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5 ways to find dream job

In search of a dream job, people spend many hours on job sites. They send dozens of resumes, but often do not receive any response from employers, let alone an invitation to an interview. It's not surprising, though. After all, according to a study by Brandon Hall Group, a large employer receives from 102 to 137 resumes for each of the open positions.


Anyway, it's hard to call such a job search effective. You should approach the search with intelligence and strategy. Here are five tips that may help you find the job of your dreams.

Decide on your search criteria


Identify the five criteria that are most important to you. For some it will be corporate culture, for others it will be a position or salary. "If you understand what motivates you as an employee, it will be easier for you to write a resume that matches your aspirations and skills," said Paul Sandusky, vice president of Ceridian.

But be flexible as well. "You don't want your narrow specifications to cost you a job at a dream company," said Maria DeLeon, vice president of Glassdoor. If you got to the interview at the dream company, but your qualifications aren't quite right for the job you're applying for, be perfectly honest. Tell the interviewer about your skills and your desire to work here. It is possible that the company, seeing your interest, will find a more suitable position.

Make a list of jobs that match your criteria


Once you are clear about what you want from your job, use these criteria to search. Create a list of suitable jobs. This is not a conditional list in your head, but a very specific document. For example, Cheryl Sandberg, Chief Operating Officer of Facebook, used an Excel spreadsheet when she was released from Harvard, where she carefully documented the search process. Perhaps you would be more comfortable working with a notebook and a pen. But, one way or another, systematize the process.

Study the job text very carefully


Some people do not read the job and send their CVs to all places that are at least remotely relevant to their skills. This is a mistake. Reading a long "towel" of the requirements set out in the job, strange as it may seem, save time. After all, you are unlikely to get a job that you do not meet, but you may lose time for hopeless correspondence and interviews.

Change your resume and cover letter


There's no need to send the same resume to all companies. If you go to a big and famous employer, do not be lazy to put a few individual features in the text. Not superfluous - adjust your resume so that it fits the vacancy as a key to the lock. For example, if the text of the vacancy in the first place mentions the presence of experience, and in the second - specific skills, then in the resume and rearrange items accordingly.

Look through your acquaintances


A lot of vacancies simply do not get on the Internet. You should look for such a job through your friends. This, of course, is not about "nepotism", but about contacts that you could get at any professional conferences or seminars.

Write on social networks about what you are looking for work. It is quite possible that one of your friends knows a person who knows someone who needs a specialist like you.

