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2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF Dumps(Q46-Q76)
QUESTION 46 A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.) A.incident response playbooks B.asset vulnerability assessment C.report of staff members with asset relations D.key assets and executives E.malware analysis report Answer: BE QUESTION 47 Refer to the exhibit. At which stage of the threat kill chain is an attacker, based on these URIs of inbound web requests from known malicious Internet scanners? A.exploitation B.actions on objectives C.delivery D.reconnaissance Answer: C QUESTION 48 What should a security analyst consider when comparing inline traffic interrogation with traffic tapping to determine which approach to use in the network? A.Tapping interrogation replicates signals to a separate port for analyzing traffic B.Tapping interrogations detect and block malicious traffic C.Inline interrogation enables viewing a copy of traffic to ensure traffic is in compliance with security policies D.Inline interrogation detects malicious traffic but does not block the traffic Answer: A QUESTION 49 Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.) A.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3 B.Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network C.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections D.Move the webserver to the internal network E.Move the webserver to the external network Answer: AB QUESTION 50 According to GDPR, what should be done with data to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability? A.Perform a vulnerability assessment B.Conduct a data protection impact assessment C.Conduct penetration testing D.Perform awareness testing Answer: B QUESTION 51 A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow? A.Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker's motives, and identify missing patches B.Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody C.Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited D.Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation plan Answer: B QUESTION 52 A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching? A.Identify the business applications running on the assets B.Update software to patch third-party software C.Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit D.Fix applications according to the risk scores Answer: D QUESTION 53 An engineer is analyzing a possible compromise that happened a week ago when the company database servers unexpectedly went down. The analysis reveals that attackers tampered with Microsoft SQL Server Resolution Protocol and launched a DDoS attack. The engineer must act quickly to ensure that all systems are protected. Which two tools should be used to detect and mitigate this type of future attack? (Choose two.) A.firewall B.Wireshark C.autopsy D.SHA512 E.IPS Answer: AE QUESTION 54 A European-based advertisement company collects tracking information from partner websites and stores it on a local server to provide tailored ads. Which standard must the company follow to safeguard the resting data? A.HIPAA B.PCI-DSS C.Sarbanes-Oxley D.GDPR Answer: D QUESTION 55 An organization had a breach due to a phishing attack. An engineer leads a team through the recovery phase of the incident response process. Which action should be taken during this phase? A.Host a discovery meeting and define configuration and policy updates B.Update the IDS/IPS signatures and reimage the affected hosts C.Identify the systems that have been affected and tools used to detect the attack D.Identify the traffic with data capture using Wireshark and review email filters Answer: B QUESTION 56 An engineer is going through vulnerability triage with company management because of a recent malware outbreak from which 21 affected assets need to be patched or remediated. Management decides not to prioritize fixing the assets and accepts the vulnerabilities. What is the next step the engineer should take? A.Investigate the vulnerability to prevent further spread B.Acknowledge the vulnerabilities and document the risk C.Apply vendor patches or available hot fixes D.Isolate the assets affected in a separate network Answer: B QUESTION 57 A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs. Which technology should be used to accomplish this task? A.application whitelisting/blacklisting B.network NGFW C.host-based IDS D.antivirus/antispyware software Answer: A QUESTION 58 Which command does an engineer use to set read/write/execute access on a folder for everyone who reaches the resource? A.chmod 666 B.chmod 774 C.chmod 775 D.chmod 777 Answer: D QUESTION 59 A SIEM tool fires an alert about a VPN connection attempt from an unusual location. The incident response team validates that an attacker has installed a remote access tool on a user's laptop while traveling. The attacker has the user's credentials and is attempting to connect to the network. What is the next step in handling the incident? A.Block the source IP from the firewall B.Perform an antivirus scan on the laptop C.Identify systems or services at risk D.Identify lateral movement Answer: C QUESTION 60 A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company's infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage? A.Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches B.Analyze event logs and restrict network access C.Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity D.Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list Answer: A QUESTION 61 A patient views information that is not theirs when they sign in to the hospital's online portal. The patient calls the support center at the hospital but continues to be put on hold because other patients are experiencing the same issue. An incident has been declared, and an engineer is now on the incident bridge as the CyberOps Tier 3 Analyst. There is a concern about the disclosure of PII occurring in real- time. What is the first step the analyst should take to address this incident? A.Evaluate visibility tools to determine if external access resulted in tampering B.Contact the third-party handling provider to respond to the incident as critical C.Turn off all access to the patient portal to secure patient records D.Review system and application logs to identify errors in the portal code Answer: C QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script? A.Seeds for existing domains are checked B.A search is conducted for additional seeds C.Domains are compared to seed rules D.A list of domains as seeds is blocked Answer: B QUESTION 63 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is reverse engineering a suspicious file by examining its resources. What does this file indicate? A.a DOS MZ executable format B.a MS-DOS executable archive C.an archived malware D.a Windows executable file Answer: D QUESTION 64 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing a static analysis on a malware and knows that it is capturing keys and webcam events on a company server. What is the indicator of compromise? A.The malware is performing comprehensive fingerprinting of the host, including a processor, motherboard manufacturer, and connected removable storage. B.The malware is a ransomware querying for installed anti-virus products and operating systems to encrypt and render unreadable until payment is made for file decryption. C.The malware has moved to harvesting cookies and stored account information from major browsers and configuring a reverse proxy for intercepting network activity. D.The malware contains an encryption and decryption routine to hide URLs/IP addresses and is storing the output of loggers and webcam captures in locally encrypted files for retrieval. Answer: D QUESTION 65 An audit is assessing a small business that is selling automotive parts and diagnostic services. Due to increased customer demands, the company recently started to accept credit card payments and acquired a POS terminal. Which compliance regulations must the audit apply to the company? A.HIPAA B.FISMA C.COBIT D.PCI DSS Answer: D QUESTION 66 A customer is using a central device to manage network devices over SNMPv2. A remote attacker caused a denial of service condition and can trigger this vulnerability by issuing a GET request for the ciscoFlashMIB OID on an affected device. Which should be disabled to resolve the issue? A.SNMPv2 B.TCP small services C.port UDP 161 and 162 D.UDP small services Answer: A QUESTION 67 Refer to the exhibit. Which indicator of compromise is represented by this STIX? A.website redirecting traffic to ransomware server B.website hosting malware to download files C.web server vulnerability exploited by malware D.cross-site scripting vulnerability to backdoor server Answer: B QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring in this packet capture? A.TCP port scan B.TCP flood C.DNS flood D.DNS tunneling Answer: B QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling? A.The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices B.Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution C.Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority D.Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution Answer: B QUESTION 70 The incident response team receives information about the abnormal behavior of a host. A malicious file is found being executed from an external USB flash drive. The team collects and documents all the necessary evidence from the computing resource. What is the next step? A.Conduct a risk assessment of systems and applications B.Isolate the infected host from the rest of the subnet C.Install malware prevention software on the host D.Analyze network traffic on the host's subnet Answer: B QUESTION 71 An organization had several cyberattacks over the last 6 months and has tasked an engineer with looking for patterns or trends that will help the organization anticipate future attacks and mitigate them. Which data analytic technique should the engineer use to accomplish this task? A.diagnostic B.qualitative C.predictive D.statistical Answer: C QUESTION 72 A malware outbreak is detected by the SIEM and is confirmed as a true positive. The incident response team follows the playbook to mitigate the threat. What is the first action for the incident response team? A.Assess the network for unexpected behavior B.Isolate critical hosts from the network C.Patch detected vulnerabilities from critical hosts D.Perform analysis based on the established risk factors Answer: B QUESTION 73 Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report? A.Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified B.Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified C.Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified D.Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected Answer: D QUESTION 74 An organization is using a PKI management server and a SOAR platform to manage the certificate lifecycle. The SOAR platform queries a certificate management tool to check all endpoints for SSL certificates that have either expired or are nearing expiration. Engineers are struggling to manage problematic certificates outside of PKI management since deploying certificates and tracking them requires searching server owners manually. Which action will improve workflow automation? A.Implement a new workflow within SOAR to create tickets in the incident response system, assign problematic certificate update requests to server owners, and register change requests. B.Integrate a PKI solution within SOAR to create certificates within the SOAR engines to track, update, and monitor problematic certificates. C.Implement a new workflow for SOAR to fetch a report of assets that are outside of the PKI zone, sort assets by certification management leads and automate alerts that updates are needed. D.Integrate a SOAR solution with Active Directory to pull server owner details from the AD and send an automated email for problematic certificates requesting updates. Answer: D QUESTION 75 Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is being used? A.JSON B.HTML C.XML D.CSV Answer: C QUESTION 76 The incident response team was notified of detected malware. The team identified the infected hosts, removed the malware, restored the functionality and data of infected systems, and planned a company meeting to improve the incident handling capability. Which step was missed according to the NIST incident handling guide? A.Contain the malware B.Install IPS software C.Determine the escalation path D.Perform vulnerability assessment Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF and 350-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1AxXpeiNddgUeSboJXzaOVsnt5wFFoDnO?usp=sharing
