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Fundus Cameras Market 2026 Expected to reach Highest CAGR including major key players Topcon Corporation, Canon, Nidek, Optovue, CenterVue S.p.A., etc

Due to the pandemic, we have included a special section on the Impact of COVID 19 on the Fundus Cameras Market which would mention How the Covid-19 is Affecting the Industry, Market Trends and Potential Opportunities in the COVID-19 Landscape, Key Regions and Proposal for Fundus Cameras Market Players to battle Covid-19 Impact.

Fundus Cameras Market 2020-2026

The Fundus Cameras Market report is one of the most comprehensive and important data about business strategies, qualitative and quantitative analysis of Global Market. It offers detailed research and analysis of key aspects of the Fundus Cameras market. The market analysts authoring this report have provided in-depth information on leading growth drivers, restraints, challenges, trends, and opportunities to offer a complete analysis of the Fundus Cameras market.
Top Leading players covered in the Fundus Cameras market report: Topcon Corporation, Canon, Nidek, Optovue, CenterVue S.p.A., Carl Zeiss Meditec AG, Kowa Optimed, Optomed Oy, Clarity Medical Systems, Heidelberg, RAYMOND and More...
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The report offers clear guidelines for players to cement a position of strength in the global Fundus Cameras market. It prepares them to face future challenges and take advantage of lucrative opportunities by providing a broad analysis of market conditions. the global Fundus Cameras market will showcase a steady CAGR in the forecast year 2020 to 2026.
Market Segment by Type covers:
Low-end Fundus Cameras
Middle-end Fundus Cameras
High-end Fundus Cameras
Market Segment by Application covers:
Hospitals
Ophthalmology Clinics
Ophthalmic & Optometrist Offices
Our Complimentary Sample Fundus Cameras market Report Accommodate a Brief Introduction of the research report, TOC, List of Tables and Figures, Competitive Landscape and Geographic Segmentation, Innovation and Future Developments Based on Research Methodology.
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Regions Covered in the Global Fundus Cameras Market:
The Middle East and Africa (GCC Countries and Egypt)
North America (the United States, Mexico, and Canada)
South America (Brazil etc.)
Europe (Turkey, Germany, Russia UK, Italy, France, etc.)
Asia-Pacific (Vietnam, China, Malaysia, Japan, Philippines, Korea, Thailand, India, Indonesia, and Australia)
Years Considered to Estimate the Fundus Cameras Market Size:
History Year: 2015-2019
Base Year: 2019
Estimated Year: 2020
Forecast Year: 2020-2026
Highlights of the Report: 
• Accurate market size and CAGR forecasts for the period 2019-2026
• Identification and in-depth assessment of growth opportunities in key segments and regions
• Detailed company profiling of top players of the global Fundus Cameras market
• Exhaustive research on innovation and other trends of the global Fundus Cameras market
• Reliable industry value chain and supply chain analysis
• Comprehensive analysis of important growth drivers, restraints, challenges, and growth prospects

Reasons to buy:

Procure strategically important competitor information, analysis, and insights to formulate effective R&D strategies.
Recognize emerging players with potentially strong product portfolio and create effective counter-strategies to gain competitive advantage.
Classify potential new clients or partners in the target demographic.
Develop tactical initiatives by understanding the focus areas of leading companies.
Plan mergers and acquisitions meritoriously by identifying Top Manufacturer.
Formulate corrective measures for pipeline projects by understanding Fundus Cameras pipeline depth.
Develop and design in-licensing and out-licensing strategies by identifying prospective partners with the most attractive projects to enhance and expand business potential and Scope.
Report will be updated with the latest data and delivered to you within 2-4 working days of order.
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2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-801 PDF Dumps(Q110-Q144)
QUESTION 110 A remote office has a less-than-optimal WAN connection end experiences packed loss, delay, and jitter. Which VoIP codec should be used in this situation? A.G.722.1 B.G.711alaw C.iLBC D.G.729A Answer: C QUESTION 111 A user reports transfer failures from an IP phone for calls received from a PSTN to another PSTN number. What is a reason for these failures? A.The incoming calling search space of the SIP trunk does not include the partition of the line in the IP phone. B.The service parameter related to Offnet to Offnet call Transfer is set to TRUE. C.The IP phone is configured with the Wrong region. D.The gateway is configured with the wrong device pool. Answer: B QUESTION 112 A customer is deploying a SIP IOS gateway for a customer who requires that in-bond DTMF relay is first priority and out-of-band DTMF relay is second priority. Which IOS entry sets the required priority? A.dtmf-relay cisco-rtp B.sip-notify dtmf-relay rtp-nte C.dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify D.dtmf-relay sip-kmpl cisco-rtp Answer: C QUESTION 113 Refer to the exhibit. This INVITE is sent to an endpoint that only supports G.729. What must be done for this call to succeed? A.Noting: both sides support G.729. B.Add a transcoder that supports G.711ualw and G.729. C.ADD a media termination point that supports G.711ulaw and G.729. D.Nothing: both sides support payload type 101. Answer: B QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. You deploy Mobile and Remote Access for Jabber and discover that Jabber for Windows does not register to cisco Unified Communications Manager while outside of the office. What is a cause of this issue? A.The DNS record should be created for _ cisco-uds _tcp example.com. B.The DNS record should be changed from _collab-edge._tcp.example.com to __collab-edge _tls.example.com. C.The DNS record type should be changed from SRV to A. D.Server 4.2.2.2 is not a valid DNS server. Answer: B QUESTION 115 What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and presence high-availability modes? A.Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby made provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing. B.Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing. C.Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, but is does not provide load balancing. D.Balanced mode provides user load failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, and is also provides load balancing. Answer: B QUESTION 116 Which two DNS records must be created to configure Service Discovery for on-premises Jabber? (Choose two.) A._cuplogin._tcp.cisco com pointing to a record of IM&P B._cisco-uds._tcp.cisco.com pointing to a record of Cisco Unified CM C._cuplogin._tls.cisco.com pointing to the IP address of IM&P D._cisco-uds._tls.cisco.com pointing to the IP address of Cisco Unified Communications manager E._xmpp._tls.cisco.com pointing to a record of IM&P Answer: AB QUESTION 117 An engineer implements QoS in the enterprise network. Which command can to verify the correct classification and marking on a cisco IOS switch? A.show policy-map B.show class-map interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 C.show access-lists D.show policy-map interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 Answer: D QUESTION 118 Which field is configured to change the caller ID information on a SIP route pattern? A.Calling party Transformation Mask B.Route partition C.Called party Transformation Mask D.Connected Line ID Presentation Answer: A QUESTION 119 Which protocol does prime collaboration Assurance use to poll the health status of different systems in the collaboration environment? A.SIP B.SMTP C.SCCP D.SNMP Answer: D QUESTION 120 Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.) A.PRACK B.UPDATE C.SUBSCRIBE D.NOTIFY E.REGISTER Answer: CD QUESTION 121 An engineer wants to manually deploy a Cisco Webex DX80 video endpoint to a remote user. Which type of provisioning is configured on the endpoint? A.CUBE B.CMS C.CUCM D.Edge Answer: D QUESTION 122 Which DiffServ marking is the most likely to drop packets? A.AF32 B.AF12 C.AF11 D.AF13 Answer: D QUESTION 123 Endpoint A is attempting to call endpoint B. Endpoint A only supports G.711 ulaw with a packetization rate of 20 ms, and endpoint B supports packetization rate of 30 ms for G.711ulaw. Which two media are resources are allocated to normalize packetization rates through transrating? A.Hardware MTP on Cisco IOS Software B.Software MTP on Cisco Unified Communication Manager C.Software MTP on Cisco IOS Software D.Software transcoder on Cisco unified Communications manager E.Hardware transcoder on Cisco IOS Software Answer: AE QUESTION 124 When configuring Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which configuration enables phones to automatically register to a Cisco Unified Communications publisher when the connection to the subscriber is lost? A.Cisco Unified CM Group B.Device Pool C.SRST D.Route Group Answer: A QUESTION 125 Which two elements of a dial plan define the domains that are accessible and are assigned to an endpoint? (Choose two.) A.Call Admissions Control B.Route patterns C.Calling Search Spaces D.Translation patterns E.partitions Answer: CE QUESTION 126 An engineer with ID378163512 is designing a new dial plan for a customer that has offices in several countries on four continents around the world. This client also want to integrate with a Microsoft Lync backend, Which dial plan type does the engineer recommend? A.SIP URI B.TEHQ C.H.323 D.E.164 Answer: D QUESTION 127 Which version is used to provide encryption for SNMP management traffic in collaboration deployments? A.SNMPv1 B.SNMPv3 C.SNMPv2 D.SNMPv2c Answer: B QUESTION 128 Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets? A.CSRC (Contributing Source ID) B.Timestamp C.Sequence number D.SSRC (Synchronization identifier) Answer: C QUESTION 129 Refer to the exhibit. When making a call to a MRA client, what are the combinations of protocol on each of the different sections A-B-C? A.IP TCP/TLS(A) +SIP TCP/TLS (B) +TLS (C) B.SIP TLS (A) +SIP TLS (B) +SIP TLS (C) C.SIP TCP/TLS (A) + SIP TLS (B) + SIP TLS (C) D.SIP TCP/TLS +SIP TCP/TLS (B) + SIP TCP/TLS (C) Answer: C QUESTION 130 An engineer is designing a load balancing solution for two Cisco Unified Border routers. The first router (cube1.abc.com) takes 60% of the calls and the second router (cute2.abc.com) takes 40% of the calls, Assume all DNS A records have been created. Which two SRV records are needed for a load balanced solution? (Choose two.) A.