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Web Security Software Market Latest trending report is booming globally by Top Leading Players Open DNS Umbrella, Duo Security, Netskope, Avast Business, Webroot, etc



Due to the pandemic, we have included a special section on the Impact of COVID 19 on the Web Security Software Market which would mention How the Covid-19 is Affecting the Industry, Market Trends and Potential Opportunities in the COVID-19 Landscape, Key Regions and Proposal for Web Security Software Market Players to battle Covid-19 Impact.

Web Security Software Market 2020-2024

The Web Security Software Market report is one of the most comprehensive and important data about business strategies, qualitative and quantitative analysis of Global Market. It offers detailed research and analysis of key aspects of the Web Security Software market. The market analysts authoring this report have provided in-depth information on leading growth drivers, restraints, challenges, trends, and opportunities to offer a complete analysis of the Web Security Software market.
Top Leading players covered in the Web Security Software market report: Open DNS Umbrella, Duo Security, Netskope, Avast Business, Webroot, AlienVault, Trend Micro, Cisco Umbrella, McAfee Web Protection, WebTitan, Cato Networks, Kaspersky Security and More...
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The report offers clear guidelines for players to cement a position of strength in the global Web Security Software market. It prepares them to face future challenges and take advantage of lucrative opportunities by providing a broad analysis of market conditions. the global Web Security Software market will showcase a steady CAGR in the forecast year 2020 to 2024.
Product Type Segmentation:
Cloud Based
Web Based
Industry Segmentation
Large Enterprises
SMEs
Our Complimentary Sample Web Security Software market Report Accommodate a Brief Introduction of the research report, TOC, List of Tables and Figures, Competitive Landscape and Geographic Segmentation, Innovation and Future Developments Based on Research Methodology.
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Regions Covered in the Global Web Security Software Market:
The Middle East and Africa (GCC Countries and Egypt)
North America (the United States, Mexico, and Canada)
South America (Brazil etc.)
Europe (Turkey, Germany, Russia UK, Italy, France, etc.)
Asia-Pacific (Vietnam, China, Malaysia, Japan, Philippines, Korea, Thailand, India, Indonesia, and Australia)
Years Considered to Estimate the Web Security Software Market Size:
History Year: 2015-2019
Base Year: 2019
Estimated Year: 2020
Forecast Year: 2020-2024
Highlights of the Report: 
• Accurate market size and CAGR forecasts for the period 2019-2024
• Identification and in-depth assessment of growth opportunities in key segments and regions
• Detailed company profiling of top players of the global Web Security Software market
• Exhaustive research on innovation and other trends of the global Web Security Software market
• Reliable industry value chain and supply chain analysis
• Comprehensive analysis of important growth drivers, restraints, challenges, and growth prospects

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Procure strategically important competitor information, analysis, and insights to formulate effective R&D strategies.
Recognize emerging players with potentially strong product portfolio and create effective counter-strategies to gain competitive advantage.
Classify potential new clients or partners in the target demographic.
Develop tactical initiatives by understanding the focus areas of leading companies.
Plan mergers and acquisitions meritoriously by identifying Top Manufacturer.
Formulate corrective measures for pipeline projects by understanding Web Security Software pipeline depth.
Develop and design in-licensing and out-licensing strategies by identifying prospective partners with the most attractive projects to enhance and expand business potential and Scope.
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QUESTION 151 You have an on-premises SAP NetWeaver deployment that uses Windows Server 2016 and Microsoft SQL Server 2016. You need to migrate the deployment to an Azure virtual machine that runs Windows Server 2016 and has Microsoft SQL Server 2019 installed. Which migration method should you use? A.heterogeneous SAP classical migration B.classical SAP Database Migration Option (DMO) C.lift-and-shift D.Azure Migrate Answer: B QUESTION 152 You plan to deploy an SAP production landscape that uses SAP HANA databases on Azure. You need to configure the storage infrastructure to support the SAP HANA deployment. The solution must meet the SAP issued requirements for data throughput and I/O. How should you configure the storage? A.RAID1 B.RAID5 C.RAID0 D.RAID6 Answer: B QUESTION 153 You plan to automate a deployment of SAP NetWeave on Azure virtual machines by using Azure Resource Manager templates. 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You plan to migrate the deployment to Azure and Microsoft SQL Server 2017. What should you use to migrate the deployment? A.SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMA) B.Azure SQL Data Sync C.db2haicu D.DSN1COPY Answer: A QUESTION 156 You have an Azure subscription. The subscription contains a virtual machine named VM1 that runs SAP HANA and a user named User1. User1 is assigned the Virtual Machine Contributor role of VM1. You need to prevent User1 from placing VM1 in the Stopped (deallocated) state. User1 must be able to restart the operating system on VM1. What should you do? A.Assign an Azure Policy definition to the resource group that contains VM1. B.Create a resource lock on VM1. C.Configure the Desired State Configuration (DSC) extension on VM1. D.Assign User1 the Virtual Machine User Login rote for VM1. Answer: C QUESTION 157 You have an on-premises SAP production landscape. You plan to migrate to SAP on Azure. You need to generate an SAP Early Watch Alert report. 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QUESTION 141 A bank is using Amazon Managed Streaming for Apache Kafka (Amazon MSK) to populate real-time data into a data lake. The data lake is built on Amazon S3, and data must be accessible from the data lake within 24 hours. Different microservices produce messages to different topics in the cluster. The cluster is created with 8 TB of Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) storage and a retention period of 7 days. The customer transaction volume has tripled recently and disk monitoring has provided an alert that the cluster is almost out of storage capacity. What should a data analytics specialist do to prevent the cluster from running out of disk space1? A.Use the Amazon MSK console to triple the broker storage and restart the cluster B.