2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-710 PDF Dumps(Q106-Q136)
QUESTION 106 An organization is setting up two new Cisco FTD devices to replace their current firewalls and cannot have any network downtime. During the setup process, the synchronization between the two devices is failing. What action is needed to resolve this issue? A.Confirm that both devices have the same port-channel numbering B.Confirm that both devices are running the same software version C.Confirm that both devices are configured with the same types of interfaces D.Confirm that both devices have the same flash memory sizes Answer: D QUESTION 107 There is an increased amount of traffic on the network and for compliance reasons, management needs visibility into the encrypted traffic. What is a result of enabling TLS'SSL decryption to allow this visibility? A.It prompts the need for a corporate managed certificate B.It has minimal performance impact C.It is not subject to any Privacy regulations D.It will fail if certificate pinning is not enforced Answer: A QUESTION 108 An organization wants to secure traffic from their branch office to the headquarter building using Cisco Firepower devices, They want to ensure that their Cisco Firepower devices are not wasting resources on inspecting the VPN traffic. What must be done to meet these requirements? A.Configure the Cisco Firepower devices to ignore the VPN traffic using prefilter policies B.Enable a flexconfig policy to re-classify VPN traffic so that it no longer appears as interesting traffic C.Configure the Cisco Firepower devices to bypass the access control policies for VPN traffic. D.Tune the intrusion policies in order to allow the VPN traffic through without inspection Answer: C QUESTION 109 A network administrator is seeing an unknown verdict for a file detected by Cisco FTD. Which malware policy configuration option must be selected in order to further analyse the file in the Talos cloud? A.Spero analysis B.Malware analysis C.Dynamic analysis D.Sandbox analysis Answer: C QUESTION 110 An engineer has been tasked with providing disaster recovery for an organization's primary Cisco FMC. What must be done on the primary and secondary Cisco FMCs to ensure that a copy of the original corporate policy is available if the primary Cisco FMC fails? A.Configure high-availability in both the primary and secondary Cisco FMCs B.Connect the primary and secondary Cisco FMC devices with Category 6 cables of not more than 10 meters in length. C.Place the active Cisco FMC device on the same trusted management network as the standby device D.Restore the primary Cisco FMC backup configuration to the secondary Cisco FMC device when the primary device fails Answer: A QUESTION 111 An engineer is attempting to add a new FTD device to their FMC behind a NAT device with a NAT ID of ACME001 and a password of Cisco388267669. Which command set must be used in order to accomplish this? A.configure manager add ACME001 <registration key> <FMC IP> B.configure manager add <FMC IP> ACME0O1 <registration key> C.configure manager add DONTRESOLVE <FMC IP> AMCE001 <registration key> D.configure manager add <FMC IP> registration key> ACME001 Answer: D QUESTION 112 Refer to the exhibit. An organization has an access control rule with the intention of sending all social media traffic for inspection. After using the rule for some time, the administrator notices that the traffic is not being inspected, but is being automatically allowed. What must be done to address this issue? A.Modify the selected application within the rule B.Change the intrusion policy to connectivity over security. C.Modify the rule action from trust to allow D.Add the social network URLs to the block list Answer: C QUESTION 113 A user within an organization opened a malicious file on a workstation which in turn caused a ransomware attack on the network. What should be configured within the Cisco FMC to ensure the file is tested for viruses on a sandbox system? A.Capacity handling B.Local malware analysis C.Spere analysis D.Dynamic analysis Answer: D QUESTION 114 An engineer configures a network discovery policy on Cisco FMC. Upon configuration, it is noticed that excessive and misleading events filing the database and overloading the Cisco FMC. A monitored NAT device is executing multiple updates of its operating system in a short period of time. What configuration change must be made to alleviate this issue? A.Leave default networks. B.Change the method to TCP/SYN. C.Increase the number of entries on the NAT device. D.Exclude load balancers and NAT devices. Answer: D QUESTION 115 administrator is configuring SNORT inspection policies and is seeing failed deployment messages in Cisco FMC. What information should the administrator generate for Cisco TAC to help troubleshoot? A.A Troubleshoot" file for the device in question. B.A "show tech" file for the device in question C.A "show tech" for the Cisco FMC. D.A "troubleshoot" file for the Cisco FMC Answer: D QUESTION 117 A network engineer is receiving reports of users randomly getting disconnected from their corporate applications which traverses the data center FTD appliance Network monitoring tools show that the FTD appliance utilization is peaking above 90% of total capacity. What must be done in order to further analyze this issue? A.Use the Packet Export feature to save data onto external drives B.Use the Packet Capture feature to collect real-time network traffic C.Use the Packet Tracer feature for traffic policy analysis D.Use the Packet Analysis feature for capturing network data Answer: B QUESTION 118 IT management is asking the network engineer to provide high-level summary statistics of the Cisco FTD appliance in the network. The business is approaching a peak season so the need to maintain business uptime is high. Which report type should be used to gather this information? A.Malware Report B.Standard Report C.SNMP Report D.Risk Report Answer: D QUESTION 119 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is looking at some of the reporting capabilities for Cisco Firepower and noticed this section of the Network Risk report showing a lot of SSL activity that cloud be used for evasion. Which action will mitigate this risk? A.Use SSL decryption to analyze the packets. B.Use encrypted traffic analytics to detect attacks C.Use Cisco AMP for Endpoints to block all SSL connection D.Use Cisco Tetration to track SSL connections to servers. Answer: A QUESTION 120 An administrator is setting up Cisco Firepower to send data to the Cisco Stealthwatch appliances. The NetFlow_Set_Parameters object is already created, but NetFlow is not being sent to the flow collector. What must be done to prevent this from occurring? A.Add the NetFlow_Send_Destination object to the configuration B.Create a Security Intelligence object to send the data to Cisco Stealthwatch C.Create a service identifier to enable the NetFlow service D.Add the NetFlow_Add_Destination object to the configuration Answer: D QUESTION 121 With a recent summer time change, system logs are showing activity that occurred to be an hour behind real time. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue? A.Manually adjust the time to the correct hour on all managed devices B.Configure the system clock settings to use NTP with Daylight Savings checked C.Manually adjust the time to the correct hour on the Cisco FMC. D.Configure the system clock settings to use NTP Answer: D QUESTION 122 A network administrator notices that SI events are not being updated The Cisco FTD device is unable to load all of the SI event entries and traffic is not being blocked as expected. What must be done to correct this issue? A.Restart the affected devices in order to reset the configurations B.Manually update the SI event entries to that the appropriate traffic is blocked C.Replace the affected devices with devices that provide more memory D.Redeploy configurations to affected devices so that additional memory is allocated to the SI module Answer: D QUESTION 123 Refer to the exhibit. What must be done to fix access to this website while preventing the same communication to all other websites? A.Create an intrusion policy rule to have Snort allow port 80 to only 172.1.1.50. B.Create an intrusion policy rule to have Snort allow port 443 to only 172.1.1.50. C.Create an access control policy rule to allow port 443 to only 172.1.1.50. D.Create an access control policy rule to allow port 80 to only 172.1.1.50. Answer: D QUESTION 124 A network administrator discovers that a user connected to a file server and downloaded a malware file. The Cisc FMC generated an alert for the malware event, however the user still remained connected. Which Cisco APM file rule action within the Cisco FMC must be set to resolve this issue? A.Detect Files B.Malware Cloud Lookup C.Local Malware Analysis D.Reset Connection Answer: D QUESTION 125 Which feature within the Cisco FMC web interface allows for detecting, analyzing and blocking malware in network traffic? A.intrusion and file events B.Cisco AMP for Endpoints C.Cisco AMP for Networks D.file policies Answer: C QUESTION 126 Which license type is required on Cisco ISE to integrate with Cisco FMC pxGrid? A.mobility B.plus C.base D.apex Answer: C QUESTION 127 A network engineer wants to add a third-party threat feed into the Cisco FMC for enhanced threat detection Which action should be taken to accomplish this goal? A.Enable Threat Intelligence Director using STIX and TAXII B.Enable Rapid Threat Containment using REST APIs C.Enable Threat Intelligence Director using REST APIs D.Enable Rapid Threat Containment using STIX and TAXII Answer: A QUESTION 128 What is a feature of Cisco AMP private cloud? A.It supports anonymized retrieval of threat intelligence B.It supports security intelligence filtering. C.It disables direct connections to the public cloud. D.It performs dynamic analysis Answer: C QUESTION 129 An engineer has been tasked with using Cisco FMC to determine if files being sent through the network are malware. Which two configuration tasks must be performed to achieve this file lookup? (Choose two.) A.The Cisco FMC needs to include a SSL decryption policy. B.The Cisco FMC needs to connect to the Cisco AMP for Endpoints service. C.The Cisco FMC needs to connect to the Cisco ThreatGrid service directly for sandboxing. D.The Cisco FMC needs to connect with the FireAMP Cloud. E.The Cisco FMC needs to include a file inspection policy for malware lookup. Answer: AE QUESTION 130 An organization is using a Cisco FTD and Cisco ISE to perform identity-based access controls. A network administrator is analyzing the Cisco FTD events and notices that unknown user traffic is being allowed through the firewall. How should this be addressed to block the traffic while allowing legitimate user traffic? A.Modify the Cisco ISE authorization policy to deny this access to the user. B.Modify Cisco ISE to send only legitimate usernames to the Cisco FTD. C.Add the unknown user in the Access Control Policy in Cisco FTD. D.Add the unknown user in the Malware & File Policy in Cisco FTD. Answer: C QUESTION 131 An engineer is restoring a Cisco FTD configuration from a remote backup using the command restore remote-manager-backup location 1.1.1.1 admin /volume/home/admin BACKUP_Cisc394602314.zip on a Cisco FMG. After connecting to the repository, an error occurred that prevents the FTD device from accepting the backup file. What is the problem? A.The backup file is not in .cfg format. B.The backup file is too large for the Cisco FTD device C.The backup file extension was changed from tar to zip D.The backup file was not enabled prior to being applied Answer: C QUESTION 132 A network engineer is logged into the Cisco AMP for Endpoints console and sees a malicious verdict for an identified SHA-256 hash. Which configuration is needed to mitigate this threat? A.Add the hash to the simple custom deletion list. B.Use regular expressions to block the malicious file. C.Enable a personal firewall in the infected endpoint. D.Add the hash from the infected endpoint to the network