Idapatterson

Real 300-510 Braindumps Questions & Answers - For 100% Exam Results

Because the world of the CCNP Service Provider is obtaining updated you will find more certification exams that can enable you to in boosting your career up. Cisco 300-510 certification exam is one of them. Passing the 300 510 exam questions with all the support of the newest SPRI 300-510 braindumps can help you in getting your desired aim very easily. Importance of the SPRI 300-510 brain dumps pdf is acquiring enhanced day by day to prepare Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions exam. The large organizations are searching for the Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions certified specialists. In case you get the Cisco 300-510 exam you will have the pretty good probabilities of obtaining the higher promotion.

CertsMarket 300-510 Braindumps - Optimal Option for Exam Preparation

As go over earlier passing the 300-510 exam questions with the support of 300-510 braindumps can be made simple. But the challenging questions are exactly where to get the SPRI 300-510 brain dumps? For positive you should consult taking the 300-510 braindumps of CertsMarket. The latest and verified 300-510 braindumps questions which have been verified by the Cisco professionals can actually play a game-changer role for you personally inside your 300-510 exam questions preparation. Most recent 300-510 braindumps will help you in acquiring the CCNP Service Provider certification exam in the 1st try.

Assess Your 300-510 Preparation with 300-510 Practice Test
Moving toward the 300-510 practice test. Together with the assist of CertsMarket Cisco 300-510 practice test you are able to not merely assess your preparation for the Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions test questions, but you can actually get the right insight in to the true 300-510 exam questions. You can also get the 100% passing guarantee on the Cisco 300-510 braindumps. Far more you may also get the 90 days’ free update around the 300-510 pdf dumps questions and answers. You can also get the 24/7 client care service on the Cisco 300-510 brain dumps questions.

Check the CertsMarket New 300-510 Bundle Pack - For 100% Achievement

To master the Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions certification questions you need to contemplate taking the Cisco 300-510 bundle pack of CertsMarket. This 300-510 bundle pack offers the 300 510 braindumps pdf questions and 300-510 practice test with new 300 510 pdf dumps. Cisco 300-510 PDF Dumps can assist you in obtaining the perfect likelihood to prepare for the 300 510 exam questions in line with your very own schedule. You can also download the demo of 300-510 pdf dumps and practice test to have the right insight on the 300-510 pdf braindumps questions.
Comment
Suggested
Recent
Cards you may also be interested in
[September-2021]Braindump2go New 312-50v11 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q946-Q976)
QUESTION 946 Geena, a cloud architect, uses a master component in the Kubernetes cluster architecture that scans newly generated pods and allocates a node to them. This component can also assign nodes based on factors such as the overall resource requirement, data locality, software/hardware/policy restrictions, and internal workload interventions. Which of the following master components is explained in the above scenario? A.Kube-controller-manager B.Kube-scheduler C.Kube-apiserver D.Etcd cluster Answer: B QUESTION 947 _________ is a type of phishing that targets high-profile executives such as CEOs, CFOs, politicians, and celebrities who have access to confidential and highly valuable information. A.Spear phishing B.Whaling C.Vishing D.Phishing Answer: B QUESTION 948 Peter, a system administrator working at a reputed IT firm, decided to work from his home and login remotely. Later, he anticipated that the remote connection could be exposed to session hijacking. To curb this possibility, he implemented a technique that creates a safe and encrypted tunnel over a public network to securely send and receive sensitive information and prevent hackers from decrypting the data flow between the endpoints. What is the technique followed by Peter to send files securely through a remote connection? A.DMZ B.SMB signing C.VPN D.Switch network Answer: C QUESTION 949 An attacker can employ many methods to perform social engineering against unsuspecting employees, including scareware. What is the best example of a scareware attack? A.A pop-up appears to a user stating, "You have won a free cruise! Click here to claim your prize!" B.A banner appears to a user stating, "Your account has been locked. Click here to reset your password and unlock your account." C.A banner appears to a user stating, "Your Amazon order has been delayed. Click here to find out your new delivery date." D.A pop-up appears to a user stating, "Your computer may have been infected with spyware. Click here to install an anti-spyware tool to resolve this issue." Answer: D QUESTION 950 Bill has been hired as a penetration tester and cyber security auditor for a major credit card company. Which information security standard is most applicable to his role? A.FISMA B.HITECH C.PCI-DSS D.Sarbanes-OxleyAct Answer: C QUESTION 951 Tony wants to integrate a 128-bit symmetric block cipher with key sizes of 128,192, or 256 bits into a software program, which involves 32 rounds of computational operations that include substitution and permutation operations on four 32-bit word blocks using 8-variable S-boxes with 4-bit entry and 4-bit exit. Which of the following algorithms includes all the above features and can be integrated by Tony into the software program? A.TEA B.CAST-128 C.RC5 D.serpent Answer: D QUESTION 952 Morris, an attacker, wanted to check whether the target AP is in a locked state. He attempted using different utilities to identify WPS-enabled APs in the target wireless network. Ultimately, he succeeded with one special command-line utility. Which of the following command-line utilities allowed Morris to discover the WPS-enabled APs? A.wash B.ntptrace C.macof D.net View Answer: A QUESTION 953 What type of virus is most likely to remain undetected by antivirus software? A.Cavity virus B.Stealth virus C.File-extension virus D.Macro virus Answer: B QUESTION 954 Ben purchased a new smartphone and received some updates on it through the OTA method. He received two messages: one with a PIN from the network operator and another asking him to enter the PIN received from the operator. As soon as he entered the PIN, the smartphone started functioning in an abnormal manner. What is the type of attack performed on Ben in the above scenario? A.Advanced SMS phishing B.Bypass SSL pinning C.Phishing D.Tap 'n ghost attack Answer: A QUESTION 955 Jack, a professional hacker, targets an organization and performs vulnerability scanning on the target web server to identify any possible weaknesses, vulnerabilities, and misconfigurations. In this process, Jack uses an automated tool that eases his work and performs vulnerability scanning to find hosts, services, and other vulnerabilities in the target server. Which of the following tools is used by Jack to perform vulnerability scanning? A.Infoga B.WebCopier Pro C.Netsparker D.NCollector Studio Answer: C QUESTION 956 Stephen, an attacker, targeted the industrial control systems of an organization. He generated a fraudulent email with a malicious attachment and sent it to employees of the target organization. An employee who manages the sales software of the operational plant opened the fraudulent email and clicked on the malicious attachment. This resulted in the malicious attachment being downloaded and malware being injected into the sales software maintained in the victim's system. Further, the malware propagated itself to other networked systems, finally damaging the industrial automation components. What is the attack technique used by Stephen to damage the industrial systems? A.Spear-phishing attack B.SMishing attack C.Reconnaissance attack D.HMI-based attack Answer: A QUESTION 957 Shiela is an information security analyst working at HiTech Security Solutions. She is performing service version discovery using Nmap to obtain information about the running services and their versions on a target system. Which of the following Nmap options must she use to perform service version discovery on the target host? A.