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HelloVidz Review - Create a NEW Kind of Video in Minutes! (App By Firelaunchers)
HelloVidz Review: What Is It? HelloVidz is the First To Market, Revolutionary Vertical Video Creator App With 100+ Editable & Unlimited Searchable Vertical Marketing Templates, Built-In Video Editor, VOX Creator To Create Hundreds Of Attention Grabbing Vertical And Horizontal Videos! Big Social Platforms Have Been Investing Significantly In The Vertical Video Format Ever Since The Trend Began To Gain Popularity. So you ought to ride this wave. Social media behemoths want you to post content and are giving content creators millions of dollars. "Distributing Over $1 Million USD to Snapchatters Every Day," according to Snapchat. In July 2021, Facebook, now known as Meta, announced that it would invest over $1 billion in creators. Additionally, Meta added a bonus program that offers more ways to make money from Facebook reels, up to $35,000 each month. The YouTube Shorts Creators Fund Is $100 Million. Top Business Brands Have Increased Their Revenue And Built Huge Followings Using Vertical Video Marketing… 👉 Read More: https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/hellovidz-review-create-new-kind-video-minutes-app-firelaunchers-/undefined Powerful, Engaging, Videos For Facebook, Instagram, Tiktok, Snapchat & YouTube In Minutes. Three Steps To Start Creating Videos with HelloVidz: Step 1: To get started, choose a template from your ready-to-use 100 Vertical Video Marketing Templates in 10 niches, or choose from your built-in library of stock videos, or upload an existing video to create a vertical video of any length from 15 to 60 seconds. Step 2: Use their Super Easy Video Editing Tool + VOX Creator To make edits – Use their super easy video editing tool + VOX (Voiceover) Creator to make edits. Add ready-to-use Stickers, Emojis, Images, Watermarks, Text, Avatars, Music, and voiceovers to quickly customize your videos enhancing the design, look and feel. Step 3: Download the video to your computer, or use the built-in share tool to INSTANTLY publish the video to dozens of social sites. 👉 Read More: https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/hellovidz-review-create-new-kind-video-minutes-app-firelaunchers-/undefined
Jasa Kirim Ekspedisi Daruba, Morotai (0816267079)
Jasa Kirim Ekspedisi Daruba, Morotai merupakan perusahaan yang bergerak dibidang pengiriman barang dengan tujuan dari dan ke seluruh wilayah Indonesia. Logistik Express memiliki keunggulan pada tarif yang terjangkau serta pengiriman aman sampai alamat tujuan. Di era sekarang ini banyak dibutuhkan jasa pengiriman yang praktis dan dan efisien. Untuk itu Logistik Express hadir sebagai mitra pengiriman barang anda mulai dari paket kecil 30kg, 50kg, dan 100kg sampai hitungan tonase. Melayani pengiriman retail, LCL (Less Container Load), FCL (Full Container Load), dan sewa armada. MACAM MACAM ARMADA PENGIRIMAN 1. Via Udara : pengiriman barang cepat sampai 2. Via Laut : solusi pengiriman hemat 3. Via Darat : kirim barang cepat dan hemat Makin banyak makin murah ? Apanya, tuh ? Ya ongkos kirimnya, lah! Logistik Express Jasa Ekspedisi Ternate dan ke seluruh Indonesia menyediakan pengiriman barang dengan tarif yang murah. Tidak perlu khawatir sebanyak apapun barang kirimanmu, kirim pakai Logistik Express dijamin terjangkau. Mau kirim barang berat ? Atau barangnya ringan tapi makan tempat ? Logistik Express punya solusi, dong! Kantor cabang dan perwakilan yang tersebar di seluruh Indonesia akan semakin memudahkan untuk pengiriman barangmu. Pengiriman cukup di kota bahkan sampai pelosok pun Logistik Express akan siap sedia. Ingat Ongkir Murah, Ingat Logistik Express PEMESANAN LAYANAN CARGO DARUBA, MOROTAI LOGISTIK EXPRESS Hubungi Kami Untuk Konsultasi Dan Juga Layanan Kiriman Cargo Customer Service Yuni : 0816 2670 79 Email : yuni.logistikexpress.id@gmail.com Ekspedisi Jakarta Daruba, Pulau Morotai Ekspedisi Semarang Daruba, Pulau Morotai Ekspedisi Surabaya Daruba, Pulau Morotai Ekspedisi Bandung Daruba, Pulau Morotai Ekspedisi Tangerang Daruba, Pulau Morotai
HappyFresh Business Model – Check Out Its Easy Ops Here
Launched in 2015 in Jakarta, Indonesia, HappyFresh created a revolution in the grocery shopping, and ordering process for customers. Courtesy of its possession of a unique business and revenue model, followed by having extremely easy operations, the app saw its prominence growing manifold. It in fact went on to entice the attention of those who until now were running an offline grocery store. With the market having a billion-dollar potential, it goes without saying that there are a diverse array of factors that in fact are responsible for the app’s popularity skyrocketing, and most important, encouraging new grocery business owners to develop something along similar lines. Here’s why this is happening. WorkFlow of HappyFresh App The HappyFresh grocery delivery app has extremely easy operations which have been listed by us in the pointers below- * Customer enters the app, taps on items they want, and places order upon including date, time, and address. * Order is received at the store which immediately accepts it and gets the driver on board to perform order pickup. * The delivery driver receives order pickup detail containing details of the store, the payment stream used for paying, and so on. * The driver reaches the store and picks up the order upon which the customer gets notified. * Customer and delivery drivers can track each other in real-time. * Delivery driver provides delivery and the customer provides a rating for the overall shopping experience through the app. Unique Business Model By partnering with 278 supermarkets alongside containing over 100,000 items, it helps in ensuring smooth grocery delivery