPS GET requests to Layer 7 application protocols. B.reputation-based objects that represent Security Intelligence feeds and lists, application filters based on category and reputation, and file lists C.network-based objects that represent IP address and networks, port/protocols pairs, VLAN tags, security zones, and origin/destination country D.network-based objects that represent FQDN mappings and networks, port/protocol pairs, VXLAN tags, security zones and origin/destination country E.reputation-based objects, such as URL categories Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 28 What is the benefit of selecting the trace option for packet capture? A.The option indicates whether the packet was dropped or successful. B.The option indicated whether the destination host responds through a different path. C.The option limits the number of packets that are captured. D.The option captures details of each packet. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29 After deploying a network-monitoring tool to manage and monitor networking devices in your organization, you realize that you need to manually upload an MIB for the Cisco FMC. In which folder should you upload the MIB file? A./etc/sf/DCMIB.ALERT B./sf/etc/DCEALERT.MIB C./etc/sf/DCEALERT.MIB D.system/etc/DCEALERT.MIB Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30 Which command is run at the CLI when logged in to an FTD unit, to determine whether the unit is managed locally or by a remote FMC server? A.system generate-troubleshoot B.show configuration session C.show managers D.show running-config | include manager Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31 Which command should be used on the Cisco FTD CLI to capture all the packets that hit an interface? A.configure coredump packet-engine enable B.capture-traffic C.capture D.capture WORD Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32 How many report templates does the Cisco Firepower Management Center support? A.20 B.10 C.5 D.unlimited Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33 Which action should be taken after editing an object that is used inside an access control policy? A.Delete the existing object in use. B.Refresh the Cisco FMC GUI for the access control policy. C.Redeploy the updated configuration. D.Create another rule using a different object name. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34 Which Cisco Firepower feature is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time? A.rate-limiting B.suspending C.correlation D.thresholding Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35 Which report template field format is available in Cisco FMC? A.box lever chart B.arrow chart C.bar chart D.benchmark chart Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36 Which group within Cisco does the Threat Response team use for threat analysis and research? A.Cisco Deep Analytics B.OpenDNS Group C.Cisco Network Response D.Cisco Talos Correct Answer: D 2020 Latest Braindump2go 300-710 PDF and 300-710 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1k8dhswD5V9ioQSctkVOlp0ooiELn46gL?usp=sharing
2020 Braindump2go CRT-450 PDF and CRT-450 VCE Dumps Free CRT-450 Exam Questions!
2020/May New Braindump2go CRT-450 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some Real CRT-450 Exam Questions! QUESTION 221 A developer is asked to create a custom Visualforce page that will be used as a dashboard component. Which three are valid controller options for this page? (Choose three.) A.Use a standard controller. B.Use a standard controller with extensions. C.Use a custom controller with extensions. D.Do not specify a controller. E.Use a custom controller. Answer: ABE QUESTION 222 A Platform Developer needs to implement a declarative solution that will display the most recent Closed Won date for all Opportunity records associated with an Account. Which field is required to achieve this declaratively? A.Roll-up summary field on the Opportunity object B.Cross-object formula field on the Opportunity object C.Roll-up summary field on the Account object D.Cross-object formula field on the Account object Answer: C QUESTION 223 Which three statements are true regarding the @isTest annotation? (Choose three.) A.A method annotated @isTest(SeeAllData=true) in a class annotated @isTest has access to all org data. (SeeAllData=false) B.A method annotated @isTest(SeeAllData=false) in a class annotated @isTest has access to all org data. (SeeAllData=true) C.A class containing test methods counts toward the Apex code limit regardless of any @isTest annotation. D.Products and Pricebooks are visible in a test even if a class is annotated @isTest . (SeeAllData=false) E.Profiles are visible in a test even if a class is annotated @isTest(SeeAllData=false). Answer: BCE QUESTION 224 What is the data type returned by the following SOSL search? [FIND `Acme*' IN NAME FIELDS RETURNING Account, Opportunity]; A.List<List<Account>, List<Opportunity>> B.Map<sObject, sObject> C.List<List<sObject>> D.Map<Id, sObject> Answer: C QUESTION 225 A company wants to create an employee rating program that allows employees to rate each other. An employee's average rating must be displayed on the employee record. Employees must be able to create rating records, but are not allowed to create employee records. Which two actions should a developer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A.Create a trigger on the Rating object that updates a fields on the Employee object. B.Create a lookup relationship between the Rating and Employee object. C.Create a roll-up summary field on the Employee and use AVG to calculate the average rating score. D.Create a master-detail relationship between the Rating and Employee objects. Answer: CD QUESTION 226 Which two SOSL searches will return records matching search criteria contained in any of the searchable text fields on an object? (Choose two.) A.