-SN B.-SX C.-sV D.-SF Answer: C QUESTION 958 Kate dropped her phone and subsequently encountered an issue with the phone's internal speaker. Thus, she is using the phone's loudspeaker for phone calls and other activities. Bob, an attacker, takes advantage of this vulnerability and secretly exploits the hardware of Kate's phone so that he can monitor the loudspeaker's output from data sources such as voice assistants, multimedia messages, and audio files by using a malicious app to breach speech privacy. What is the type of attack Bob performed on Kate in the above scenario? A.Man-in-the-disk attack B.aLTEr attack C.SIM card attack D.ASpearphone attack Answer: B QUESTION 959 Jude, a pen tester, examined a network from a hacker's perspective to identify exploits and vulnerabilities accessible to the outside world by using devices such as firewalls, routers, and servers. In this process, he also estimated the threat of network security attacks and determined the level of security of the corporate network. What is the type of vulnerability assessment that Jude performed on the organization? A.External assessment B.Passive assessment C.A Host-based assessment D.Application assessment Answer: C QUESTION 960 Roma is a member of a security team. She was tasked with protecting the internal network of an organization from imminent threats. To accomplish this task, Roma fed threat intelligence into the security devices in a digital format to block and identify inbound and outbound malicious traffic entering the organization's network. Which type of threat intelligence is used by Roma to secure the internal network? A.Technical threat intelligence B.Operational threat intelligence C.Tactical threat intelligence D.Strategic threat intelligence Answer: B QUESTION 961 Becky has been hired by a client from Dubai to perform a penetration test against one of their remote offices. Working from her location in Columbus, Ohio, Becky runs her usual reconnaissance scans to obtain basic information about their network. When analyzing the results of her Whois search, Becky notices that the IP was allocated to a location in Le Havre, France. Which regional Internet registry should Becky go to for detailed information? A.ARIN B.APNIC C.RIPE D.LACNIC Answer: C QUESTION 962 Joel, a professional hacker, targeted a company and identified the types of websites frequently visited by its employees. Using this information, he searched for possible loopholes in these websites and injected a malicious script that can redirect users from the web page and download malware onto a victim's machine. Joel waits for the victim to access the infected web application so as to compromise the victim's machine. Which of the following techniques is used by Joel in the above scenario? A.DNS rebinding attack B.Clickjacking attack C.MarioNet attack D.Watering hole attack Answer: B QUESTION 963 Juliet, a security researcher in an organization, was tasked with checking for the authenticity of images to be used in the organization's magazines. She used these images as a search query and tracked the original source and details of the images, which included photographs, profile pictures, and memes. Which of the following footprinting techniques did Rachel use to finish her task? A.Reverse image search B.Meta search engines C.Advanced image search D.Google advanced search Answer: C QUESTION 964 A security analyst uses Zenmap to perform an ICMP timestamp ping scan to acquire information related to the current time from the target host machine. Which of the following Zenmap options must the analyst use to perform the ICMP timestamp ping scan? A.-PY B.-PU C.-PP D.-Pn Answer: C QUESTION 965 Elante company has recently hired James as a penetration tester. He was tasked with performing enumeration on an organization's network. In the process of enumeration, James discovered a service that is accessible to external sources. This service runs directly on port 21. What is the service enumerated byjames in the above scenario? A.Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) B.File Transfer Protocol (FTP) C.Network File System (NFS) D.Remote procedure call (RPC) Answer: B QUESTION 966 Given below are different steps involved in the vulnerability-management life cycle. 1) Remediation 2) Identify assets and create a baseline 3) Verification 4) Monitor 5) Vulnerability scan 6) Risk assessment Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in vulnerability management. A.2-->5-->6-->1-->3-->4 B.2-->1-->5-->6-->4-->3 C.2-->4-->5-->3-->6--> 1 D.1-->2-->3-->4-->5-->6 Answer: A QUESTION 967 Tony is a penetration tester tasked with performing a penetration test. After gaining initial access to a target system, he finds a list of hashed passwords. Which of the following tools would not be useful for cracking the hashed passwords? A.John the Ripper B.Hashcat C.netcat D.THC-Hydra Answer: A QUESTION 968 Which Nmap switch helps evade IDS or firewalls? A.-n/-R B.-0N/-0X/-0G C.-T D.-D Answer: D QUESTION 969 Harper, a software engineer, is developing an email application. To ensure the confidentiality of email messages. Harper uses a symmetric-key block cipher having a classical 12- or 16-round Feistel network with a block size of 64 bits for encryption, which includes large 8 x 32-bit S-boxes (S1, S2, S3, S4) based on bent functions, modular addition and subtraction, key-dependent rotation, and XOR operations. This cipher also uses a masking key(Km1)and a rotation key (Kr1) for performing its functions. What is the algorithm employed by Harper to secure the email messages? A.CAST-128 B.AES C.GOST block cipher D.DES Answer: C QUESTION 970 Which of the following Google advanced search operators helps an attacker in gathering information about websites that are similar to a specified target URL? A.[inurl:] B.[related:] C.[info:] D.