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QUESTION 236 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPCand non-vPC switches, however, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receives the same STP bridge ID from the upstream which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.peer-switch B.peer-gateway C.systam-mac 0123.4567.89ab D.vpc local role-priority 4000 Answer: A QUESTION 237 A network engineer must perform a backup and restore of the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch configuration. The backup must be made to an external backup server. The only protocol permitted between the Cisco Nexus switch and the backup server is UDP. The backup must be used when the current working configuration of the switch gets corrupted. Which set of steps must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Perform a startup-config backup to an FTP server 2. Copy startup-config in the boot flash to the running-config file B.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the SFTP server to the running-config file C.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SCP server 2. Copy running-config in the boot flash to the running-config file D.1. Perform a startup-config backup to a TFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the backup server to the running-config file Answer: D QUESTION 238 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer requires remote access via SSH to a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. The solution must support secure access using the local user database when the RADIUS servers are unreachable from the switches. Which command meets these requirements? A.aaa authentication none B.aaa authentication login default group radius C.aaa authentication login default fallback error local D.aaa authentication login default group local Answer: C QUESTION 240 A network engineer configures a converged network adapter (CNA) and must associate a virtual Fibre Channel 7 interface to VSAN 7. The CNA is connected to the interface Eth1/7, and VLAN 700 is mapped to the VSAN. Which configuration must be applied to create the virtual Fibre Channel interface and associate it with the Ethernet physical interface? A.switch(config)# vlan 700 switch(config-vlan)# fcoe vsan 7 B.switch(config)# vsan database switch(config-vsan)# vsan 7 interface vfc 7 C.switch(config)# interface ethernet 1/7 switch(config-if)# vfc 7 attach vlan 1,700 D.switch(config)# interface vfc 7 switch(config-if)# bind interface ethernet 1/7 Answer: D QUESTION 241 An engineer must use the Embedded Event Manager to monitor events that occur on a cisco Nexus 9000 series switch. An environment variable needs to be created so that several policies use the monitored events in in their actions. The external email server is represented by IP address 10.10.10.10. Which command sets the environment variable? A.N9k2(config)# event manager policy environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' B.N9k2# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' C.N9k2 (config-apple1)# environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' D.N9k2 (config)# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' Answer: D QUESTION 242 Which communication method does NFS use for requests between servers and clients? A.XDR B.SSC C.RPC D.SMB Answer: C QUESTION 243 A customer reports Fibre Channel login requests to a cisco MDS 9000 series Switch from an unauthorized source. The customer requires a feature that will allow all devices already logged in and learned in and learned to be added to the Fibre channel active database. Which two features must be enabled to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.) A.Auto-learning B.Port security C.Enhanced zoning D.Device aliases E.Smart aliases Answer: AB QUESTION 244 An engineer evaluates a UI-based infrastructure management system capable of monitoring and deploying standalone VXLAN BGP EVPN deployments. The storage administrators also need the solution to manage the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Cisco Intersight B.Cisco UCSD C.Cisco Tetration D.Cisco DCNM Answer: D QUESTION 245 Refer to the exhibit. Which backup operation type not include the preserve identities feature? A.Full state B.Logical configuration C.System configuration D.All configuration Answer: A QUESTION 246 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration ensure that the cisco Nexus 7000 series switches are the primary devices for LACP? A.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 B.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 100 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 200 C.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 D.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# role priority 1 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain )# role priority 2 Answer: A QUESTION 247 A network engineer must enable port security on all Cisco MDS Series Switches in the fabric. The requirement is to avoid the extensive manual configuration of the switch ports. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Activate CFS distribution and the auto-learning port security feature. B.Activate CFS distribution and file auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. C.Enable the auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. D.Enable the auto-learning port security feature. Answer: B QUESTION 248 A network engineer is deploying a Cisco All-Flash HyperFlex solution. Which local storage configuration is required for the operating system and persistent logging? A.Two solid state drives B.Two SATA drives C.One SATA drive D.One solid state drive Answer: A QUESTION 249 An engineer configures the properties of a Cisco UCS Cisco Integrated Management Controller network adapter for a standalone Cisco C-Series Server. The Failback Timeout in the vNIC was set to 600. When the failure occurs, the secondary interfaces must be used and then failback when the primary interface becomes available again. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Set default VLAN on the adapters. B.Increase Cos to 6. C.Disable VNTAG mode. D.Enable Uplink failover. Answer: D QUESTION 250 A network engineer must prevent data comuption due to cross fabric communication in an FCoE environment. Which configuration must be applied to the Cisco Nexus Unified Switches to achieve this objective? A.Switch(config)#fcoe fcmap 0x0efc2a B.Switch(config-if)# no fcoe fcf-priority 0 C.Switch(config-if) # shutdown lan D.Switch(config) # no fcoe fcf-priority Answer: A QUESTION 251 Which component is disrupted when the Cisco Integrated Management Controller is upgraded on a Cisco UCS Series Server? A.Cisco UCS Manager B.SAN traffic C.KVM sessions D.Data traffic Answer: C QUESTION 252 A company is investigating different options for IT automation tools. The IT team has experience with Python programming language and scripting using a declarative language. The proposed tool should be easy to set up and should not require installing an agent on target devices. The team will also need to build custom modules based on the Python programming language to extend the tool's functionality. Which automation tool should be used to meet these requirements? A.Puppet B.Ansible C.NX-API D.Chef Answer: B QUESTION 253 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer needs to implement streaming telemetry on a cisco MDS 9000 series switch. The requirement is for the show command data to be collected every 30 seconds and sent to receivers. Which command must be added to the configuration meet this requirement? A.Sensor-grp 200 sample-period 30000 B.Snsr-grp 200 sample-interval 30 C.Sensor-grp 200 sample-period 30 D.Snsr-grp 200 sample-interval 30000 Answer: D QUESTION 254 A Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch experiences a startup configuration corruption. The engineer must implement a procedure to recover the backup configuration file from the switch. Which command set must be used? A.1. Copy the running-configuration to the startup configuration. 2. Clear the current configuration of the switch. 3. Restart the device. 4. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running configuration. B.1. Clear the current configuration of the switch 2. Restart the device. 3. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration 4. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running configuration C.1. Clear the current configuration of the switch 2. Restart the device. 3. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running-configuration 4. Copy the running-configuration to the startup configuration. D.1. Restarting device. 2. Copy the running-configuration file to a remote server. 3. Clear the current configuration of the switch. 4. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration Answer: C QUESTION 255 An engineer must configure OSPF in the data center. The external routes have already been redistributed OSPF. The network must meet these criteria: - The data centre servers must reach services in the cloud and the services behind the redistributed routes. - The exit point toward the internet should be propagated only when there is a dynamically learned default route from the upstream router. Which feature is required? A.Default-information originate B.Stubby area C.Totally stubby area D.Default-information originate always Answer: A QUESTION 256 What is a characteristic of the install all command on the cisco Nexus series switch? A.Upgrades only certain modules B.Automatically checks the image integrity C.Impact data plan traffic D.Continues the upgrade process if any step in the sequence fails Answer: B QUESTION 257 An engineer is using REST API calls to configure the cisco APIC. Which data structure must be used within a post message to receive a login token? A.{"aaaUser":{"attributes":{"name":"apiuser","pwd":"cisco123"}}} B.<aaaUser><name="apiuser"/><pwd="cisco123"/></aaaUser> C.{aaaUser:{attributes:{name:apiuser,pwd:cisco123}}} D.<aaaUser><name>apiuser</name><pwd>cisco123</pwd></aaaUser> Answer: A QUESTION 258 The EPLD update of the supervisor module has been scheduled for several Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. What will be the impact of the update? A.All control plane traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch remain operational for the duration of the upgrade. B.The redundant supervisor lakes over while the EPLD update is in progress and there is no service disruption. C.All traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. D.The redundant supervisor lakes while the EPLD update is in progress and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. Answer: C QUESTION 259 An engineer configures an intersignt virtual application and must claim over 200 targets. The engineer starts the Claim target procedure. The engineer has prepared this initial comma- separated value file to provision the targets: UCSFI,10.1.1.3,user-1,pwd5516b917 IMC,10.1.1.5/26,user-2,pwdc65b1c43f HX,10.1.2.1/30,user-3,pwd39913690 UCSD,1.1.1.1.user-4,pwd5003e9d5 Which Information must be included In the comma-separated value flit to provision the targets? A.FQON, AD name, IP address, email B.location, address, name. password C.certificate, user name, password. email D.target type, hostname or P address, user name, password Answer: D QUESTION 260 What is an advantage of NFSv4 over Fibre Channel protocol? A.Improved security B.Lossless throughout C.Congestion management D.Uses IP transport Answer: A QUESTION 261 Which two configuration settings are available in the in the cisco UCS flmware Auto sync server policy? A.User Notification B.User Acknowledge C.No Action D.Delayed Action E.Immediate Action Answer: BC QUESTION 262 An administrator is implementing DCNM so that events are triggered when monitored traffic exceeds the configured percent utilization threshold. The requirement is to configure a maximum limit of 39913690 bytes that applies directly to the statistics collected as a ratio of the total link capacity. Which DCNM performance monitoring configuration parameter must be implemented to achieve this result? A.Absolution Values B.Baseline C.Utill% D.Per port Monitoring Answer: A QUESTION 263 A network architect must redesign a data center network based on OSPFv2. The network must perform fast reconvergence between directly connected switches. Which two actions must be taken to meet the requirements? (Choose two.) A.Configure all links on AREA 0. B.Implement a virtual link between the switches. C.Use OSPF point-to-point links only. D.Set low OSPF hello and DEAD timers. E.Enable BFD for failure detection. Answer: CE QUESTION 264 Refer to the exhibit. A host with source address 10.10.10.10 sends traffic to multicast group 239.1.1.1. How do the vPC switches forward the multicast traffic? A.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 Switch2, the traffic is forwarded out only one Po20. B.If multicast traffic is received on Po10 Switch1, the traffic is forwarded out on Po1 and Po20. C.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 and Switch2, the traffic is dropped. D.If multicast traffic is received on Switch over the vPC peer-link, the traffic is dropped. Answer: C QUESTION 265 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPC and non-vPC switches. However, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers. Which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.System-mac 0123.4567.89ab B.Peer-switch C.VPC local role-priority 4000 D.Peer-gateway Answer: B QUESTION 266 A company is running a pair of cisco Nexus 7706 series switches as part of a data center segment. All network engineers have restricted read-Write access to the core switches. A network engineer must a new FCoE VLAN to allow traffic from services toward FCoE storage. Which set of actions must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Create a user-defined role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a role to a user. B.1. Add the required privilege to the VDC-admin role. 2. Commit the changes to the active user database. C.1. Modify a network-operator role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a VDC-operator role to a user. D.1. Assign the network-admin role to a user. 2. Commit the role to the switch to the active user database Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-601 PDF and 350-601 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1M-Px6bHjOJgp4aPsLoYq-hgm90ZKxV_i?usp=sharing
2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-615 PDF Dumps(Q95-Q135)
QUESTION 95 Refer to the exhibit. The EEM script is applied in the default VDC to collect the outputs during high CPU utilization on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch for all VDCs. Which configuration set must be added to the script to fix the issue? A.switch(config-apple)# event snmp 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type exact entry-op ge entry-val 50 poll-interval 1 switch(config-apple)# action 0.2 cli enable switch(config-apple)# action 0.5 cli switchto vdc Core switch(config-apple)# action 0.8 cli switchto vdc Distribution B.switch(config-apple)# event snmp oid 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type exact entry-op ge entry-val 50 poll-interval 1 switch(config-apple)# action 0.2 cli enable switch(config-apple)# action 0.5 cli switchto vdc Core switch(config-apple)# action 0.8 cli switchto vdc Distribution C.switch(config-apple)# event snmp oid 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type exact entry-op ge entry-val 50 poll-interval 1 switch(config-apple)# action 0.2 cli config t switch(config-apple)# action 0.5 cli switchto vdc Core switch(config-apple)# action 0.8 cli switchto vdc Distribution D.switch(config-apple)# event snmp 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type exact entry-op ge entry-val 50 poll-interval 1 switch(config-apple)# action 0.2 cli config t switch(config-apple)# action 0.5 cli switchto vdc Core switch(config-apple)# action 0.8 cli switchto vdc Distribution Answer: B QUESTION 96 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer troubleshoots the HSRP configuration and notes that the remote end uses HSRP version 1. The engineer sets the local HSRP to version 1, but the problem continues. Which action resolves the issue? A.Change the local group number to 255 or less and request that the remote data center matches the group member in its configuration. B.Set the local group number as 300 in the remote data center configuration C.Run version 1 and version 2 HSRP on VLAN300 in the local data center. D.Reduce the priority of the local HSRP to below 100 to force the local HSRP to standby and then change the version to version 1. Answer: A QUESTION 97 An engineer must upgrade all components in a Cisco UCS domain to the same package version, but the upgrade process fails to complete. Which set of Auto Install actions resolves the problem? A.Install Infrastructure Firmware, then Install Server Firmware. B.Install infrastructure Firmware, then Install Hypervisor Firmware. C.Install Hypervisor Firmware, then Install Infrastructure Firmware D.Install