services. Alongside, as a result of employing personal shoppers, the process of grocery shopping takes place seamlessly as a result of the connection between customers and stores. Moving On Courtesy of the factors that are highlighted by us above, alongside the points stated above; it has enticed the attention of those who plan to give their grocery business the digital touch. To perform this with precision, keep the steps such as the ones listed below in mind during grocery delivery app development services. Steps to Follow to Develop HappyFresh Like App * Choose an appropriate revenue stream from different ones like commissions, sales, and the marginal cost of what customers pay. * Research the needs and concerns of the target audience to gain insight into an app design strategy. * Use technologies that have been around for a long so the app functions seamlessly and smoothly. * Get the HappyFresh clone to serve future businesses and customers seamlessly. Make modifications easily and earn more customers. Wrapping Up With this, we have covered all the aspects related to HappyFresh; citing the business model and the operations which have enticed the attention of those running an offline grocery store. In case you are among one of them, check out how to perform grocery delivery app services with the HappyFresh app clone in this comprehensive guide to earn returns like never before, and ensure smooth grocery delivery services. Read this article and get the idea of the recipe for creating a profitable grocery venture along the lines of the HappyFresh app. Read More: HappyFresh Like Grocery App Development – Steps, Features, Cost
GPTOK Review - Does It Really Work? (App By Mosh Bari)
GPTOK Review: What Is It? GPTOK is an easy-to-use application that combines the power of our chat GPT with the latest technology to help you leverage the massive potential of this amazing platform. With the combination of ChatGPT and GPTOK's software, you can quickly generate instant-viral videos without creating any content yourself. Plus, our app allows you to copy and paste the keyword and captions we generate for you into your posts on TikTok so you can maximize your reach within minutes. Imagine what it would be like if all your posts went viral and attracted massive attention - it could be life changing! And with GPTOK, this dream could become a reality in no time at all. Don’t miss out on this unique opportunity to tap into a booming industry worth billions of dollars each year - creators made an average of $5 billion last year alone! Read More: https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/gptok-review-tiktok-instant-viral-videos-app-mosh-bari-allreviews/ Plus, with our 30 days iron-clad money back guarantee, there’s no risk involved in trying it out. So why not get started today? Unleash viral traffic from TikTok with GPTOK now and start making money online with ease! You’re Just 3-Steps Away From Floods Of Viral Traffic From TikTok: Step 1: A.I. Videos: With One Click Leverage the power of A.I. And generate an Instant-Viral, Without Creating it. Step 2: Upload: Copy And Paste The Keyword And Captions they Generate For You With A.I. And Upload It To Tikotok. Step 3: Traffic: Embrace Yourself For A Massive Traffic Wave. Read More: https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/gptok-review-tiktok-instant-viral-videos-app-mosh-bari-allreviews/
Recurring Commission System Review 2023 [App By Glynn Kosky]
Recurring Commission System Review: What Is It? The Recurring Commission System is a virtually unknown method that has made me over $30,000 in commissions every month for 7 years. It's a brand-new system that mimics the corporate structure I've used ever since I began generating passive revenue through affiliate marketing. This method gives you all the materials and tools you require to promote goods and services that give us monthly recurring commissions in order to make recurring income! We are creating recurring monthly income by marketing subscription-based items that all marketers need, while everyone else is fighting to market the same old $7 products. Read More : https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/recurring-commission-system-review-2023-app-glynn-kosky-allreviews Prices for these goods range from $27 per month to thousands of dollars per month. I spend $5,000 a month on goods and software for my company, thus somebody is getting paid by me. (Since I registered through THEIR referral link) And there are literally hundreds of thousands of people that subscribe to such services on a monthly basis. We don't have to sell as many things when we advertise subscription-based products. You may make money promoting recurrent products with my "recurring automatic profit funnels" inside the Recurring Commission System, which require less time and effort than promoting the same old garbage everyone else is promoting. Read More : https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/recurring-commission-system-review-2023-app-glynn-kosky-allreviews 4 Steps To Online Success With The Recurring Commission System STEP 1: ACTIVATE & LOGIN Activate Your License & Login to The Recurring Commission System … STEP 2: ACTIVATE FUNNELS Create Your First Highly Profitable Secret Recurring Profit Funnel In SECONDS Using The Custom Built Technology Inside The Software… STEP 3: ADD LINKS Add Your “Commission Links” To Your New Funnels So You Can Get Paid… STEP 4: Publish & Launch Your New Recurring Funnels Then Activate The FREE Automated Traffic! Read More : https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/recurring-commission-system-review-2023-app-glynn-kosky-allreviews
2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF Dumps(Q83-Q120)