[site:] Answer: D QUESTION 971 The security team of Debry Inc. decided to upgrade Wi-Fi security to thwart attacks such as dictionary attacks and key recovery attacks. For this purpose, the security team started implementing cutting-edge technology that uses a modern key establishment protocol called the simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE), also known as dragonfly key exchange, which replaces the PSK concept. What is the Wi-Fi encryption technology implemented by Debry Inc.? A.WEP B.WPA C.WPA2 D.WPA3 Answer: C QUESTION 972 Stella, a professional hacker, performs an attack on web services by exploiting a vulnerability that provides additional routing information in the SOAP header to support asynchronous communication. This further allows the transmission of web-service requests and response messages using different TCP connections. Which of the following attack techniques is used by Stella to compromise the web services? A.XML injection B.WS-Address spoofing C.SOAPAction spoofing D.Web services parsing attacks Answer: B QUESTION 973 James is working as an ethical hacker at Technix Solutions. The management ordered James to discover how vulnerable its network is towards footprinting attacks. James took the help of an open- source framework for performing automated reconnaissance activities. This framework helped James in gathering information using free tools and resources. What is the framework used by James to conduct footprinting and reconnaissance activities? A.WebSploit Framework B.Browser Exploitation Framework C.OSINT framework D.SpeedPhish Framework Answer: C QUESTION 974 Thomas, a cloud security professional, is performing security assessment on cloud services to identify any loopholes. He detects a vulnerability in a bare-metal cloud server that can enable hackers to implant malicious backdoors in its firmware. He also identified that an installed backdoor can persist even if the server is reallocated to new clients or businesses that use it as an laaS. What is the type of cloud attack that can be performed by exploiting the vulnerability discussed in the above scenario? A.Man-in-the-cloud (MITC) attack B.Cloud cryptojacking C.Cloudborne attack D.Metadata spoofing attack Answer: C QUESTION 975 Which among the following is the best example of the third step (delivery) in the cyber kill chain? A.An intruder sends a malicious attachment via email to a target. B.An intruder creates malware to be used as a malicious attachment to an email. C.An intruder's malware is triggered when a target opens a malicious email attachment. D.An intruder's malware is installed on a target's machine. Answer: C QUESTION 976 Dayn, an attacker, wanted to detect if any honeypots are installed in a target network. For this purpose, he used a time-based TCP fingerprinting method to validate the response to a normal computer and the response of a honeypot to a manual SYN request. Which of the following techniques is employed by Dayn to detect honeypots? A.Detecting honeypots running on VMware B.Detecting the presence of Honeyd honeypots C.A Detecting the presence of Snort_inline honeypots D.Detecting the presence of Sebek-based honeypots Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go 312-50v11 PDF and 312-50v11 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/13uhEZnrNlkAP8a1O5NNI-yHndoWuz7Cj?usp=sharing
[September-2021]Braindump2go New PCNSE PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q360-Q384)
QUESTION 360 A firewall is configured with SSL Forward Proxy decryption and has the following four enterprise certificate authorities (Cas): i. Enterprise-Trusted-CA; which is verified as Forward Trust Certificate (The CA is also installed in the trusted store of the end-user browser and system ) ii. Enterpnse-Untrusted-CA, which is verified as Forward Untrust Certificate iii. Enterprise-lntermediate-CA iv. Enterprise-Root-CA which is verified only as Trusted Root CA An end-user visits https //www example-website com/ with a server certificate Common Name (CN) www example-website com The firewall does the SSL Forward Proxy decryption for the website and the server certificate is not trusted by the firewall. The end-user's browser will show that the certificate for www example-website com was issued by which of the following? A.Enterprise-Untrusted-CA which is a self-signed CA B.Enterprise-Trusted-CA which is a self-signed CA C.Enterprise-lntermediate-CA which was. in turn, issued by Enterprise-Root-CA D.Enterprise-Root-CA which is a self-signed CA Answer: B QUESTION 361 An administrator plans to deploy 15 firewalls to act as GlobalProtect gateways around the world Panorama will manage the firewalls. The firewalls will provide access to mobile users and act as edge locations to on-premises Infrastructure. The administrator wants to scale the configuration out quickly and wants all of the firewalls to use the same template configuration. Which two solutions can the administrator use to scale this configuration? (Choose two.) A.variables B.template stacks C.collector groups D.virtual systems Answer: BC QUESTION 362 A traffic log might list an application as "not-applicable" for which two reasons? (Choose two ) A.0The firewall did not install the session B.The TCP connection terminated without identifying any application data C.The firewall dropped a TCP SYN packet D.There was not enough application data after the TCP connection was established Answer: AD QUESTION 363 An administrator is considering upgrading the Palo Alto Networks NGFW and central management Panorama version. What is considered best practice for this scenario? A.Perform the Panorama and firewall upgrades simultaneously B.Upgrade the firewall first wait at least 24 hours and then upgrade the Panorama version C.Upgrade Panorama to a version at or above the target firewall version D.Export the device state perform the update, and then import the device state Answer: A QUESTION 364 An administrator needs to implement an NGFW between their DMZ and Core network EIGRP Routing between the two environments is required. Which interface type would support this business requirement? A.Layer 3 interfaces but configuring EIGRP on the attached virtual router B.Virtual Wire interfaces to permit EIGRP routing to remain between the Core and DMZ C.Layer 3 or Aggregate Ethernet interfaces but configuring EIGRP on subinterfaces only D.Tunnel interfaces to terminate EIGRP routing on an IPsec tunnel (with the GlobalProtect License to support LSVPN and EIGRP protocols) Answer: D QUESTION 365 When you configure a Layer 3 interface what is one mandatory step? A.Configure Security profiles, which need to be attached to each Layer 3 interface B.Configure Interface Management profiles which need to be attached to each Layer 3 interface C.Configure virtual routers to route the traffic for each Layer 3 interface D.Configure service routes to route the traffic for each Layer 3 interface Answer: A QUESTION 366 An administrator has a PA-820 firewall with an active Threat Prevention subscription. The administrator is considering adding a WildFire subscription. How does adding the WildFire subscription improve the security posture of the organization1? A.Protection against unknown malware can be provided in near real-time B.WildFire and Threat Prevention combine to provide the utmost security posture for the firewall C.After 24 hours WildFire signatures are included in the antivirus update D.WildFire and Threat Prevention combine to minimize the attack surface Answer: D QUESTION 367 Which three statements accurately describe Decryption Mirror? (Choose three.) A.Decryption Mirror requires a tap interface on the firewall B.Decryption, storage, inspection and use of SSL traffic are regulated in certain countries C.Only management consent is required to use the Decryption Mirror feature D.You should consult with your corporate counsel before activating and using Decryption Mirror in a production environment E.Use of Decryption Mirror might enable malicious users with administrative access to the firewall to harvest sensitive information that is submitted via an encrypted channel Answer: ABC QUESTION 368 As a best practice, which URL category should you target first for SSL decryption? A.Online Storage and Backup B.High Risk C.Health and Medicine D.Financial Services Answer: A QUESTION 369 An administrator wants