Of course, there is simply no universal recipe for a job. But a smart approach to finding a job significantly increases your chances of getting a good job.
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Good day! To find your dream job, you need to search well. Thanks to sites such as https://valleyofthesunjobs.com/, I was able to achieve this. Here are useful articles that will tell you how to pass the interview correctly, and also on this site you can find a job that you like! I hope you'll find it.
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B.Create a scheduled Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that targets an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to check for public IP addresses on the EC2 instances. If public IP addresses are found on the EC2 instances, initiate another Systems Manager Automation document to terminate the instances. C.Configure AWS Config and a custom rule to monitor whether a security group allows inbound requests from noncorporate CIDR ranges. Create an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to remove any noncorporate CIDR ranges from the application security groups. D.Configure AWS Config and the managed rule for monitoring public IP associations with the EC2 instances by tag. Tag the EC2 instances with an identifier. Create an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to remove the public IP association from the EC2 instances. Answer: A QUESTION 127 A SysOps administrator needs to create alerts that are based on the read and write metrics of Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes that are attached to an Amazon EC2 instance. The SysOps administrator creates and enables Amazon CloudWatch alarms for the DiskReadBytes metric and the DiskWriteBytes metric. A custom monitoring tool that is installed on the EC2 instance with the same alarm configuration indicates that the volume metrics have exceeded the threshold. However, the CloudWatch alarms were not in ALARM state. Which action will ensure that the CloudWatch alarms function correctly? A.Install and configure the CloudWatch agent on the EC2 instance to capture the desired metrics. B.Install and configure AWS Systems Manager Agent on the EC2 instance to capture the desired metrics. C.Reconfigure the CloudWatch alarms to use the VolumeReadBytes metric and the VolumeWriteBytes metric for the EBS volumes. D.Reconfigure the CloudWatch alarms to use the VolumeReadBytes metric and the VolumeWriteBytes metric for the EC2 instance. Answer: C QUESTION 128 A company is partnering with an external vendor to provide data processing services. For this integration, the vendor must host the company's data in an Amazon S3 bucket in the vendor's AWS account. The vendor is allowing the company to provide an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) key to encrypt the company's data. The vendor has provided an IAM role Amazon Resource Name (ARN) to the company for this integration. What should a SysOps administrator do to configure this integration? A.Create a new KMS key. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the KMS key policy. Provide the new KMS key ARN to the vendor. B.Create a new KMS key. Create a new IAM user. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to an inline policy that is attached to the IAM user. Provide the new IAM user ARN to the vendor. C.Configure encryption using the KMS managed S3 key. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the KMS managed S3 key policy. Provide the KMS managed S3 key ARN to the vendor. D.Configure encryption using the KMS managed S3 key. Create an S3 bucket. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the S3 bucket policy. Provide the S3 bucket ARN to the vendor. Answer: C QUESTION 129 A company has an Auto Scaling group of Amazon EC2 instances that scale based on average CPU utilization. The Auto Scaling group events log indicates an InsufficientlnstanceCapacity error. Which actions should a SysOps administrator take to remediate this issue? (Select TWO. A.Change the instance type that the company is using. B.Configure the Auto Scaling group in different Availability Zones. C.Configure the Auto Scaling group to use different Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume sizes. D.Increase the maximum size of the Auto Scaling group. E.Request an increase in the instance service quota. Answer: AB QUESTION 130 A company stores files on 50 Amazon S3 buckets in the same AWS Region. The company wants to connect to the S3 buckets securely over a private connection from its Amazon EC2 instances. The company needs a solution that produces no additional cost. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Create a gateway VPC endpoint for each S3 bucket. Attach the gateway VPC endpoints to each subnet inside the VPC. B.Create an interface VPC endpoint for each S3 bucket. Attach the interface VPC endpoints to each subnet inside the VPC. C.Create one gateway VPC endpoint for all the S3 buckets. Add the gateway VPC endpoint to the VPC route table. D.Create one interface VPC endpoint for all the S3 buckets. Add the interface VPC endpoint to the VPC route table. Answer: C QUESTION 131 A company has a VPC with public and private subnets. An Amazon EC2 based application resides in the private subnets and needs to process raw .csv files stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. A SysOps administrator has set up the correct IAM role with the required permissions for the application to access the S3 bucket, but the application is unable to communicate with the S3 bucket. Which action will solve this problem while adhering to least privilege access? A.Add a bucket policy to the S3 bucket permitting access from the IAM role. B.Attach an S3 gateway endpoint to the VPC. Configure the route table for the private subnet. C.Configure the route table to allow the instances on the private subnet access through the internet gateway. D.Create a NAT gateway in a private subnet and configure the route table for the private subnets. Answer: B QUESTION 132 A large company is using AWS Organizations to manage hundreds of AWS accounts across multiple AWS Regions. The company has turned on AWS Config throughout the organization. The company requires all Amazon S3 buckets to block public read access. A SysOps administrator must generate a monthly report that shows all the S3 buckets and whether they comply with this requirement. Which combination of steps should the SysOps administrator take to collect this data? {Select TWO). A.Create an AWS Config aggregator