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that monitors the KafkaDataLogsDiskUsed metric Automatically flush the oldest messages when the value of this metric exceeds 85% C.Create a custom Amazon MSK configuration Set the log retention hours parameter to 48 Update the cluster with the new configuration file D.Triple the number of consumers to ensure that data is consumed as soon as it is added to a topic. Answer: B QUESTION 142 An analytics software as a service (SaaS) provider wants to offer its customers business intelligence (BI) reporting capabilities that are self-service. The provider is using Amazon QuickSight to build these reports. The data for the reports resides in a multi-tenant database, but each customer should only be able to access their own data. The provider wants to give customers two user role options: - Read-only users for individuals who only need to view dashboards - Power users for individuals who are allowed to create and share new dashboards with other users Which QuickSight feature allows the provider to meet these requirements? A.Embedded dashboards B.Table calculations C.Isolated namespaces D.SPICE Answer: A QUESTION 143 A manufacturing company has many loT devices in different facilities across the world. The company is using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to collect the data from the devices. The company's operations team has started to observe many WnteThroughputExceeded exceptions. The operations team determines that the reason is the number of records that are being written to certain shards. The data contains device ID capture date measurement type, measurement value and facility ID. The facility ID is used as the partition key. Which action will resolve this issue? A.Change the partition key from facility ID to a randomly generated key B.Increase the number of shards C.Archive the data on the producers' side D.Change the partition key from facility ID to capture date Answer: B QUESTION 144 A reseller that has thousands of AWS accounts receives AWS Cost and Usage Reports in an Amazon S3 bucket. The reports are delivered to the S3 bucket in the following format: <examp/e-reporT-prefix>/<examp/e-report-rtame>/yyyymmdd-yyyymmdd/<examp/e-report-name> parquet An AWS Glue crawler crawls the S3 bucket and populates an AWS Glue Data Catalog with a table Business analysts use Amazon Athena to query the table and create monthly summary reports for the AWS accounts. The business analysts are experiencing slow queries because of the accumulation of reports from the last 5 years. The business analysts want the operations team to make changes to improve query performance. Which action should the operations team take to meet these requirements? A.Change the file format to csv.zip. B.Partition the data by date and account ID C.Partition the data by month and account ID D.Partition the data by account ID, year, and month Answer: B QUESTION 145 A retail company stores order invoices in an Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) cluster Indices on the cluster are created monthly. Once a new month begins, no new writes are made to any of the indices from the previous months. The company has been expanding the storage on the Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) cluster to avoid running out of space, but the company wants to reduce costs Most searches on the cluster are on the most recent 3 months of data while the audit team requires infrequent access to older data to generate periodic reports. The most recent 3 months of data must be quickly available for queries, but the audit team can tolerate slower queries if the solution saves on cluster costs. Which of the following is the MOST operationally efficient solution to meet these requirements? A.Archive indices that are older than 3 months by using Index State Management (ISM) to create a policy to store the indices in Amazon S3 Glacier When the audit team requires the archived data restore the archived indices back to the Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) cluster B.Archive indices that are older than 3 months by taking manual snapshots and storing the snapshots in Amazon S3 When the audit team requires the archived data, restore the archived indices back to the Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) cluster C.Archive indices that are older than 3 months by using Index State Management (ISM) to create a policy to migrate the indices to Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) UltraWarm storage D.Archive indices that are older than 3 months by using Index State Management (ISM) to create a policy to migrate the indices to Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) UltraWarm storage When the audit team requires the older data: migrate the indices in UltraWarm storage back to hot storage Answer: D QUESTION 146 A hospital uses an electronic health records (EHR) system to collect two types of data. - Patient information, which includes a patient's name and address - Diagnostic tests conducted and the results of these tests Patient information is expected to change periodically Existing diagnostic test data never changes and only new records are added. The hospital runs an Amazon Redshift cluster with four dc2.large nodes and wants to automate the ingestion of the patient information and diagnostic test data into respective Amazon Redshift tables for analysis. The EHR system exports data as CSV files to an Amazon S3 bucket on a daily basis. Two sets of CSV files are generated. One set of files is for patient information with updates, deletes, and inserts. The other set of files is for new diagnostic test data only. What is the MOST cost-effective solution to meet these requirements? A.Use Amazon EMR with Apache Hudi. Run daily ETL jobs using Apache Spark and the Amazon Redshift JDBC driver B.Use an AWS Glue crawler to catalog the data in Amazon S3 Use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to perform scheduled queries of the data in Amazon S3 and ingest the data into the patient information table and the diagnostic tests table. C.Use an AWS Lambda function to run a COPY command that appends new diagnostic test data to the diagnostic tests table Run another COPY command to load the patient information data into