to enable zone protection Before doing so, what must the administrator consider? A.Activate a zone protection subscription. B.To increase bandwidth no more than one firewall interface should be connected to a zone C.Security policy rules do not prevent lateral movement of traffic between zones D.The zone protection profile will apply to all interfaces within that zone Answer: A QUESTION 370 What are two characteristic types that can be defined for a variable? (Choose two ) A.zone B.FQDN C.path group D.IP netmask Answer: BD QUESTION 371 What are three valid qualifiers for a Decryption Policy Rule match? (Choose three ) A.Destination Zone B.App-ID C.Custom URL Category D.User-ID E.Source Interface Answer: ADE QUESTION 372 Given the following configuration, which route is used for destination 10.10.0.4? A.Route 4 B.Route 3 C.Route 1 D.Route 3 Answer: A QUESTION 373 When an in-band data port is set up to provide access to required services, what is required for an interface that is assigned to service routes? A.The interface must be used for traffic to the required services B.You must enable DoS and zone protection C.You must set the interface to Layer 2 Layer 3. or virtual wire D.You must use a static IP address Answer: A QUESTION 374 What does SSL decryption require to establish a firewall as a trusted third party and to establish trust between a client and server to secure an SSL/TLS connection? A.link state B.stateful firewall connection C.certificates D.profiles Answer: C QUESTION 375 When setting up a security profile which three items can you use? (Choose three ) A.Wildfire analysis B.anti-ransom ware C.antivirus D.URL filtering E.decryption profile Answer: ACD QUESTION 376 A variable name must start with which symbol? A.$ B.& C.! D.# Answer: A QUESTION 377 An administrator needs to troubleshoot a User-ID deployment. The administrator believes that there is an issue related to LDAP authentication. The administrator wants to create a packet capture on the management plane. Which CLI command should the administrator use to obtain the packet capture for validating the configuration? A.> ftp export mgmt-pcap from mgmt.pcap to <FTP host> B.> scp export mgmt-pcap from mgmt.pcap to {usernameQhost:path> C.> scp export pcap-mgmt from pcap.mgiat to (username@host:path) D.> scp export pcap from pcap to (usernameQhost:path) Answer: C QUESTION 378 What are two common reasons to use a "No Decrypt" action to exclude traffic from SSL decryption? (Choose two.) A.the website matches a category that is not allowed for most users B.the website matches a high-risk category C.the web server requires mutual authentication D.the website matches a sensitive category Answer: AD QUESTION 379 During SSL decryption which three factors affect resource consumption1? (Choose three ) A.TLS protocol version B.transaction size C.key exchange algorithm D.applications that use non-standard ports E.certificate issuer Answer: ABC QUESTION 380 An internal system is not functioning. The firewall administrator has determined that the incorrect egress interface is being used. After looking at the configuration, the administrator believes that the firewall is not using a static route. What are two reasons why the firewall might not use a static route"? (Choose two.) A.no install on the route B.duplicate static route C.path monitoring on the static route D.disabling of the static route Answer: C QUESTION 381 Before you upgrade a Palo Alto Networks NGFW what must you do? A.Make sure that the PAN-OS support contract is valid for at least another year B.Export a device state of the firewall C.Make sure that the firewall is running a version of antivirus software and a version of WildFire that support the licensed subscriptions. D.Make sure that the firewall is running a supported version of the app + threat update Answer: B QUESTION 382 Which User-ID mapping method should be used in a high-security environment where all IP address-to-user mappings should always be explicitly known? A.PAN-OS integrated User-ID agent B.LDAP Server Profile configuration C.GlobalProtect D.Windows-based User-ID agent Answer: A QUESTION 383 Given the following snippet of a WildFire submission log. did the end-user get access to the requested information and why or why not? A.Yes. because the action is set to "allow '' B.No because WildFire categorized a file with the verdict "malicious" C.Yes because the action is set to "alert" D.No because WildFire classified the seventy as "high." Answer: B QUESTION 384 An administrator needs to gather information about the CPU utilization on both the management plane and the data plane. Where does the administrator view the desired data? A.Monitor > Utilization B.Resources Widget on the Dashboard C.Support > Resources D.Application Command and Control Center Answer: A 2021 Latest Braindump2go PCNSE PDF and PCNSE VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1VvlcN8GDfslOVKt1Cj-E7yHyUNUyXuxc?usp=sharing
Why Your Business Needs Online Timesheets
A business gets a better vision of the future when it knows how its employees are performing. From a business point of view, productivity and tracking time allow you to improve the team’s performance, maximize resources, and gain accurate knowledge of how hours are being spent.  What is Online Timesheet? The timesheet is a data sheet that employers use to track the time of employees for a certain period of time. It is basically a record of time spent by the employees on a particular task, client, or project. There have been different ways to record the timesheet, like, paper, spreadsheet software, excel, and nowadays online timesheets software.  Why should Businesses use Timesheets? For any business to rise and shine, there should be effective work performed for effective results. Thus, a business owner wants its employees to utilize their work duration in a productive manner. Having a fleet of employees, it becomes quite difficult to understand each employee’s efficiency to finish their task.  Therefore, it turned out necessary to keep track of the employee’s dedication to complete the project. Here Timesheet comes into play. It will help to determine each employee’s work status. Accordingly, you can motivate the employee who is working slow.  This will help to meet deadlines and maintain the budget also. Advantages of Timesheets - Reduce Time Wastage Accurate billing Automates Billing Project Management Saves Company’s expenditure How do different business sectors use Timesheets? Various types of industries are using Online Timesheets in different terms. Let’s check out how: Law Firm – The law firm sector keeps a record of their client’s dealing hours and maintains a list of services they provide. Here, the timesheet assists in tracking the bill according to the client servicing hours. Freelancers – Many freelancers charge per hour with the clients. Thus, maintaining the time record is very necessary. To do this, freelancers use the Timesheet online calculator that helps to record the time precisely. This helps to keep transparency between you and the client. Accountants – The accountant’s profit depends on how the workers of the company spend time to complete the client’s project: the more billability, the more profit. Thus, to set a record of the time and bills, the Timesheet is required. But, correct software should be chosen for the accountants that can help in employee tracking and maintaining the online timesheet. One recommended software is WorkStatus, which includes an all-in-one feature.  Final Words With the growth in technology, time has become a vital part of businesses, and simultaneously a timesheet has been chosen by different industries, to know each hour’s production. An Online Timesheets Software like WorkStatus will help you provide an auto-update about the time schedules of the employees. This will help your business to drive to success. So, say bye-bye to paper timesheets and choose the software that will give accurate time notes, and your data will be safe and secured. Source : Why Your Business Needs Online Timesheets | Benefits & User Manual