in an aggregator account. Use the organization as the source. Retrieve the compliance data from the aggregator. B.Create an AWS Config aggregator in each account. Use an S3 bucket in an aggregator account as the destination. Retrieve the compliance data from the S3 bucket C.Edit the AWS Config policy in AWS Organizations. Use the organization's management account to turn on the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule for the entire organization. D.Use the AWS Config compliance report from the organization's management account. Filter the results by resource, and select Amazon S3. E.Use the AWS Config API to apply the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule in all accounts for all available Regions. Answer: CD QUESTION 133 A SysOps administrator launches an Amazon EC2 Linux instance in a public subnet. When the instance is running, the SysOps administrator obtains the public IP address and attempts to remotely connect to the instance multiple times. However, the SysOps administrator always receives a timeout error. Which action will allow the SysOps administrator to remotely connect to the instance? A.Add a route table entry in the public subnet for the SysOps administrator's IP address. B.Add an outbound network ACL rule to allow TCP port 22 for the SysOps administrator's IP address. C.Modify the instance security group to allow inbound SSH traffic from the SysOps administrator's IP address. D.Modify the instance security group to allow outbound SSH traffic to the SysOps administrator's IP address. Answer: C QUESTION 134 A recent organizational audit uncovered an existing Amazon RDS database that is not currently configured for high availability. Given the critical nature of this database, it must be configured for high availability as soon as possible. How can this requirement be met? A.Switch to an active/passive database pair using the create-db-instance-read-replica with the -- availability-zone flag. B.Specify high availability when creating a new RDS instance, and live-migrate the data. C.Modify the RDS instance using the console to include the Multi-AZ option. D.Use the modify-db-instance command with the --na flag. Answer: C QUESTION 135 A SysOps administrator noticed that the cache hit ratio for an Amazon CloudFront distribution is less than 10%. Which collection of configuration changes will increase the cache hit ratio for the distribution? (Select TWO.) A.Ensure that only required cookies, query strings, and headers are forwarded in the Cache Behavior Settings. B.Change the Viewer Protocol Policy to use HTTPS only. C.Configure the distribution to use presigned cookies and URLs to restrict access to the distribution. D.Enable automatic compression of objects in the Cache Behavior Settings. E.Increase the CloudFront time to live (TTL) settings in the Cache Behavior Settings. Answer: AE QUESTION 136 A company has mandated the use of multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all IAM users, and requires users to make all API calls using the CLI. However. users are not prompted to enter MFA tokens, and are able to run CLI commands without MFA. In an attempt to enforce MFA, the company attached an IAM policy to all users that denies API calls that have not been authenticated with MFA. What additional step must be taken to ensure that API calls are authenticated using MFA? A.Enable MFA on IAM roles, and require IAM users to use role credentials to sign API calls. B.Ask the IAM users to log into the AWS Management Console with MFA before making API calls using the CLI. C.Restrict the IAM users to use of the console, as MFA is not supported for CLI use. D.Require users to use temporary credentials from the get-session token command to sign API calls. Answer: D QUESTION 137 A company is running a flash sale on its website. The website is hosted on burstable performance Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The Auto Scaling group is configured to launch instances when the CPU utilization is above 70%. A couple of hours into the sale, users report slow load times and error messages for refused connections. A SysOps administrator reviews Amazon CloudWatch metrics and notices that the CPU utilization is at 20% across the entire fleet of instances. The SysOps administrator must restore the website's functionality without making changes to the network infrastructure. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Activate unlimited mode for the instances in the Auto Scaling group. B.Implement an Amazon CloudFront distribution to offload the traffic from the Auto Scaling group. C.Move the website to a different AWS Region that is closer to the users. D.Reduce the desired size of the Auto Scaling group to artificially increase CPU average utilization. Answer: B QUESTION 138 A gaming application is deployed on four Amazon EC2 instances in a default VPC. The SysOps administrator has noticed consistently high latency in responses as data is transferred among the four instances. There is no way for the administrator to alter the application code. The MOST effective way to reduce latency is to relaunch the EC2 instances in: A.a dedicated VPC. B.a single subnet inside the VPC. C.a placement group. D.a single Availability Zone. Answer: C QUESTION 139 A company uses AWS Organizations to manage multiple AWS accounts with consolidated billing enabled. Organization member account owners want the benefits of Reserved Instances (RIs) but do not want to share RIs with other accounts. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Purchase RIs in individual member accounts. Disable Rl discount sharing in the management account. B.Purchase RIs in individual member accounts. Disable Rl discount sharing in the member accounts. C.Purchase RIs in the management account. Disable Rl discount sharing in the management account. D.Purchase RIs in the management account. Disable Rl discount sharing in the member accounts. Answer: D QUESTION 140 An errant process is known to use an entire processor and run at 100%. A SysOps administrator wants to automate restarting the instance once the problem occurs for more than 2 minutes. How can this be accomplished? A.