Server Firmware, then Install Infrastructure Firmware Answer: A QUESTION 98 A Cisco UCSB-Series Blade Server is configured to boot a VMwareESXi host from an EMC VNX storage array by using a Fibre Channel SAN. The boot order is confirmed to be configured as expected but the server fails to boot from the SAN. Which action reserves the problem? A.Set the same WWPN pools for vHBA adapters B.Set the boot LUN to the highest LUN ID in the storage array C.Set the boot LUN to the lowest LUN ID in the storage array D.Set the same WWNN pools for vHBA adaptor Answer: C QUESTION 99 Refer to the Exhibit. An Engineer cannot log in to the Cisco IMC page of the Cisco UCS C220 server. Which action resolve the issue? A.Se the FQDN of the Cisco IMC webpage login page instead of the IP address for the connection to be secure. B.Use the DNS of the Cisco IMC webpage login page instead of the IP address for the connection to be secure. C.Replace the self-signed certificate that is installed on the Cisco IMC with a server certificate that is signed from the client corporate certificate. D.Replace the self-signed certificate that is installed on the Cisco IMC with a user certificate that is signed from the client corporate certificate. Answer: C QUESTION 100 An engineer must place a Cisco UCS B-Series Server in a single server pool in Cisco UCS Manager. The engineer creates a qualification policy, but the server is still seen in multiple pools. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.) A.Select the Server Pool Policy Qualification from the qualification drop-down menu in the Server Pool Policy B.Select the Server Pool Policy from the qualification drop-down menu in the Server Pool Policy Qualification C.Set the operating system qualifier inside the Server Pool Policy Qualification D.Set the number of vNICs qualifier inside the Server Pool Policy. E.Set the storage capacity qualifier inside the Server Poo. Policy Qualification. Answer: AC QUESTION 101 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer traces the packet flow from the Veth991 of a blade server toward the core switch. The switch reports performance issues. What is the role of the interface Eth1/7? A.IOM network interface B.fabric interconnect uplink interface C.IOM host interface D.server interface Answer: B QUESTION 102 Refer to the exhibit. A PC belongs to VLAN 68. The user experiences a large amount of packet loss when communicating with hosts that are outside of VLAN 68. Which action resolves the problem? A.Replace HSRP with GLBP B.Enable the peer-gateway feature C.Remove the HSRP configuration D.Configure ip arp synchronization on both switches. Answer: B QUESTION 103 A customer reports that the Chassis Management Controller fails to receive chassis information from Cisco UCS Manager. Which set of steps resolves the issue? A.1) Verify that the IOM firmware and Cisco UCS Manager are at different software levels 2) Verify that at least two physical cables between the IOM and fabric interconnect function properly. 3) Check for runtime link down status 4) Reseat the affected IOM. B.1) Verify that the IOM firmware and Cisco UCS Manager are at the same software level. 2) Verify that at least one physical cable between the IOM and fabric interconnect functions properly. 3) Check for runtime link down status 4) Reseat the affected IOM. C.1) Verify that the IOM firmware and Cisco UCS Manager are at the same software level. 2) Verify that at least two physical cables between the IOM and fabric interconnect function properly. 3) Check for runtime link down status. 4) Reseat the affected IOM. D.1) Verify that the IOM firmware and Cisco UCS Manager are at different software levels. 2) Verify that at least one physical cable between the IOM and fabric interconnect functions properly. 3) Check for runtime link down status. 4) Reseat the affected IOM. Answer: B QUESTION 104 Refer to the exhibit. During implementation of a Cisco UCS C-Series Server, an engineer receives the status that is shown in the exhibit. Which action resolves the issue? A.Reconfigure the Drive Type from "Removable" to "Non-Removable" B.Insert an SD card into SLOT-2 C.Configure the RAID that is associated with the card. D.Set SLOT-1 Sync Mode to "Auto" Answer: A QUESTION 105 A system administrator adds two vNICs to an existing service profile that is used to run a vSphere environment to support disjoint Layer 2 network connectivity. However, after the server is rebooted, the host is not accessible on the network. Which action resolves the issue? A.Remove all existing vNICs and add them in the desired order. B.Build a new service profile with the desired network configuration C.Add the disjoint Layer 2 VLANs to an existing vNIC rather than adding new vNICs D.Create a vNIC placement policy to avoid adapter renumbering Answer: C QUESTION 106 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys SAN environment with two interconnected Cisco MDS 9000 Series switches. When the engineer attempts a zone merge, it fails with the error that is presented in the exhibit. Which action resolves the issue? A.Import or export a zone set between the switches to synchronize the switches. B.Change the name of one of the zones to match the other zone set. C.Set the distribute policy of the zone to full. D.Ensure that the zone members have different names. Answer: A QUESTION 107 Refer to the exhibit. One of the vPC VTEPs fails to route VXLAN traffic to vPC connected hosts. When the issue was being diagnosed, it was discovered that the packets that were expected to be forwarded to the MAC address on the SWITCH-VTEP-1 are instead forwarded to the MAC address on SWITCH-VTEP-2 and then dropped. Which action resolves the issue? A.Configure a distributed anycast gateway on both peers B.Configure ip arp synchronize under the VPC domain on both peers C.Configure peer-gateway under the VPC domain on both peers D.Configure a different secondary IP address for one of the vPC peers Answer: C QUESTION 108 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer troubleshoots an OSPF neighborship problem between Router R2 and Router R10. Which action resolves the problem? A.Change area ID on Router R10 B.Resolve unicast reply from Router R2 C.Resolve authentication type on Router R10 D.Change router ID on Router R10 Answer: B QUESTION 109 Refer to the exhibit. VSAN traffic is not routed as expected. Which action should be taken to resolve the issue? A.Reset the error packet counter B.Configure the hello timer to match the neighbor C.Configure the FSPF dead interval with a value higher than 80 seconds D.Reset the inactivity timer on switch-2 Answer: B QUESTION 110 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures an authentication domain through an LDAP provider on the Cisco UCS Manager for users from different companies to log into their respective organizations created in the UCS Manager. The engineer tests the configuration and notices that any user has login access to any organization in the UCS Manager. Which action should be taken to resolve the issue? A.Configure the Filter field with sAMAccountName=$company B.Configure the Attribute field with the company C.Configure the Attribute field with sAMAccountName=$company D.Configure the Filter field with the company Answer: A QUESTION 111 A network engineer is implementing the Cisco ACI Fabric and notices that the Leaf-1 switch is registered, has an assigned name, but is displayed as inactive in the APIC. After further investigation, it became clear that the leaf switch was recently moved from another Cisco ACI environment. Which action resolves the problem? A.Clean reload the Leaf-1 switch B.Define the new TEP address for Leaf-1 C.Change the clock offset from low to high between apic 1 and Leaf-1 D.Modify the ISIS interface peering IP address between apic 1 and Leaf-1 Answer: B QUESTION 112 A system administrator connects a Cisco Nexus 2248PQ FEX to a fabric interconnect to expand the ports that are available for connecting Cisco UCS C-Series Rack Servers. In Cisco UCS Manager, the administrator does not see the servers connected to this FEX. Which action should be taken to resolve the issue? A.The FEX must be exchanged so that it supports the connectivity between fabric interconnects and UCS Cseries servers B.The fabric interconnects must be rebooted before the FEX is recognized C.The transceivers must be exchanged to support the connectivity between the FEX and the fabric interconnects D.The ports that connect the FEX to the fabric interconnects must be configured as server ports Answer: D QUESTION 113 