[September-2021]Braindump2go New SOA-C02 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q120-Q143)
QUESTION 120 A SysOps administrator is troubleshooting connection timeouts to an Amazon EC2 instance that has a public IP address. The instance has a private IP address of 172.31.16.139. When the SysOps administrator tries to ping the instance's public IP address from the remote IP address 203.0.113.12, the response is "request timed out." The flow logs contain the following information: What is one cause of the problem? A.Inbound security group deny rule B.Outbound security group deny rule C.Network ACL inbound rules D.Network ACL outbound rules Answer: D QUESTION 121 A company has multiple Amazon EC2 instances that run a resource-intensive application in a development environment. A SysOps administrator is implementing a solution to stop these EC2 instances when they are not in use. Which solution will meet this requirement? A.Assess AWS CloudTrail logs to verify that there is no EC2 API activity. Invoke an AWS Lambda function to stop the EC2 instances. B.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to stop the EC2 instances when the average CPU utilization is lower than 5% for a 30-minute period. C.Create an Amazon CloudWatch metric to stop the EC2 instances when the VolumeReadBytes metric is lower than 500 for a 30-minute period. D.Use AWS Config to invoke an AWS Lambda function to stop the EC2 instances based on resource configuration changes. Answer: B QUESTION 122 A SysOps administrator needs to configure a solution that will deliver digital content to a set of authorized users through Amazon CloudFront. Unauthorized users must be restricted from access. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that does not have public access blocked. Use signed URLs to access the S3 bucket through CloudFront. B.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that has public access blocked. Use an origin access identity (OAI) to deliver the content through CloudFront. Restrict S3 bucket access with signed URLs in CloudFront. C.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that has public access blocked. Use an origin access identity (OAI) to deliver the content through CloudFront. Enable field-level encryption. D.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that does not have public access blocked. Use signed cookies for restricted delivery of the content through CloudFront. Answer: B QUESTION 123 A company has attached the following policy to an IAM user: Which of the following actions are allowed for the IAM user? A.Amazon RDS DescribeDBInstances action in the us-east-1 Region B.Amazon S3 Putobject operation in a bucket named testbucket C.Amazon EC2 Describe Instances action in the us-east-1 Region D.Amazon EC2 AttachNetworkinterf ace action in the eu-west-1 Region Answer: C QUESTION 124 A company runs a web application on three Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The company notices that random periods of increased traffic cause a degradation in the application's performance. A SysOps administrator must scale the application to meet the increased traffic. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to monitor application latency and increase the size of each EC2 instance if the desired threshold is reached. B.Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to monitor application latency and add an EC2 instance to the ALB if the desired threshold is reached. C.Deploy the application to an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with a target tracking scaling policy. Attach the ALB to the Auto Scaling group. D.Deploy the application to an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with a scheduled scaling policy. Attach the ALB to the Auto Scaling group. Answer: C QUESTION 125 A company's public website is hosted in an Amazon S3 bucket in the us-east-1 Region behind an Amazon CloudFront distribution. The company wants to ensure that the website is protected from DDoS attacks. A SysOps administrator needs to deploy a solution that gives the company the ability to maintain control over the rate limit at which DDoS protections are applied. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Deploy a global-scoped AWS WAF web ACL with an allow default action. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to block matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the CloudFront distribution. B.Deploy an AWS WAF web ACL with an allow default action in us-east-1. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to block matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the S3 bucket. C.Deploy a global-scoped AWS WAF web ACL with a block default action. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to allow matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the CloudFront distribution. D.Deploy an AWS WAF web ACL with a block default action in us-east-1. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to allow matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the S3 bucket. Answer: B QUESTION 126 A company hosts an internal application on Amazon EC2 instances. All application data and requests route through an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection between the on-premises network and AWS. The company must monitor the application for changes that allow network access outside of the corporate network. Any change that exposes the application externally must be restricted automatically. Which solution meets these requirements in the MOST operationally efficient manner? A.Create an AWS Lambda function that updates security groups that are associated with the elastic network interface to remove inbound rules with noncorporate CIDR ranges. Turn on VPC Flow Logs, and send the logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that matches traffic from noncorporate CIDR ranges, and publish a message to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic with the Lambda function as a target. B.Create a scheduled Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that targets an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to check for public IP addresses on the EC2 instances. If public IP addresses are found on the EC2 instances, initiate another Systems Manager Automation document to terminate the instances. C.Configure AWS Config and a custom rule to monitor whether a security group allows inbound requests from noncorporate CIDR ranges. Create an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to remove any noncorporate CIDR ranges from the application security groups. D.Configure AWS Config and the managed rule for monitoring public IP associations with the EC2 instances by tag. Tag the EC2 instances with an identifier. Create an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to remove the public IP association from the EC2 instances. Answer: A QUESTION 127 A SysOps administrator needs to create alerts that are based on the read and write metrics of Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes that are attached to an Amazon EC2 instance. The SysOps administrator creates and enables Amazon CloudWatch alarms for the DiskReadBytes metric and the DiskWriteBytes metric. A custom monitoring tool that is installed on the EC2 instance with the same alarm configuration indicates that the volume metrics have exceeded the threshold. However, the CloudWatch alarms were not in ALARM state. Which action will ensure that the CloudWatch alarms function correctly? A.Install and configure the CloudWatch agent on the EC2 instance to capture the desired metrics. B.Install and configure AWS Systems Manager Agent on the EC2 instance to capture the desired metrics. C.Reconfigure the CloudWatch alarms to use the VolumeReadBytes metric and the VolumeWriteBytes metric for the EBS volumes. D.Reconfigure the CloudWatch alarms to use the VolumeReadBytes metric and the VolumeWriteBytes metric for the EC2 instance. Answer: C QUESTION 128 A company is partnering with an external vendor to provide data processing services. For this integration, the vendor must host the company's data in an Amazon S3 bucket in the vendor's AWS account. The vendor is allowing the company to provide an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) key to encrypt the company's data. The vendor has provided an IAM role Amazon Resource Name (ARN) to the company for this integration. What should a SysOps administrator do to configure this integration? A.Create a new KMS key. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the KMS key policy. Provide the new KMS key ARN to the vendor. B.Create a new KMS key. Create a new IAM user. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to an inline policy that is attached to the IAM user. Provide the new IAM user ARN to the vendor. C.Configure encryption using the KMS managed S3 key. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the KMS managed S3 key policy. Provide the KMS managed S3 key ARN to the vendor. D.Configure encryption using the KMS managed S3 key. Create an S3 bucket. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the S3 bucket policy. Provide the S3 bucket ARN to the vendor. Answer: C QUESTION 129 A company has an Auto Scaling group of Amazon EC2 instances that scale based on average CPU utilization. The Auto Scaling group events log indicates an InsufficientlnstanceCapacity error. Which actions should a SysOps administrator take to remediate this issue? (Select TWO. A.Change the instance type that the company is using. B.Configure the Auto Scaling group in different Availability Zones. C.Configure the Auto Scaling group to use different Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume sizes. D.Increase the maximum size of the Auto Scaling group. E.Request an increase in the instance service quota. Answer: AB QUESTION 130 A company stores files on 50 Amazon S3 buckets in the same AWS Region. The company wants to connect to the S3 buckets securely over a private connection from its Amazon EC2 instances. The company needs a solution that produces no additional cost. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Create a gateway VPC endpoint for each S3 bucket. Attach the gateway VPC endpoints to each subnet inside the VPC. B.Create an interface VPC endpoint for each S3 bucket. Attach the interface VPC endpoints to each subnet inside the VPC. C.Create one gateway VPC endpoint for all the S3 buckets. Add the gateway VPC endpoint to the VPC route table. D.Create one interface VPC endpoint for all the S3 buckets. Add the interface VPC endpoint to the VPC route table. Answer: C QUESTION 131 A company has a VPC with public and private subnets. An Amazon EC2 based application resides in the private subnets and needs to process raw .csv files stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. A SysOps administrator has set up the correct IAM role with the required permissions for the application to access the S3 bucket, but the application is unable to communicate with the S3 bucket. Which action will solve this problem while adhering to least privilege access? A.Add a bucket policy to the S3 bucket permitting access from the IAM role. B.Attach an S3 gateway endpoint to the VPC. Configure the route table for the private subnet. C.Configure the route table to allow the instances on the private subnet access through the internet gateway. D.Create a NAT gateway in a private subnet and configure the route table for the private subnets. Answer: B QUESTION 132 A large company is using AWS Organizations to manage hundreds of AWS accounts across multiple AWS Regions. The company has turned on AWS Config throughout the organization. The company requires all Amazon S3 buckets to block public read access. A SysOps administrator must generate a monthly report that shows all the S3 buckets and whether they comply with this requirement. Which combination of steps should the SysOps administrator take to collect this data? {Select TWO). A.Create an AWS Config aggregator in an aggregator account. Use the organization as the source. Retrieve the compliance data from the aggregator. B.Create an AWS Config aggregator in each account. Use an S3 bucket in an aggregator account as the destination. Retrieve the compliance data from the S3 bucket C.Edit the AWS Config policy in AWS Organizations. Use the organization's management account to turn on the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule for the entire organization. D.Use the AWS Config compliance report from the organization's management account. Filter the results by resource, and select Amazon S3. E.Use the AWS Config API to apply the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule in all accounts for all available Regions. Answer: CD QUESTION 133 A SysOps administrator launches an Amazon EC2 Linux instance in a public subnet. When the instance is running, the SysOps administrator obtains the public IP address and attempts to remotely connect to the instance multiple times. However, the SysOps administrator always receives a timeout error. Which action will allow the SysOps administrator to remotely connect to the instance? A.Add a route table entry in the public subnet for the SysOps administrator's IP address. B.Add an outbound network ACL rule to allow TCP port 22 for the SysOps administrator's IP address. C.Modify the instance security group to allow inbound SSH traffic from the SysOps administrator's IP address. D.Modify the instance security group to allow outbound SSH traffic to the SysOps administrator's IP address. Answer: C QUESTION 134 A recent organizational audit uncovered an existing Amazon RDS database that is not currently configured for high availability. Given the critical nature of this database, it must be configured for high availability as soon as possible. How can this requirement be met? A.Switch to an active/passive database pair using the create-db-instance-read-replica with the -- availability-zone flag. B.Specify high availability when creating a new RDS instance, and live-migrate the data. C.Modify the RDS instance using the console to include the Multi-AZ option. D.Use the modify-db-instance command with the --na flag. Answer: C QUESTION 135 A SysOps administrator noticed that the cache hit ratio for an Amazon CloudFront distribution is less than 10%. Which collection of configuration changes will increase the cache hit ratio for the distribution? (Select TWO.) A.Ensure that only required cookies, query strings, and headers are forwarded in the Cache Behavior