the staging tables Use a stored procedure to handle create update, and delete operations for the patient information table D.Use AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) to collect and process change data capture (CDC) records Use the COPY command to load patient information data into the staging tables. Use a stored procedure to handle create, update and delete operations for the patient information table Answer: B QUESTION 147 A utility company wants to visualize data for energy usage on a daily basis in Amazon QuickSight. A data analytics specialist at the company has built a data pipeline to collect and ingest the data into Amazon S3 Each day the data is stored in an individual csv file in an S3 bucket. This is an example of the naming structure 20210707_datacsv 20210708_datacsv. To allow for data querying in QuickSight through Amazon Athena the specialist used an AWS Glue crawler to create a table with the path "s3 //powertransformer/20210707_data csv". However when the data is queried, it returns zero rows. How can this issue be resolved? A.Modify the IAM policy for the AWS Glue crawler to access Amazon S3. B.Ingest the files again. C.Store the files in Apache Parquet format. D.Update the table path to "s3://powertransformer/". Answer: D QUESTION 148 A large energy company is using Amazon QuickSight to build dashboards and report the historical usage data of its customers. This data is hosted in Amazon Redshift. The reports need access to all the fact tables' billions ot records to create aggregation in real time grouping by multiple dimensions. A data analyst created the dataset in QuickSight by using a SQL query and not SPICE Business users have noted that the response time is not fast enough to meet their needs. Which action would speed up the response time for the reports with the LEAST implementation effort? A.Use QuickSight to modify the current dataset to use SPICE B.Use AWS Glue to create an Apache Spark job that joins the fact table with the dimensions. Load the data into a new table C.Use Amazon Redshift to create a materialized view that joins the fact table with the dimensions D.Use Amazon Redshift to create a stored procedure that joins the fact table with the dimensions. Load the data into a new table Answer: A QUESTION 149 A marketing company collects clickstream data. The company sends the data to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose and stores the data in Amazon S3. The company wants to build a series of dashboards that will be used by hundreds of users across different departments. The company will use Amazon QuickSight to develop these dashboards. The company has limited resources and wants a solution that could scale and provide daily updates about clickstream activity. Which combination of options will provide the MOST cost-effective solution? (Select TWO ) A.Use Amazon Redshift to store and query the clickstream data B.Use QuickSight with a direct SQL query C.Use Amazon Athena to query the clickstream data in Amazon S3 D.Use S3 analytics to query the clickstream data E.Use the QuickSight SPICE engine with a daily refresh Answer: BD QUESTION 150 A company uses an Amazon EMR cluster with 50 nodes to process operational data and make the data available for data analysts. These jobs run nightly use Apache Hive with the Apache Jez framework as a processing model and write results to Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS) In the last few weeks, jobs are failing and are producing the following error message "File could only be replicated to 0 nodes instead of 1". A data analytics specialist checks the DataNode logs the NameNode logs and network connectivity for potential issues that could have prevented HDFS from replicating data. The data analytics specialist rules out these factors as causes for the issue. Which solution will prevent the jobs from failing'? A.Monitor the HDFSUtilization metric. If the value crosses a user-defined threshold add task nodes to the EMR cluster B.Monitor the HDFSUtilization metric If the value crosses a user-defined threshold add core nodes to the EMR cluster C.Monitor the MemoryAllocatedMB metric. If the value crosses a user-defined threshold, add task nodes to the EMR cluster D.Monitor the MemoryAllocatedMB metric. If the value crosses a user-defined threshold, add core nodes to the EMR cluster. Answer: C QUESTION 151 A company recently created a test AWS account to use for a development environment. The company also created a production AWS account in another AWS Region. As part of its security testing the company wants to send log data from Amazon CloudWatch Logs in its production account to an Amazon Kinesis data stream in its test account. Which solution will allow the company to accomplish this goal? A.Create a subscription filter in the production accounts CloudWatch Logs to target the Kinesis data stream in the test account as its destination In the test account create an IAM role that grants access to the Kinesis data stream and the CloudWatch Logs resources in the production account B.In the test account create an IAM role that grants access to the Kinesis data stream and the CloudWatch Logs resources in the production account Create a destination data stream in Kinesis Data Streams in the test account with an IAM role and a trust policy that allow CloudWatch Logs in the production account to write to the test account C.In the test account, create an IAM role that grants access to the Kinesis data stream and the CloudWatch Logs resources in the production account Create a destination data stream in Kinesis Data Streams in the test account with an IAM role and a trust policy that allow CloudWatch Logs in the production account to write to the test account D.Create a destination data stream in Kinesis Data Streams in the test account with an IAM role and a trust policy that allow CloudWatch Logs in the production account to write to the test account Create a subscription filter in the production accounts CloudWatch Logs to target the Kinesis data stream in the test account as its destination Answer: D QUESTION 152 A bank wants to migrate a Teradata data warehouse to the AWS Cloud. The bank needs a solution for reading large amounts of data and requires the highest possible performance. The solution also must maintain the separation of storage and compute. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Use Amazon Athena to query the data in Amazon S3 B.Use Amazon Redshift with dense compute nodes to query the data in Amazon Redshift managed storage C.Use Amazon Redshift with RA3 nodes to query the data in Amazon Redshift managed storage D.Use PrestoDB on Amazon EMR to query the data in Amazon S3 Answer: C QUESTION 153 A company has several Amazon EC2 instances sitting behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The company wants its IT Infrastructure team to analyze the IP addresses coming into the company's ALB. The ALB is configured to store access logs in Amazon S3. The access logs create about 1 TB of data each day, and access to the data will be infrequent. The company needs a solution that is scalable, cost-effective and has minimal maintenance requirements. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Copy the data into Amazon Redshift and query the data B.Use Amazon EMR and Apache Hive to query the S3 data C.Use Amazon Athena to query the S3 data D.Use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to query the S3 data Answer: D QUESTION 406 Which of the following statements below regarding Key Performance indicators (KPIs) are true? A.Development of KPI's are most useful when done independently B.They are a strictly quantitative measure of success C.They should be standard throughout the organization versus domain-specific so they are more easily correlated D.They are a strictly qualitative measure of success Answer: A QUESTION 407 When information security falls under the Chief Information Officer (CIO), what is their MOST essential role? A.Oversees the organization's day-to-day operations, creating the policies and strategies that govern operations B.Enlisting support from key executives the information security program budget and policies C.Charged with developing and implementing policies designed to protect employees and customers' data from unauthorized access D.Responsible for the success or failure of the IT organization and setting strategic direction Answer: D QUESTION 408 ABC Limited has recently suffered a security breach with customers' social security number available on the dark web for sale. The CISO, during the time of the incident, has been fired, and you have been hired as the replacement. The analysis of the breach found that the absence of an insider threat program, lack of least privilege policy, and weak access control was to blame. You would like to implement key performance indicators to mitigate the risk. Which metric would meet the requirement? A.Number of times third parties access critical information systems B.Number of systems with known vulnerabilities C.Number of users with elevated privileges D.Number of websites with weak or misconfigured certificates Answer: C QUESTION 409 An organization recently acquired a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution, and two months after the implementation, it was found that sensitive data was posted to numerous Dark Web sites. The DLP application was checked, and there are no apparent malfunctions and no errors. What is the MOST likely reason why the sensitive data was posted? A.The DLP Solution was not integrated with mobile device anti-malware B.Data classification was not properly performed on the assets C.The sensitive data was not encrypted while at rest D.A risk assessment was not performed after purchasing the DLP solution Answer: D QUESTION 410 The main purpose of the SOC is: A.An organization which provides Tier 1 support for technology issues and provides escalation when needed B.A distributed organization which provides intelligence to governments and private sectors on cyber-criminal activities C.The coordination of personnel, processes and technology to identify information security events and provide timely response and remediation D.A device which consolidates event logs and provides real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware Answer: C QUESTION 411 When obtaining new products and services, why is it essential to collaborate with lawyers, IT security professionals, privacy professionals, security engineers, suppliers, and others? A.This makes sure the files you exchange aren't unnecessarily flagged by the Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system B.Contracting rules typically require you to have conversations with two or more groups C.Discussing decisions with a very large group of people always provides a better outcome D.It helps to avoid regulatory or internal compliance issues Answer: D QUESTION 412 A cloud computing environment that is bound together by technology that allows data and applications to be shared between public and private clouds is BEST referred to as a? A.Public cloud B.Private cloud C.Community cloud D.Hybrid cloud Answer: D QUESTION 413 When reviewing a Solution as a Service (SaaS) provider's security health and posture, which key document should you review? A.SaaS provider's website certifications and representations (certs and reps) B.SOC-2 Report C.Metasploit Audit Report D.Statement from SaaS provider attesting their ability to secure your data Answer: B QUESTION 414 As the Risk Manager of an organization, you are task with managing vendor risk assessments. During the assessment, you identified that the vendor is engaged with high profiled clients, and bad publicity can jeopardize your own brand. Which is the BEST type of risk that defines this event? A.Compliance Risk B.Reputation Risk C.Operational Risk D.Strategic Risk Answer: B QUESTION 415 What is a Statement of Objectives (SOA)? A.A section of a contract that defines tasks to be performed under said contract B.An outline of what the military will do during war C.A document that outlines specific desired outcomes as part of a request for proposal D.Business guidance provided by the CEO Answer: A QUESTION 416 During a cyber incident, which non-security personnel might be needed to assist the security team? A.Threat analyst, IT auditor, forensic analyst B.Network engineer, help desk technician, system administrator C.CIO, CFO, CSO D.Financial analyst, payroll clerk, HR manager Answer: A QUESTION 417 With a focus on the review and approval aspects of board responsibilities, the Data Governance Council recommends that the boards provide strategic oversight regarding information and information security, include these four things: A.Metrics tracking security milestones, understanding criticality of information and information security, visibility into the types of information and how it is used, endorsement by the board of directors B.Annual security training for all employees, continual budget reviews, endorsement of the development and implementation of a security program, metrics to track the program C.Understanding