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the Amazon EC2 instance with basic monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance. B.Create a CloudWatch alarm for the EC2 instance with detailed monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance. C.Create an AWS Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered on a scheduled basis every 2 minutes. D.Create a Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered by EC2 health checks. Answer: B QUESTION 141 A company is expanding its fleet of Amazon EC2 instances before an expected increase of traffic. When a SysOps administrator attempts to add more instances, an InstanceLimitExceeded error is returned. What should the SysOps administrator do to resolve this error? A.Add an additional CIDR block to the VPC. B.Launch the EC2 instances in a different Availability Zone. C.Launch new EC2 instances in another VPC. D.Use Service Quotas to request an EC2 quota increase. Answer: D QUESTION 142 A company hosts its website on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The company manages its DNS with Amazon Route 53. and wants to point its domain's zone apex to the website. Which type of record should be used to meet these requirements? A.A CNAME record for the domain's zone apex B.An A record for the domain's zone apex C.An AAAA record for the domain's zone apex D.An alias record for the domain's zone apex Answer: D QUESTION 143 A company has launched a social media website that gives users the ability to upload images directly to a centralized Amazon S3 bucket. The website is popular in areas that are geographically distant from the AWS Region where the S3 bucket is located. Users are reporting that uploads are slow. A SysOps administrator must improve the upload speed. What should the SysOps administrator do to meet these requirements? A.Create S3 access points in Regions that are closer to the users. B.Create an accelerator in AWS Global Accelerator for the S3 bucket. C.Enable S3 Transfer Acceleration on the S3 bucket. D.Enable cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) on the S3 bucket. Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go SOA-C02 PDF and SOA-C02 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1SwmRv-OKTAJzLTMirp_O8l8tjGIFElzz?usp=sharing
9 Interview Questions EVERY Recruiter Should Ask Their Candidates
Interview Questions Recruiters face enough challenges as it is without worrying if they asked the right questions in an interview. It is essential when determining who the best fit for a job is. Of course, ensuring that a candidate has the required skill set is of primary concern, but it is also important to dig a little deeper and find out what kind of person they are. The goal is to snag a complete candidate, one with both the right personality and expertise. So here are the best nine interview questions for you to ask your next star candidate. 1. “What hobbies do you have?” Starting with an easy one here, and this question should be obvious for recruiters. Primarily it gives your candidate a chance to relax, but it can also offer you a key insight. For example, if they enjoy playing a lot of sport, it shows they are energetic individuals who are health conscious. If they like writing or drawing, ask them how they can transfer that creativity into their new role. Always have a follow-up question and try to revert it back to the role at hand. 2. “Tell me about your greatest professional achievement?” You want a candidate that has their sights set high, right? This question allows your potential employee to share some of their proudest professional moments. You can assess each achievement and see how ambitious they are. There is a big difference between a candidate who tells you their greatest exploit was always being on-time for work and one who boosted website traffic by 65% over a six month period. 3. “What was the biggest obstacle you have overcome?” Everyone faces certain challenges in both their personal and professional lives. What’s most important in this case is how your candidate overcame each hurdle. What did they learn from this experience? How would they deal with this obstacle if it were to happen again? It gives you an opportunity to see their problem-solving skills and how they can deal with pressures of the role. 4. “Are you interested in continuing to develop your professional skills and knowledge?” Continuous learning has seen rapid changes and growth, with companies looking to upskill and nurture their workers. Learning has become a key goal for companies, with many encouraging their employees to partake in various courses in order to improve their base level. You want your candidate to believe in continuous learning and know that the business values their personal and professional progression. 5. “Can you tell me what the key trends are in this industry?” Every industry has its own niche trends that are constantly changing. See if your candidate is up-to-date and informed about the latest insights. It’s important to understand the industry you work in, and if your candidate is ill-informed from the get-go, then that alone should be a telling sign. 6. “What is your biggest strength?” A much more comprehensive question compared to the now mundane “what are your weaknesses?” archetype. Candidates predict the latter and generally have a bland, pre-prepared answer. When asking about strengths, it allows the interviewee to paint their skills and traits in a positive light and generate a greater variety of answers. 7. “Tell me about a time when you got it all wrong?” This question allows you to see how honest your candidate is. No one is perfect, and a dishonest answer should be a major red flag for any recruiter. When the interviewee extrapolates, ask them what they’ve learned from the tough experience. Admitting to errors or blunders also shows that they can take ownership of situations and look for solutions rather than transfer blame. 8. “Where do you see yourself in 5 years?” You want your star candidate to think ahead. Only ambitious employees will truly push the boundaries, and that’s the kind of person you want working in your company. It also gives insight into how long the candidate might plan on staying at your business. The right candidate will list their career goals and be a motivated individual who is looking for career progression. 9. “Do you have any questions for me?” A candidate that doesn’t take the opportunity to ask questions is missing out or is struggling to think of a question off the top of their head. Even simple queries like: “how long will the probation period be?” or “what learning opportunities will be available to me?” are most definitely a positive look. It shows that the candidate is fully invested in the position and sees it as a long-term investment. This Post origioally featured at Khawaja Manpoer's Blog
[September-2021]Braindump2go New 312-50v11 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q946-Q976)