Settings. B.Change the Viewer Protocol Policy to use HTTPS only. C.Configure the distribution to use presigned cookies and URLs to restrict access to the distribution. D.Enable automatic compression of objects in the Cache Behavior Settings. E.Increase the CloudFront time to live (TTL) settings in the Cache Behavior Settings. Answer: AE QUESTION 136 A company has mandated the use of multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all IAM users, and requires users to make all API calls using the CLI. However. users are not prompted to enter MFA tokens, and are able to run CLI commands without MFA. In an attempt to enforce MFA, the company attached an IAM policy to all users that denies API calls that have not been authenticated with MFA. What additional step must be taken to ensure that API calls are authenticated using MFA? A.Enable MFA on IAM roles, and require IAM users to use role credentials to sign API calls. B.Ask the IAM users to log into the AWS Management Console with MFA before making API calls using the CLI. C.Restrict the IAM users to use of the console, as MFA is not supported for CLI use. D.Require users to use temporary credentials from the get-session token command to sign API calls. Answer: D QUESTION 137 A company is running a flash sale on its website. The website is hosted on burstable performance Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The Auto Scaling group is configured to launch instances when the CPU utilization is above 70%. A couple of hours into the sale, users report slow load times and error messages for refused connections. A SysOps administrator reviews Amazon CloudWatch metrics and notices that the CPU utilization is at 20% across the entire fleet of instances. The SysOps administrator must restore the website's functionality without making changes to the network infrastructure. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Activate unlimited mode for the instances in the Auto Scaling group. B.Implement an Amazon CloudFront distribution to offload the traffic from the Auto Scaling group. C.Move the website to a different AWS Region that is closer to the users. D.Reduce the desired size of the Auto Scaling group to artificially increase CPU average utilization. Answer: B QUESTION 138 A gaming application is deployed on four Amazon EC2 instances in a default VPC. The SysOps administrator has noticed consistently high latency in responses as data is transferred among the four instances. There is no way for the administrator to alter the application code. The MOST effective way to reduce latency is to relaunch the EC2 instances in: A.a dedicated VPC. B.a single subnet inside the VPC. C.a placement group. D.a single Availability Zone. Answer: C QUESTION 139 A company uses AWS Organizations to manage multiple AWS accounts with consolidated billing enabled. Organization member account owners want the benefits of Reserved Instances (RIs) but do not want to share RIs with other accounts. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Purchase RIs in individual member accounts. Disable Rl discount sharing in the management account. B.Purchase RIs in individual member accounts. Disable Rl discount sharing in the member accounts. C.Purchase RIs in the management account. Disable Rl discount sharing in the management account. D.Purchase RIs in the management account. Disable Rl discount sharing in the member accounts. Answer: D QUESTION 140 An errant process is known to use an entire processor and run at 100%. A SysOps administrator wants to automate restarting the instance once the problem occurs for more than 2 minutes. How can this be accomplished? A.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the Amazon EC2 instance with basic monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance. B.Create a CloudWatch alarm for the EC2 instance with detailed monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance. C.Create an AWS Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered on a scheduled basis every 2 minutes. D.Create a Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered by EC2 health checks. Answer: B QUESTION 141 A company is expanding its fleet of Amazon EC2 instances before an expected increase of traffic. When a SysOps administrator attempts to add more instances, an InstanceLimitExceeded error is returned. What should the SysOps administrator do to resolve this error? A.Add an additional CIDR block to the VPC. B.Launch the EC2 instances in a different Availability Zone. C.Launch new EC2 instances in another VPC. D.Use Service Quotas to request an EC2 quota increase. Answer: D QUESTION 142 A company hosts its website on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The company manages its DNS with Amazon Route 53. and wants to point its domain's zone apex to the website. Which type of record should be used to meet these requirements? A.A CNAME record for the domain's zone apex B.An A record for the domain's zone apex C.An AAAA record for the domain's zone apex D.An alias record for the domain's zone apex Answer: D QUESTION 143 A company has launched a social media website that gives users the ability to upload images directly to a centralized Amazon S3 bucket. The website is popular in areas that are geographically distant from the AWS Region where the S3 bucket is located. Users are reporting that uploads are slow. A SysOps administrator must improve the upload speed. What should the SysOps administrator do to meet these requirements? A.Create S3 access points in Regions that are closer to the users. B.Create an accelerator in AWS Global Accelerator for the S3 bucket. C.Enable S3 Transfer Acceleration on the S3 bucket. D.Enable cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) on the S3 bucket. Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go SOA-C02 PDF and SOA-C02 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1SwmRv-OKTAJzLTMirp_O8l8tjGIFElzz?usp=sharing
[September-2021]Braindump2go New AZ-900 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q294-Q306)
QUESTION 294 What should you use to evaluate whether your company's Azure environment meets regulatory requirements? A.Azure Security Center B.Azure Advisor C.Azure Service Health D.Azure Knowledge Center Answer: A QUESTION 295 You have an azure virtual machine named VM1. You plan to encrypt VM1 by using Azure Disk Encryption. Which Azure resource must you create first? A.An Azure Storage account B.An Azure Information Protection policy C.An Encryption Key D.An Azure Key Vault Answer: D QUESTION 296 You need to be notified when Microsoft plans to perform maintenance that can affect the resources deployed to an Azure subscription. What should you use? A.Azure Monitor B.Azure Service Health C.Azure Advisor D.Microsoft Trust Center Answer: B QUESTION 297 What can you use to identify underutilized or unused Azure virtual machines? A.Azure Advisor B.Azure Cost Management + Billing C.Azure reservations D.Azure Policy Answer: A QUESTION 298 Your company has an Azure subscription that contains resources in several regions. You need to ensure that administrators can only create resources in those regions. What should you use? A.a read-only lock B.an Azure policy C.a management group D.a reservation Answer: B QUESTION 299 Your company has a Software Assurance agreement that includes Microsoft SQL Server licenses. You plan to deploy SQL Server on Azure virtual machines. What should you do to minimize licensing costs for the deployment? A.Deallocate the virtual machines during off hours. B.Use