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer discovered a VFC interface in a down state on a Cisco Nexus Switch. Which action resolves the problem? A.Change the cable between the switch and the server B.Reset the Cisco Nexus port toward the file server C.Update the CNA firmware and driver versions D.Modify the fip keepalive message time to 30 seconds Answer: D QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring the FCoE N_Port virtualization storage area network. After the initial implementation, server 11 fails to connect to the disk array. Which action resolves the issue? A.On MDS interface vfc 1/1, change switchport mode configuration to VF B.On N9K interface vfc11, change switchport mode configuration to NP C.On N9K interface vfc11 and MDS interface vfc 1/1, change switchport mode configuration to F D.On N9K interface vfc11 and MDS interface vfc 1/1, change switchport mode configuration to E Answer: D QUESTION 115 Refer to the exhibits. An engineer is implementing the SAN based on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. When operating the environment, the engineer encounters the error shown. Which action resolves the issue? A.Copy VSAN 101 to the fabric binding database on the MDS-1 switch B.Add the World Wide Name of the neighboring switch to the MDS-1 switch C.Configure the port security feature on the MDS-1 switch D.Enable VSAN 101 on the peer MDS 2 switch fabric interconnect Answer: B 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-615 PDF and 300-615 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1feRQIR1T37PDk2nuwFIpnzVeG-bXMyGc?usp=sharing
2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF Dumps(Q46-Q76)
QUESTION 46 A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.) A.incident response playbooks B.asset vulnerability assessment C.report of staff members with asset relations D.key assets and executives E.malware analysis report Answer: BE QUESTION 47 Refer to the exhibit. At which stage of the threat kill chain is an attacker, based on these URIs of inbound web requests from known malicious Internet scanners? A.exploitation B.actions on objectives C.delivery D.reconnaissance Answer: C QUESTION 48 What should a security analyst consider when comparing inline traffic interrogation with traffic tapping to determine which approach to use in the network? A.Tapping interrogation replicates signals to a separate port for analyzing traffic B.Tapping interrogations detect and block malicious traffic C.Inline interrogation enables viewing a copy of traffic to ensure traffic is in compliance with security policies D.Inline interrogation detects malicious traffic but does not block the traffic Answer: A QUESTION 49 Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.) A.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3 B.Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network C.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections D.Move the webserver to the internal network E.Move the webserver to the external network Answer: AB QUESTION 50 According to GDPR, what should be done with data to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability? A.Perform a vulnerability assessment B.Conduct a data protection impact assessment C.Conduct penetration testing D.Perform awareness testing Answer: B QUESTION 51 A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow? A.Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker's motives, and identify missing patches B.Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody C.Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited D.Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation plan Answer: B QUESTION 52 A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching? A.Identify the business applications running on the assets B.Update software to patch third-party software C.Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit D.Fix applications according to the risk scores Answer: D QUESTION 53 An engineer is analyzing a possible compromise that happened a week ago when the company database servers unexpectedly went down. The analysis reveals that attackers tampered with Microsoft SQL Server Resolution Protocol and launched a DDoS attack. The engineer must act quickly to ensure that all systems are protected. Which two tools should be used to detect and mitigate this type of future attack? (Choose two.) A.firewall B.Wireshark C.autopsy D.SHA512 E.IPS Answer: AE QUESTION 54 A European-based advertisement company collects tracking information from partner websites and stores it on a local server to provide tailored ads. Which standard must the company follow to safeguard the resting data? A.HIPAA B.PCI-DSS C.Sarbanes-Oxley D.GDPR Answer: D QUESTION 55 An organization had a breach due to a phishing attack. An engineer leads a team through the recovery phase of the incident response process. Which action should be taken during this phase? A.Host a discovery meeting and define configuration and policy updates B.Update the IDS/IPS signatures and reimage the affected hosts C.Identify the systems that have been affected and tools used to detect the attack D.Identify the traffic with data capture using Wireshark and review email filters Answer: B QUESTION 56 An engineer is going through vulnerability triage with company management because of a recent malware outbreak from which 21 affected assets need to be patched or remediated. Management decides not to prioritize fixing the assets and accepts the vulnerabilities. What is the next step the engineer should take? A.Investigate the vulnerability to prevent further spread B.Acknowledge the vulnerabilities and document the risk C.Apply vendor patches or available hot fixes D.Isolate the assets affected in a separate network Answer: B QUESTION 57 A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs. Which technology should be used to accomplish this task? A.application whitelisting/blacklisting B.network NGFW C.host-based IDS D.antivirus/antispyware software Answer: A QUESTION 58 Which command does an engineer use to set read/write/execute access on a folder for everyone who reaches the resource? A.chmod 666 B.chmod 774 C.chmod 775 D.chmod 777 Answer: D QUESTION 59 A SIEM tool fires an alert about a VPN connection attempt from an unusual location. The incident response team validates that an attacker has installed a remote access tool on a user's laptop while traveling. The attacker has the user's credentials and is attempting to connect to the network. What is the next step in handling the incident? A.Block the source IP from the firewall B.Perform an antivirus scan on the laptop C.Identify systems or services at risk D.Identify lateral movement Answer: C QUESTION 60 A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company's infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage? A.Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches B.Analyze event logs and restrict network access C.Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity D.Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list Answer: A QUESTION 61 A patient views information that is not theirs when they sign in to the hospital's online portal. The patient calls the support center at the hospital but continues to be put on hold because other patients are experiencing the same issue. An incident has been declared, and an engineer is now on the incident bridge as the CyberOps Tier 3 Analyst. There is a concern about the disclosure of PII occurring in real- time. What is the first step the analyst should take to address this incident? A.Evaluate visibility tools to determine if external access resulted in tampering B.Contact the third-party handling provider to respond to the incident as critical C.Turn off all access to the patient portal to secure patient records D.Review system and application logs to identify errors in the portal code Answer: C QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script? A.Seeds for existing domains are checked B.A search is conducted for additional seeds C.Domains are compared to seed rules D.A list of domains as seeds is blocked Answer: B QUESTION 63 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is reverse engineering a suspicious file by examining its resources. What does this file indicate? A.a DOS MZ executable format B.a MS-DOS executable archive C.an archived malware D.a Windows executable file Answer: D QUESTION 64 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing a static analysis on a malware and knows that it is capturing keys and webcam events on a company server. What is