QUESTION 83 Which statement about hot-potato routing architecture design is true? A.Hot-potato routing is the preferred architecture when connecting to content providers B.Hop-potato keeps traffic under the control of the network administrator for longer C.OSPF uses hot-potato routing if all ASBRs use the same value for the external metric D.Hot-potato routing is prone to misconfiguration as well as poor coordination between two networks Answer: A QUESTION 84 Two enterprise networks must be connected together. Both networks are using the same private IP addresses. The client requests from both sides should be translated using hide NAT (dynamic NAT) with the overload feature to save IF addresses from the NAT pools. Which design addresses this requirement using only one Cisco I OS NAT router for both directions? A.This is not possible, because two Cisco IOS NAT routers are required to do dynamic NAT, with overload in both directions. B.The ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands must be configured at the interfaces with the overload option in both directions. C.The overload feature is the default and does not have to be configured. D.Two different NAT pools must be used for the ip nat inside source and the ip nat outside source commands for the overload feature in both directions. E.The Nat Virtual interface must be used to achieve this requirement. Answer: D QUESTION 85 Refer to the exhibit. As part of a redesign project, you must predict multicast behavior. What happens to the multicast traffic received on the shared tree (*,G), if it is received on the LHR interface indicated*? A.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPF check against the multicast source B.It is switched give that no RPF check is performed C.It is switched due to a successful RPF check against the routing table D.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPk8t8ck against the multicast receiver. Answer: A QUESTION 86 A BGP route reflector in the network is taking longer than expected to coverage during large network changes. Troubleshooting shows that the router cannot handle all the TCP acknowledgements during route updates. Which action can be performed to tune the device performance? A.Increase the size of the hold queue. B.Increase the size of the large buffers. C.Decrease the size of the small buffers. D.Increase the keepalive timers for each BGP neighbor. Answer: A QUESTION 87 Which two application requirements are mandatory tor traffic to receive proper treatment when placed in the priority queue? (Choose two.) A.small transactions (HTTP-like behavior) B.WRED drop treatment C.tolerance to packet loss D.intolerance to jitter E.TCP-based application Answer: CD QUESTION 88 Which two conditions must be met for EIGRP to maintain an alternate loop-free path to a remote network? (Choose two.) A.The Reported Distance from a successor is lower than the local Feasible Distance. B.The Reported Distance from a successor is higher than the local Feasible Distance. C.The feasibility condition does not need to be met. D.The Feasible Distance from a successor is lower than the local Reported Distance. E.A feasible successor must be present. Answer: AE QUESTION 89 You are designing a new Ethernet-based metro-area network for an enterprise customer to connect 50 sites within the same city OSPF will be the routing protocol used. The customer is primarily concerned with IPv4 address conservation and convergence time. Which two combined actions do you recommend? (Choose two) A.Use a multipoint Metro-E service for router connections B.Use a single address per router for all P2P links C.Use P2P links between routers in a hub-and-spoke design D.Configure address aggregation at each site router E.Determine which OSPF routers will be DR/BDR Answer: AC QUESTION 90 Which two statements about MLD snooping are true? (Choose two) A.When MLD snooping is enabled, QoS is automatically enabled. B.A VLAN can support multiple active MLD snooping queries, as long as each one is associated to a different multicast group. C.AN MLD snooping querier election occurs when any MLD snooping querier goes down or if there is an IP address change on the active querier. D.When multiple MLD snooping queriers are enabled in a VLAN, the querier with the lowest IP address in the VLAN is elected as the active MLD snooping querier. Answer: CD QUESTION 91 Which two design option are available to dynamically discover the RP in an IPv6 multicast network? (Choose two) A.embedded RP B.MSDP C.BSR D.Auto-RP E.MLD Answer: AC QUESTION 92 Company A has a hub-and spoke topology over an SP-managed infrastructure. To measure traffic performance metrics. IP SLA senders on all spoke CE routers and an IP SLA responder on the hub CE router. What must they monitor to have visibility on the potential performance impact due to the constantly increasing number of spoke sites? A.memory usage on the hub router B.interface buffers on the hub and spoke routers C.CPU and memory usage on the spoke routers D.CPU usage on the hub router Answer: D QUESTION 93 Which two descriptions of CWDM are true? (Choose two) A.typically used over long distances, but requires optical amplification B.uses the 850nm band C.allows up to 32 optical earners to be multiplexed onto a single fiber D.shares the same transmission window as DWDM E.Passive CWDM devices require no electrical power Answer: DE QUESTION 94 SDWAN networks capitalize the usage of broadband Internet links over traditional MPLS links to offer more cost benefits to enterprise customers. However, due to the insecure nature of the public Internet, it is mandatory to use encryption of traffic between any two SDWAN edge devices installed behind NAT gateways. Which overlay method can provide optimal transport over unreliable underlay networks that are behind NAT gateways? A.TLS B.DTLS C.IPsec D.GRE Answer: C QUESTION 95 Company XYZ runs OSPF in their network. A design engineer decides to implement hot-potato routing architecture. How can this implementation be achieved? A.Enable iBGP and apply prepend to ensure all prefixes will have the same length of the AS path attribute value. B.