Azure Hybrid Benefit. C.Configure Azure Cost Management budgets. D.Use Azure reservations. Answer: B QUESTION 300 Who can use the Azure Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) calculator? A.billing readers for an Azure subscription only B.owners for an Azure subscription only C.anyone D.all users who have an account in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) that is linked to an Azure subscription only Answer: C QUESTION 301 Hotspot Question For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true, Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 302 Hotspot Question To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area. Answer: QUESTION 303 Drag and Drop Question Match the term to the appropriate description. To answer, drag the appropriate term from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 304 Hotspot Question To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area. Answer: QUESTION 305 Hotspot Question For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true, Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 306 Drag and Drop Question Match the cloud computing benefits to the correct descriptions. To answer, drag the appropriate service from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go AZ-900 PDF and AZ-900 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/13_1lErEE0LMey9KuTE7W2HPiiIw3ymgP?usp=sharing
[September-2021]Braindump2go New 200-201 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q172-Q191)
QUESTION 172 The SOC team has confirmed a potential indicator of compromise on an endpoint. The team has narrowed the executable file's type to a new trojan family. According to the NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide, what is the next step in handling this event? A.Isolate the infected endpoint from the network. B.Perform forensics analysis on the infected endpoint. C.Collect public information on the malware behavior. D.Prioritize incident handling based on the impact. Answer: C QUESTION 173 Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications? A.sandbox B.application allow list C.application block list D.host-based firewall Answer: A QUESTION 174 An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department's servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation? A.Recovery B.Detection C.Eradication D.Analysis Answer: B QUESTION 175 Which data type is necessary to get information about source/destination ports? A.statistical data B.session data C.connectivity data D.alert data Answer: C QUESTION 176 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of attack is being executed? A.SQL injection B.cross-site scripting C.cross-site request forgery D.command injection Answer: A QUESTION 177 Which attack represents the evasion technique of resource exhaustion? A.SQL injection B.man-in-the-middle C.bluesnarfing D.denial-of-service Answer: D QUESTION 178 A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs? A.event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name B.protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port C.event name, log source, time, source IP, and username D.protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name Answer: B QUESTION 179 Which event is a vishing attack? A.obtaining disposed documents from an organization B.using a vulnerability scanner on a corporate network C.setting up a rogue access point near a public hotspot D.impersonating a tech support agent during a phone call Answer: D QUESTION 180 What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying protocol 41 ? A.additional PPTP traffic due to Windows clients B.unauthorized peer-to-peer traffic C.deployment of a GRE network on top of an existing Layer 3 network D.attempts to tunnel IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network Answer: D QUESTION 181 What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive? A.True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them. B.True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless. C.False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately. D.False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged. Answer: C QUESTION 182 An organization's security team has detected network spikes coming from the internal network. An investigation has concluded that the spike in traffic was from intensive network scanning How should the analyst collect the traffic to isolate the suspicious host? A.by most active source IP B.by most used ports C.based on the protocols used D.based on the most used applications Answer: C QUESTION 183 What is an incident response plan? A.an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of operations B.an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and continuous improvements C.an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration ot operational services D.an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations Answer: C QUESTION 184 An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two servers where the remote server is unable to establish a successful session. Initial checks show that the remote server is not receiving an SYN-ACK while establishing a session by sending the first SYN. What is causing this issue? A.incorrect TCP handshake B.incorrect UDP handshake C.incorrect OSI configuration D.incorrect snaplen configuration Answer: A QUESTION 185 A security incident occurred with the potential of impacting business services. Who performs the attack? A.malware author B.threat actor C.bug bounty hunter D.direct competitor Answer: A QUESTION 186 Refer to the exhibit. An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized? A.indirect B.circumstantial C.corroborative D.best Answer: D QUESTION 187 W[^t is vulnerability management? A.A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points. B.A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats. C.A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses. D.A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications Answer: C QUESTION 188 A user received an email attachment named "Hr405-report2609-empl094.exe" but did not run it. Which category of the cyber kill chain should be assigned to this type of event? A.installation B.reconnaissance C.weaponization D.delivery Answer: A QUESTION 189 An engineer needs to configure network systems to detect command and control communications by decrypting ingress and egress perimeter traffic and allowing network security devices to detect malicious outbound communications. Which technology should be used to accomplish the task? A.digital certificates B.static IP addresses C.signatures D.cipher suite Answer: D QUESTION 190 What is a difference between data obtained from Tap and SPAN ports? A.Tap mirrors existing traffic from specified ports, while SPAN presents more structured data for deeper analysis. B.SPAN passively splits traffic between a network device and the network without altering it, while Tap alters response times. C.SPAN improves the detection of media errors, while Tap provides direct access to traffic with lowered data visibility. D.Tap sends traffic from physical layers to the monitoring device, while SPAN provides a copy of network traffic from switch to destination Answer: A QUESTION 191 Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number? A.availability B.confidentiality C.scope D.integrity Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go 200-201 PDF and 200-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1fTPALtM-eluHFw8sUjNGF7Y-ofOP3s-M?usp=sharing