block list. Answer: A QUESTION 133 A network engineer implements a new Cisco Firepower device on the network to take advantage of its intrusion detection functionality. There is a requirement to analyze the traffic going across the device, alert on any malicious traffic, and appear as a bump in the wire How should this be implemented? A.Specify the BVl IP address as the default gateway for connected devices. B.Enable routing on the Cisco Firepower C.Add an IP address to the physical Cisco Firepower interfaces. D.Configure a bridge group in transparent mode. Answer: D QUESTION 134 An organization has a Cisco IPS running in inline mode and is inspecting traffic for malicious activity. When traffic is received by the Cisco IRS, if it is not dropped, how does the traffic get to its destination? A.It is retransmitted from the Cisco IPS inline set. B.The packets are duplicated and a copy is sent to the destination. C.It is transmitted out of the Cisco IPS outside interface. D.It is routed back to the Cisco ASA interfaces for transmission. Answer: A QUESTION 135 A network administrator is concerned about the high number of malware files affecting users' machines. What must be done within the access control policy in Cisco FMC to address this concern? A.Create an intrusion policy and set the access control policy to block. B.Create an intrusion policy and set the access control policy to allow. C.Create a file policy and set the access control policy to allow. D.Create a file policy and set the access control policy to block. Answer: C QUESTION 136 An engineer is investigating connectivity problems on Cisco Firepower that is using service group tags. Specific devices are not being tagged correctly, which is preventing clients from using the proper policies when going through the firewall How is this issue resolved? A.Use traceroute with advanced options. B.Use Wireshark with an IP subnet filter. C.Use a packet capture with match criteria. D.Use a packet sniffer with correct filtering Answer: C 2022 Latest Braindump2go 300-710 PDF and 300-710 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1k8dhswD5V9ioQSctkVOlp0ooiELn46gL?usp=sharing
2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF Dumps(Q83-Q120)
QUESTION 83 Which statement about hot-potato routing architecture design is true? A.Hot-potato routing is the preferred architecture when connecting to content providers B.Hop-potato keeps traffic under the control of the network administrator for longer C.OSPF uses hot-potato routing if all ASBRs use the same value for the external metric D.Hot-potato routing is prone to misconfiguration as well as poor coordination between two networks Answer: A QUESTION 84 Two enterprise networks must be connected together. Both networks are using the same private IP addresses. The client requests from both sides should be translated using hide NAT (dynamic NAT) with the overload feature to save IF addresses from the NAT pools. Which design addresses this requirement using only one Cisco I OS NAT router for both directions? A.This is not possible, because two Cisco IOS NAT routers are required to do dynamic NAT, with overload in both directions. B.The ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands must be configured at the interfaces with the overload option in both directions. C.The overload feature is the default and does not have to be configured. D.Two different NAT pools must be used for the ip nat inside source and the ip nat outside source commands for the overload feature in both directions. E.The Nat Virtual interface must be used to achieve this requirement. Answer: D QUESTION 85 Refer to the exhibit. As part of a redesign project, you must predict multicast behavior. What happens to the multicast traffic received on the shared tree (*,G), if it is received on the LHR interface indicated*? A.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPF check against the multicast source B.It is switched give that no RPF check is performed C.It is switched due to a successful RPF check against the routing table D.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPk8t8ck against the multicast receiver. Answer: A QUESTION 86 A BGP route reflector in the network is taking longer than expected to coverage during large network changes. Troubleshooting shows that the router cannot handle all the TCP acknowledgements during route updates. Which action can be performed to tune the device performance? A.Increase the size of the hold queue. B.Increase the size of the large buffers. C.Decrease the size of the small buffers. D.Increase the keepalive timers for each BGP neighbor. Answer: A QUESTION 87 Which two application requirements are mandatory tor traffic to receive proper treatment when placed in the priority queue? (Choose two.) A.small transactions (HTTP-like behavior) B.WRED drop treatment C.tolerance to packet loss D.intolerance to jitter E.TCP-based application Answer: CD QUESTION 88 Which two conditions must be met for EIGRP to maintain an alternate loop-free path to a remote network? (Choose two.) A.The Reported Distance from a successor is lower than the local Feasible Distance. B.The Reported Distance from a successor is higher than the local Feasible Distance. C.The feasibility condition does not need to be met. D.The Feasible Distance from a successor is lower than the local Reported Distance. E.A feasible successor must be present. Answer: AE QUESTION 89 You are designing a new Ethernet-based metro-area network for an enterprise customer to connect 50 sites within the same city OSPF will be the routing protocol used. The customer is primarily concerned with IPv4 address conservation and convergence time. Which two combined actions do you recommend? (Choose two) A.Use a multipoint Metro-E service for router connections B.Use a single address per router for all P2P links C.Use P2P links between routers in a hub-and-spoke design D.Configure address aggregation at each site router E.Determine which OSPF routers will be DR/BDR Answer: AC QUESTION 90 Which two statements about MLD snooping are true? (Choose two) A.When MLD snooping is enabled, QoS is automatically enabled. B.A VLAN can support multiple active MLD snooping queries, as long as each one is associated to a different multicast group. C.AN MLD snooping querier election occurs when any MLD snooping querier goes down or if there is an IP address change on the active querier. D.When multiple MLD snooping queriers are enabled in a VLAN, the querier with the lowest IP address in the VLAN is elected as the active MLD snooping querier. Answer: CD QUESTION 91 Which two design option are available to dynamically discover the RP in an IPv6 multicast network? (Choose two) A.embedded RP B.MSDP C.BSR D.Auto-RP E.MLD Answer: AC QUESTION 92 Company A has a hub-and spoke topology over an SP-managed infrastructure. To measure traffic performance metrics. IP SLA senders on all spoke CE routers and an IP SLA responder on the hub CE router. What must they monitor to have visibility on the potential performance impact due to the constantly increasing number of spoke sites? A.memory usage on the hub router B.interface buffers on the hub and spoke routers C.CPU and memory usage on the spoke routers D.CPU usage on the hub router Answer: D QUESTION 93 Which two descriptions of CWDM are true? (Choose two) A.typically used over long distances, but requires optical amplification B.uses the 850nm band C.allows up to 32 optical earners to be multiplexed onto a single fiber D.shares the same transmission window as DWDM E.Passive CWDM devices require no electrical power Answer: DE QUESTION 94 SDWAN networks capitalize the usage of broadband Internet links over traditional MPLS links to offer more cost benefits to enterprise customers. However, due to the insecure nature of the public Internet, it is mandatory to use encryption of traffic between any two SDWAN edge devices installed behind NAT gateways. Which overlay method can provide optimal transport over unreliable underlay networks that are behind NAT gateways? A.TLS B.DTLS C.IPsec D.GRE Answer: C QUESTION 95 Company XYZ runs OSPF in their network. A design engineer decides to implement hot-potato routing architecture. How can this implementation be achieved? A.Enable iBGP and apply prepend to ensure all prefixes will have the same length of the AS path attribute value. B.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure the total metric calculation includes only the ext value and the value is the same in all ASBRs. C.Enable OSPF load-balancing over unequal cost path. D.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure that the total metric calculation includes external internal values. Answer: D QUESTION 96 What are two primary design constraints when a robust infrastructure solution is created? (Choose two.) A.monitoring capabilities B.project time frame C.staff experience D.component availability E.total cost Answer: BE QUESTION 97 SD-WAN can be used to provide secure connectivity to remote offices, branch offices, campus networks, data centers, and the cloud over any type of IP-based underlay transport network. Which two statements describe SD WAN solutions? (Choose two.) A.SD-WAN networks are inherently protected against slow performance. B.Control and data forwarding planes are kept separate. C.Improved operational efficiencies result In cost savings. D.Solutions include centralized orchestration, control, and zero-touch provisioning. E.Solutions allow for variations of commodity and specialized switching hardware. Answer: CD QUESTION 98 An architect designs a multi-controller network architecture with these requirements: - Achieve fast failover to control traffic when controllers fail. - Yield a short distance and high resiliency in the connection between the switches and the controller. - Reduce connectivity loss and enable smart recovery to improve the SDN survivability. - Improve connectivity by adding path diversity and capacity awareness for controllers. Which control plane component of the multi-controller must be built to meet the requirements? A.control node reliability B.controller stale consistency C.control path reliability D.controller clustering Answer: D QUESTION 99 Company XYZ is planning to deploy primary and secondary (disaster recovery) data center sites. Each of these sites will have redundant SAN fabrics and data protection is expected between the data center sites. The sites are 100 miles (160 km) apart and target RPO/RTO are 3 hrs and 24 hrs, respectively. Which two considerations must Company XYZ bear in mind when deploying replication in their scenario? (Choose two.) A.Target RPO/RTO requirements cannot be met due to the one-way delay introduced by the distance between sites. B.VSANs must be routed between sites to isolate fault domains and increase overall availability. C.Synchronous data replication must be used to meet the business requirements. D.Asynchronous data replication should be used in this scenario to avoid performance impact in the primary site. E.VSANs must be extended from the primary to the secondary site to improve performance and availability. Answer: CD Explanation: RPO and RTO tend to vary based on the application involved. These metrics tend to fluctuate between data that cannot be lost (i.e., low RPO but high RTO) such as financial and healthcare data as well as real-time systems that cannot be down (i.e., high RPO but low RTO) such as an E-commerce web server. QUESTION 100 Which undesired effect of increasing the jitter compensation buffer is true? A.The overall transport jitter decreases and quality improves. B.The overall transport jitter increases and quality issues can occur. C.The overall transport delay increases and quality issues can occur. D.The overall transport delay decreases and quality improves. Answer: C QUESTION 101 Which three tools are used for ongoing monitoring and maintenance of a voice and video environment? (Choose three.) A.flow-based analysis to measure bandwidth mix of applications and their flows B.call management analysis to identify network convergence-related failures C.call management analysis to identify CAC failures and call quality issues D.active monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter E.passive monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter F.flow-based analysis with PTP time-stamping to measure loss, latency, and jitter Answer: ACD QUESTION 102 Which two advantages of using DWDM over traditional optical networks are true? (Choose two.) A.inherent topology flexibility and service protection provided without penalty through intelligent oversubscription of bandwidth reservation B.ability to expand bandwidth over existing optical Infrastructure C.inherent topology flexibility with built-in service protection D.inherent topology flexibility with intelligent chromatic dispersion E.inherent topology flexibility with a service protection provided through a direct integration with an upper layer protocol Answer: AB QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. This network is running OSPF and EIGRP as the routing protocols. Mutual redistribution of the routing protocols has been configured on the appropriate ASBRs. The OSPF network must be designed so that flapping routes in EIGRP domains do not affect the SPF runs within OSPF. The design solution must not affect the way EIGRP routes are propagated into the EIGRP domains. Which technique accomplishes the requirement? A.route summarization the ASBR interfaces facing the OSPF domain B.route summarization on the appropriate ASBRS. C.route summarization on the appropriate ABRS. D.route summarization on EIDRP routers connecting toward the ASBR Answer: D QUESTION 104 Company XYZ is running OSPF in their network. They have merged with another company that is running EIGRP as the routing protocol. Company XYZ now needs the two domains to talk to each other with redundancy, while maintaining a loop free environment. The solution must scale when new networks are added into the network in the near future. Which technology can be used to meet these requirements? A.