criticality of information and information security, review investment in information security, endorse development and implementation of a security program, and require regular reports on adequacy and effectiveness D.Endorsement by the board of directors for security program, metrics of security program milestones, annual budget review, report on integration and acceptance of program Answer: C QUESTION 418 You are the CISO for an investment banking firm. The firm is using artificial intelligence (AI) to assist in approving clients for loans. Which control is MOST important to protect AI products? A.Hash datasets B.Sanitize datasets C.Delete datasets D.Encrypt datasets Answer: D QUESTION 419 Which level of data destruction applies logical techniques to sanitize data in all user-addressable storage locations? A.Purge B.Clear C.Mangle D.Destroy Answer: B QUESTION 420 A university recently hired a CISO. One of the first tasks is to develop a continuity of operations plan (COOP). In developing the business impact assessment (BIA), which of the following MOST closely relate to the data backup and restoral? A.Recovery Point Objective (RPO) B.Mean Time to Delivery (MTD) C.Recovery Time Objective (RTO) D.Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) Answer: C QUESTION 421 A key cybersecurity feature of a Personal Identification Verification (PIV) Card is: A.Inability to export the private certificate/key B.It can double as physical identification at the DMV C.It has the user's photograph to help ID them D.It can be used as a secure flash drive Answer: C QUESTION 422 When performing a forensic investigation, what are the two MOST common data sources for obtaining evidence from a computer and mobile devices? A.RAM and unallocated space B.Unallocated space and RAM C.Slack space and browser cache D.Persistent and volatile data Answer: D QUESTION 423 To make sure that the actions of all employees, applications, and systems follow the organization's rules and regulations can BEST be described as which of the following? A.Compliance management B.Asset management C.Risk management D.Security management Answer: D QUESTION 424 You have been hired as the Information System Security Officer (ISSO) for a US federal government agency. Your role is to ensure the security posture of the system is maintained. One of your tasks is to develop and maintain the system security plan (SSP) and supporting documentation. Which of the following is NOT documented in the SSP? A.The controls in place to secure the system B.Name of the connected system C.The results of a third-party audits and recommendations D.Type of information used in the system Answer: C QUESTION 425 Who should be involved in the development of an internal campaign to address email phishing? A.Business unit leaders, CIO, CEO B.Business Unite Leaders, CISO, CIO and CEO C.All employees D.CFO, CEO, CIO Answer: B QUESTION 426 Of the following types of SOCs (Security Operations Centers), which one would be MOST likely used if the CISO has decided to outsource the infrastructure and administration of it? A.Virtual B.Dedicated C.Fusion D.Command Answer: A QUESTION 427 Many successful cyber-attacks currently include: A.Phishing Attacks B.Misconfigurations C.Social engineering D.All of these Answer: C QUESTION 428 When evaluating a Managed Security Services Provider (MSSP), which service(s) is/are most important: A.Patch management B.Network monitoring C.Ability to provide security services tailored to the business' needs D.24/7 tollfree number Answer: C QUESTION 429 Which of the following strategies provides the BEST response to a ransomware attack? A.Real-time off-site replication B.Daily incremental backup C.Daily full backup D.Daily differential backup Answer: B QUESTION 430 What is the MOST critical output of the incident response process? A.A complete document of all involved team members and the support they provided B.Recovery of all data from affected systems C.Lessons learned from the incident, so they can be incorporated into the incident response processes D.Clearly defined documents detailing standard evidence collection and preservation processes Answer: C QUESTION 431 Who is responsible for verifying that audit directives are implemented? A.IT Management B.Internal Audit C.IT Security D.BOD Audit Committee Answer: B QUESTION 432 XYZ is a publicly-traded software development company. Who is ultimately accountable to the shareholders in the event of a cybersecurity breach? A.Chief Financial Officer (CFO) B.Chief Software Architect (CIO) C.CISO D.Chief Executive Officer (CEO) Answer: C QUESTION 433 What organizational structure combines the functional and project structures to create a hybrid of the two? A.Traditional B.Composite C.Project D.Matrix Answer: D QUESTION 434 The primary responsibility for assigning entitlements to a network share lies with which role? A.CISO B.Data owner C.Chief Information Officer (CIO) D.Security system administrator Answer: B QUESTION 435 What does RACI stand for? A.Reasonable, Actionable, Controlled, and Implemented B.Responsible, Actors, Consult, and Instigate C.Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed D.Review, Act, Communicate, and Inform Answer: C QUESTION 436 What key technology can mitigate ransomware threats? A.Use immutable data storage B.Phishing exercises C.Application of multiple end point anti-malware solutions D.Blocking use of wireless networks Answer: A QUESTION 437 Which of the following are the triple constraints of project management? A.Time, quality, and scope B.Cost, quality, and time C.Scope, time, and cost D.Quality, scope, and cost Answer: C QUESTION 438 A Security Operations (SecOps) Manager is considering implementing threat hunting to be able to make better decisions on protecting information and assets. What is the MAIN goal of threat hunting to the SecOps Manager? A.Improve discovery of valid detected events B.Enhance tuning of automated tools to detect and prevent attacks C.Replace existing threat detection strategies D.Validate patterns of behavior related to an attack Answer: A QUESTION 439 A bastion host should be placed: A.Inside the DMZ B.In-line with the data center firewall C.Beyond the outer perimeter firewall D.As the gatekeeper to the organization's honeynet Answer: C QUESTION 440 Optical biometric recognition such as retina scanning provides access to facilities through reading the unique characteristics of a person's eye. However, authorization failures can occur with individuals who have? A.Glaucoma or cataracts B.Two different colored eyes (heterochromia iridium) C.Contact lens D.Malaria Answer: A 2022 Latest Braindump2go 712-50 PDF and 712-50 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1Th-259mRWSeetI20FPdeU_Na8TegTWwA?usp=sharing