QUESTION 946 Geena, a cloud architect, uses a master component in the Kubernetes cluster architecture that scans newly generated pods and allocates a node to them. This component can also assign nodes based on factors such as the overall resource requirement, data locality, software/hardware/policy restrictions, and internal workload interventions. Which of the following master components is explained in the above scenario? A.Kube-controller-manager B.Kube-scheduler C.Kube-apiserver D.Etcd cluster Answer: B QUESTION 947 _________ is a type of phishing that targets high-profile executives such as CEOs, CFOs, politicians, and celebrities who have access to confidential and highly valuable information. A.Spear phishing B.Whaling C.Vishing D.Phishing Answer: B QUESTION 948 Peter, a system administrator working at a reputed IT firm, decided to work from his home and login remotely. Later, he anticipated that the remote connection could be exposed to session hijacking. To curb this possibility, he implemented a technique that creates a safe and encrypted tunnel over a public network to securely send and receive sensitive information and prevent hackers from decrypting the data flow between the endpoints. What is the technique followed by Peter to send files securely through a remote connection? A.DMZ B.SMB signing C.VPN D.Switch network Answer: C QUESTION 949 An attacker can employ many methods to perform social engineering against unsuspecting employees, including scareware. What is the best example of a scareware attack? A.A pop-up appears to a user stating, "You have won a free cruise! Click here to claim your prize!" B.A banner appears to a user stating, "Your account has been locked. Click here to reset your password and unlock your account." C.A banner appears to a user stating, "Your Amazon order has been delayed. Click here to find out your new delivery date." D.A pop-up appears to a user stating, "Your computer may have been infected with spyware. Click here to install an anti-spyware tool to resolve this issue." Answer: D QUESTION 950 Bill has been hired as a penetration tester and cyber security auditor for a major credit card company. Which information security standard is most applicable to his role? A.FISMA B.HITECH C.PCI-DSS D.Sarbanes-OxleyAct Answer: C QUESTION 951 Tony wants to integrate a 128-bit symmetric block cipher with key sizes of 128,192, or 256 bits into a software program, which involves 32 rounds of computational operations that include substitution and permutation operations on four 32-bit word blocks using 8-variable S-boxes with 4-bit entry and 4-bit exit. Which of the following algorithms includes all the above features and can be integrated by Tony into the software program? A.TEA B.CAST-128 C.RC5 D.serpent Answer: D QUESTION 952 Morris, an attacker, wanted to check whether the target AP is in a locked state. He attempted using different utilities to identify WPS-enabled APs in the target wireless network. Ultimately, he succeeded with one special command-line utility. Which of the following command-line utilities allowed Morris to discover the WPS-enabled APs? A.wash B.ntptrace C.macof D.net View Answer: A QUESTION 953 What type of virus is most likely to remain undetected by antivirus software? A.Cavity virus B.Stealth virus C.File-extension virus D.Macro virus Answer: B QUESTION 954 Ben purchased a new smartphone and received some updates on it through the OTA method. He received two messages: one with a PIN from the network operator and another asking him to enter the PIN received from the operator. As soon as he entered the PIN, the smartphone started functioning in an abnormal manner. What is the type of attack performed on Ben in the above scenario? A.Advanced SMS phishing B.Bypass SSL pinning C.Phishing D.Tap 'n ghost attack Answer: A QUESTION 955 Jack, a professional hacker, targets an organization and performs vulnerability scanning on the target web server to identify any possible weaknesses, vulnerabilities, and misconfigurations. In this process, Jack uses an automated tool that eases his work and performs vulnerability scanning to find hosts, services, and other vulnerabilities in the target server. Which of the following tools is used by Jack to perform vulnerability scanning? A.Infoga B.WebCopier Pro C.Netsparker D.NCollector Studio Answer: C QUESTION 956 Stephen, an attacker, targeted the industrial control systems of an organization. He generated a fraudulent email with a malicious attachment and sent it to employees of the target organization. An employee who manages the sales software of the operational plant opened the fraudulent email and clicked on the malicious attachment. This resulted in the malicious attachment being downloaded and malware being injected into the sales software maintained in the victim's system. Further, the malware propagated itself to other networked systems, finally damaging the industrial automation components. What is the attack technique used by Stephen to damage the industrial systems? A.Spear-phishing attack B.SMishing attack C.Reconnaissance attack D.HMI-based attack Answer: A QUESTION 957 Shiela is an information security analyst working at HiTech Security Solutions. She is performing service version discovery using Nmap to obtain information about the running services and their versions on a target system. Which of the following Nmap options must she use to perform service version discovery on the target host? A.-SN B.-SX C.-sV D.-SF Answer: C QUESTION 958 Kate dropped her phone and subsequently encountered an issue with the phone's internal speaker. Thus, she is using the phone's loudspeaker for phone calls and other activities. Bob, an attacker, takes advantage of this vulnerability and secretly exploits the hardware of Kate's phone so that he can monitor the loudspeaker's output from data sources such as voice assistants, multimedia messages, and audio files by using a malicious app to breach speech privacy. What is the type of attack Bob performed on Kate in the above scenario? A.Man-in-the-disk attack B.aLTEr attack C.SIM card attack D.ASpearphone attack Answer: B QUESTION 959 Jude, a pen tester, examined a network from a hacker's perspective to identify exploits and vulnerabilities accessible to the outside world by using devices such as firewalls, routers, and servers. In this process, he also estimated the threat of network security attacks and determined the level of security of the corporate network. What is the type of vulnerability assessment that Jude performed on