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs B.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags C.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags D.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs Answer: B QUESTION 105 Company XYZ is in the process of identifying which transport mechanism(s) to use as their WAN technology. Their main two requirements are. - a technology that could offer DPI, SLA, secure tunnels, privacy, QoS, scalability, reliability, and ease of management - a technology that is cost-effective Which WAN technology(ies) should be included in the design of company XYZ? A.Software-defined WAN should be the preferred choice because it complements both technologies, covers all the required features, and it is the most cost-effective solution. B.Internet should be the preferred option because it is cost effective and supports BFD, IP SLA. and IPsec for secure transport over the public Internet. C.Both technologies should be used. Each should be used to back up the other one; where the primary links are MPLS, the internet should be used as a backup link with IPsec (and vice versa). D.MPLS meets all these requirements and it is more reliable than using the Internet. It is widely used with defined best practices and an industry standard. Answer: A QUESTION 106 Which MPLS TE design consideration is true? A.MPLS TE replaces LDP and the dependency of the IGP to identify the best path. B.MPLS TE provides link and node protection C.MPLS TE optimizes the routing of IP traffic, given the constraints imposed by backbone capacity and application requirements. D.MPLS TE requires Layer 3 VPN full-mesh topology deployment Answer: C QUESTION 107 The network designer needs to use GLOP IP address in order make them unique within their ASN, which multicast address range will be considered? A.239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 B.224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 C.233.0.0.0 to 233.255.255.255 D.232.0.0.0 to 232.255.255.255 Answer: C QUESTION 108 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right. Answer: QUESTION 109 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the end-to-end network virtualization elements from the left onto the correct network areas on the right. Answer: QUESTION 110 Which two data plane hardening techniques are true? (Choose two) A.warning banners B.redundant AAA servers C.Control Plane Policing D.SNMPv3 E.infrastructure ACLs F.disable unused services G.routing protocol authentication Answer: CE QUESTION 111 You have been asked to design a high-density wireless network for a university campus. Which two principles would you apply in order to maximize the wireless network capacity? (Choose two.) A.Implement a four-channel design on 2.4 GHz to increase the number of available channels B.Choose a high minimum data rate to reduce the duty cycle. C.increases the number of SSlDs to load-balance the client traffic. D.Make use of the 5-GHz band to reduce the spectrum utilization on 2.4 GHz when dual-band clients are used. E.Enable 802.11n channel bonding on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz to increase the maximum aggregated cell throughput. Answer: BD QUESTION 112 Company XYZ is redesigning their QoS policy. Some of the applications used by the company are real- time applications. The QoS design must give these applications preference in terms of transmission. Which QoS strategy can be used to fulfill the requirement? A.weighted fair queuing B.weighted random early detection C.low-latency queuing D.first-in first-out Answer: C QUESTION 113 As part of workspace digitization, a large enterprise has migrated all their users to Desktop as a Sen/ice (DaaS), by hosting the backend system in their on-premises data center. Some of the branches have started to experience disconnections to the DaaS at periodic intervals, however, local users in the data center and head office do not experience this behavior. Which technology can be used to mitigate this issue? A.tail drop B.traffic shaping C.WRED D.traffic policing Answer: B QUESTION 114 A healthcare provider discovers that protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data. Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue? A.technical and physical access control B.administrative security management processes C.physical device and media control D.technical integrity and transmission security Answer: D QUESTION 115 Which two technologies enable multilayer segmentation? (Choose two.) A.policy-based routing B.segment routing C.data plane markings D.firewalls E.filter lists Answer: AD QUESTION 116 IPFIX data collection via standalone IPFIX probes is an alternative to flow collection from routers and switches. Which use case is suitable for using IPFIX probes? A.performance monitoring B.security C.observation of critical links D.capacity planning Answer: A QUESTION 117 Company XYZ wants to use the FCAPS ISO standard for network management design. The focus of the design should be to monitor and keep track of any performance issues by continuously collecting and analyzing statistical information to monitor, correct, and optimize any reduced responsiveness across the network. Which layer accomplishes this design requirement? A.fault management B.accounting management C.performance management D.security management Answer: C QUESTION 118 While designing a switched topology, in which two options is UplinkFast recommended? (Choose two ) A.when switches of different spanning-tree types are connected (for example. 802.1d connecting to 802.1w) B.on distribution layer switches C.when hello timers are changed to more aggressive values D.on access layer switches E.on the core switches Answer: AD QUESTION 119 You are using iSCSI to transfer files between a 10 Gigabit Ethernet storage system and a 1 Gigabit Ethernet server. The performance is only approximately 700 Mbps and output drops are occurring on the server switch port. Which action will improve performance in a cost-effective manner? A.Change the protocol to CIFS. B.Increase the queue to at least 1 GB C.Use a WRED random drop policy D.Enable the TCP Nagle algorithm on the receiver Answer: A QUESTION 120 Customer XYZ network consists of an MPLS core. IS-IS running as IGP a pair of BGP route reflectors for route propagation, and a few dozens of MPLS-TE tunnels for specific tactical traffic engineering requirements. The customer's engineering department has some questions about the use of the Overload Bit in the IS-IS networks and how it could be used to improve their current network design. Which two concepts about the Overload Bit are true? (Choose two.) A.It can be set on a router during the startup process for a fixed period of time B.Networks advertised within the LSPs of the respective node will become unreachable C.It forces the midpoint MPLS-TE node to reoptimize the primary tunnels going through the OL node. D.It can be set on a router until other interacting protocols have signaled convergence. E.It is not recommended on BGP Route Reflectors Answer: AD 2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF and 400-007 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1wV28HLjscHjQ8TOrCglIRRU5nn6jytDd?usp=sharing
Pros&Cons of Flibanserin and Tamiflu
Buying Flibanserin Pills Online Has Never Been Easier! This is an instructive guide for patients regarding Flibanserin tablets. It provides an outline of the use of the pills as well as customer reviews. There is an additional section covering Flibanserin's adverse effects. What exactly is Flibanserin? Flibanserin (Generic Addyi) is used to premenopausal women with hypoactive sexual desire disorder (HSDD). It contains a 5-HT receptor modulator that aids in the treatment of acquired and generalized HSDD patients. The FDA authorized this medication in 2015, allowing premenopausal women to receive adequate therapy for hypoactive sexual drive condition. Did you know that this medicine might be swapped for an antidepressant during early testing? However, after a few more trials and modifications, it was determined to be the ideal therapy for hypoactive sexual condition. This medication effectively inhibits the generation of serotonin in the brain. It is effective at stimulating the production of norepinephrine and dopamine neurotransmitters. Flibanserin Side Effects Among the adverse consequences of Flibanserin use are: Fatigue CNS Depression Oral parchedness Sedation Insomnia Somnolence At least six hours after taking the tablet, it is imperative that consumers refrain from engaging in activities requiring full attentiveness. For instance, driving. Avoid taking Flibanserin with other antidepressants such as benzodiazepines, hypnotics, opioids, and diphenhydramine, as it might cause hypotension and syncope. Where Can I Purchase Flibanserin? Flibanserin is available for purchase on our official website, saving you a trip to the pharmacy. Paulsen's Pharmacy is one of the authorized dealers of this medication, and you may get it from us. If you are not comfortable purchasing online, you may alternatively visit a local drugstore. Buy Tamiflu 75mg Capsules Without Prescription Here is a comprehensive tutorial on how to use Tamiflu and how it helps people recover from various influenza symptoms. Additionally, there is a section dedicated to side effects, so that you may weigh the advantages and negatives before to making a purchase. How is Tamiflu used? Tamiflu can be utilized to treat all types of influenza symptoms. It is effective against both the type A and type B influenza viruses. This antiviral medication is useful for treating symptoms that have been present for two days or less. In addition, the medicine can be administered to people who have been exposed to the virus but who do not yet exhibit symptoms. However, bear in mind that this medication is not appropriate for treating the common cold. For the treatment of influenza types A and B, both capsules and oral suspensions are available to patients. The capsules may be taken either before or after meals, making it a flexible method of food consumption. For children aged 13 and older, Tamiflu 75 mg capsules are used twice daily. Tamiflu Adverse Reactions Tamiflu is an effective therapy, but it might produce some adverse effects. Among the serious adverse effects are: Abnormal conduct tremors / tremors Hallucinations Abrupt bewilderment In the event of any of these adverse effects, quick treatment is required. On the other hand, these are some of the milder and more prevalent Tamiflu adverse effects. These consist of: Headache \sVomiting \sNausea \sPain Always monitor your health after using this medication for the treatment of influenza or the prevention of influenza infection.