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure the total metric calculation includes only the ext value and the value is the same in all ASBRs. C.Enable OSPF load-balancing over unequal cost path. D.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure that the total metric calculation includes external internal values. Answer: D QUESTION 96 What are two primary design constraints when a robust infrastructure solution is created? (Choose two.) A.monitoring capabilities B.project time frame C.staff experience D.component availability E.total cost Answer: BE QUESTION 97 SD-WAN can be used to provide secure connectivity to remote offices, branch offices, campus networks, data centers, and the cloud over any type of IP-based underlay transport network. Which two statements describe SD WAN solutions? (Choose two.) A.SD-WAN networks are inherently protected against slow performance. B.Control and data forwarding planes are kept separate. C.Improved operational efficiencies result In cost savings. D.Solutions include centralized orchestration, control, and zero-touch provisioning. E.Solutions allow for variations of commodity and specialized switching hardware. Answer: CD QUESTION 98 An architect designs a multi-controller network architecture with these requirements: - Achieve fast failover to control traffic when controllers fail. - Yield a short distance and high resiliency in the connection between the switches and the controller. - Reduce connectivity loss and enable smart recovery to improve the SDN survivability. - Improve connectivity by adding path diversity and capacity awareness for controllers. Which control plane component of the multi-controller must be built to meet the requirements? A.control node reliability B.controller stale consistency C.control path reliability D.controller clustering Answer: D QUESTION 99 Company XYZ is planning to deploy primary and secondary (disaster recovery) data center sites. Each of these sites will have redundant SAN fabrics and data protection is expected between the data center sites. The sites are 100 miles (160 km) apart and target RPO/RTO are 3 hrs and 24 hrs, respectively. Which two considerations must Company XYZ bear in mind when deploying replication in their scenario? (Choose two.) A.Target RPO/RTO requirements cannot be met due to the one-way delay introduced by the distance between sites. B.VSANs must be routed between sites to isolate fault domains and increase overall availability. C.Synchronous data replication must be used to meet the business requirements. D.Asynchronous data replication should be used in this scenario to avoid performance impact in the primary site. E.VSANs must be extended from the primary to the secondary site to improve performance and availability. Answer: CD Explanation: RPO and RTO tend to vary based on the application involved. These metrics tend to fluctuate between data that cannot be lost (i.e., low RPO but high RTO) such as financial and healthcare data as well as real-time systems that cannot be down (i.e., high RPO but low RTO) such as an E-commerce web server. QUESTION 100 Which undesired effect of increasing the jitter compensation buffer is true? A.The overall transport jitter decreases and quality improves. B.The overall transport jitter increases and quality issues can occur. C.The overall transport delay increases and quality issues can occur. D.The overall transport delay decreases and quality improves. Answer: C QUESTION 101 Which three tools are used for ongoing monitoring and maintenance of a voice and video environment? (Choose three.) A.flow-based analysis to measure bandwidth mix of applications and their flows B.call management analysis to identify network convergence-related failures C.call management analysis to identify CAC failures and call quality issues D.active monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter E.passive monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter F.flow-based analysis with PTP time-stamping to measure loss, latency, and jitter Answer: ACD QUESTION 102 Which two advantages of using DWDM over traditional optical networks are true? (Choose two.) A.inherent topology flexibility and service protection provided without penalty through intelligent oversubscription of bandwidth reservation B.ability to expand bandwidth over existing optical Infrastructure C.inherent topology flexibility with built-in service protection D.inherent topology flexibility with intelligent chromatic dispersion E.inherent topology flexibility with a service protection provided through a direct integration with an upper layer protocol Answer: AB QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. This network is running OSPF and EIGRP as the routing protocols. Mutual redistribution of the routing protocols has been configured on the appropriate ASBRs. The OSPF network must be designed so that flapping routes in EIGRP domains do not affect the SPF runs within OSPF. The design solution must not affect the way EIGRP routes are propagated into the EIGRP domains. Which technique accomplishes the requirement? A.route summarization the ASBR interfaces facing the OSPF domain B.route summarization on the appropriate ASBRS. C.route summarization on the appropriate ABRS. D.route summarization on EIDRP routers connecting toward the ASBR Answer: D QUESTION 104 Company XYZ is running OSPF in their network. They have merged with another company that is running EIGRP as the routing protocol. Company XYZ now needs the two domains to talk to each other with redundancy, while maintaining a loop free environment. The solution must scale when new networks are added into the network in the near future. Which technology can be used to meet these requirements? A.