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 1 40 5060 cube2.abc.com B.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 3 60 5060 cube2.abc.com C.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 60 1 5060 cube1.abc.com D.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 2 60 5060 cube1.abc.com E.sip_udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 1 60 5060 cube1.abc.com Answer: AE QUESTION 131 Refer to the exhibit. A call to an international number has failed. Which action corrects this problem? A.Assign a transcoder to the MRGL of the gateway. B.Strip the leading 011 from the called party number C.Add the bearer-cap speech command to the voice port. D.Add the isdn switch-type primart-dms100 command to the serial interface. Answer: B QUESTION 132 Which user group is targeted by MRA services? A.Call center agents who dial out to remote customers B.Mobile workers in a host desk environment at HQ who log in every morning at possibility a different phone C.Production floor users who need wireless mobility in remote areas of the factory D.On-the-go mobile workforce who connect to corporate phone services using their own mobile device Answer: D QUESTION 133 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager feature is to determine the maximum bit rate for a call between two video-endpoints? A.Partitions B.Locations C.Regions D.transformations Answer: C QUESTION 134 When a 8800 series phone is registered over MRA, where does it register? A.Cisco Unified Communications Manager B.Expressway-C C.Cisco Unified Presence Server D.Expressway-E Answer: A QUESTION 135 An engineer must manually provision a Cisco IP Phone 8845 using SIP. Which two fields must be configured for a successful provision? (Choose two.) A.Media resources group list B.SIP profile C.CSS D.Location E.Device security profile Answer: BE QUESTION 136 What is the correct statement about CUCM and Cisco IM&P backups? A.Backups should the scheduled during hours to avoid system performance issues. B.Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account. C.Backups are saved as unencrypted tar files. D.Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communication Manager and Cisco IM and Presence servers. Answer: A QUESTION 137 Due to service provider restriction, Cisco Unified Communications Manager cannot send video in the SDP. Which two options on Cisco Unified CM are configured to suppress video in the SDP is outgoing invites? (Choose two.) A.Check the Send send-receive SDP in mid-call INVITE check box on the SIP trunk SIP profile. B.Add the audio forced command to voice service voip on the Unified Border Elements. C.Check the Retry Call as Audio on the SIP trunk D.Set Video bandwidth in the Region settings to 0. E.Change the Video Capabilities dropdown on the endpoint to Disabled. Answer: CD QUESTION 138 There is a saturated link that has traffic shaping configured. How is incoming traffic processed? A.Excess traffic is queued for later transmission. B.Excess traffic is dropped. C.Traffic is compressed so that the traffic fits within the bandwidth of the link. D.Excess traffic is queued, and then dropped after the timer expires. Answer: A QUESTION 139 Refer to the exhibit. A customer submits this output, captured on a Cisco IOS router. Assuming that an MGCP gateway is configured with a ISDN BRI interface, which BRI changes resolve the issue? A.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 B.interface BRI0/1/0 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-multipoint-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 C.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-point-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 D.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-multipoint-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 Answer: C QUESTION 140 Which SNMP service must be activated manually on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager after installation? A.Cisco CallManager SNMP B.SNMP Master Agent C.Connection SNMP Agent D.Host Resources Agent Answer: A QUESTION 141 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer verifies the configured of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is necessary to enable MGCP? A.Device(config)# mgcp enable B.Device(config)# ccm-manager enable C.Device (config)# com-manager active D.Device (config)# mgcp Answer: D QUESTION 142 What are two key features of the Expressway series? (Choose two.) A.VPN connect toward the internal UC resources B.B2B calls C.IP to PSTN call connectivity D.Device registration over the internet E.SIP header modification Answer: BD QUESTION 143 An engineer deploys a Cisco Expressway edge server for a customer who wants to utilize all feature on the server. Which feature does the engineer configure on the Expressway edge? A.VTC bridge B.H.323 endpoint registration C.SIP gateway for PSTN providers D.MRA Answer: D QUESTION 144 An engineer is configuring a Cisco Unified Border Element to allow the video endpoints to negotiate without the Cisco Unified Border Element interfering in the process. What should the engineer configure on the Cisco Unified Border Element to support this process? A.Configure path-thru content sdp on the voice service. B.Configure a hardcoded codec on the dial peers. C.Configure a transcoder for video protocols. D.Configure codec transparent on the dial peers. Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-801 PDF and 350-801 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1pALdeSmYT0960h3st7rEH4WExsy2Mjgq?usp=sharing
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2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-601 PDF Dumps(Q236-Q266)
QUESTION 236 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPCand non-vPC switches, however, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receives the same STP bridge ID from the upstream which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.peer-switch B.peer-gateway C.systam-mac 0123.4567.89ab D.vpc local role-priority 4000 Answer: A QUESTION 237 A network engineer must perform a backup and restore of the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch configuration. The backup must be made to an external backup server. The only protocol permitted between the Cisco Nexus switch and the backup server is UDP. The backup must be used when the current working configuration of the switch gets corrupted. Which set of steps must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Perform a startup-config backup to an FTP server 2. Copy startup-config in the boot flash to the running-config file B.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the SFTP server to the running-config file C.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SCP server 2. Copy running-config in the boot flash to the running-config file D.1. Perform a startup-config backup to a TFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the backup server to the running-config file Answer: D QUESTION 238 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer requires remote access via SSH to a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. The solution must support secure access using the local user database when the RADIUS servers are unreachable from the switches. Which command meets these requirements? A.aaa authentication none B.aaa authentication login default group radius C.aaa authentication login default fallback error local D.aaa authentication login default group local Answer: C QUESTION 240 A network engineer configures a converged network adapter (CNA) and must associate a virtual Fibre Channel 7 interface to VSAN 7. The CNA is connected to the interface Eth1/7, and VLAN 700 is mapped to the VSAN. Which configuration must be applied to create the virtual Fibre Channel interface and associate it with the Ethernet physical interface? A.switch(config)# vlan 700 switch(config-vlan)# fcoe vsan 7 B.switch(config)# vsan database switch(config-vsan)# vsan 7 interface vfc 7 C.switch(config)# interface ethernet 1/7 switch(config-if)# vfc 7 attach vlan 1,700 D.switch(config)# interface vfc 7 switch(config-if)# bind interface ethernet 1/7 Answer: D QUESTION 