the indicator of compromise? A.The malware is performing comprehensive fingerprinting of the host, including a processor, motherboard manufacturer, and connected removable storage. B.The malware is a ransomware querying for installed anti-virus products and operating systems to encrypt and render unreadable until payment is made for file decryption. C.The malware has moved to harvesting cookies and stored account information from major browsers and configuring a reverse proxy for intercepting network activity. D.The malware contains an encryption and decryption routine to hide URLs/IP addresses and is storing the output of loggers and webcam captures in locally encrypted files for retrieval. Answer: D QUESTION 65 An audit is assessing a small business that is selling automotive parts and diagnostic services. Due to increased customer demands, the company recently started to accept credit card payments and acquired a POS terminal. Which compliance regulations must the audit apply to the company? A.HIPAA B.FISMA C.COBIT D.PCI DSS Answer: D QUESTION 66 A customer is using a central device to manage network devices over SNMPv2. A remote attacker caused a denial of service condition and can trigger this vulnerability by issuing a GET request for the ciscoFlashMIB OID on an affected device. Which should be disabled to resolve the issue? A.SNMPv2 B.TCP small services C.port UDP 161 and 162 D.UDP small services Answer: A QUESTION 67 Refer to the exhibit. Which indicator of compromise is represented by this STIX? A.website redirecting traffic to ransomware server B.website hosting malware to download files C.web server vulnerability exploited by malware D.cross-site scripting vulnerability to backdoor server Answer: B QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring in this packet capture? A.TCP port scan B.TCP flood C.DNS flood D.DNS tunneling Answer: B QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling? A.The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices B.Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution C.Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority D.Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution Answer: B QUESTION 70 The incident response team receives information about the abnormal behavior of a host. A malicious file is found being executed from an external USB flash drive. The team collects and documents all the necessary evidence from the computing resource. What is the next step? A.Conduct a risk assessment of systems and applications B.Isolate the infected host from the rest of the subnet C.Install malware prevention software on the host D.Analyze network traffic on the host's subnet Answer: B QUESTION 71 An organization had several cyberattacks over the last 6 months and has tasked an engineer with looking for patterns or trends that will help the organization anticipate future attacks and mitigate them. Which data analytic technique should the engineer use to accomplish this task? A.diagnostic B.qualitative C.predictive D.statistical Answer: C QUESTION 72 A malware outbreak is detected by the SIEM and is confirmed as a true positive. The incident response team follows the playbook to mitigate the threat. What is the first action for the incident response team? A.Assess the network for unexpected behavior B.Isolate critical hosts from the network C.Patch detected vulnerabilities from critical hosts D.Perform analysis based on the established risk factors Answer: B QUESTION 73 Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report? A.Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified B.Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified C.Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified D.Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected Answer: D QUESTION 74 An organization is using a PKI management server and a SOAR platform to manage the certificate lifecycle. The SOAR platform queries a certificate management tool to check all endpoints for SSL certificates that have either expired or are nearing expiration. Engineers are struggling to manage problematic certificates outside of PKI management since deploying certificates and tracking them requires searching server owners manually. Which action will improve workflow automation? A.Implement a new workflow within SOAR to create tickets in the incident response system, assign problematic certificate update requests to server owners, and register change requests. B.Integrate a PKI solution within SOAR to create certificates within the SOAR engines to track, update, and monitor problematic certificates. C.Implement a new workflow for SOAR to fetch a report of assets that are outside of the PKI zone, sort assets by certification management leads and automate alerts that updates are needed. D.Integrate a SOAR solution with Active Directory to pull server owner details from the AD and send an automated email for problematic certificates requesting updates. Answer: D QUESTION 75 Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is being used? A.JSON B.HTML C.XML D.CSV Answer: C QUESTION 76 The incident response team was notified of detected malware. The team identified the infected hosts, removed the malware, restored the functionality and data of infected systems, and planned a company meeting to improve the incident handling capability. Which step was missed according to the NIST incident handling guide? A.Contain the malware B.Install IPS software C.Determine the escalation path D.Perform vulnerability assessment Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF and 350-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1AxXpeiNddgUeSboJXzaOVsnt5wFFoDnO?usp=sharing
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9 Reasons Why On-Demand Design Services are Game-Changer
In today’s fast-paced business world, having access to on-demand design services can be a game-changer for companies of all sizes. From convenience and flexibility to cost-effectiveness and efficiency, on-demand design services offer a variety of benefits that traditional design agencies or freelancers simply can’t match. In this blog post, we’ll explore 9 reasons why on-demand design services are revolutionizing the way businesses approach their design needs and why you should consider using one for your next project. 1. Get high-quality design work at a lower cost On-demand design services allow you to get high-quality design work at a lower cost, as you only pay for the specific design services that you need. On-demand design services allow you to get professional design work done on an as-needed basis, rather than having to hire a full-time designer or design agency. This can be more efficient, as you can quickly and easily access the design resources you need, without the need to go through the process of hiring and onboarding a new employee or committing to a long-term contract with an agency. Additionally, on-demand services typically have a pool of talented and experienced designers available to work on your project, allowing you to get high-quality design work done quickly and efficiently. 2. Get access to a wider pool of talent With on-demand services, you have access to a wider pool of talent, as you are not limited to designers in your local area. On-demand design services typically have a large pool of designers available to work on projects, as they are not limited to hiring designers who are based in a specific location. This means that you have access to a wider range of talent and can choose the designer who is best suited to your project, rather than being limited to designers who are available in your local area. This can be especially beneficial if you are located in an area with a limited pool of design talent, or if you are looking for a designer with a specific skill set or style that may be difficult to find locally. By working with an on-demand service, you can access a global pool of designers, increasing your chances of finding the perfect fit for your project. 