2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-735 PDF Dumps(Q36-Q59)
QUESTION 36 Which description of synchronous calls to an API is true? A.They can be used only within single-threaded processes. B.They pause execution and wait for the response. C.They always successfully return within a fixed time. D.They can be used only for small requests. Answer: B QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit. What does the response from the API contain when this code is executed? A.error message and status code of 403 B.newly created domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate C.updated domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate D.status and security details for the domains Answer: D QUESTION 38 Refer to the exhibit. A security engineer attempts to query the Cisco Security Management appliance to retrieve details of a specific message. What must be added to the script to achieve the desired result? A.Add message ID information to the URL string as a URI. B.Run the script and parse through the returned data to find the desired message. C.Add message ID information to the URL string as a parameter. D.Add message ID information to the headers. Answer: C QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit. A network operator must generate a daily flow report and learn how to act on or manipulate returned data. When the operator runs the script, it returns an enormous amount of information. Which two actions enable the operator to limit returned data? (Choose two.) A.Add recordLimit. followed by an integer (key:value) to the flow_data. B.Add a for loop at the end of the script, and print each key value pair separately. C.Add flowLimit, followed by an integer (key:value) to the flow_data. D.Change the startDateTime and endDateTime values to include smaller time intervals. E.Change the startDate and endDate values to include smaller date intervals. Answer: AB QUESTION 40 Refer to the exhibit. Which expression prints the text "802.1x"? A.print(quiz[0]['choices']['b']) B.print(quiz['choices']['b']) C.print(quiz[0]['choices']['b']['802.1x']) D.print(quiz[0]['question']['choices']['b']) Answer: A QUESTION 41 What are two advantages of Python virtual environments? (Choose two.) A.Virtual environments can move compiled modules between different platforms. B.Virtual environments permit non-administrative users to install packages. C.The application code is run in an environment that is destroyed upon exit. D.Virtual environments allow for stateful high availability. E.Virtual environments prevent packaging conflicts between multiple Python projects. Answer: CE QUESTION 42 When the URI "/api/fmc_config/v1/domain/e276abec-e0f2-11e3-8169-6d9ed49b625f/policy/accesspolicies" is used to make a POST request, what does "e276abec-e0f2-11e3-8169-6d9ed49b625f" represent? A.API token B.domain UUID C.access policy UUID D.object UUID Answer: B QUESTION 44 Which Cisco AMP file disposition valid? A.pristine B.malware C.dirty D.nonmalicios Answer: B QUESTION 45 In Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which API queues to find the list of endpoints in the group "Finance Hosts," which has a GUID of 6c3c2005-4c74-4ba7-8dbb- c4d5b6bafe03? A.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/endpoints?group[]=6c3c2005-4c74-4ba7-8dbb-c4d5b6bafe03 B.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?group_guid[]=6c3c2005-4c74-4ba7-8dbb-c4d5b6bafe03 C.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?group_guid-6c3c2005-4c74-4ba7-8dbb-c4d5b6bafe03 D.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/endpoints?group-6c3c2005-4c74-4ba7-8dbb-c4d5b6bafe03 Answer: B QUESTION 46 For which two programming languages does Cisco offer an SDK for Cisco pxGrid 1.0? (Choose two.) A.Python B.Perl C.Java D.C E.JavaScript Answer: CD QUESTION 47 Which two URI parameters are needed for the Cisco Stealthwatch Top Alarm Host v1 API? (Choose two.) A.startAbsolute B.externalGeos C.tenantId D.intervalLength E.tagID Answer: CE QUESTION 48 Refer to the exhibit. Which URL returned the data? A.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers B.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v0/computers C.https://amp.cisco.com/api/v0/computers D.https://amp.cisco.com/api/v1/computers Answer: A QUESTION 49 After changes are made to the Cisco Firepower Threat Defense configuration using the Cisco Firepower Device Manager API, what must be done to ensure that the new policy is activated? A.Submit a POST to the /api/fdm/latest/operational/deploy URI. B.Submit a GET to the /api/fdm/latest/operational/deploy URI. C.Submit a PUT to the /api/fdm/latest/devicesettings/pushpolicy URI. D.Submit a POST to the /api/fdm/latest/devicesettings/pushpolicy URI. Answer: A QUESTION 50 Refer to the exhibit. A Python function named "query" has been developed and the goal is to use it to query the service "com.cisco.ise.session" via Cisco pxGrid 2.0 APIs. How is the function called, if the goal is to identify the sessions that are associated with the IP address 10.0.0.50? A.query(config, secret, "getSessionByIpAddress/10.0.0.50", "ipAddress") B.query(config, "10.0.0.50", url, payload) C.query(config, secret, url, "10.0.0.50") D.query(config, secret, url, '{"ipAddress": "10.0.0.50"}') Answer: D QUESTION 51 Which API is used to query if the domain "example.com" has been flagged as malicious by the Cisco Security Labs team? A.https://s-platform.api.opendns.com/1.0/events?example.com B.https://investigate.api.umbrella.com/domains/categorization/example.com C.https://investigate.api.umbrella.com/domains/volume/example.com D.https://s-platform.api.opendns.com/1.0/domains?example.com Answer: B QUESTION 53 Which request searches for a process window in Cisco ThreatGRID that contains the word "secret"? A./api/v2/search/submissions?term=processwindow&title=secret B./api/v2/search/submissions?term=processwindow&q=secret C./api/v2/search/submissions?term=window&title=secret D./api/v2/search/submissions?term=process&q=secret Answer: D QUESTION 54 Refer to the exhibit. A network operator wrote a Python script to retrieve events from Cisco AMP. Against which API gateway must the operator make the request? A.BASE_URL = "https://api.amp.cisco.com" B.BASE_URL = "https://amp.cisco.com/api" C.BASE_URL = "https://amp.cisco.com/api/" D.BASE_URL = "https://api.amp.cisco.com/" Answer: A QUESTION 56 What is the purpose of the snapshot APIs exposed by Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud? A.Report on flow data during a customizable time period. B.Operate and return alerts discovered from infrastructure observations. C.Return current configuration data of Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud infrastructure. D.Create snapshots of supported Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud infrastructure. Answer: B QUESTION 57 Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the API represented by this URL? A.Getting or setting intrusion policies in FMC B.Creating an intrusion policy in FDM C.Updating access policies D.Getting the list of intrusion policies configured in FDM Answer: D QUESTION 58 Which query parameter is required when using the reporting API of Cisco Security Management Appliances? A.device_type B.query_type C.filterValue D.startDate + endDate Answer: D QUESTION 59 Which step is required by Cisco pxGrid providers to expose functionality to consumer applications that are written in Python? A.Look up the existing service using the /pxgrid/control/ServiceLookup endpoint. B.Register the service using the /pxgrid/control/ServiceRegister endpoint. C.Configure the service using the /pxgrid/ise/config/profiler endpoint. D.Expose the service using the /pxgrid/ise/pubsub endpoint. Answer: D 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-735 PDF and 300-735 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1m19PdiWiEdzrVfv_C_JxguM15u1-V5mx?usp=sharing
How To Buy the Best Water Storage Tank for Your Property?