241 An engineer must use the Embedded Event Manager to monitor events that occur on a cisco Nexus 9000 series switch. An environment variable needs to be created so that several policies use the monitored events in in their actions. The external email server is represented by IP address 10.10.10.10. Which command sets the environment variable? A.N9k2(config)# event manager policy environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' B.N9k2# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' C.N9k2 (config-apple1)# environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' D.N9k2 (config)# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' Answer: D QUESTION 242 Which communication method does NFS use for requests between servers and clients? A.XDR B.SSC C.RPC D.SMB Answer: C QUESTION 243 A customer reports Fibre Channel login requests to a cisco MDS 9000 series Switch from an unauthorized source. The customer requires a feature that will allow all devices already logged in and learned in and learned to be added to the Fibre channel active database. Which two features must be enabled to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.) A.Auto-learning B.Port security C.Enhanced zoning D.Device aliases E.Smart aliases Answer: AB QUESTION 244 An engineer evaluates a UI-based infrastructure management system capable of monitoring and deploying standalone VXLAN BGP EVPN deployments. The storage administrators also need the solution to manage the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Cisco Intersight B.Cisco UCSD C.Cisco Tetration D.Cisco DCNM Answer: D QUESTION 245 Refer to the exhibit. Which backup operation type not include the preserve identities feature? A.Full state B.Logical configuration C.System configuration D.All configuration Answer: A QUESTION 246 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration ensure that the cisco Nexus 7000 series switches are the primary devices for LACP? A.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 B.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 100 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 200 C.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 D.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# role priority 1 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain )# role priority 2 Answer: A QUESTION 247 A network engineer must enable port security on all Cisco MDS Series Switches in the fabric. The requirement is to avoid the extensive manual configuration of the switch ports. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Activate CFS distribution and the auto-learning port security feature. B.Activate CFS distribution and file auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. C.Enable the auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. D.Enable the auto-learning port security feature. Answer: B QUESTION 248 A network engineer is deploying a Cisco All-Flash HyperFlex solution. Which local storage configuration is required for the operating system and persistent logging? A.Two solid state drives B.Two SATA drives C.One SATA drive D.One solid state drive Answer: A QUESTION 249 An engineer configures the properties of a Cisco UCS Cisco Integrated Management Controller network adapter for a standalone Cisco C-Series Server. The Failback Timeout in the vNIC was set to 600. When the failure occurs, the secondary interfaces must be used and then failback when the primary interface becomes available again. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Set default VLAN on the adapters. B.Increase Cos to 6. C.Disable VNTAG mode. D.Enable Uplink failover. Answer: D QUESTION 250 A network engineer must prevent data comuption due to cross fabric communication in an FCoE environment. Which configuration must be applied to the Cisco Nexus Unified Switches to achieve this objective? A.Switch(config)#fcoe fcmap 0x0efc2a B.Switch(config-if)# no fcoe fcf-priority 0 C.Switch(config-if) # shutdown lan D.Switch(config) # no fcoe fcf-priority Answer: A QUESTION 251 Which component is disrupted when the Cisco Integrated Management Controller is upgraded on a Cisco UCS Series Server? A.Cisco UCS Manager B.SAN traffic C.KVM sessions D.Data traffic Answer: C QUESTION 252 A company is investigating different options for IT automation tools. The IT team has experience with Python programming language and scripting using a declarative language. The proposed tool should be easy to set up and should not require installing an agent on target devices. The team will also need to build custom modules based on the Python programming language to extend the tool's functionality. Which automation tool should be used to meet these requirements? A.Puppet B.Ansible C.NX-API D.Chef Answer: B QUESTION 253 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer needs to implement streaming telemetry on a cisco MDS 9000 series switch. The requirement is for the show command data to be collected every 30 seconds and sent to receivers. Which command must be added to the configuration meet this requirement? A.Sensor-grp 200 sample-period 30000 B.Snsr-grp 200 sample-interval 30 C.Sensor-grp 200 sample-period 30 D.Snsr-grp 200 sample-interval 30000 Answer: D QUESTION 254 A Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch experiences a startup configuration corruption. The engineer must implement a procedure to recover the backup configuration file from the switch. Which command set must be used? A.1. Copy the running-configuration to the startup configuration. 2. Clear the current configuration of the switch. 3. Restart the device. 4. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running configuration. B.1. Clear the current configuration of the switch 2. Restart the device. 3. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration 4. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running configuration C.1. Clear the current configuration of the switch 2. Restart the device. 3. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running-configuration 4. Copy the running-configuration to the startup configuration. D.1. Restarting device. 2. Copy the running-configuration file to a remote server. 3. Clear the current configuration of the switch. 4. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration Answer: C QUESTION 255 An engineer must configure OSPF in the data center. The external routes have already been redistributed OSPF. The network must meet these criteria: - The data centre servers must reach services in the cloud and the services behind the redistributed routes. - The exit point toward the internet should be propagated only when there is a dynamically learned default route from the upstream router. Which feature is required? A.Default-information originate B.Stubby area C.Totally stubby area D.Default-information originate always Answer: A QUESTION 256 What is a characteristic of the install all command on the cisco Nexus series switch? A.Upgrades only certain modules B.Automatically checks the image integrity C.Impact data plan traffic D.Continues the upgrade process if any step in the sequence fails Answer: B QUESTION 257 An engineer is using REST API calls to configure the cisco APIC. Which data structure must be used within a post message to receive a login token? A.{"aaaUser":{"attributes":{"name":"apiuser","pwd":"cisco123"}}} B.<aaaUser><name="apiuser"/><pwd="cisco123"/></aaaUser> C.{aaaUser:{attributes:{name:apiuser,pwd:cisco123}}} D.<aaaUser><name>apiuser</name><pwd>cisco123</pwd></aaaUser> Answer: A QUESTION 258 The EPLD update of the supervisor module has been scheduled for several Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. What will be the impact of the update? A.All control plane traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch remain operational for the duration of the upgrade. B.The redundant supervisor lakes over while the EPLD update is in progress and there is no service disruption. C.All traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. D.The redundant supervisor lakes while the EPLD update is in progress and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. Answer: C QUESTION 259 An engineer configures an intersignt virtual application and must claim over 200 targets. The engineer starts the Claim target procedure. The engineer has prepared this initial comma- separated value file to provision the targets: UCSFI,10.1.1.3,user-1,pwd5516b917 IMC,10.1.1.5/26,user-2,pwdc65b1c43f HX,10.1.2.1/30,user-3,pwd39913690 UCSD,1.1.1.1.user-4,pwd5003e9d5 Which Information must be included In the comma-separated value flit to provision the targets? A.FQON, AD name, IP address, email B.location, address, name. password C.certificate, user name, password. email D.target type, hostname or P address, user name, password Answer: D QUESTION 260 What is an advantage of NFSv4 over Fibre Channel protocol? A.Improved security B.Lossless throughout C.Congestion management D.Uses IP transport Answer: A QUESTION 261 Which two configuration settings are available in the in the cisco UCS flmware Auto sync server policy? A.User Notification B.User Acknowledge C.No Action D.Delayed Action E.Immediate Action Answer: BC QUESTION 262 An administrator is implementing DCNM so that events are triggered when monitored traffic exceeds the configured percent utilization threshold. The requirement is to configure a maximum limit of 39913690 bytes that applies directly to the statistics collected as a ratio of the total link capacity. Which DCNM performance monitoring configuration parameter must be implemented to achieve this result? A.Absolution Values B.Baseline C.Utill% D.Per port Monitoring Answer: A QUESTION 263 A network architect must redesign a data center network based on OSPFv2. The network must perform fast reconvergence between directly connected switches. Which two actions must be taken to meet the requirements? (Choose two.) A.Configure all links on AREA 0. B.Implement a virtual link between the switches. C.Use OSPF point-to-point links only. D.Set low OSPF hello and DEAD timers. E.Enable BFD for failure detection. Answer: CE QUESTION 264 Refer to the exhibit. A host with source address 10.10.10.10 sends traffic to multicast group 239.1.1.1. How do the vPC switches forward the multicast traffic? A.