[FIND `Acme*' IN ANY FIELDS RETURNING Account, Opportunity]; B.[FIND `Acme*' RETURNING Account, Opportunity]; C.[FIND `Acme*' IN ALL FIELDS RETURNING Account, Opportunity]; D.[FIND `Acme*' IN TEXT FIELDS RETURNING Account, Opportunity]; Answer: BC QUESTION 227 For which example task should a developer use a trigger rather than a workflow rule? A.To set the Name field of an expense report record to Expense and the Date when it is saved B.To send an email to a hiring manager when a candidate accepts a job offer C.To notify an external system that a record has been modified D.To set the primary Contact on an Account record when it is saved Answer: D QUESTION 228 Which feature should a developer use to update an inventory count on related Product records when the status of an Order is modified to indicate it is fulfilled? A.Process Builder process B.Lightning component C.Visualforce page D.Workflow rule Answer: A QUESTION 229 A developer has JavaScript code that needs to be called by controller functions in multiple Aura components by extending a new abstract component. Which resource in the abstract Aura component bundle allows the developer to achieve this? A.helper.js B.controller.js C.superRender.js D.renderer.js Answer: A QUESTION 230 Which option should a developer use to create 500 Accounts and make sure that duplicates are not created for existing Account Sites? A.Sandbox template B.Data Loader C.Data Import Wizard D.Salesforce-to-Salesforce Answer: C QUESTION 231 Which two components are available to deploy using the Metadata API? (Choose two.) A.Lead Conversion Settings B.Web-to-Case C.Web-to-Lead D.Case Settings Answer: AD QUESTION 232 Which three statements are true regarding cross-object formulas? (Choose three.) A.Cross-object formulas can reference fields from objects that are up to 10 relationships away. B.Cross-object formulas can reference fields from master-detail or lookup relationships. C.Cross-object formulas can reference child fields to perform an average. D.Cross-object formulas can expose data the user does not have access to in a record. E.Cross-object formulas can be referenced in roll-up summary fields. Answer: ABD QUESTION 233 Which two statements are true about Apex code executed in Anonymous Blocks? (Choose two.) A.The code runs with the permissions of the user specified in the runAs() statement. B.The code runs with the permissions of the logged in user. C.The code runs in system mode having access to all objects and fields. D.All DML operations are automatically rolled back. E.Successful DML operations are automatically committed. Answer: BE QUESTION 234 From which two locations can a developer determine the overall code coverage for a sandbox? (Choose two.) A.The Apex Test Execution page B.The Test Suite Run panel of the Developer Console C.The Apex classes setup page D.The Tests tab of the Developer Console Answer: AD QUESTION 235 Which two practices should be used for processing records in a trigger? (Choose two.) A.Use a Map to reduce the number of SOQL calls. B.Use @future methods to handle DML operations. C.Use a Set to ensure unique values in a query filter. D.Use (callout=true) to update an external system. Answer: AC QUESTION 236 Which two statements are acceptable for a developer to use inside procedural loops? (Choose two.) A.delete contactList; B.contactList.remove(i); C.Contact con = new Contact(); D.Account a = [SELECT Id, Name FROM Account WHERE Id = :con.AccountId LIMIT 1]; Answer: BC 2020 Latest Braindump2go CRT-450 PDF and CRT-450 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/19cHJAv_ewLB7hsYSMVnLcVyIJ8ZWLuAv?usp=sharing
With the advent of technology and the internet, several types of activities have emerged. E-commerce is one of them. E-commerce is a very trendy activity that makes it possible to sell or buy products or services via computer networks, especially the Internet. E-commerce can be practiced on several platforms and one of the most fashionable currently is Shopify . It allows you to create an online store without having any experience in web development or coding! Here we will go much deeper and show through its features how Shopify has arrived today to be considered the best e-commerce solution. THESE FEATURES THAT DISTINGUISH SHOPIFY FROM OTHER PLATFORMS Shopify is a platform with lots of features. These allow merchants to manage their stocks, to modify the HTML and CSS code of their pages, to create discount coupons. If you want a customize Shopify store then you should hire an experienced Shopify developer who will manage all things which is described here. Here are some other features that Shopify has and that makes this platform better: The platform makes it possible to build websites. There are on Shopify, more than 100 professional themes. These are intended to change the design of the site according to your needs or your desires. Buy a domain name. Develop a brand. Manage stocks. This feature allows you to track products. Access information about past orders and purchase history. Manage the customer profile through the analysis of their purchasing behavior. Customize emails to send to customers. Host websites Analyze and track SEO statistics through marketing tools. Accept credit cards and PayPal. The platform is constantly improving, there are many other features that you will discover as you use it!