One of the most basic needs that we have in life is that of drinking water and, more often than not, it is stored in a tank. This is how water tanks have now become an important part of our lives as well. However, it is also important for you to know as much as you can about these products – this is especially so when you are looking to buy one for your property. These tanks come in all sorts of shapes, strength, materials, strengths, and sizes. This is why you need to know what to look for so that you can separate the grain from the chaff. Storage Capacity This is the most important factor to keep in mind when you are trying to buy water storage tanks. Now, this depends totally on the number of people who are supposed to use the water stored in that particular product. Keep in mind that this water would be used for meeting all their daily needs such as drinking, cleaning, cooking, and washing. As per the Indian Standard code in this regard, every person in your home needs at least 135 litres each day for their various uses. This means that if you have a family of four 650 litres should suffice for you. Durability This is an important consideration when you are looking to buy an overhead water tank. This is because a water tank has to be strong and sturdy so that it can deal with rigours such as changes in temperature, menacing actions by animals such as monkeys, and changes in the ambient environment. A good option, in this case, would be a tank made from a material such as certain linear polyethylene with a specific density. This would make sure that you get a tank that has sufficient strength. You can see for yourself. When you are buying a water tank, several factors have to be taken into consideration. Apart from what we have said already you must also look at aspects such as dimensions, colour, quality, and shape of the tank. A great way to be certain in these cases is to get the product from a leading brand such as Ashirvad Pipes as that way you would get a product that would be the closest to perfection. These are the frontrunners of the industry that we are talking about over here.
2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-730 PDF Dumps(Q45-Q75)
QUESTION 45 Which feature allows the ASA to handle nonstandard applications and web resources so that they display correctly over a clientless SSL VPN connection? A.single sign-on B.Smart Tunnel C.WebType ACL D.plug-ins Answer: B QUESTION 46 Which command automatically initiates a smart tunnel when a user logs in to the WebVPN portal page? A.auto-upgrade B.auto-connect C.auto-start D.auto-run Answer: C QUESTION 48 Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands under the tunnel-group webvpn-attributes result in a Cisco AnyConnect user receiving the AnyConnect prompt in the exhibit? (Choose two.) A.group-url https://172.16.31.10/General enable B.group-policy General internal C.authentication aaa D.authentication certificate E.group-alias General enable Answer: CE QUESTION 49 Which two statements are true when designing a SSL VPN solution using Cisco AnyConnect? (Choose two.) A.The VPN server must have a self-signed certificate. B.A SSL group pre-shared key must be configured on the server. C.Server side certificate is optional if using AAA for client authentication. D.The VPN IP address pool can overlap with the rest of the LAN networks. E.DTLS can be enabled for better performance. Answer: DE QUESTION 50 An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and wants to choose an authentication protocol that is reliable and supports ACK and sequence. Which protocol accomplishes this goal? A.IKEv1 B.AES-192 C.ESP D.AES-256 Answer: C QUESTION 51 Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel? A.incorrect PSK B.crypto access list mismatch C.incorrect tunnel group D.crypto policy mismatch E.incorrect certificate Answer: B QUESTION 52 Which requirement is needed to use local authentication for Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Clients that connect to a FlexVPN server? A.use of certificates instead of username and password B.EAP-AnyConnect C.EAP query-identity D.AnyConnect profile Answer: D QUESTION 53 Which IKE identity does an IOS/IOS-XE headend expect to receive if an IPsec Cisco AnyConnect client uses default settings? A.*$SecureMobilityClient$* B.*$AnyConnectClient$* C.*$RemoteAccessVpnClient$* D.*$DfltlkeldentityS* Answer: B QUESTION 54 Refer to the exhibit. Which VPN technology is allowed for users connecting to the Employee tunnel group? A.SSL AnyConnect B.IKEv2 AnyConnect C.crypto map D.clientless Answer: D QUESTION 55 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting a new GRE over IPsec tunnel. The tunnel is established but the engineer cannot ping from spoke 1 to spoke 2. Which type of traffic is being blocked? A.ESP packets from spoke2 to spoke1 B.ISAKMP packets from spoke2 to spoke1 C.ESP packets from spoke1 to spoke2 D.ISAKMP packets from spoke1 to spoke2 Answer: A QUESTION 56 Which command is used to troubleshoot an IPv6 FlexVPN spoke-to-hub connectivity failure? A.show crypto ikev2 sa B.show crypto isakmp sa C.show crypto gkm D.show crypto identity Answer: A QUESTION 57 In a FlexVPN deployment, the spokes successfully connect to the hub, but spoke-to-spoke tunnels do not form. Which troubleshooting step solves the issue? A.Verify the spoke configuration to check if the NHRP redirect is enabled. B.Verify that the spoke receives redirect messages and sends resolution requests. C.Verify the hub configuration to check if the NHRP shortcut is enabled. D.Verify that the tunnel interface is contained within a VRF. Answer: B QUESTION 58 An engineer is troubleshooting a new DMVPN setup on a Cisco IOS router. After the show crypto isakmp sa command is issued, a response is returned of "MM_NO_STATE." Why does this failure occur? A.The ISAKMP policy priority values are invalid. B.ESP traffic is being dropped. C.The Phase 1 policy does not match on both devices. D.Tunnel protection is not applied to the DMVPN tunnel. Answer: C QUESTION 59 What are two variables for configuring clientless SSL VPN single sign-on? (Choose two.) A.CSCO_WEBVPN_OTP_PASSWORD B.CSCO_WEBVPN_INTERNAL_PASSWORD C.CSCO_WEBVPN_USERNAME D.CSCO_WEBVPN_RADIUS_USER Answer: BC QUESTION 60 Which two NHRP functions are specific to DMVPN Phase 3 implementation? (Choose two.) A.registration request B.registration reply C.resolution request D.resolution reply E.redirect Answer: DE QUESTION 61 Refer to the exhibit. The customer can establish a Cisco AnyConnect connection without using an XML profile. When the host "ikev2" is selected in the AnyConnect drop down, the connection fails. What is the cause of this issue? A.The HostName is incorrect. B.The IP address is incorrect. C.Primary protocol should be SSL. D.UserGroup must match connection profile. Answer: D QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. A site-to-site tunnel between two sites is not coming up. Based on the debugs, what is the cause of this issue? A.An authentication failure occurs on the remote peer. B.A certificate fragmentation issue occurs between both sides. C.UDP 4500 traffic from the peer does not reach the router. D.An authentication failure occurs on the router. Answer: C QUESTION 63 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the debug output, which type of mismatch is preventing the VPN from coming up? A.interesting traffic B.lifetime C.preshared key D.PFS Answer: A Explanation: TS unacceptable: The IPsec SA setup has failed due to a mismatch in the policy rule definition between the gateways for the tunnel configuration. Check the local and remote network configuration on both gateways. QUESTION 64 Refer to the exhibit. The IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel between two routers is down. Based on the debug output, which type of mismatch is the problem? A.preshared key B.peer identity C.transform set D.ikev2 proposal Answer: B QUESTION 65 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of mismatch is causing the problem with the IPsec VPN tunnel? A.crypto access list B.Phase 1 policy C.transform set D.preshared key Answer: D QUESTION 66 Refer to the exhibit. What is a result of this configuration? A.Spoke 1 fails the authentication because the authentication methods are incorrect. B.Spoke 2 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2. C.Spoke 2 fails the authentication because the remote authentication method is incorrect. D.Spoke 1 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2. Answer: A QUESTION 67 Which two cryptographic technologies are recommended for use with FlexVPN? (Choose two.) A.SHA (HMAC variant) B.Diffie-Hellman C.DES D.MD5 (HMAC variant) Answer: AB QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator had the above configuration working with SSL protocol, but as soon as the administrator specified IPsec as the primary protocol, the Cisco AnyConnect client was not able to connect. What is the problem? A.IPsec will not work in conjunction with a group URL. B.The Cisco AnyConnect implementation does not allow the two group URLs to be the same. SSL does allow this. C.If you specify the primary protocol as IPsec, the User Group must be the exact name of the connection profile (tunnel group). D.A new XML profile should be created instead of modifying the existing profile, so that the clients force the update. Answer: C QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. Client 1 cannot communicate with client 2. Both clients are using Cisco AnyConnect and have established a successful SSL VPN connection to the hub ASA. Which command on the ASA is missing? A.dns-server value 10.1.1.2 B.same-security-traffic permit intra-interface C.same-security-traffic permit inter-interface D.dns-server value 10.1.1.3 Answer: B QUESTION 70 Refer to the exhibit. An SSL client is connecting to an ASA headend. The session fails with the message "Connection attempt has timed out. Please verify Internet connectivity." Based on how the packet is processed, which phase is causing the failure? A.phase 9: rpf-check B.phase 5: NAT C.phase 4: ACCESS-LIST D.phase 3: UN-NAT Answer: D QUESTION 71 Which redundancy protocol must be implemented for IPsec stateless failover to work? A.SSO B.GLBP C.HSRP D.VRRP Answer: C QUESTION 72 Which technology works with IPsec stateful failover? A.GLBR B.HSRP C.GRE D.VRRP Answer: B QUESTION 73 What are two functions of ECDH and ECDSA? (Choose two.) A.nonrepudiation B.revocation C.digital signature D.key exchange E.encryption Answer: CD QUESTION 74 What uses an Elliptic Curve key exchange algorithm? A.ECDSA B.ECDHE C.AES-GCM D.SHA Answer: B QUESTION 75 Which two remote access VPN solutions support SSL? (Choose two.) A.FlexVPN B.clientless C.EZVPN D.L2TP E.Cisco AnyConnect Answer: BE 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-730 PDF and 300-730 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1zBS7xcmszvPHlrS_lPaM4uUF1VvomE4a?usp=sharing
Should I go into cybersecurity or software development?