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 Switch2, the traffic is forwarded out only one Po20. B.If multicast traffic is received on Po10 Switch1, the traffic is forwarded out on Po1 and Po20. C.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 and Switch2, the traffic is dropped. D.If multicast traffic is received on Switch over the vPC peer-link, the traffic is dropped. Answer: C QUESTION 265 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPC and non-vPC switches. However, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers. Which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.System-mac 0123.4567.89ab B.Peer-switch C.VPC local role-priority 4000 D.Peer-gateway Answer: B QUESTION 266 A company is running a pair of cisco Nexus 7706 series switches as part of a data center segment. All network engineers have restricted read-Write access to the core switches. A network engineer must a new FCoE VLAN to allow traffic from services toward FCoE storage. Which set of actions must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Create a user-defined role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a role to a user. B.1. Add the required privilege to the VDC-admin role. 2. Commit the changes to the active user database. C.1. Modify a network-operator role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a VDC-operator role to a user. D.1. Assign the network-admin role to a user. 2. Commit the role to the switch to the active user database Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-601 PDF and 350-601 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1M-Px6bHjOJgp4aPsLoYq-hgm90ZKxV_i?usp=sharing
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With the rise in energy costs and the push for sustainable living, it's more important than ever to make energy-efficient upgrades in our homes and businesses. The Energy Savings Improvement Program provides residents and businesses in with the financial incentives and support needed to make these upgrades a reality. This guide provides an overview of the program and how to participate. (article by WhatsBiomass Energy?) Top Energy Innovation and Emerging Technologies Certificates: The Energy Savings Improvement Program encourages the use of top energy innovation and emerging technologies, such as solar panels, energy-efficient appliances, and advanced energy storage systems. Participants in the program can earn Top Energy Innovation and Emerging Technologies Certificates for making these upgrades, which can be used to receive additional incentives and support. San Joaquin County Solar Program: The Energy Savings Improvement Program is similar in many ways to the San Joaquin County Solar Program, which provides similar incentives and support for residents and businesses in California who are interested in making energy-efficient upgrades. Both programs aim to reduce energy costs and promote sustainable living. Best Batteries for Renewable Energy Storage: For those looking to take their energy-efficient upgrades to the next level, such as Lithium batteries for Solar panels and Husky 48v 5.3kwh lifepo4 batteries. These batteries are considered some of the best for renewable energy storage and are eligible for additional incentives and support through the program. Read for more: NJ Energy Savings Improvement Programs Review Thanks for Reading.
2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF Dumps(Q83-Q120)
QUESTION 83 Which statement about hot-potato routing architecture design is true? A.Hot-potato routing is the preferred architecture when connecting to content providers B.Hop-potato keeps traffic under the control of the network administrator for longer C.OSPF uses hot-potato routing if all ASBRs use the same value for the external metric D.Hot-potato routing is prone to misconfiguration as well as poor coordination between two networks Answer: A QUESTION 84 Two enterprise networks must be connected together. Both networks are using the same private IP addresses. The client requests from both sides should be translated using hide NAT (dynamic NAT) with the overload feature to save IF addresses from the NAT pools. Which design addresses this requirement using only one Cisco I OS NAT router for both directions? A.This is not possible, because two Cisco IOS NAT routers are required to do dynamic NAT, with overload in both directions. B.The ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands must be configured at the interfaces with the overload option in both directions. C.The overload feature is the default and does not have to be configured. D.Two different NAT pools must be used for the ip nat inside source and the ip nat outside source commands for the overload feature in both directions. E.The Nat Virtual interface must be used to achieve this requirement. Answer: D QUESTION 85 Refer to the exhibit. As part of a redesign project, you must predict multicast behavior. What happens to the multicast traffic received on the shared tree (*,G), if it is received on the LHR interface indicated*? A.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPF check against the multicast source B.It is switched give that no RPF check is performed C.It is switched due to a successful RPF check against the routing table D.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPk8t8ck against the multicast receiver. Answer: A QUESTION 86 A BGP route reflector in the network is taking longer than expected to coverage during large network changes. Troubleshooting shows that the router cannot handle all the TCP acknowledgements during route updates. Which action can be performed to tune the device performance? A.Increase the size of the hold queue. B.Increase the size of the large buffers. C.Decrease the size of the small buffers. D.Increase the keepalive timers for each BGP neighbor. Answer: A QUESTION 87 Which two application requirements are mandatory tor traffic to receive proper treatment when placed in the priority queue? (Choose two.) A.small transactions (HTTP-like behavior) B.WRED drop treatment C.tolerance to packet loss D.intolerance to jitter E.TCP-based application Answer: CD QUESTION 88 Which two conditions must be met for EIGRP to maintain an alternate loop-free path to a remote network? (Choose two.) A.The Reported Distance from a successor is lower than the local Feasible Distance. B.The Reported Distance from a successor is higher than the local Feasible Distance. C.The feasibility condition does not need to be met. D.The Feasible Distance from a successor is lower than the local Reported Distance. E.A feasible successor must be present. Answer: AE QUESTION 89 You are designing a new Ethernet-based metro-area network for an enterprise customer to connect 50 sites within the same city OSPF will be the routing protocol used. The customer is primarily concerned with IPv4 address conservation and convergence time. Which two combined actions do you recommend? (Choose two) A.Use a multipoint Metro-E service for router connections B.Use a single address per router for all P2P links C.Use P2P links between routers in a hub-and-spoke design D.Configure address aggregation at each site router E.Determine which OSPF routers will be DR/BDR Answer: AC QUESTION 90 Which two statements about MLD snooping are true? (Choose two) A.When MLD snooping is enabled, QoS is automatically enabled. B.A VLAN can support multiple active MLD snooping queries, as long as each one is associated to a different multicast group. C.AN MLD snooping querier election occurs when any MLD snooping querier goes down or if there is an IP address change on the active querier. D.When multiple MLD snooping queriers are enabled in a VLAN, the querier with the lowest IP address in the VLAN is elected as the active MLD snooping querier. Answer: CD QUESTION 91 Which two design option are available to dynamically discover the RP in an IPv6 multicast network? (Choose two) A.embedded RP B.MSDP C.BSR D.Auto-RP E.MLD Answer: AC QUESTION 92 Company A has a hub-and spoke topology over an SP-managed infrastructure. To measure traffic performance metrics. IP SLA senders on all spoke CE routers and an IP SLA responder on the hub CE router. What must they monitor to have visibility on the potential performance impact due to the constantly increasing number of spoke sites? A.memory usage on the hub router B.interface buffers on the hub and spoke routers C.CPU and memory usage on the spoke routers D.CPU usage on the hub router Answer: D QUESTION 93 Which two descriptions of CWDM are true? (Choose two) A.typically used over long distances, but requires optical amplification B.uses the 850nm band C.allows up to 32 optical earners to be multiplexed onto a single fiber D.shares the same transmission window as DWDM E.Passive CWDM devices require no electrical power Answer: DE QUESTION 94 SDWAN networks capitalize the usage of broadband Internet links over traditional MPLS links to offer more cost benefits to enterprise customers. However, due to the insecure nature of the public Internet, it is mandatory to use encryption of traffic between any two SDWAN edge devices installed behind NAT gateways. Which overlay method can provide optimal transport over unreliable underlay networks that are behind NAT gateways? A.TLS B.DTLS C.IPsec D.GRE Answer: C QUESTION 95 Company XYZ runs OSPF in their network. A design engineer decides to implement hot-potato routing architecture. How can this implementation be achieved? A.Enable iBGP and apply prepend to ensure all prefixes will have the same length of the AS path attribute value. B.