the organization? A.External assessment B.Passive assessment C.A Host-based assessment D.Application assessment Answer: C QUESTION 960 Roma is a member of a security team. She was tasked with protecting the internal network of an organization from imminent threats. To accomplish this task, Roma fed threat intelligence into the security devices in a digital format to block and identify inbound and outbound malicious traffic entering the organization's network. Which type of threat intelligence is used by Roma to secure the internal network? A.Technical threat intelligence B.Operational threat intelligence C.Tactical threat intelligence D.Strategic threat intelligence Answer: B QUESTION 961 Becky has been hired by a client from Dubai to perform a penetration test against one of their remote offices. Working from her location in Columbus, Ohio, Becky runs her usual reconnaissance scans to obtain basic information about their network. When analyzing the results of her Whois search, Becky notices that the IP was allocated to a location in Le Havre, France. Which regional Internet registry should Becky go to for detailed information? A.ARIN B.APNIC C.RIPE D.LACNIC Answer: C QUESTION 962 Joel, a professional hacker, targeted a company and identified the types of websites frequently visited by its employees. Using this information, he searched for possible loopholes in these websites and injected a malicious script that can redirect users from the web page and download malware onto a victim's machine. Joel waits for the victim to access the infected web application so as to compromise the victim's machine. Which of the following techniques is used by Joel in the above scenario? A.DNS rebinding attack B.Clickjacking attack C.MarioNet attack D.Watering hole attack Answer: B QUESTION 963 Juliet, a security researcher in an organization, was tasked with checking for the authenticity of images to be used in the organization's magazines. She used these images as a search query and tracked the original source and details of the images, which included photographs, profile pictures, and memes. Which of the following footprinting techniques did Rachel use to finish her task? A.Reverse image search B.Meta search engines C.Advanced image search D.Google advanced search Answer: C QUESTION 964 A security analyst uses Zenmap to perform an ICMP timestamp ping scan to acquire information related to the current time from the target host machine. Which of the following Zenmap options must the analyst use to perform the ICMP timestamp ping scan? A.-PY B.-PU C.-PP D.-Pn Answer: C QUESTION 965 Elante company has recently hired James as a penetration tester. He was tasked with performing enumeration on an organization's network. In the process of enumeration, James discovered a service that is accessible to external sources. This service runs directly on port 21. What is the service enumerated byjames in the above scenario? A.Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) B.File Transfer Protocol (FTP) C.Network File System (NFS) D.Remote procedure call (RPC) Answer: B QUESTION 966 Given below are different steps involved in the vulnerability-management life cycle. 1) Remediation 2) Identify assets and create a baseline 3) Verification 4) Monitor 5) Vulnerability scan 6) Risk assessment Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in vulnerability management. A.2-->5-->6-->1-->3-->4 B.2-->1-->5-->6-->4-->3 C.2-->4-->5-->3-->6--> 1 D.1-->2-->3-->4-->5-->6 Answer: A QUESTION 967 Tony is a penetration tester tasked with performing a penetration test. After gaining initial access to a target system, he finds a list of hashed passwords. Which of the following tools would not be useful for cracking the hashed passwords? A.John the Ripper B.Hashcat C.netcat D.THC-Hydra Answer: A QUESTION 968 Which Nmap switch helps evade IDS or firewalls? A.-n/-R B.-0N/-0X/-0G C.-T D.-D Answer: D QUESTION 969 Harper, a software engineer, is developing an email application. To ensure the confidentiality of email messages. Harper uses a symmetric-key block cipher having a classical 12- or 16-round Feistel network with a block size of 64 bits for encryption, which includes large 8 x 32-bit S-boxes (S1, S2, S3, S4) based on bent functions, modular addition and subtraction, key-dependent rotation, and XOR operations. This cipher also uses a masking key(Km1)and a rotation key (Kr1) for performing its functions. What is the algorithm employed by Harper to secure the email messages? A.CAST-128 B.AES C.GOST block cipher D.DES Answer: C QUESTION 970 Which of the following Google advanced search operators helps an attacker in gathering information about websites that are similar to a specified target URL? A.[inurl:] B.[related:] C.[info:] D.[site:] Answer: D QUESTION 971 The security team of Debry Inc. decided to upgrade Wi-Fi security to thwart attacks such as dictionary attacks and key recovery attacks. For this purpose, the security team started implementing cutting-edge technology that uses a modern key establishment protocol called the simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE), also known as dragonfly key exchange, which replaces the PSK concept. What is the Wi-Fi encryption technology implemented by Debry Inc.? A.WEP B.WPA C.WPA2 D.WPA3 Answer: C QUESTION 972 Stella, a professional hacker, performs an attack on web services by exploiting a vulnerability that provides additional routing information in the SOAP header to support asynchronous communication. This further allows the transmission of web-service requests and response messages using different TCP connections. Which of the following attack techniques is used by Stella to compromise the web services? A.XML injection B.WS-Address spoofing C.SOAPAction spoofing D.Web services parsing attacks Answer: B QUESTION 973 James is working as an ethical hacker at Technix Solutions. The management ordered James to discover how vulnerable its network is towards footprinting attacks. James took the help of an open- source framework for performing automated reconnaissance activities. This framework helped James in gathering information using free tools and resources. What is the framework used by James to conduct footprinting and reconnaissance activities? A.WebSploit Framework B.Browser Exploitation Framework C.OSINT framework D.SpeedPhish Framework Answer: C QUESTION 974 Thomas, a cloud security professional, is performing security assessment on cloud services to identify any loopholes. He detects a vulnerability in a bare-metal cloud server that can enable hackers