[January-2022]New Braindump2go 2V0-62.21 PDF Dumps(Q76-Q93)
QUESTION 76 Which two are IT-driven on-boarding workflows for Windows 10 devices? (Choose two.) A.QR code enrollment B.native MDM enrollment C.command line interface (CLI) staging D.manual device staging E.barcode enrollment Answer: CD QUESTION 77 Which of the following features can be used to enable Virtual Assistance? A.Workspace ONE UEM B.Workspace ONE Access C.Workspace ONE Assist D.Workspace ONE Hub Services Answer: D QUESTION 78 Which three features from Workspace ONE Hub Services are Cloud only? (Choose three.) A.Templates B.Hub Virtual Assistant C.People Search D.Passport E.Employee Self-Service Support F.Custom Tab Answer: BCD QUESTION 79 If an administrator wants to leverage ThinApp packaged applications integrated with Workspace ONE Access, which of the following is the proper connector version to use? A.VMware Workspace ONE Access (Windows) version 20.10.0.1. B.VMware Identity Manager connector (Windows) version 19.03.0.1. C.VMware Workspace ONE Access (Windows) version 19.03.0.1. D.VMware Identity Manager connector (Linux) version 20.18.8.1.0. Answer: D QUESTION 80 Every time Workspace ONE Intelligent Hub is opened, a passcode is requested for end-users to authenticate. Mobile SSO is configured correctly and the configuration and logs are not showing any errors. Which should be configured for Single Sign-On to be seamless for end-users without requiring a passcode to access Workspace ONE Intelligent Hub? A.Device Touch ID B.Device Security Settings C.Default AirWatch SDK D.Device Profile Passcode Answer: C QUESTION 81 Which of the following connectors can auto-update? A.AirWatch Cloud Connector B.Workspace ONE Access Connector C.Workspace ONE Mobile Flows Connector D.Workspace ONE Intelligence Connector Answer: A QUESTION 82 Which domain attribute must be included to meet the SAML assertion requirement for Just-in-Time (JIT) provisioning of users in the Workspace ONE Access service? A.distinguishedName B.userName C.firstName D.lastName Answer: B QUESTION 83 When installing Workspace ONE UEM on-premises, which of the following core components is the first that should be installed? A.Database B.AirWatch Cloud Connector C.Reports D.Application Server Answer: A QUESTION 84 An organization has a split network comprised of a DMZ and an internal network. Which Workspace ONE UEM edge service does VMware recommend to be deployed within the organization's internal network? A.VMware Unified Access Gateway with (VMware Tunnel Back-End) B.VMware Unified Access Gateway with (VMware Tunnel Proxy) C.VMware Unified Access Gateway with (VMware Tunnel Front-End) D.VMware Unified Access Gateway with (SEG v2) Answer: A QUESTION 85 An administrator of a Workspace ONE Access tenant would like to add the company's logo and standard color scheme to their tenant. Where would the administrator accomplish this task? A.In the Workspace ONE UEM console > Configurations. Identity & Access Management tab > select Setup then Custom Branding. B.In the Workspace ONE Access console > Setup. Identity & Access Management tab > select Custom Branding. C.In the Workspace ONE UEM console > Identity & Access Management tab > select Setup then Custom Branding. D.In the Workspace ONE Access console > Identity & Access Management tab > select Setup then Custom Branding. Answer: D QUESTION 86 An organization is concerned with disaster recovery plans for their Workspace ONE SaaS environment. Which three components are the responsibility of the administrator and not the responsibility of the VMware SaaS Team? (Choose three.) A.Workspace ONE Access Connector B.Workspace ONE Device Services C.Unified Access Gateway D.Workspace ONE Console E.Workspace ONE Database F.AirWatch Cloud Connector Answer: ACF QUESTION 87 Which two solutions are linked together when Hub Services is activated for the first time? (Choose two.) A-Workspace ONE UEM A.Workspace ONE Access B.Workspace ONE Intelligence C.Workspace ONE Airlift D.Workspace ONE Assist Answer: AB QUESTION 88 Refer to the exhibit. While referencing the exhibit, which SDK profile does Security Policies belong to? A.Custom SDK Profile B.Default SDK Profile C.Application Profile D.Intune SDK Profile Answer: B QUESTION 89 Which component can use an AirWatch generated certificate for Inbound SSL Traffic? A.VMware Tunnel B.VMware Secure Email Gateway C.AirWatch Cloud Connector D.Reverse Proxy Answer: A QUESTION 90 An administrator is having difficulties with an AirWatch Cloud Connector (ACC) server connecting to an AirWatch Cloud Messaging (AWCM) server for authentication. The administrator has confirmed: - DNS records are correct and resolvable from a different machine - ACC can connect to the internet What should the administrator check on the local ACC? A.Windows Registry B.VAMI configuration C.Windows Version D.Host File Answer: D QUESTION 91 Which action should be performed after any increase to verbose logging after an event has been captured? A.Restart all services to ensure that the logging level is reporting correctly. B.Reboot the server to revert the verbose configuration. C.Delete the log that contains the information that was captured to assist in troubleshooting. D.Revert the logging level back to its previous configuration. Answer: D QUESTION 92 An administrator would like to set up automation to reinstall required applications if an application's removal is detected. Which product could help the administrator with this task? A.Workspace ONE Hub B.Workspace ONE Tunnel C.Workspace ONE Hub Services D.Workspace ONE Intelligence Answer: D QUESTION 93 Which VMware feature in the Intelligent Hub provides the ability for administrators to leverage Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)? A.Assist B.Secure C.Trust D.Verify Answer: D 2022 Latest Braindump2go 2V0-62.21 PDF and 2V0-62.21 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/12MaFoR929Bpkhq13hFtTl-7GFnFO1awo?usp=sharing
[January-2022]New Braindump2go 300-420 PDF Dumps(Q175-Q185)