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure the total metric calculation includes only the ext value and the value is the same in all ASBRs. C.Enable OSPF load-balancing over unequal cost path. D.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure that the total metric calculation includes external internal values. Answer: D QUESTION 96 What are two primary design constraints when a robust infrastructure solution is created? (Choose two.) A.monitoring capabilities B.project time frame C.staff experience D.component availability E.total cost Answer: BE QUESTION 97 SD-WAN can be used to provide secure connectivity to remote offices, branch offices, campus networks, data centers, and the cloud over any type of IP-based underlay transport network. Which two statements describe SD WAN solutions? (Choose two.) A.SD-WAN networks are inherently protected against slow performance. B.Control and data forwarding planes are kept separate. C.Improved operational efficiencies result In cost savings. D.Solutions include centralized orchestration, control, and zero-touch provisioning. E.Solutions allow for variations of commodity and specialized switching hardware. Answer: CD QUESTION 98 An architect designs a multi-controller network architecture with these requirements: - Achieve fast failover to control traffic when controllers fail. - Yield a short distance and high resiliency in the connection between the switches and the controller. - Reduce connectivity loss and enable smart recovery to improve the SDN survivability. - Improve connectivity by adding path diversity and capacity awareness for controllers. Which control plane component of the multi-controller must be built to meet the requirements? A.control node reliability B.controller stale consistency C.control path reliability D.controller clustering Answer: D QUESTION 99 Company XYZ is planning to deploy primary and secondary (disaster recovery) data center sites. Each of these sites will have redundant SAN fabrics and data protection is expected between the data center sites. The sites are 100 miles (160 km) apart and target RPO/RTO are 3 hrs and 24 hrs, respectively. Which two considerations must Company XYZ bear in mind when deploying replication in their scenario? (Choose two.) A.Target RPO/RTO requirements cannot be met due to the one-way delay introduced by the distance between sites. B.VSANs must be routed between sites to isolate fault domains and increase overall availability. C.Synchronous data replication must be used to meet the business requirements. D.Asynchronous data replication should be used in this scenario to avoid performance impact in the primary site. E.VSANs must be extended from the primary to the secondary site to improve performance and availability. Answer: CD Explanation: RPO and RTO tend to vary based on the application involved. These metrics tend to fluctuate between data that cannot be lost (i.e., low RPO but high RTO) such as financial and healthcare data as well as real-time systems that cannot be down (i.e., high RPO but low RTO) such as an E-commerce web server. QUESTION 100 Which undesired effect of increasing the jitter compensation buffer is true? A.The overall transport jitter decreases and quality improves. B.The overall transport jitter increases and quality issues can occur. C.The overall transport delay increases and quality issues can occur. D.The overall transport delay decreases and quality improves. Answer: C QUESTION 101 Which three tools are used for ongoing monitoring and maintenance of a voice and video environment? (Choose three.) A.flow-based analysis to measure bandwidth mix of applications and their flows B.call management analysis to identify network convergence-related failures C.call management analysis to identify CAC failures and call quality issues D.active monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter E.passive monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter F.flow-based analysis with PTP time-stamping to measure loss, latency, and jitter Answer: ACD QUESTION 102 Which two advantages of using DWDM over traditional optical networks are true? (Choose two.) A.inherent topology flexibility and service protection provided without penalty through intelligent oversubscription of bandwidth reservation B.ability to expand bandwidth over existing optical Infrastructure C.inherent topology flexibility with built-in service protection D.inherent topology flexibility with intelligent chromatic dispersion E.inherent topology flexibility with a service protection provided through a direct integration with an upper layer protocol Answer: AB QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. This network is running OSPF and EIGRP as the routing protocols. Mutual redistribution of the routing protocols has been configured on the appropriate ASBRs. The OSPF network must be designed so that flapping routes in EIGRP domains do not affect the SPF runs within OSPF. The design solution must not affect the way EIGRP routes are propagated into the EIGRP domains. Which technique accomplishes the requirement? A.route summarization the ASBR interfaces facing the OSPF domain B.route summarization on the appropriate ASBRS. C.route summarization on the appropriate ABRS. D.route summarization on EIDRP routers connecting toward the ASBR Answer: D QUESTION 104 Company XYZ is running OSPF in their network. They have merged with another company that is running EIGRP as the routing protocol. Company XYZ now needs the two domains to talk to each other with redundancy, while maintaining a loop free environment. The solution must scale when new networks are added into the network in the near future. Which technology can be used to meet these requirements? A.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs B.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags C.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags D.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs Answer: B QUESTION 105 Company XYZ is in the process of identifying which transport mechanism(s) to use as their WAN technology. Their main two requirements are. - a technology that could offer DPI, SLA, secure tunnels, privacy, QoS, scalability, reliability, and ease of management - a technology that is cost-effective Which WAN technology(ies) should be included in the design of company XYZ? A.Software-defined WAN should be the preferred choice because it complements both technologies, covers all the required features, and it is the most cost-effective solution. B.Internet should be the preferred option because it is cost effective and supports BFD, IP SLA. and IPsec for secure transport over the public Internet. C.Both technologies should be used. Each should be used to back up the other one; where the primary links are MPLS, the internet should be used as a backup link with IPsec (and vice versa). D.MPLS meets all these requirements and it is more reliable than using the Internet. It is widely used with defined best practices and an industry standard. Answer: A QUESTION 106 Which MPLS TE design consideration is true? A.MPLS TE replaces LDP and the dependency of the IGP to identify the best path. B.MPLS TE provides link and node protection C.MPLS TE optimizes the routing of IP traffic, given the constraints imposed by backbone capacity and application requirements. D.MPLS TE requires Layer 3 VPN full-mesh topology deployment Answer: C QUESTION 107 The network designer needs to use GLOP IP address in order make them unique within their ASN, which multicast address range will be considered? A.239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 B.224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 C.233.0.0.0 to 233.255.255.255 D.232.0.0.0 to 232.255.255.255 Answer: C QUESTION 108 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right. Answer: QUESTION 109 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the end-to-end network virtualization elements from the left onto the correct network areas on the right. Answer: QUESTION 110 Which two data plane hardening techniques are true? (Choose two) A.warning banners B.redundant AAA servers C.Control Plane Policing D.SNMPv3 E.infrastructure ACLs F.disable unused services G.routing protocol authentication Answer: CE QUESTION 111 You have been asked to design a high-density wireless network for a university campus. Which two principles would you apply in order to maximize the wireless network capacity? (Choose two.) A.Implement a four-channel design on 2.4 