3. Flexibility to create customized solutions On-demand design services offer greater flexibility, as you can work with the designer to create a customized solution that meets your specific needs. On-demand design services allow you to work with a designer on a project-by-project basis, rather than hiring a full-time employee or design firm to handle all of your design needs. This offers greater flexibility because you can tailor the scope of the project to your specific needs and work with the designer to create a customized solution. For example, if you only need a few designs for a marketing campaign, you can work with a designer to create those specific assets, rather than paying for a full-time employee or design firm to handle all of your design needs on an ongoing basis. This can be especially useful for small businesses or organizations that have limited resources and need to be able to scale up or down their design needs as their business grows or changes. On-demand design services can also be more cost-effective because you only pay for the specific services that you need, rather than paying for a full-time employee or design firm to handle all of your design needs on an ongoing basis. This can help you to better control your design budget and allocate your resources more efficiently. 4. Faster turnaround time You can get faster turnaround times with on-demand design services, as you can work with multiple designers in parallel to complete a project more quickly. On-demand design services allow you to work with multiple designers in parallel on a project, which can help to speed up the design process. This is because you can divide the work among multiple designers, rather than relying on a single designer to handle all aspects of the project. This can be especially useful if you have a large project with a tight deadline, as it allows you to get the work done more quickly. For example, if you have a branding project that includes designing a logo, creating a style guide, and designing marketing materials, you can work with multiple designers to complete these tasks in parallel. This can help to reduce the overall turnaround time for the project and get it completed more quickly. Working with multiple designers in parallel can also be beneficial because it allows you to tap into the diverse skills and expertise of different designers. This can help to ensure that you get the best possible results for your project and that all aspects of the project are completed to a high standard. 5. Greater scalability On-demand design services offer greater scalability, as you can easily increase or decrease the amount of design work that you need on a project-by-project basis. On-demand design services offer greater scalability because you can easily increase or decrease the amount of design work that you need on a project-by-project basis. This can be especially useful for businesses or organizations that have fluctuating design needs or that are looking to scale up or down their design work as their business grows or changes. For example, if you have a busy season where you need to create a large number of marketing materials, you can work with a designer or design team to handle the increased workload. Once the busy season is over, you can decrease the amount of design work that you need, which can help to better control your design budget and resources. On-demand design services can also be helpful if you are not sure exactly how much design work you will need in the future. You can work with a designer on a project-by-project basis, rather than committing to a long-term contract or hiring a full-time employee or design firm. This allows you to be more flexible and responsive to changing design needs. 6. Saves great time and resources You can save time and resources by using on-demand design services, as you do not need to manage in-house design teams or handle the administrative tasks associated with hiring and onboarding employees. On-demand design services can save you time and resources because you do not need to manage in-house design teams or handle the administrative tasks associated with hiring and onboarding employees. This can be especially useful for small businesses or organizations that may not have the resources or expertise to manage an in-house design team. When you work with an on-demand design service, you can simply provide the details of your project and the service will handle the rest. This includes finding the right designers to work on your project, managing the design process, and delivering the final designs to you. You do not need to worry about tasks such as recruiting designers, training them, or managing their workload. Using on-demand design services can also be more cost-effective because you do not need to pay for the overhead costs associated with managing an in-house design team, such as salaries, benefits, and office space. This can help you to better control your design budget and allocate your resources more efficiently. 7. Quickly and easily adapt to changing market conditions On-demand design services can help you to stay competitive, as you can quickly and easily adapt to changing market conditions and customer needs. On-demand design services refer to the ability to quickly and easily access design resources as needed, rather than having a dedicated in-house design team or hiring a freelancer on a long-term contract. This can be especially useful for small businesses or startups that may not have the resources to commit to a full-time designer or may not have a consistent need for design work. By using on-demand design services, you can stay competitive by being able to quickly and easily adapt to changing market conditions and customer needs. For example, if a new trend emerges in your industry or you receive customer feedback that prompts you to change the look of your website or marketing materials, you can use on-demand design services to get the work done quickly and efficiently. This allows you to respond to changing circumstances in a timely manner and maintain a fresh, up-to-date image. Overall, on-demand design services can be a valuable tool for businesses looking to stay agile and responsive in a fast-paced, constantly-evolving market. 8. Access to a wide range of design expertise With on-demand design services, you have access to a wide range of design expertise and experience, as you can work with designers who specialize in different areas of UI design. On-demand design services provide businesses with the ability to access a wide range of design expertise and experience from designers who specialize in different areas of UI design. This can be particularly useful for businesses that have specific design needs or that work in a niche industry, as it allows them to find designers who have the specific skills and knowledge required to meet their needs. For example, if a business needs to design a user interface for a software application, they can use on-demand design services to find a designer with experience in software UI design. Similarly, if a business needs to design a mobile app, it can use on-demand design services to find a designer with experience in mobile app design. Overall, on-demand design services provide businesses with the flexibility to work with designers who have the specific expertise and experience needed to meet their specific design needs, regardless of the location or availability of those designers. This can be especially valuable for businesses that may not have the resources to hire a full-time designer or that need to access specialized design skills on a short-term basis. 9. Only pay for specific design services that you need On-demand design services offer a cost-effective solution for businesses of all sizes, as you only pay for the specific design services that you need. On-demand design services offer a cost-effective solution for businesses of all sizes, as you only pay for the specific design services that you need. This can be especially useful for small businesses or startups that may not have the resources to hire a full-time designer or may not have a consistent need for design work. With on-demand design services, businesses can choose the specific design services that they need and pay for only those services, rather than paying a salary or retainer fee for a full-time designer or committing to a long-term contract with a freelancer. This can help to save businesses money and allow them to be more flexible and responsive to changing design needs and requirements. In summary, on-demand design services are revolutionizing the way businesses approach their design needs by providing convenience, flexibility, cost-effectiveness, and efficiency. Additionally, on-demand design services are scalable, accessible, and technology-enabled, and offer quality assurance and a wide range of design options. If you’re looking to streamline your design process, save money, and get professional results, on-demand design services are definitely worth considering. Please check Roket an affordable on-demand design service for your design requirements.