QUESTION 175 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the YANG models they describe on the right. Not all options are used. Answer: QUESTION 176 A company's security policy requires that all connections between sites be encrypted in a manner that does not require maintenance of permanent tunnels. The sites are connected through a private MPLS-based service that uses a dynamically changing key and spoke-to-spoke communication. Which type of transport encryption must be used in this environment? A.GETVPN B.DMVPN C.GRE VPN D.standard IPsec VPN Answer: A QUESTION 177 An engineer must design a QoS solution for a customer. The network currently supports data only, but the customer will roll out VoIP and IP video in conjunction with the new QoS solution. The engineer plans to use DiffServ. To ensure priority for voice services, which model must the design include? A.8-class model B.4-class model C.6-class model D.12-class model Answer: A QUESTION 178 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the elements from the left onto the YANG models where they and used on the right. Answer: QUESTION 179 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must improve the current IS-IS environment. The Catalyst switch is equipped with dual supervisors. Each time a stateful switchover occurs, the network experiences unnecessary route recomputation. Which solution addresses this issue if the upstream router does not understand graceful restart messaging? A.Enable IS-IS remote LFA FRR on both devices. B.Enable NSR on the switch. C.Enable NSF on the switch. D.Configure ISIS aggressive timers on both devices. Answer: C QUESTION 180 Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design an IGP solution for an enterprise customer. The design must support: - Physical link flaps should have minimal impact. - Access routers should converge quickly after a link failure. Which two ISIS solutions should the architect include in the design? (Choose two.) A.Use BGP to IS-IS redistribution to advertise all Internet routes in the Level 1 area. B.Advertise the IS-IS interface and loopback IP address toward the Internet and data center. C.Reduce SPF and PRC intervals to improve convergence time. D.Configure all access and aggregate routers to establish Level 1 / Level 2 adjacencies across the network. E.Configure access routers to establish a Level 1 adjacency and aggregate routers to establish a Level 1 / Level 2 adjacency. Answer: CD QUESTION 181 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing a routing solution for a customer. The design must ensure that a failure of network 10.1.0.0/24, 10.1.2.0/24, 10.2.1.0/24, or 10.2.3.0/24 does not impact the core. It also requires fast convergence time during any link failover in the core or access networks. Which solution must the engineer select? A.Add aggregation layer between core and access networks. B.Enable graceful restart on routers A and C. C.Enable FRR for the connected networks of routers A and C. D.Enable summarization on routers A and C. Answer: C QUESTION 182 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is designing a network for AS100. The design should ensure that all traffic enters AS100 via link 1 unless there is a network failure. In the event of a failure, link 2 should function as the path for incoming traffic. Which solution should the design include? A.Modify the next-hop attribute on R3. B.Use AS-Path prepending on R3. C.Modify the next-hop attribute on R4. D.Use AS-Path prepending on R4. Answer: D QUESTION 183 Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design a solution that uses the direct link between R1 and R2 for traffic from 10.10.10.0/24 toward network 10.10.20.0/24. Which solution should the architect include in the design? A.Configure the OSPF cost of the link to a value lower than 30. B.Lower the Administrative Distance for OSPF area 0. C.Place the link into area 2 and install a new link between R1 and R2 in area 0. D.Configure the link to provide multiarea adjacency. Answer: A QUESTION 184 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design a WAN solution so that ISP-1 is always preferred over ISP-2. The path via ISP-2 is considered as a backup and must be used only when the path to ISP-1 is down. Which solution must the engineer choose? A.R1: - Routes advertised to ISP-1: 0x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-1: HIGH local-preference - Routes advertised to R2: no action - Routes received from R2: community NO-EXPORT R2: - Routes advertised to ISP-2:5x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-2: LOW local-preference - Routes advertised to R1: community NO-ADVERTISE - Routes received from R1: no action B.R1: - Routes advertised to ISP-1: 0x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-1: HIGH local-preference - Routes advertised to R2: community NO-EXPORT - Routes received from R2: no action R2: - Routes advertised to ISP-2: 5x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-2: LOW local-preference - Routes advertised to R1: no action - Routes received from R1: no action C.R1: - Routes advertised to ISP-1: 0x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-1: LOW local-preference - Routes advertised to R2: community NO-ADVERTISE - Routes received from R2: no action R2: - Routes advertised to ISP-2: 5x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-2: HIGH local-preference - Routes advertised to R1: no action - Routes received from R1: community NO-ADVERTISE D.R1: - Routes advertised to ISP-1: 5x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-1: LOW local-preference - Routes advertised to R2: community NO-ADVERTISE - Routes received from R2: no action R2: - Routes advertised to ISP-2: 0x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-2: HIGH local-preference - Routes advertised to R1: community NO-EXPORT - Routes received from R1: no action Answer: B QUESTION 185 Which topology within a network underlay eliminates the need for first hop redundancy protocols while improving fault tolerance, increasing resiliency, and simplifying the network? A.virtualized topology B.routed access topology C.Layer 2 topology D.logical fabric topology Answer: D 2022 Latest Braindump2go 300-420 PDF and 300-420 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1SXwfGxRyjBzcw1iBNd9T4FhKWBoH7WUo?usp=sharing
Features & Benefits of Integrated Parking Management System