GHz to increase the number of available channels B.Choose a high minimum data rate to reduce the duty cycle. C.increases the number of SSlDs to load-balance the client traffic. D.Make use of the 5-GHz band to reduce the spectrum utilization on 2.4 GHz when dual-band clients are used. E.Enable 802.11n channel bonding on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz to increase the maximum aggregated cell throughput. Answer: BD QUESTION 112 Company XYZ is redesigning their QoS policy. Some of the applications used by the company are real- time applications. The QoS design must give these applications preference in terms of transmission. Which QoS strategy can be used to fulfill the requirement? A.weighted fair queuing B.weighted random early detection C.low-latency queuing D.first-in first-out Answer: C QUESTION 113 As part of workspace digitization, a large enterprise has migrated all their users to Desktop as a Sen/ice (DaaS), by hosting the backend system in their on-premises data center. Some of the branches have started to experience disconnections to the DaaS at periodic intervals, however, local users in the data center and head office do not experience this behavior. Which technology can be used to mitigate this issue? A.tail drop B.traffic shaping C.WRED D.traffic policing Answer: B QUESTION 114 A healthcare provider discovers that protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data. Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue? A.technical and physical access control B.administrative security management processes C.physical device and media control D.technical integrity and transmission security Answer: D QUESTION 115 Which two technologies enable multilayer segmentation? (Choose two.) A.policy-based routing B.segment routing C.data plane markings D.firewalls E.filter lists Answer: AD QUESTION 116 IPFIX data collection via standalone IPFIX probes is an alternative to flow collection from routers and switches. Which use case is suitable for using IPFIX probes? A.performance monitoring B.security C.observation of critical links D.capacity planning Answer: A QUESTION 117 Company XYZ wants to use the FCAPS ISO standard for network management design. The focus of the design should be to monitor and keep track of any performance issues by continuously collecting and analyzing statistical information to monitor, correct, and optimize any reduced responsiveness across the network. Which layer accomplishes this design requirement? A.fault management B.accounting management C.performance management D.security management Answer: C QUESTION 118 While designing a switched topology, in which two options is UplinkFast recommended? (Choose two ) A.when switches of different spanning-tree types are connected (for example. 802.1d connecting to 802.1w) B.on distribution layer switches C.when hello timers are changed to more aggressive values D.on access layer switches E.on the core switches Answer: AD QUESTION 119 You are using iSCSI to transfer files between a 10 Gigabit Ethernet storage system and a 1 Gigabit Ethernet server. The performance is only approximately 700 Mbps and output drops are occurring on the server switch port. Which action will improve performance in a cost-effective manner? A.Change the protocol to CIFS. B.Increase the queue to at least 1 GB C.Use a WRED random drop policy D.Enable the TCP Nagle algorithm on the receiver Answer: A QUESTION 120 Customer XYZ network consists of an MPLS core. IS-IS running as IGP a pair of BGP route reflectors for route propagation, and a few dozens of MPLS-TE tunnels for specific tactical traffic engineering requirements. The customer's engineering department has some questions about the use of the Overload Bit in the IS-IS networks and how it could be used to improve their current network design. Which two concepts about the Overload Bit are true? (Choose two.) A.It can be set on a router during the startup process for a fixed period of time B.Networks advertised within the LSPs of the respective node will become unreachable C.It forces the midpoint MPLS-TE node to reoptimize the primary tunnels going through the OL node. D.It can be set on a router until other interacting protocols have signaled convergence. E.It is not recommended on BGP Route Reflectors Answer: AD 2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF and 400-007 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1wV28HLjscHjQ8TOrCglIRRU5nn6jytDd?usp=sharing
TOP 7 BENEFITS OF PEOPLE ANALYTICS
The impact of the epidemic on the economy is greatly influenced by People Analytics. Businesses find it challenging to grasp where they might save costs and how their employees are adapting to remote work. The exchange of data is important to survival in a crisis. Many HR professionals are turning to data through people analytics strategies. People analytics provides HR professionals with the knowledge required to serve as effective business partners, whether it is for hiring, data analysis, employee retention, or revamping the workplace. While many organizations employ some kind of people analytics, some may be beginning to explore its possibilities or may not be fully utilizing the insights the technology offers. Therefore, Top managers should explore ways to enhance their company's use of people analytics to boost retention and promote diversity, equality, and inclusion (DEI) initiatives. In this blog, let's examine what people analytics is and its top seven benefits. What Is People Analytics The practice of utilizing data patterns to support strategic planning and performance improvement is known as people analytics, HR analytics, or talent analytics. It manages these skills by analyzing enormous amounts of talent data using technology, math, and statistics. Therefore, the data-driven method of managing workplace employees is known as "people analytics." Here are seven advantages that businesses can gain from employing people analytics. Improves Talent Acquisition Finding the proper candidates that meet the required job roles can be difficult for businesses. As a result, they run the risk of losing a sizeable sum of money if a new worker doesn't pan out. You may examine all the details and activities your applicants provide using people analytics. Compare that with your company description as the recruitment process progresses, and then use specific algorithms to build a massive selection of the most qualified applicants. Improves Retention Finding the best candidates is one thing; sustaining them is quite another. Many of the intuitions are dramatically eliminated by People Analytics. It now plays a crucial role in assessing a company's staff retention rates and supporting businesses in understanding why such rates may be dropping. It identifies people who are most likely to leave a company in the future and alerts businesses to any potential workforce losses before they happen, giving them the chance to turn things around. More effective workforce planning Evaluating skills gaps and workforce management go hand - in - hand. Analytics can be used by HR executives to go over and decide on budget estimates. The need for organizational positions or staff migrations to new departments can also be identified with the help of analytics. For example, decision-makers can utilize analytics to look at the workload of the functional area over the previous year and the number of new salespeople the organization will need to manage the new business if the sales department of a company expects an increase in business over the upcoming year. Uncovers skill gaps Finding the skill gaps in your groups is important for expanding your workforce and choosing the right candidates. In order to automatically discover areas of weakness, people analytics systems frequently involve data visualization and automation. For instance, you might display the team's talents on a matrix versus the skills necessary. Better Productivity Organizations are better capable of increasing productivity, which enables workers to do their greatest work to support company expansion. Everything is due to people analytics' potential. It sheds light on the collaboration between different divisions and efficient staff interaction. It enables companies to forecast, generate better collaboration, and increase productivity. Reduces attrition rate People analytics can immediately detect the factors and patterns behind employee loss. Understanding these factors is important to your company's sustainability since attrition explains both the reasons why employees want to leave and the causes why they want to retain. People analytics can assist you in finding these gaps by gathering information from employee surveys and generating meaningful reports. Better training An important aspect of corporate culture is common professional development. By helping your staff grow and acquire new capabilities, the performance of your business will directly benefit from your efforts. Through people analytics, you can determine whether employees are taking advantage of training opportunities and evaluate whether the training is relevant for them or not by gathering data on areas where employees would need upskilling. This can save your business time and money. Over to you People analytics is becoming a vital tool for businesses to use when making decisions. To enable their organizations to gain from people analytics, every professional must possess a high level of data literacy.