Mimari Animasyon
Mimari animasyon, mimari tasarımın görselleştirilmesi amacıyla yaratılan hareketli görüntülerdir. Bu animasyonlar, bir bina veya mekanın nasıl görüneceğini, işleyişini ve nasıl kullanılacağını anlamaya yardımcı olur. Mimari animasyonlar hakkında daha detaylı bilgi için Mimari Animasyon sayfamızı ziyaret etmenizi öneririz. Mimari animasyonlar, tasarım aşamasında çok önemlidir. Özellikle büyük ölçekli projelerde, yapının nasıl görüneceği ve çalışacağı hakkında düşünceler oluşturmak için gerekli olan bilgiyi sağlar. Bu sayede, tasarımın nasıl iyileştirilebileceği konusunda daha kolay karar verilebilir. Mimari animasyonlar, ayrıca projenin potansiyel yatırımcılarına ve finansörlerine de sunulabilir. Bu sayede, projenin nasıl bir görünüm ve işleyişe sahip olacağı hakkında daha iyi bir fikir edinebilirler. Bu, projenin daha kolay finansman sağlanmasını sağlar. Mimari animasyonlar, aynı zamanda projenin son kullanıcıları olan insanlar için de önemlidir. Örneğin, bir bina tasarımı hakkında bilgi verirken, animasyonlar sayesinde insanlar bu binanın nasıl görüneceğini, nasıl kullanılacağını ve içinde bulunacakları ortamı daha iyi anlayabilirler. Bu konu hakkında daha detaylı bilgi için sitemizde yer alan Mimari Görselleştirme sayfamıza göz atabilirsiniz. Sonuç olarak, mimari animasyonlar, mimari tasarım sürecinde çok önemlidir. Bu animasyonlar, tasarımın nasıl iyileştirilebileceği konusunda karar vermeyi kolaylaştırır ve projenin yatırımcılarına ve kullanıcılarına da bilgi verir. Bu sayede, projenin daha başarılı bir şekilde gerçekleştirilmesine yardımcı olur. Daha fazla bilgi ve içerik için tıklayınız. Kaynak: Mimari Animasyon İletişim: Facebook - Instagram - Twitter - LinkedIn
Reasons for the Popularity of Online Grocery Stores in Sweden
Statista in its research has cited that the user penetration rate for grocery apps has gone up and will accomplish 35.4% by 2023. As a country known for its promotion of sustainability; it comes as no surprise thus that the people living there would be attracted to online grocery stores; particularly those that are sustainability conscious. Therefore, if you are in the quest to digitize your grocery store operations in the region; or for that matter plan to build a strong online presence for your grocery store there; the article is for you. In the article; we present the different factors that make it necessary to start an online grocery business there if not done yet. Why Create Online Grocery Store in Sweden In the pointers below, we discuss the different factors that contribute to the creation of online grocery stores in Sweden. 1. Due to the possibility of receiving special offers and discounts. 2. As a result of receiving cheaper deliveries. 3. Since they provide more variety of products. 4. Discount receipt that becomes easy to avail for first-time customers. Looking at these factors you can comprehend that starting an online grocery business there in the Nordic region will make it easy to promote sustainability, attract more users, and help the grocery venture earn more profits. Especially as a result of the popular grocery apps in Sweden such as MatHem, Matsmart, Kavall, Vembla, etc to name a few, the lucrative prospect of setting up a grocery venture, there is even greater. How to Setup Online Grocery Business in Sweden? To set up an online grocery business in Sweden; it is recommended that you keep some points in mind, some of which are listed below. 1. Research on competitors and target market to know how to go about the procedure like a pro and build a solution that successfully captures the attention of users. 2. Ideate an app design strategy to boost the level of user engagement. 3. Choose features wisely so maximum user engagement takes place and a greater percentage of sales keeps pouring 4. Select revenue-generation sources wisely from different ones available like subscription, commission, etc. Do You Want Thriving Grocery App in Sweden? As you have read in the lines above, in Sweden people are driven to sustainability. This is why all major grocery businesses are shifting their focus to having an app presence. Check out the article to educate yourself with the reasons for this, and build an empire that allows you to earn profits, and returns like never before. https://www.groceryappclone.com/blog/top-10-popular-grocery-apps-in-sweden/
Samsung Refrigerator Service Centre near Baharat Nagar
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2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-801 PDF Dumps(Q110-Q144)
QUESTION 110 A remote office has a less-than-optimal WAN connection end experiences packed loss, delay, and jitter. Which VoIP codec should be used in this situation? A.G.722.1 B.G.711alaw C.iLBC D.G.729A Answer: C QUESTION 111 A user reports transfer failures from an IP phone for calls received from a PSTN to another PSTN number. What is a reason for these failures? A.The incoming calling search space of the SIP trunk does not include the partition of the line in the IP phone. B.The service parameter related to Offnet to Offnet call Transfer is set to TRUE. C.The IP phone is configured with the Wrong region. D.The gateway is configured with the wrong device pool. Answer: B QUESTION 112 A customer is deploying a SIP IOS gateway for a customer who requires that in-bond DTMF relay is first priority and out-of-band DTMF relay is second priority. Which IOS entry sets the required priority? A.dtmf-relay cisco-rtp B.sip-notify dtmf-relay rtp-nte C.dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify D.dtmf-relay sip-kmpl cisco-rtp Answer: C QUESTION 113 Refer to the exhibit. This INVITE is sent to an endpoint that only supports G.729. What must be done for this call to succeed? A.Noting: both sides support G.729. B.Add a transcoder that supports G.711ualw and G.729. C.ADD a media termination point that supports G.711ulaw and G.729. D.Nothing: both sides support payload type 101. Answer: B QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. You deploy Mobile and Remote Access for Jabber and discover that Jabber for Windows does not register to cisco Unified Communications Manager while outside of the office. What is a cause of this issue? A.The DNS record should be created for _ cisco-uds _tcp example.com. B.The DNS record should be changed from _collab-edge._tcp.example.com to __collab-edge _tls.example.com. C.The DNS record type should be changed from SRV to A. D.Server 4.2.2.2 is not a valid DNS server. Answer: B QUESTION 115 What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and presence high-availability modes? A.Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby made provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing. B.Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing. C.Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, but is does not provide load balancing. D.Balanced mode provides user load failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, and is also provides load balancing. Answer: B QUESTION 116 Which two DNS records must be created to configure Service Discovery for on-premises Jabber? (Choose two.) A._cuplogin._tcp.cisco com pointing to a record of IM&P B._cisco-uds._tcp.cisco.com pointing to a record of Cisco Unified CM C._cuplogin._tls.cisco.com pointing to the IP address of IM&P D._cisco-uds._tls.cisco.com pointing to the IP address of Cisco Unified Communications manager E._xmpp._tls.cisco.com pointing to a record of IM&P Answer: AB QUESTION 117 An engineer implements QoS in the enterprise network. Which command can to verify the correct classification and marking on a cisco IOS switch? A.show policy-map B.show class-map interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 C.show access-lists D.show policy-map interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 Answer: D QUESTION 118 Which field is configured to change the caller ID information on a SIP route pattern? A.Calling party Transformation Mask B.Route partition C.Called party Transformation Mask D.Connected Line ID Presentation Answer: A QUESTION 119 Which protocol does prime collaboration Assurance use to poll the health status of different systems in the collaboration environment? A.SIP B.SMTP C.SCCP D.SNMP Answer: D QUESTION 120 Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.) A.PRACK