to implant malicious backdoors in its firmware. He also identified that an installed backdoor can persist even if the server is reallocated to new clients or businesses that use it as an laaS. What is the type of cloud attack that can be performed by exploiting the vulnerability discussed in the above scenario? A.Man-in-the-cloud (MITC) attack B.Cloud cryptojacking C.Cloudborne attack D.Metadata spoofing attack Answer: C QUESTION 975 Which among the following is the best example of the third step (delivery) in the cyber kill chain? A.An intruder sends a malicious attachment via email to a target. B.An intruder creates malware to be used as a malicious attachment to an email. C.An intruder's malware is triggered when a target opens a malicious email attachment. D.An intruder's malware is installed on a target's machine. Answer: C QUESTION 976 Dayn, an attacker, wanted to detect if any honeypots are installed in a target network. For this purpose, he used a time-based TCP fingerprinting method to validate the response to a normal computer and the response of a honeypot to a manual SYN request. Which of the following techniques is employed by Dayn to detect honeypots? A.Detecting honeypots running on VMware B.Detecting the presence of Honeyd honeypots C.A Detecting the presence of Snort_inline honeypots D.Detecting the presence of Sebek-based honeypots Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go 312-50v11 PDF and 312-50v11 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/13uhEZnrNlkAP8a1O5NNI-yHndoWuz7Cj?usp=sharing
[September-2021]Braindump2go New 200-201 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q172-Q191)
QUESTION 172 The SOC team has confirmed a potential indicator of compromise on an endpoint. The team has narrowed the executable file's type to a new trojan family. According to the NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide, what is the next step in handling this event? A.Isolate the infected endpoint from the network. B.Perform forensics analysis on the infected endpoint. C.Collect public information on the malware behavior. D.Prioritize incident handling based on the impact. Answer: C QUESTION 173 Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications? A.sandbox B.application allow list C.application block list D.host-based firewall Answer: A QUESTION 174 An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department's servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation? A.Recovery B.Detection C.Eradication D.Analysis Answer: B QUESTION 175 Which data type is necessary to get information about source/destination ports? A.statistical data B.session data C.connectivity data D.alert data Answer: C QUESTION 176 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of attack is being executed? A.SQL injection B.cross-site scripting C.cross-site request forgery D.command injection Answer: A QUESTION 177 Which attack represents the evasion technique of resource exhaustion? A.SQL injection B.man-in-the-middle C.bluesnarfing D.denial-of-service Answer: D QUESTION 178 A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs? A.event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name B.protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port C.event name, log source, time, source IP, and username D.protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name Answer: B QUESTION 179 Which event is a vishing attack? A.obtaining disposed documents from an organization B.using a vulnerability scanner on a corporate network C.setting up a rogue access point near a public hotspot D.impersonating a tech support agent during a phone call Answer: D QUESTION 180 What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying protocol 41 ? A.additional PPTP traffic due to Windows clients B.unauthorized peer-to-peer traffic C.deployment of a GRE network on top of an existing Layer 3 network D.attempts to tunnel IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network Answer: D QUESTION 181 What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive? A.True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them. B.True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless. C.False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately. D.False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged. Answer: C QUESTION 182 An organization's security team has detected network spikes coming from the internal network. An investigation has concluded that the spike in traffic was from intensive network scanning How should the analyst collect the traffic to isolate the suspicious host? A.by most active source IP B.by most used ports C.based on the protocols used D.based on the most used applications Answer: C QUESTION 183 What is an incident response plan? A.an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of operations B.an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and continuous improvements C.an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration ot operational services D.an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations Answer: C QUESTION 184 An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two servers where the remote server is unable to establish a successful session. Initial checks show that the remote server is not receiving an SYN-ACK while establishing a session by sending the first SYN. What is causing this issue? A.incorrect TCP handshake B.incorrect UDP handshake C.incorrect OSI configuration D.incorrect snaplen configuration Answer: A QUESTION 185 A security incident occurred with the potential of impacting business services. Who performs the attack? A.malware author B.threat actor C.bug bounty hunter D.direct competitor Answer: A QUESTION 186 Refer to the exhibit. An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized? A.indirect B.circumstantial C.corroborative D.best Answer: D QUESTION 187 W[^t is vulnerability management? A.A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points. B.A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats. C.A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses. D.A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications Answer: C QUESTION 188 A user received an email attachment named "Hr405-report2609-empl094.exe" but did not run it. Which category of the cyber kill chain should be assigned to this type of event? A.installation B.reconnaissance C.weaponization D.delivery Answer: A QUESTION 189 An engineer needs to configure network systems to detect command and control communications by decrypting ingress and egress