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs B.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags C.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags D.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs Answer: B QUESTION 105 Company XYZ is in the process of identifying which transport mechanism(s) to use as their WAN technology. Their main two requirements are. - a technology that could offer DPI, SLA, secure tunnels, privacy, QoS, scalability, reliability, and ease of management - a technology that is cost-effective Which WAN technology(ies) should be included in the design of company XYZ? A.Software-defined WAN should be the preferred choice because it complements both technologies, covers all the required features, and it is the most cost-effective solution. B.Internet should be the preferred option because it is cost effective and supports BFD, IP SLA. and IPsec for secure transport over the public Internet. C.Both technologies should be used. Each should be used to back up the other one; where the primary links are MPLS, the internet should be used as a backup link with IPsec (and vice versa). D.MPLS meets all these requirements and it is more reliable than using the Internet. It is widely used with defined best practices and an industry standard. Answer: A QUESTION 106 Which MPLS TE design consideration is true? A.MPLS TE replaces LDP and the dependency of the IGP to identify the best path. B.MPLS TE provides link and node protection C.MPLS TE optimizes the routing of IP traffic, given the constraints imposed by backbone capacity and application requirements. D.MPLS TE requires Layer 3 VPN full-mesh topology deployment Answer: C QUESTION 107 The network designer needs to use GLOP IP address in order make them unique within their ASN, which multicast address range will be considered? A.239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 B.224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 C.233.0.0.0 to 233.255.255.255 D.232.0.0.0 to 232.255.255.255 Answer: C QUESTION 108 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right. Answer: QUESTION 109 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the end-to-end network virtualization elements from the left onto the correct network areas on the right. Answer: QUESTION 110 Which two data plane hardening techniques are true? (Choose two) A.warning banners B.redundant AAA servers C.Control Plane Policing D.SNMPv3 E.infrastructure ACLs F.disable unused services G.routing protocol authentication Answer: CE QUESTION 111 You have been asked to design a high-density wireless network for a university campus. Which two principles would you apply in order to maximize the wireless network capacity? (Choose two.) A.Implement a four-channel design on 2.4 GHz to increase the number of available channels B.Choose a high minimum data rate to reduce the duty cycle. C.increases the number of SSlDs to load-balance the client traffic. D.Make use of the 5-GHz band to reduce the spectrum utilization on 2.4 GHz when dual-band clients are used. E.Enable 802.11n channel bonding on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz to increase the maximum aggregated cell throughput. Answer: BD QUESTION 112 Company XYZ is redesigning their QoS policy. Some of the applications used by the company are real- time applications. The QoS design must give these applications preference in terms of transmission. Which QoS strategy can be used to fulfill the requirement? A.weighted fair queuing B.weighted random early detection C.low-latency queuing D.first-in first-out Answer: C QUESTION 113 As part of workspace digitization, a large enterprise has migrated all their users to Desktop as a Sen/ice (DaaS), by hosting the backend system in their on-premises data center. Some of the branches have started to experience disconnections to the DaaS at periodic intervals, however, local users in the data center and head office do not experience this behavior. Which technology can be used to mitigate this issue? A.tail drop B.traffic shaping C.WRED D.traffic policing Answer: B QUESTION 114 A healthcare provider discovers that protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data. Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue? A.technical and physical access control B.administrative security management processes C.physical device and media control D.technical integrity and transmission security Answer: D QUESTION 115 Which two technologies enable multilayer segmentation? (Choose two.) A.policy-based routing B.segment routing C.data plane markings D.firewalls E.filter lists Answer: AD QUESTION 116 IPFIX data collection via standalone IPFIX probes is an alternative to flow collection from routers and switches. Which use case is suitable for using IPFIX probes? A.performance monitoring B.security C.observation of critical links D.capacity planning Answer: A QUESTION 117 Company XYZ wants to use the FCAPS ISO standard for network management design. The focus of the design should be to monitor and keep track of any performance issues by continuously collecting and analyzing statistical information to monitor, correct, and optimize any reduced responsiveness across the network. Which layer accomplishes this design requirement? A.fault management B.accounting management C.performance management D.security management Answer: C QUESTION 118 While designing a switched topology, in which two options is UplinkFast recommended? (Choose two ) A.when switches of different spanning-tree types are connected (for example. 