B.UPDATE C.SUBSCRIBE D.NOTIFY E.REGISTER Answer: CD QUESTION 121 An engineer wants to manually deploy a Cisco Webex DX80 video endpoint to a remote user. Which type of provisioning is configured on the endpoint? A.CUBE B.CMS C.CUCM D.Edge Answer: D QUESTION 122 Which DiffServ marking is the most likely to drop packets? A.AF32 B.AF12 C.AF11 D.AF13 Answer: D QUESTION 123 Endpoint A is attempting to call endpoint B. Endpoint A only supports G.711 ulaw with a packetization rate of 20 ms, and endpoint B supports packetization rate of 30 ms for G.711ulaw. Which two media are resources are allocated to normalize packetization rates through transrating? A.Hardware MTP on Cisco IOS Software B.Software MTP on Cisco Unified Communication Manager C.Software MTP on Cisco IOS Software D.Software transcoder on Cisco unified Communications manager E.Hardware transcoder on Cisco IOS Software Answer: AE QUESTION 124 When configuring Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which configuration enables phones to automatically register to a Cisco Unified Communications publisher when the connection to the subscriber is lost? A.Cisco Unified CM Group B.Device Pool C.SRST D.Route Group Answer: A QUESTION 125 Which two elements of a dial plan define the domains that are accessible and are assigned to an endpoint? (Choose two.) A.Call Admissions Control B.Route patterns C.Calling Search Spaces D.Translation patterns E.partitions Answer: CE QUESTION 126 An engineer with ID378163512 is designing a new dial plan for a customer that has offices in several countries on four continents around the world. This client also want to integrate with a Microsoft Lync backend, Which dial plan type does the engineer recommend? A.SIP URI B.TEHQ C.H.323 D.E.164 Answer: D QUESTION 127 Which version is used to provide encryption for SNMP management traffic in collaboration deployments? A.SNMPv1 B.SNMPv3 C.SNMPv2 D.SNMPv2c Answer: B QUESTION 128 Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets? A.CSRC (Contributing Source ID) B.Timestamp C.Sequence number D.SSRC (Synchronization identifier) Answer: C QUESTION 129 Refer to the exhibit. When making a call to a MRA client, what are the combinations of protocol on each of the different sections A-B-C? A.IP TCP/TLS(A) +SIP TCP/TLS (B) +TLS (C) B.SIP TLS (A) +SIP TLS (B) +SIP TLS (C) C.SIP TCP/TLS (A) + SIP TLS (B) + SIP TLS (C) D.SIP TCP/TLS +SIP TCP/TLS (B) + SIP TCP/TLS (C) Answer: C QUESTION 130 An engineer is designing a load balancing solution for two Cisco Unified Border routers. The first router (cube1.abc.com) takes 60% of the calls and the second router (cute2.abc.com) takes 40% of the calls, Assume all DNS A records have been created. Which two SRV records are needed for a load balanced solution? (Choose two.) A.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 1 40 5060 cube2.abc.com B.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 3 60 5060 cube2.abc.com C.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 60 1 5060 cube1.abc.com D.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 2 60 5060 cube1.abc.com E.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 1 60 5060 cube1.abc.com Answer: AE QUESTION 131 Refer to the exhibit. A call to an international number has failed. Which action corrects this problem? A.Assign a transcoder to the MRGL of the gateway. B.Strip the leading 011 from the called party number C.Add the bearer-cap speech command to the voice port. D.Add the isdn switch-type primart-dms100 command to the serial interface. Answer: B QUESTION 132 Which user group is targeted by MRA services? A.Call center agents who dial out to remote customers B.Mobile workers in a host desk environment at HQ who log in every morning at possibility a different phone C.Production floor users who need wireless mobility in remote areas of the factory D.On-the-go mobile workforce who connect to corporate phone services using their own mobile device Answer: D QUESTION 133 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager feature is to determine the maximum bit rate for a call between two video-endpoints? A.Partitions B.Locations C.Regions D.transformations Answer: C QUESTION 134 When a 8800 series phone is registered over MRA, where does it register? A.Cisco Unified Communications Manager B.Expressway-C C.Cisco Unified Presence Server D.Expressway-E Answer: A QUESTION 135 An engineer must manually provision a Cisco IP Phone 8845 using SIP. Which two fields must be configured for a successful provision? (Choose two.) A.Media resources group list B.SIP profile C.CSS D.Location E.Device security profile Answer: BE QUESTION 136 What is the correct statement about CUCM and Cisco IM&P backups? A.Backups should the scheduled during hours to avoid system performance issues. B.Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account. C.Backups are saved as unencrypted tar files. D.Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communication Manager and Cisco IM and Presence servers. Answer: A QUESTION 137 Due to service provider restriction, Cisco Unified Communications Manager cannot send video in the SDP. Which two options on Cisco Unified CM are configured to suppress video in the SDP is outgoing invites? (Choose two.) A.Check the Send send-receive SDP in mid-call INVITE check box on the SIP trunk SIP profile. B.Add the audio forced command to voice service voip on the Unified Border Elements. C.Check the Retry Call as Audio on the SIP trunk D.Set Video bandwidth in the Region settings to 0. E.Change the Video Capabilities dropdown on the endpoint to Disabled. Answer: CD QUESTION 138 There is a saturated link that has traffic shaping configured. How is incoming traffic processed? A.Excess traffic is queued for later transmission. B.Excess traffic is dropped. C.Traffic is compressed so that the traffic fits within the bandwidth of the link. D.Excess traffic is queued, and then dropped after the timer expires. Answer: A QUESTION 139 Refer to the exhibit. A customer submits this output, captured on a Cisco IOS router. Assuming that an MGCP gateway is configured with a ISDN BRI interface, which BRI changes resolve the issue? A.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 B.interface BRI0/1/0 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-multipoint-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 C.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-point-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 D.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-multipoint-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 Answer: C QUESTION 140 Which SNMP service must be activated manually on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager after installation? A.Cisco CallManager SNMP B.SNMP Master Agent C.Connection SNMP Agent D.Host Resources Agent Answer: A QUESTION 141 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer verifies the configured of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is necessary to enable MGCP? A.Device(config)# mgcp enable B.Device(config)# ccm-manager enable C.Device (config)# com-manager active D.Device (config)# mgcp Answer: D QUESTION 142 What are two key features of the Expressway series? (Choose two.) A.VPN connect toward the internal UC resources B.B2B calls C.IP to PSTN call connectivity D.Device registration over the internet E.SIP header modification Answer: BD QUESTION 143 An engineer deploys a Cisco Expressway edge server for a customer who wants to utilize all feature on the server. Which feature does the engineer configure on the Expressway edge? A.VTC bridge B.H.323 endpoint registration C.SIP gateway for PSTN providers D.MRA Answer: D QUESTION 144 An engineer is configuring a Cisco Unified Border Element to allow the video endpoints to negotiate without the Cisco Unified Border Element interfering in the process. What should the engineer configure on the Cisco Unified Border Element to support this process? A.Configure path-thru content sdp on the voice service. B.Configure a hardcoded codec on the dial peers. C.Configure a transcoder for video protocols. D.Configure codec transparent on the dial peers. Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-801 PDF and 350-801 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1pALdeSmYT0960h3st7rEH4WExsy2Mjgq?usp=sharing