2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-720 PDF Dumps(Q46-Q76)
QUESTION 46 Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.) A.The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters. B.Message filters configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters. C.The filterconfig command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters. D.Message filters can be configured only from the CLI. E.Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface. Answer: AD QUESTION 47 What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies? A.message splintering B.message exceptions C.message detachment D.message aggregation Answer: A QUESTION 48 Which default port is used by the Cisco ESA to quarantine the message on the Cisco Security Management Appliance? A.port 25fTCP B.port110/TCP C.port443/TCP D.port 6025/TCP E.port4766/UDP Answer: D QUESTION 49 When configuring CRES, where do you enable read receipts? A.In the encryption profile B.In the content filter condition menu C.In the content filter action menu D.In the mail policy Answer: A QUESTION 50 Which type of query must be configured when setting up the Spam Quarantine while merging notifications? A.Spam Quarantine Alias Routing Query B.Spam Quarantine Alias Consolidation Query C.Spam Quarantine Alias Authentication Query D.Spam Quarantine Alias Masquerading Query Answer: B QUESTION 51 Which two factors must be considered when message filter processing is configured? (Choose two.) A.message-filter order B.lateral processing C.structure of the combined packet D.mail policies E.MIME structure of the message Answer: AE QUESTION 52 How does the graymail safe unsubscribe feature function? A.It strips the malicious content of the URI before unsubscribing. B.It checks the URI reputation and category and allows the content filter to take an action on it. C.It redirects the end user who clicks the unsubscribe button to a sandbox environment to allow a safe unsubscribe. D.It checks the reputation of the URI and performs the unsubscribe process on behalf of the end user. Answer: D QUESTION 53 Which method enables an engineer to deliver a flagged message to a specific virtual gateway address in the most flexible way? A.Set up the interface group with the flag. B.Issue the altsrchost command. C.Map the envelope sender address to the host. D.Apply a filter on the message. Answer: D QUESTION 54 An administrator is trying to enable centralized PVO but receives the error, "Unable to proceed with Centralized Policy, Virus and Outbreak Quarantines configuration as esa1 in Cluster has content filters / DLP actions available at a level different from the cluster level." What is the cause of this error? A.Content filters are configured at the machine-level on esa1. B.DLP is configured at the cluster-level on esa2. C.DLP is configured at the domain-level on esa1. D.DLP is not configured on host1. Answer: A QUESTION 55 Which feature must be configured before an administrator can use the outbreak filter for nonviral threats? A.quarantine threat level B.antispam C.data loss prevention D.antivirus Answer: B QUESTION 56 Which type of attack is prevented by configuring file reputation filtering and file analysis features? A.denial of service B.zero-day C.backscatter D.phishing Answer: B QUESTION 57 Which two service problems can the Cisco Email Security Appliance solve? (Choose two.) A.DLP B.IPS C.Antispam D.URL filtering Answer: AC QUESTION 58 Which of the following types of DNS records deals with mail delivery for a specific domain? A.A B.TXT C.MX D.PTR Answer: C QUESTION 59 When DKIM signing is configured, which DNS record must be updated to load the DKIM public signing key? A.AAAA record B.PTR record C.TXT record D.MX record Answer: C QUESTION 60 Which attack is mitigated by using Bounce Verification? A.spoof B.denial of service C.eavesdropping D.smurf Answer: B QUESTION 61 When outbreak filters are configured, which two actions are used to protect users from outbreaks? (Choose two.) A.redirect B.return C.drop D.delay E.abandon Answer: AD QUESTION 62 Which two features are applied to either incoming or outgoing mail policies? (Choose two.) A.Indication of Compromise B.application filtering C.outbreak filters D.sender reputation filtering E.antivirus Answer: CE QUESTION 63 What must be configured to allow the Cisco ESA to encrypt an email using the Cisco Registered Envelope Service? A.provisioned email encryption profile B.message encryption from a content filter that select "Message Encryption" over TLS C.message encryption from the mail flow policies with "CRES" selected D.content filter to forward the email to the Cisco Registered Envelope server Answer: A QUESTION 64 Which two configurations are used on multiple LDAP servers to connect with Cisco ESA? (Choose two.) A.load balancing B.SLA monitor C.active-standby D.failover E.active-active Answer: AD QUESTION 65 What is the default port to deliver emails from the Cisco ESA to the Cisco SMA using the centralized Spam Quarantine? A.8025 B.6443 C.6025 D.8443 Answer: C QUESTION 66 Which two steps are needed to disable local spam quarantine before external quarantine is enabled? (Choose two.) A.Uncheck the Enable Spam Quarantine check box. B.Select Monitor and click Spam Quarantine. C.Check the External Safelist/Blocklist check box. D.Select External Spam Quarantine and click on Configure. E.Select Security Services and click Spam Quarantine. Answer: AB QUESTION 67 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the steps to configure Cisco ESA to use SPF/SIDF verification from the left into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 68 Drag and Drop Question An Encryption Profile has been set up on the Cisco ESA. Drag and drop the steps from the left for creating an outgoing content filter to encrypt emails that contains the subject "Secure:" into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 69 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the Cisco ESA reactions to a possible DLP from the left onto the correct action types on the right. Answer: QUESTION 70 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the AsyncOS methods for performing DMARC verification from the left into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 71 A network administrator is modifying an outgoing mail policy to enable domain protection for the organization. A DNS entry is created that has the public key. Which two headers will be used as matching criteria in the outgoing mail policy? (Choose two.) A.message-ID B.sender C.URL reputation D.from E.mail-from Answer: BD QUESTION 72 To comply with a recent audit, an engineer must configure anti-virus message handling options on the incoming mail policies to attach warnings to the subject of an email. What should be configured to meet this requirement for known viral emails? A.Virus Infected Messages B.Unscannable Messages C.Encrypted Messages D.Positively Identified Messages Answer: C QUESTION 73 An administrator is managing multiple Cisco ESA devices and wants to view the quarantine emails from all devices in a central location. How is this accomplished? A.Disable the VOF feature before sending SPAM to the external quarantine. B.Configure a mail policy to determine whether the message is sent to the local or external quarantine. C.Disable the local quarantine before sending SPAM to the external quarantine. D.Configure a user policy to determine whether the message is sent to the local or external quarantine. Answer: B QUESTION 74 A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy match using a specific sender, the email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason of this? A.The Tram* header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. B.The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion. C.The To" header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. D.The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion. Answer: D QUESTION 75 An administrator identifies that, over the past week, the Cisco ESA is receiving many emails from certain senders and domains which are being consistently quarantined. The administrator wants to ensure that these senders and domain are unable to send anymore emails. Which feature on Cisco ESA should be used to achieve this? A.incoming mail policies B.safelist C.blocklist D.S/MIME Sending Profile Answer: A QUESTION 76 An engineer is testing mail flow on a new Cisco ESA and notices that messages for domain abc.com are stuck in the delivery queue. Upon further investigation, the engineer notices that the messages pending delivery are destined for 192.168.1.11, when they should instead be routed to 192.168.1.10. What configuration change needed to address this issue? A.Add an address list for domain abc.com. B.Modify Destination Controls entry for the domain abc.com. C.Modify the SMTP route for the domain and change the IP address to 192.168.1.10. D.Modify the Routing Tables and add a route for IP address to 192.168.1.10. Answer: C 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-720 PDF and 300-720 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1CWQxEgDC6s96s0xdef_OXd8TQRMElfP0?usp=sharing