802.1d connecting to 802.1w) B.on distribution layer switches C.when hello timers are changed to more aggressive values D.on access layer switches E.on the core switches Answer: AD QUESTION 119 You are using iSCSI to transfer files between a 10 Gigabit Ethernet storage system and a 1 Gigabit Ethernet server. The performance is only approximately 700 Mbps and output drops are occurring on the server switch port. Which action will improve performance in a cost-effective manner? A.Change the protocol to CIFS. B.Increase the queue to at least 1 GB C.Use a WRED random drop policy D.Enable the TCP Nagle algorithm on the receiver Answer: A QUESTION 120 Customer XYZ network consists of an MPLS core. IS-IS running as IGP a pair of BGP route reflectors for route propagation, and a few dozens of MPLS-TE tunnels for specific tactical traffic engineering requirements. The customer's engineering department has some questions about the use of the Overload Bit in the IS-IS networks and how it could be used to improve their current network design. Which two concepts about the Overload Bit are true? (Choose two.) A.It can be set on a router during the startup process for a fixed period of time B.Networks advertised within the LSPs of the respective node will become unreachable C.It forces the midpoint MPLS-TE node to reoptimize the primary tunnels going through the OL node. D.It can be set on a router until other interacting protocols have signaled convergence. E.It is not recommended on BGP Route Reflectors Answer: AD 2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF and 400-007 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1wV28HLjscHjQ8TOrCglIRRU5nn6jytDd?usp=sharing
AI GraphicsKreator Review
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The doctor uses a device called an ultrasound to locate and confirm that your pregnancy is in its earliest stages, before it can be seen by the naked eye. Once you’re confirmed to be pregnant, your doctor will use a tube to place an instrument called a vacuum aspirator over the cervix (the opening to uterus). This allows them to remove remaining tissue from inside your uterus using suction. Ultrasound-guided abortions are safe but not without risk: they require some degree of cramping and bleeding during this procedure—but they aren't as painful as surgical abortions because there isn't any incision required! It's important that you speak with your doctor about this option so they can tell you what risks might occur if you choose this method instead of another one like pills or pills plus surgery (which is less expensive). Manual vacuum aspiration Manual vacuum aspiration is a common method of abortion. It can be performed by a doctor or a nurse in the clinic, usually in the first trimester of pregnancy. Manual vacuum aspiration usually requires local anesthesia and is usually done with local anesthesia. The cervix is dilated with a small device called an instrument that consists of two parts: an insulated tube (called suction catheter) and an instrument to create suction by inserting it into your uterus through your vagina (called cannula). This allows air to be pulled out of your uterus as well as medications injected into it during this procedure. Medical Abortion (Cheap MTP KIT ) Medical abortion is a procedure that uses medications to end pregnancies. It's usually done as early as the first week of pregnancy and can be done up until the 12th week of pregnancy. The most common method used in medical abortion is called medication abortion, which involves taking two different types of drugs: mifepristone (RU 486) and misoprostol (Cytotec). The drugs are taken together at about 10 weeks' gestation to cause an early miscarriage. Mifepristone works by blocking progesterone receptors so that it prevents ovulation—the release of an egg from one ovary into another—and causes uterine contractions that expel tissue from inside your uterus. * This can happen within 72 hours after taking this drug alone or with another medication called misoprostol. * Misoprostol causes uterine contractions without affecting hormones like progesterone; it is also used to induce labor when there's no time limit on delivery dates because doctors don't want people waiting too long between pregnancies if possible. Suction curettage Abortion Suction curettage abortion is the most common type of abortion. It's performed by inserting a thin tube with a small blade on the end into your uterus and sucking out the pregnancy tissue through that tube. This procedure is done in the first trimester of pregnancy, when it's usually done in an outpatient clinic or hospital. If you get an abortion with suction, ask your doctor if they can give you pain medicine before they start working on you so that you don't feel any pain during this procedure. Abortion can be scary, but it does not have to be! Abortion is an incredibly safe and effective way to end a pregnancy. It's also the only method of abortion that you can get without providing your own medical care, which makes it ideal for those who might not be able to afford or access other forms of contraception. Some people may be afraid of abortion because they don't understand it or think it's scary or painful. However, this isn't true! Abortion involves very little pain and discomfort compared with many other procedures—and there are plenty of resources available so that you know what to expect before being ushered into the procedure room (more on that below). Conclusion Now that you know about all of the different methods, you can make an informed decision about whether or not abortion is right for you. Remember, no method is 100% effective in every case—so even if it doesn't work out for your own situation, there are still other options available You Can Buy CHEAP MTP KIT to end ur unwanted pregnancies!