perimeter traffic and allowing network security devices to detect malicious outbound communications. Which technology should be used to accomplish the task? A.digital certificates B.static IP addresses C.signatures D.cipher suite Answer: D QUESTION 190 What is a difference between data obtained from Tap and SPAN ports? A.Tap mirrors existing traffic from specified ports, while SPAN presents more structured data for deeper analysis. B.SPAN passively splits traffic between a network device and the network without altering it, while Tap alters response times. C.SPAN improves the detection of media errors, while Tap provides direct access to traffic with lowered data visibility. D.Tap sends traffic from physical layers to the monitoring device, while SPAN provides a copy of network traffic from switch to destination Answer: A QUESTION 191 Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number? A.availability B.confidentiality C.scope D.integrity Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go 200-201 PDF and 200-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1fTPALtM-eluHFw8sUjNGF7Y-ofOP3s-M?usp=sharing
[September-2021]Braindump2go New MS-101 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q336-Q347)
QUESTION 336 You plan to use Azure Sentinel and Microsoft Cloud App Security. You need to connect Cloud App Security to Azure Sentinel. What should you do in the Cloud App Security admin center? A.From Automatic log upload, add a log collector. B.From Automatic log upload, add a data source. C.From Connected apps, add an app connector. D.From Security extension, add a SIEM agent. Answer: D QUESTION 337 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You need to evaluate the tenant based on the standard industry regulations require that the tenant comply with the ISO 27001 standard. What should you do? A.From Policy in the Azure portal, select Compliance, and then assign a pokey B.From Compliance Manager, create an assessment C.From the Microsoft J6i compliance center, create an audit retention pokey. D.From the Microsoft 365 admin center enable the Productivity Score. Answer: B QUESTION 338 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that has sensitivity label support enabled for Microsoft and SharePoint Online. You need to enable unified labeling for Microsoft 365 groups. Which cmdlet should you run? A.set-unifiedGroup B.Set-Labelpolicy C.Execute-AzureAdLebelSync D.Add-UnifiedGroupLinks Answer: B QUESTION 339 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You configure sensitivity labels. Users report that the Sensitivity button is unavailability in Microsoft Word for the web. The sensitivity button is available in Word for Microsoft 365. You need to ensure that the users can apply the sensitivity labels when they use Word for the web. What should you do? A.Copy policies from Azure information Protection to the Microsoft 365 Compliance center B.Publish the sensitivity labels. C.Create an auto-labeling policy D.Enable sensitivity labels for files in Microsoft SharePoint Online and OneDrive. Answer: B QUESTION 340 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You plan to deploy a monitoring solution that meets the following requirements: - Captures Microsoft Teams channel messages that contain threatening or violent language. - Alerts a reviewer when a threatening or violent message is identified. What should you include in the solution? A.Data Subject Requests (DSRs) B.Insider risk management policies C.Communication compliance policies D.Audit log retention policies Answer: C QUESTION 341 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. you implement sensitivity Doris for your company. You need to automatically protect email messages that contain the word Confidential m the subject line. What should you create? A.a sharing policy from the Exchange admin center B.a mall flow rule from the Exchange admin center C.a message Dace from the Microsoft 365 security center D.a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Microsoft 365 compliance center Answer: B QUESTION 342 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains two groups named Group1 and Group2. You need to prevent the members or Group1 from communicating with the members of Group2 by using Microsoft Teams. The solution must comply with regulatory requirements and must not affect other user in the tenant. What should you use? A.information barriers B.communication compliance policies C.moderated distribution groups D.administrator units in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Answer: A QUESTION 343 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains devices registered for mobile device management. The devices are configured as shown in the following table. You plan to enable VPN access for the devices. What is the minimum number of configuration policies required? A.3 B.5 C.4 D.1 Answer: D QUESTION 344 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains 500 Windows 10 devices. The devices are enrolled in Microsoft intune. You plan to use Endpoint analytics to identify hardware issues. You need to enable Window health monitoring on the devices to support Endpoint analytics What should you do? A.Configure the Endpoint analytics baseline regression threshold. B.Create a configuration profile. C.Create a Windows 10 Security Baseline profile D.Create a compliance policy. Answer: B QUESTION 345 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You plan to implement Endpoint Protection device configuration profiles. Which platform can you manage by using the profile? A.Android B.CentOS Linux C.iOS D.Window 10 Answer: C QUESTION 346 You purchase a new computer that has Windows 10, version 2004 preinstalled. You need to ensure that the computer is up-to-date. The solution must minimize the number of updates installed. What should you do on the computer? A.Install all the feature updates released since version 2004 and all the quality updates released since version 2004 only. B.install the West feature update and the latest quality update only. C.install all the feature updates released since version 2004 and the latest quality update only. D.install the latest feature update and all the quality updates released since version 2004. Answer: B QUESTION 347 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 ES tenant. You have the alerts shown in the following exhibit. Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go MS-101 PDF and MS-101 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1KVZ6uvgke0CyiKN6s3PCc3F5LsZZYt7A?usp=sharing