The world is becoming increasingly congested, both in terms of people and automobiles. While it may appear that we can and should control the latter, the direct proportionality of autos to humans makes this impossible. Make sure to understand the features and benefits of an integrated parking management system before you could invest in one. Automobile demand rises in tandem with population growth. One of the most common concerns, though, is a shortage of available parking spaces. The approach to accommodating an increasing number of vehicles is not to extend parking areas because the major purpose of smart parking is to reduce the parking footprint. Parking systems have become increasingly significant in our daily lives. Parking spots are required in our homes, offices, malls, hospitals, and other places where we go. In recent years, technology has advanced, and one component of that advancement has been the advancement of parking management systems. Parking Management Software is not only useful but also diverse when it comes to controlling the flow of vehicles in a parking lot. RentCubo is a huge supporter of effective parking management systems. We’ve produced this blog to assist you to understand why we appreciate parking management software and what benefits you may obtain from them. Parking Management Software Features List – For Business Owners: 1. Manage Parking Space 2. Business Record 3. Payments Log 4. Multiple Payments Option – For Users: 1. Intuitive Search 2. Parking Space Availability Status 3. GPS Enabled Parking Space Locator 4. Reserve/Book 5. Quick Payments & E-wallet – For Admin: 1. Track/Manage Bookings and Reservations 2. Update Parking Space Availability Status 3. Track/Manage Business Record 4. Quick Encashment 5. List/Block Users Benefits of Integrated Parking Management System:- Advanced Technology: Parking management software is well-known for its technological integration. Because most parking management systems are based on improved models and technical developments, they can be employed in a variety of parking lots. Additionally, you can tailor parking technologies to meet the demands and requirements of your parking spaces, whether they are for residential or commercial usage, such as hospitals or workplaces. Versatility: Another big advantage of parking management systems is their versatility. It is incredibly simple to use for both authorities and automobile owners. It’s also incredibly adaptable and doesn’t pose any problems for its consumers. You can also change the settings based on the number of vehicles on the road. Ease of Management: It is quite easy to monitor, control, and regulate parking management systems since they are organized in a structured manner. Parking management systems are also user-friendly, so parking attendants will have no trouble using them. Easy Maintenance: It’s simple to keep your parking management system up to date. Gemini Parking Solutions provides maintenance 24/7. If any portion of the system breaks down, it can be readily repaired, and your operations will be back up and running in no time. Cost-Effective: Another benefit of having a good parking management system is that it saves you money. You save money because it runs on a low-manpower basis. Parking management software also saves time by allowing vehicles to travel at a higher speed, reducing the cost of wasted fuel. Secure: Parking management systems can provide you with enhanced security, safety, and privacy thanks to their technologically advanced security features. Unauthorized entrance to your parking lots is prevented by parking management systems, giving car owners more confidence that their vehicles are securely protected. Owing to the high level of connectivity, customers can, for example, pay for parking with their mobile phone and be led to available spaces monitored by space sensors via a Smartphone application. Without ever having to visit the pay stations, parking operators can boost operational efficiency by collecting space payment data from our backend straight on a wireless handheld enforcement device. This kind of advanced and integrated parking management software can be yours. All you have to do is get in touch with RentCubo and we will provide you with the best deals.
[January-2022]New Braindump2go MD-100 PDF Dumps(Q175-Q185)
QUESTION 307 You have 10 new Windows 10 devices. You plan to deploy a provisioning package that will configure a wireless network profile. You need to ensure that a support technician can install the provisioning package on the devices. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. To which group should you add the support technician? A.Users B.Power Users C.Network Configuration Operators D.Administrators Answer: D QUESTION 308 Drag and Drop Question You have a computer that runs Windows 10 and has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed. You need to perform the following tasks: Prepare a Windows PE (WinPE) working directory. Add scripting support to a WinPE image. Mount and unmount a WinPE image. Which command should you use for each task? To answer, drag the appropriate commands to the correct tasks. Each command may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 309 Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. The domain contains the users shown in the following table. Computer1 has four printers as shown in the following table. Which printers will be available to User1 when the user signs in to Computer1? A.Printer3 only B.Printer1 and Printer3 only C.Printer1, Printer2, and Printer3 only D.Printer1, Printer3, and Printer4 only E.Printer1, Printer2, Printer3, and Printer4 Answer: E QUESTION 310 Hotspot Question Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains the users shown in the following table. The domain contains a computer named Computer1. Computer1 contains the users shown in the following table. On Computer1, you create a restore point named RP1. Which users can restore RP1 on Computer1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 311 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer that runs Windows 10. The computer contains a folder. The folder contains sensitive data. You need to log which user reads the contents of the folder and modifies and deletes files in the folder. Solution: From the properties of the folder, you configure the Auditing settings and from the Audit Policy in the local Group Policy, you configure Audit privilege use. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No C. D. Answer: B QUESTION 312 Your company has a branch office that contains 25 workgroup computers. The computers run Windows 10 Pro. Users report that they cannot see other computers from Network in File Explorer. What should you do to resolve the issue? A.Set Network profile to Private. B.Turn off random hardware addresses for the network connection. C.Set Network profile to Public. D.Configure the network connection as a metered connection. Answer: A 2022 Latest Braindump2go MD-100 PDF and MD-100 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1JUVP5MWzD2NVdlAoSATpQirlejY0T0r_?usp=sharing