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In the ever-growing digital era, mobile app development has become an essential part of any successful business strategy. With the rise of smartphones and mobile devices, businesses have the opportunity to reach a larger audience and tap into new markets. For businesses looking to expand their reach, mobile app development is a must-have. In this blog, we'll discuss how mobile app development can take your business global with the help of Absolute App Labs. Why Go Global? Going global means opening your business up to new markets, which can lead to increased profits, brand recognition, and a larger customer base. By expanding your reach, you'll be able to reach new customers and showcase your products or services to a wider audience. With the rise of e-commerce, it's never been easier to reach customers across the globe. How Can Mobile App Development Help? Mobile app development can help businesses reach new audiences in a variety of ways. By creating a mobile app, you'll have a direct line of communication with your customers and potential customers. This allows you to keep them updated on new products or services, and to provide them with information about your business. Mobile apps also provide a platform for businesses to reach new customers and market their products or services. For example, if your business is based in the US, but you want to reach customers in Asia, a mobile app can help you do just that. By reaching new customers, you'll be able to grow your business and increase your profits. Why Choose Absolute App Labs? Absolute App Labs is a Leading Mobile App Development Company in Chennai that has experience in creating mobile apps for businesses of all sizes. Our team of experts has the skills and expertise to bring your business's vision to life. We understand the importance of creating an app that is both functional and user-friendly, and we take great care to ensure that our clients are satisfied with the end product. We also understand the importance of going global, and we have experience in creating apps that can reach customers all over the world. Our team is well-versed in different languages and cultural nuances, so we can ensure that your app is tailored to the needs of your target audience. In conclusion, mobile app development is a must-have for businesses looking to expand their reach and take their business global. By creating a mobile app, you'll have the opportunity to reach new markets, increase your profits, and provide your customers with a direct line of communication. With the help of Absolute App Labs - One of the Best Mobile app development companies in Chennai, you'll be able to bring your business's vision to life and reach new customers all over the world.
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QUESTION 46 Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.) A.The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters. B.Message filters configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters. C.The filterconfig command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters. D.Message filters can be configured only from the CLI. E.Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface. Answer: AD QUESTION 47 What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies? A.message splintering B.message exceptions C.message detachment D.message aggregation Answer: A QUESTION 48 Which default port is used by the Cisco ESA to quarantine the message on the Cisco Security Management Appliance? A.port 25fTCP B.port110/TCP C.port443/TCP D.port 6025/TCP E.port4766/UDP Answer: D QUESTION 49 When configuring CRES, where do you enable read receipts? A.In the encryption profile B.In the content filter condition menu C.In the content filter action menu D.In the mail policy Answer: A QUESTION 50 Which type of query must be configured when setting up the Spam Quarantine while merging notifications? A.Spam Quarantine Alias Routing Query B.Spam Quarantine Alias Consolidation Query C.Spam Quarantine Alias Authentication Query D.Spam Quarantine Alias Masquerading Query Answer: B QUESTION 51 Which two factors must be considered when message filter processing is configured? (Choose two.) A.message-filter order B.lateral processing C.structure of the combined packet D.mail policies E.MIME structure of the message Answer: AE QUESTION 52 How does the graymail safe unsubscribe feature function? A.It strips the malicious content of the URI before unsubscribing. B.It checks the URI reputation and category and allows the content filter to take an action on it. C.It redirects the end user who clicks the unsubscribe button to a sandbox environment to allow a safe unsubscribe. D.It checks the reputation of the URI and performs the unsubscribe process on behalf of the end user. Answer: D QUESTION 53 Which method enables an engineer to deliver a flagged message to a specific virtual gateway address in the most flexible way? A.Set up the interface group with the flag. B.Issue the altsrchost command. C.Map the envelope sender address to the host. D.Apply a filter on the message. Answer: D QUESTION 54 An administrator is trying to enable centralized PVO but receives the error, "Unable to proceed with Centralized Policy, Virus and Outbreak Quarantines configuration as esa1 in Cluster has content filters / DLP actions available at a level different from the cluster level." What is the cause of this error? A.Content filters are configured at the machine-level on esa1. B.DLP is configured at the cluster-level on esa2. C.DLP is configured at the domain-level on esa1. D.DLP is not configured on host1. Answer: A QUESTION 55 Which feature must be configured before an administrator can use the outbreak filter for nonviral threats? A.quarantine threat level B.antispam C.data loss prevention D.antivirus Answer: B QUESTION 56 Which type of attack is prevented by configuring file reputation filtering and file