I currently hold my CCSP and CEH and have worked in cybersecurity for close to 10 years. I can tell you that Cybersecurity is an extremely broad field in terms of what kind of work you could be doing, salary, work environment, etc, etc. Most Cybersecurity people work as part of a team and each team member fulfills one or two roles. Like you could be in charge of the firewall or vulnerability scanning. You could be part of the team that pushes out security patches or your work life could simply revolve around doing reports on vulnerabilities and creating plans of action about how to fix said vulnerabilities. There are also other roles you can do and you will probably need specific certifications to get your foot in the door. Things like digital forensics, like what you see tech geeks on CSI doing. Or you can become a white hat hacker and do penetration testing where companies will actually pay you to try to hack their systems in order to test their security. One drawback of Cybersecurity I will warn you about though is that if you don't have any work history working in an Information assurance or Cybersecurity role then it can be difficult to get hired. Having security certifications and being a part of the networking team somewhere is the way to go. A help desk job might be a little lower than what you are aiming for but you will learn more on a help desk than just about anywhere else in the IT world. You can take a course that provides Job Placement along with CCSP Certification. On the other side. I am not a software developer but I have friends that are and I know a bit of coding myself. Software development can be a real mixed bag and it really depends on who you work for. I have a friend who works for an insurance company and he hates it because the work he does is very repetitive and boring. Other companies though like CCS Learning Academy go above and beyond to attract and keep good programmers. I can't speak to how intellectually stimulating the work is but at least they treat you well. I expect though that there is a lot of competition for getting on at companies like Valve and Google. I can't really say which field I think you should go into because I don't know you or what your interests are. If you enjoy spending lots of time coding then go for coding but if not and you have an interest in security go that route but start looking at certifications before you graduate. Net +, Server +, and Security + at a minimum. How can I start learning about cybersecurity as a beginner? Remember, Google is your best friend regarding any kind of learning is it learning about any programming language or even hacking the freak of any system. There are tons of e-books related to hacking on many websites even available for download like Hacking for dummies, penetration testing books, web- application hacking, and android hacking. You name it and Google has it. There are some awesome YouTube channels dedicated to hacking like : CCS Learning Academy Hackersploit But, most beginners follow a common trend of mistakes that lead them to nowhere. They jump right into hardcore hacking which is absurd since hacking requires in-depth knowledge of computer networking, operating systems, and various programming languages like C, python, etc. The main focus should be to learn the basics of computer science like the core fundamentals of cs and then start twerking with programs and software. Hackers aren't bad guys, they are cool guys with big brains to mess around.
2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-601 PDF Dumps(Q236-Q266)
QUESTION 236 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPCand non-vPC switches, however, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receives the same STP bridge ID from the upstream which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.peer-switch B.peer-gateway C.systam-mac 0123.4567.89ab D.vpc local role-priority 4000 Answer: A QUESTION 237 A network engineer must perform a backup and restore of the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch configuration. The backup must be made to an external backup server. The only protocol permitted between the Cisco Nexus switch and the backup server is UDP. The backup must be used when the current working configuration of the switch gets corrupted. Which set of steps must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Perform a startup-config backup to an FTP server 2. Copy startup-config in the boot flash to the running-config file B.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the SFTP server to the running-config file C.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SCP server 2. Copy running-config in the boot flash to the running-config file D.1. Perform a startup-config backup to a TFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the backup server to the running-config file Answer: D QUESTION 238 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer requires remote access via SSH to a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. The solution must support secure access using the local user database when the RADIUS servers are unreachable from the switches. Which command meets these requirements? A.aaa authentication none B.aaa authentication login default group radius C.aaa authentication login default fallback error local D.aaa authentication login default group local Answer: C QUESTION 240 A network engineer configures a converged network adapter (CNA) and must associate a virtual Fibre Channel 7 interface to VSAN 7. The CNA is connected to the interface Eth1/7, and VLAN 700 is mapped to the VSAN. Which configuration must be applied to create the virtual Fibre Channel interface and associate it with the Ethernet physical interface? A.switch(config)# vlan 700 switch(config-vlan)# fcoe vsan 7 B.switch(config)# vsan database switch(config-vsan)# vsan 7 interface vfc 7 C.switch(config)# interface ethernet 1/7 switch(config-if)# vfc 7 attach vlan 1,700 D.switch(config)# interface vfc 7 switch(config-if)# bind interface ethernet 1/7 Answer: D QUESTION 241 An engineer must use the Embedded Event Manager to monitor events that occur on a cisco Nexus 9000 series switch. An environment variable needs to be created so that several policies use the monitored events in in their actions. The external email server is represented by IP address 10.10.10.10. Which command sets the environment variable? A.N9k2(config)# event manager policy environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' B.N9k2# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' C.N9k2 (config-apple1)# environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' D.N9k2 (config)# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' Answer: D QUESTION 242 Which communication method does NFS use for requests between servers and clients? A.XDR B.SSC C.RPC D.SMB Answer: C QUESTION 243 A customer reports Fibre Channel login requests to a cisco MDS 9000 series Switch from an unauthorized source. The customer requires a feature that will allow all devices already logged in and learned in and learned to be added to the Fibre channel active database. Which two features must be enabled to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.) A.Auto-learning B.Port security C.Enhanced zoning D.Device aliases E.Smart aliases Answer: AB QUESTION 244 An engineer evaluates a UI-based infrastructure management system capable of monitoring and deploying standalone VXLAN BGP EVPN deployments. The storage administrators also need the solution to manage the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Cisco Intersight B.Cisco UCSD C.Cisco Tetration D.Cisco DCNM Answer: D QUESTION 245 Refer to the exhibit. Which backup operation type not include the preserve identities feature? A.Full state B.Logical configuration C.System configuration D.All configuration Answer: A QUESTION 246 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration ensure that the cisco Nexus 7000 series switches are the primary devices for LACP? A.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 B.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 100 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 200 C.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 D.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# role priority 1 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain )# role priority 2 Answer: A QUESTION 247 A network engineer must enable port security on all Cisco MDS Series Switches in the fabric. The requirement is to avoid the extensive manual configuration of the switch ports. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Activate CFS distribution and the auto-learning port security feature. B.Activate CFS distribution and file auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. C.Enable the auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. D.Enable the auto-learning port security feature. Answer: B QUESTION 248 A network engineer is deploying a Cisco All-Flash HyperFlex solution. Which local storage configuration is required for the operating system and persistent logging? A.Two solid state drives B.Two SATA drives C.One SATA drive D.One solid state drive Answer: A QUESTION 249 An engineer configures the properties of a Cisco UCS Cisco Integrated Management Controller network adapter for a standalone Cisco C-Series Server. The Failback Timeout in the vNIC was set to 600. When the failure occurs, the secondary interfaces must be used and then failback when the primary interface becomes available again. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Set default VLAN on the adapters. B.Increase Cos to 6. C.Disable VNTAG mode. D.Enable Uplink failover. Answer: D QUESTION 250 A network engineer must prevent data comuption due to cross fabric communication in an FCoE environment. Which configuration must be applied to the Cisco Nexus Unified Switches to achieve this objective? A.Switch(config)#fcoe fcmap 0x0efc2a B.Switch(config-if)# no fcoe fcf-priority 0 C.Switch(config-if) # shutdown lan D.Switch(config) # no fcoe fcf-priority Answer: A QUESTION 251 Which component is disrupted when the Cisco Integrated Management Controller is upgraded on a Cisco UCS Series Server? A.Cisco UCS Manager B.SAN traffic C.KVM sessions D.Data traffic Answer: C QUESTION 252 A company is investigating different options for IT automation tools. The IT team has experience with Python programming language and scripting using a declarative language. The proposed tool should be easy to set up and should not require installing an agent on target devices. The team will also need to build custom modules based on the Python programming language to extend the tool's functionality. Which automation tool should be used to meet these requirements? A.Puppet B.Ansible C.NX-API D.Chef Answer: B QUESTION 253 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer needs to implement streaming telemetry on a cisco MDS 9000 series switch. The requirement is for the show command data to be collected every 30 seconds and sent to receivers. Which command must be added to the configuration meet this requirement? A.Sensor-grp 200 sample-period 30000 B.Snsr-grp 200 sample-interval 30 C.Sensor-grp 200 sample-period 30 D.Snsr-grp 200 sample-interval 30000 Answer: D QUESTION 254 A Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch experiences a startup configuration corruption. The engineer must implement a procedure to recover the backup configuration file from the switch. Which command set must be used? A.1. Copy the running-configuration to the startup configuration. 