Top 10 Pharma Industry Innovations in 2023
Recent business dynamics show that innovations continue to drive the pharma industry in 2023. With the traditionally slow adoption of the technology industry, pharma is under rapid evolution for innovations. The increasing investment, growing technology startups, amplifying inter-organizational collaborations, and favorable environment are spurring innovations across the pharma trends. One of the leading pharmaceutical companies in 2023, Johnson & Johnson reported sales of $23.3bn in the third quarter of 2021 indicating a rise of 10.7% compared to the same quarter in 2020. As global pharmaceutical manufacturing market has crossed $400 billion. Reading the numbers, the US and European markets are estimated to be worth $635 bn and $315 bn in sales, respectively, by the end of 2024. Yet, how will the industry move forward to 2024 in 2023? The pharma industry focuses on the ability to meet the rising client expectations by leveraging AL and ML. A detailed emphasis is being made on pharmacovigilance, blockchain, RWD, and improved cybersecurity. Nonetheless, 2023 calls for the pharma industry to move ahead and pay attention to pharmaceutical trends to shape up the global market for the year.Sales Intelligence tool with Chrome extn to find prospects email contactsSales Intelligence tool with Chrome extn to find prospects details quick. Best tool for Sales & marketing teams to generate more leadshttps://bit.ly/3GTGUaw Here are the top 10 trends in pharmaceutical industry innovations to embrace in 2023. 1. Rise in Pharmacovigilance Market Vaccines and medicines may have unexpected and undesirable side effects calling for extra emphasis on calculating drugs’ quality and their usage. This is where “Pharmacovigilance” is derived from the Greek word, Pharmakon which means a medicinal substance, and Latin word, Vigilia which means to keep a watch. Pharmacovigilance signifies a set of scientific activities for drug effects prevention and other medicine-related problems. The ultimate goal stands to optimize the benefit-risk ratio of the healthcare products usage by sharing validated information with patients and HCPs. Developing effective and safe medicine with secure preclinical and clinical software requires a huge amount of high-quality datasets. This helps in making it possible to implicate data mining for critical decision-making along with risk assessment. Download full Annual Revenue Report of Best Pharmaceutical Companies in 2022-2023. 2. Artificial Intelligence & High tech Use of AI has accelerated drug discovery and developmental processes. Various AI startups are aiming to explore the use of technologies to address the various challenges associated with the pharma industry. It implies the inclusion of automation and optimization of manufacturing processes and strategizing effective marketing and post-launch strategies. The most prominent step in the drug discovery and development process is “Patient Identification”. Artificial Intelligence (AI) helps identify the eligibility criteria and inclusion of patients. Further, it also makes the identification process easy, quick, and economical. 3. Big Data and Analytics Pharma industry demands high-performance systems for analyzing large volume data to render during the drug discovery and development process. In general, pharma companies use 3rd parties to share data with collaborators to make data management an area of focus. The advancing technology aims to turn historical and real-time data and analytics of pharmaceutical companies into valuable assets. They help in diagnostic, predictive, and descriptive analytics. Additionally, these analytics are leveraged for all kinds of medical data acquired from patient records, hospital data, and imaging centers, naming a few. 4. New & Agile Operating Models The increasing volume of remote network distribution has driven organizations to re-evaluate the network costs and operating models. It is likely to bring talent distribution and make manufacturing more flexible. These newly developed models also demonstrate newly emerging trends to enable the program, to operate and interpret data simultaneously keeping up with technological advancement. Numbers say that more than 80% of US pharma executives are inclined towards agile working methods. These also indicate that organizations will experience a simple structure to avoid the traditional sales rep model. 5. Real-World Data and Evidence The real-world data (RWD) and real-world evidence (RWE) transform innovations in the pharmaceutical industry. RWD includes patient information like treatment data, health reports, and health status collected on a routine. The research-intensive nature of the pharmaceutical industry ensures that data is reliable and of real value. The RWD is enabled by the Internet of things (IoT)- the wearables and sensors restructure the functioning of the pharmaceutical industry. 6. Blockchain The introduction of blockchain technology plays a significant role for pharmaceutical at every stage of the production and distribution of drugs. In general, the pharma industry stakeholders are secretive about their data due to their sensitive nature. Blockchain has been explored to tackle the use of counterfeit medicines and substandard drugs entering into the pharmaceutical supply chain and killing thousands every year. The digitalization of transactions leveraging the blockchain promises a solution for tracking and hooking pharma transaction ecosystems. 7. Digital Therapeutics Digital Therapeutics is the prominent way to deliver evidence-based therapeutic interventions with the help of software. It prevents, manages, and also treats physical, mental, and behavioral conditions. These tech-driven non-pharmacological solutions are either stand-alone or anchored alongside devices, medications, or therapies. It helps every individual to have control over health and outcomes. 8. Curative Therapies The pharma industry is experiencing a paradigm shift in the area of treating illnesses- from managing diseases to curing diseases. Cell and gene therapies are the curative therapies that are changing the ways to deal with chronic diseases or difficult to treat conditions. This eliminates the need for long-term treatments. In the case of gene therapies, the genetic materials are introduced to the cells to either make a beneficial protein or compensate for the abnormal genes. 9. Precision Medicine Precision medicine implies is from the idea to cater to each patient as a unique individual. Omic and data analysis advancements provide new insight into how a human body responds to a set of drugs. Along with this, additive manufacturing in collaboration with other advancements makes personalized medicine a reality. Different drug exposure models determine pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic properties of drugs to get to the right drug dosage based on age, comorbidities, sex, and other clinical attributes. 10. Improved CyberSecurity The pharmaceutical industry is a source of the most sensitive data and is in dire need of cybersecurity. It gives a possibility of rising data leakages, and it can emerge in different forms and sources. The not-seeming-to-end technological advancements establish that the pharma industry is bound to face security risks. With HIPAA and HITECH proposed modifications in effect in 2023 makes the pharma industry to re-strategizes the impact of personally identifiable data for the proper functioning of an organization. Reimagining Pharmaceutical Industry in 2023 The pharmaceutical industry is evolving in response to the evolving behavior of customers, HCPs, and investors. COVID-19 has not only reshaped the pharma industry’s functioning but has also fueled up development aspects of the pharma industry trends- notably in digitalization and patient engagement. If you are following recent trends in pharmaceutical industry innovations, brace up for 2023! Tags: pharma industry, Pharma Industry Innovations in 2022, pharma Marketing, Pharma trends in 2022, Pharmaceutical Industries, pharmaceutical trends, Top 10 pharma trends in 2022
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