analysis features? A.denial of service B.zero-day C.backscatter D.phishing Answer: B QUESTION 57 Which two service problems can the Cisco Email Security Appliance solve? (Choose two.) A.DLP B.IPS C.Antispam D.URL filtering Answer: AC QUESTION 58 Which of the following types of DNS records deals with mail delivery for a specific domain? A.A B.TXT C.MX D.PTR Answer: C QUESTION 59 When DKIM signing is configured, which DNS record must be updated to load the DKIM public signing key? A.AAAA record B.PTR record C.TXT record D.MX record Answer: C QUESTION 60 Which attack is mitigated by using Bounce Verification? A.spoof B.denial of service C.eavesdropping D.smurf Answer: B QUESTION 61 When outbreak filters are configured, which two actions are used to protect users from outbreaks? (Choose two.) A.redirect B.return C.drop D.delay E.abandon Answer: AD QUESTION 62 Which two features are applied to either incoming or outgoing mail policies? (Choose two.) A.Indication of Compromise B.application filtering C.outbreak filters D.sender reputation filtering E.antivirus Answer: CE QUESTION 63 What must be configured to allow the Cisco ESA to encrypt an email using the Cisco Registered Envelope Service? A.provisioned email encryption profile B.message encryption from a content filter that select "Message Encryption" over TLS C.message encryption from the mail flow policies with "CRES" selected D.content filter to forward the email to the Cisco Registered Envelope server Answer: A QUESTION 64 Which two configurations are used on multiple LDAP servers to connect with Cisco ESA? (Choose two.) A.load balancing B.SLA monitor C.active-standby D.failover E.active-active Answer: AD QUESTION 65 What is the default port to deliver emails from the Cisco ESA to the Cisco SMA using the centralized Spam Quarantine? A.8025 B.6443 C.6025 D.8443 Answer: C QUESTION 66 Which two steps are needed to disable local spam quarantine before external quarantine is enabled? (Choose two.) A.Uncheck the Enable Spam Quarantine check box. B.Select Monitor and click Spam Quarantine. C.Check the External Safelist/Blocklist check box. D.Select External Spam Quarantine and click on Configure. E.Select Security Services and click Spam Quarantine. Answer: AB QUESTION 67 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the steps to configure Cisco ESA to use SPF/SIDF verification from the left into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 68 Drag and Drop Question An Encryption Profile has been set up on the Cisco ESA. Drag and drop the steps from the left for creating an outgoing content filter to encrypt emails that contains the subject "Secure:" into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 69 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the Cisco ESA reactions to a possible DLP from the left onto the correct action types on the right. Answer: QUESTION 70 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the AsyncOS methods for performing DMARC verification from the left into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 71 A network administrator is modifying an outgoing mail policy to enable domain protection for the organization. A DNS entry is created that has the public key. Which two headers will be used as matching criteria in the outgoing mail policy? (Choose two.) A.message-ID B.sender C.URL reputation D.from E.mail-from Answer: BD QUESTION 72 To comply with a recent audit, an engineer must configure anti-virus message handling options on the incoming mail policies to attach warnings to the subject of an email. What should be configured to meet this requirement for known viral emails? A.Virus Infected Messages B.Unscannable Messages C.Encrypted Messages D.Positively Identified Messages Answer: C QUESTION 73 An administrator is managing multiple Cisco ESA devices and wants to view the quarantine emails from all devices in a central location. How is this accomplished? A.Disable the VOF feature before sending SPAM to the external quarantine. B.Configure a mail policy to determine whether the message is sent to the local or external quarantine. C.Disable the local quarantine before sending SPAM to the external quarantine. D.Configure a user policy to determine whether the message is sent to the local or external quarantine. Answer: B QUESTION 74 A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy match using a specific sender, the email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason of this? A.The Tram* header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. B.The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion. C.The To" header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. D.The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion. Answer: D QUESTION 75 An administrator identifies that, over the past week, the Cisco ESA is receiving many emails from certain senders and domains which are being consistently quarantined. The administrator wants to ensure that these senders and domain are unable to send anymore emails. Which feature on Cisco ESA should be used to achieve this? A.incoming mail policies B.safelist C.blocklist D.S/MIME Sending Profile Answer: A QUESTION 76 An engineer is testing mail flow on a new Cisco ESA and notices that messages for domain abc.com are stuck in the delivery queue. Upon further investigation, the engineer notices that the messages pending delivery are destined for 192.168.1.11, when they should instead be routed to 192.168.1.10. What configuration change needed to address this issue? A.Add an address list for domain abc.com. B.Modify Destination Controls entry for the domain abc.com. C.Modify the SMTP route for the domain and change the IP address to 192.168.1.10. D.Modify the Routing Tables and add a route for IP address to 192.168.1.10. Answer: C 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-720 PDF and 300-720 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1CWQxEgDC6s96s0xdef_OXd8TQRMElfP0?usp=sharing