2. Clear the current configuration of the switch. 3. Restart the device. 4. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running configuration. B.1. Clear the current configuration of the switch 2. Restart the device. 3. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration 4. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running configuration C.1. Clear the current configuration of the switch 2. Restart the device. 3. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running-configuration 4. Copy the running-configuration to the startup configuration. D.1. Restarting device. 2. Copy the running-configuration file to a remote server. 3. Clear the current configuration of the switch. 4. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration Answer: C QUESTION 255 An engineer must configure OSPF in the data center. The external routes have already been redistributed OSPF. The network must meet these criteria: - The data centre servers must reach services in the cloud and the services behind the redistributed routes. - The exit point toward the internet should be propagated only when there is a dynamically learned default route from the upstream router. Which feature is required? A.Default-information originate B.Stubby area C.Totally stubby area D.Default-information originate always Answer: A QUESTION 256 What is a characteristic of the install all command on the cisco Nexus series switch? A.Upgrades only certain modules B.Automatically checks the image integrity C.Impact data plan traffic D.Continues the upgrade process if any step in the sequence fails Answer: B QUESTION 257 An engineer is using REST API calls to configure the cisco APIC. Which data structure must be used within a post message to receive a login token? A.{"aaaUser":{"attributes":{"name":"apiuser","pwd":"cisco123"}}} B.<aaaUser><name="apiuser"/><pwd="cisco123"/></aaaUser> C.{aaaUser:{attributes:{name:apiuser,pwd:cisco123}}} D.<aaaUser><name>apiuser</name><pwd>cisco123</pwd></aaaUser> Answer: A QUESTION 258 The EPLD update of the supervisor module has been scheduled for several Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. What will be the impact of the update? A.All control plane traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch remain operational for the duration of the upgrade. B.The redundant supervisor lakes over while the EPLD update is in progress and there is no service disruption. C.All traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. D.The redundant supervisor lakes while the EPLD update is in progress and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. Answer: C QUESTION 259 An engineer configures an intersignt virtual application and must claim over 200 targets. The engineer starts the Claim target procedure. The engineer has prepared this initial comma- separated value file to provision the targets: UCSFI,10.1.1.3,user-1,pwd5516b917 IMC,10.1.1.5/26,user-2,pwdc65b1c43f HX,10.1.2.1/30,user-3,pwd39913690 UCSD,1.1.1.1.user-4,pwd5003e9d5 Which Information must be included In the comma-separated value flit to provision the targets? A.FQON, AD name, IP address, email B.location, address, name. password C.certificate, user name, password. email D.target type, hostname or P address, user name, password Answer: D QUESTION 260 What is an advantage of NFSv4 over Fibre Channel protocol? A.Improved security B.Lossless throughout C.Congestion management D.Uses IP transport Answer: A QUESTION 261 Which two configuration settings are available in the in the cisco UCS flmware Auto sync server policy? A.User Notification B.User Acknowledge C.No Action D.Delayed Action E.Immediate Action Answer: BC QUESTION 262 An administrator is implementing DCNM so that events are triggered when monitored traffic exceeds the configured percent utilization threshold. The requirement is to configure a maximum limit of 39913690 bytes that applies directly to the statistics collected as a ratio of the total link capacity. Which DCNM performance monitoring configuration parameter must be implemented to achieve this result? A.Absolution Values B.Baseline C.Utill% D.Per port Monitoring Answer: A QUESTION 263 A network architect must redesign a data center network based on OSPFv2. The network must perform fast reconvergence between directly connected switches. Which two actions must be taken to meet the requirements? (Choose two.) A.Configure all links on AREA 0. B.Implement a virtual link between the switches. C.Use OSPF point-to-point links only. D.Set low OSPF hello and DEAD timers. E.Enable BFD for failure detection. Answer: CE QUESTION 264 Refer to the exhibit. A host with source address 10.10.10.10 sends traffic to multicast group 239.1.1.1. How do the vPC switches forward the multicast traffic? A.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 Switch2, the traffic is forwarded out only one Po20. B.If multicast traffic is received on Po10 Switch1, the traffic is forwarded out on Po1 and Po20. C.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 and Switch2, the traffic is dropped. D.If multicast traffic is received on Switch over the vPC peer-link, the traffic is dropped. Answer: C QUESTION 265 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPC and non-vPC switches. However, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers. Which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.System-mac 0123.4567.89ab B.Peer-switch C.VPC local role-priority 4000 D.Peer-gateway Answer: B QUESTION 266 A company is running a pair of cisco Nexus 7706 series switches as part of a data center segment. All network engineers have restricted read-Write access to the core switches. A network engineer must a new FCoE VLAN to allow traffic from services toward FCoE storage. Which set of actions must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Create a user-defined role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a role to a user. B.1. Add the required privilege to the VDC-admin role. 2. Commit the changes to the active user database. C.1. Modify a network-operator role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a VDC-operator role to a user. D.1. Assign the network-admin role to a user. 2. Commit the role to the switch to the active user database Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-601 PDF and 350-601 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1M-Px6bHjOJgp4aPsLoYq-hgm90ZKxV_i?usp=sharing
Voiclet Review & OTO: Legit or SCAM!? Exposed?
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Step 3. Share the Link & Convert Leads to Sales Fast: Share your video funnel link in ads, social profiles, & more. When clicked, it will open your video sales funnel with agents ready to help close clients instantly. Step 4. Share with Clients or Give App Access for Fees: Use video funnels to sell your own products faster & easier, or create campaigns for clients for monthly fees. View detailed analytics at anytime. In 2023 and beyond, customers want to buy from businesses they know, like, and trust, and want to speak directly to someone, such as on a phone call or a webinar, before buying online now. Only now with Voiclet, there’s no need to use complicated webinar technology or even try to register someone in the first place. The sales process happens seamlessly in just a click with instant gratification. 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Detailed Analytics: Quickly see which agents answered what calls, minutes used, and more with important analytics at the touch of your finger tips. ✅==> Click Here to Buy at an Exclusively Discounted Price Now!✅ WHAT VOICLET CAN DO FOR YOU Auto-Create VideoFunnels & VoiceFunnels: significantly increase revenue for any business by replacing leaky, expensive funnels with proven, ‘speed-to-lead’ video & voice funnels. Auto-Create Magic VideoFunnel Links & Widgets: create simple links or widgets that when clicked auto-direct to your video sales funnel to sell & close any lead far easier OmniChannel Marketing for More Leads: share your video or voice funnel link in Facebook ads, Google ads, on websites, in TikTok, Instagram, & other social media channels to generate tons of leads. Get Prequalified Agency Clients Fast: You’ll get clients you can sell Voiclet services to fast & easy for monthly fees Crystal Clear HD Video Calling Tech: Sell products to leads with their crystal clear HD video call technology that works anywhere in the world instantly Web, iOS, & Android Integration: get sales via desktop or use the native Android & iOS approved app for a seamless selling experience Reduce Lead to Sale Time for 10x Conversions: Reduce the time of engagement with a prospect to sale to just a single click. No more leads dropping off from funnels with too many steps. AgencyRights & Commercial Rights Included: sell Voiclet & video funnel campaigns for any price or sell access to the app for a high monthly fee. And so much more in this first-ever one-click video lead and sales technology ✅==> Click Here to Buy at an Exclusively Discounted Price Now!✅ VOICLET FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS Do I have to pay a monthly fee to buy this app? Voiclet is available to you for an incredibly low one-time price if you buy NOW. Once the special offer ends, the app will be offered at a monthly fee. Does this work for Mac and PC and Mobile? Yes. Voiclet is 100% cloud-based so it works with an internet connection on any browser from the device of your choice. It comes with native iOS & Android apps to work on mobile as well for agents) Do I get support and tutorials on how to start? Their video resources and tutorials make you an expert within minutes. Their team of wizards will always be at your service to guide you and answer any queries that you may have. Is there a Money Back Guarantee Policy? Absolutely! Like they said, they are making your purchase extremely risk-free. You bet on them for your success and if you’re not absolutely pleased, simply ask for a full refund within 30 days. What if I don’t want to answer the video calls? No problem. The small business you’re selling this two can have an employee answer the video and voice calls. Or, you can use a qualified video or phone outsourcers to do the selling for you which you’ll learn how to do easily. Remember, with all the money you and the small business client are saving by fixing outdated, leaky funnels and not having to pay funnel consultants $1000 and up, there will be plenty of revenue to hire multiple video call assistants. What if no one answers a video or voice call? With Voiclet, You can choose to specify what link the campaign will redirect to if no one is available to answer your video or voice call. Redirect the campaign to your traditional, old sales funnel or sales page, or a contact page to gather information for example. 👉 Get Voiclet  With My Exclusive $33,000 Worth of Bonusesundefined