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Family tree maker upgrade



Family tree maker upgrade is a new advanced version of old family tree maker. Family tree maker 2019 includes some advanced features in it. With the help of these new upgraded features now you can contact our technical support team. Our technical support team is 24x7 available to help our customer with our effective and efficient service. You can call on toll-free number +1-888-575-2545 for best support service.
Why do we need to upgrade family tree maker 2019 ?
If you haven’t used the feature to connect Family Tree Maker to Ancestry.com through FTM 2017, then you have to upgrade it to Family Tree Maker 2019 as Mackiev has already stopped the sync of FTM 2014 and the older version.
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Top 10 Reasons To Hire AngularJS Developers For Customer-Centric Business
In the world of today’s technology-driven businesses, it is essential for companies to have an experienced and reliable development team. AngularJS is one of the most popular and widely used open-source JavaScript frameworks for building complex web applications. AngularJS, or simply “Angular” as it's often called, was created by Google to make single-page web development easier and more efficient. By utilizing the AngularJS framework developers can easily create client-side applications that are scalable, secure and user-friendly. AngularJS is often the language of choice for businesses looking to create customer-centric solutions that provide a seamless experience across multiple platforms. Hire Angularjs developers allows companies to take advantage of the framework’s features and functions in order to develop applications that are tailored to their specific business needs. Reasons why businesses should consider hiring AngularJS developers for customer-centric projects: Here are the top 10 reasons why businesses should consider hiring AngularJS developers for customer-centric projects: - Faster Development Cycles: One of the main benefits of AngularJS is that it allows developers to rapidly create high-quality web applications quickly and efficiently. It has a wide range of features, such as two-way data binding, which allow developers to quickly update and refactor code without having to manually make changes. This makes development cycles much faster than traditional web development methods, resulting in more efficient customer experiences. - Better User Interfaces: AngularJS has an impressive array of UI components that makes it easy for developers to create user interfaces that are both attractive and functional. The components are intuitive and visually appealing, helping to create a more engaging user experience. - Increased Security: AngularJS is secure by design and comes with built-in security features such as sandboxing, input sanitization and XSS protection. This helps protect customer data from malicious attacks, giving businesses peace of mind that their applications are secure. - Integration with Third-Party Services: AngularJS makes it easy for developers to integrate third-party services within their applications. This allows businesses to create dynamic customer experiences, such as including payments and real-time notifications in the user interface without any extra effort or cost. - Cost-Effectiveness: AngularJS is a cost-effective way of developing web applications. It requires fewer resources than traditional approaches, resulting in lower development costs and faster time to market. - Easy to Maintain: One of the key advantages of AngularJS is that it is highly maintainable. Developers can easily refactor code or make changes without having to start from scratch. This makes it much easier for businesses to maintain their applications over time and keep them up-to-date with the latest technology. - Rapid Prototyping: AngularJS allows developers to rapidly prototype applications, making it ideal for businesses that need to create a proof of concept or minimum viable products quickly. This reduces development costs and allows businesses to receive customer feedback sooner. - Community Support: AngularJS has an active and helpful online community that can help developers solve any issues they encounter while developing applications. This makes it much easier for businesses to find solutions to their problems quickly, making sure they are able to deliver customer-centric experiences on time. - Flexible and Scalable: AngularJS is highly flexible, allowing businesses to easily add features or scale their applications as needed. It can also be used to create mobile applications using reactive programming, making it a great option for businesses that need to develop multi-platform apps. - Accessibility: AngularJS is designed to be accessible and compliant with WCAG 2.0 standards, making it easier for businesses to create web applications that are accessible to disabled users. This helps businesses ensure their customer-facing websites are open and inclusive to everyone. In conclusion AngularJS is an efficient and powerful tool that enables developers to quickly create dynamic web applications with fewer resources. It offers many features, such as two-way data binding, UI components and third-party integrations, which make it a great choice for businesses that need to create customer-centric experiences fast. Additionally, it is highly secure and cost-effective, making it an ideal option for businesses of all sizes. Why choose QSS Technosoft Inc as your development partner? QSS Technosoft Inc is a leading development partner with extensive experience in developing robust applications using AngularJS. Hire angularjs programmers and UI/UX experts who are dedicated to creating customer-centric experiences that meet your business needs for scalability, security and performance. We understand the importance of delivering quality applications within tight timelines and strive to exceed your expectations. For more information on how we can help you create an engaging AngularJS application, please get in touch with us today.
2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-601 PDF Dumps(Q236-Q266)
QUESTION 236 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPCand non-vPC switches, however, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receives the same STP bridge ID from the upstream which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.peer-switch B.peer-gateway C.systam-mac 0123.4567.89ab D.vpc local role-priority 4000 Answer: A QUESTION 237 A network engineer must perform a backup and restore of the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch configuration. The backup must be made to an external backup server. The only protocol permitted between the Cisco Nexus switch and the backup server is UDP. The backup must be used when the current working configuration of the switch gets corrupted. Which set of steps must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Perform a startup-config backup to an FTP server 2. Copy startup-config in the boot flash to the running-config file B.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the SFTP server to the running-config file C.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SCP server 2. Copy running-config in the boot flash to the running-config file D.1. Perform a startup-config backup to a TFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the backup server to the running-config file Answer: D QUESTION 238 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer requires remote access via SSH to a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. The solution must support secure access using the local user database when the RADIUS servers are unreachable from the switches. Which command meets these requirements? A.aaa authentication none B.aaa authentication login default group radius C.aaa authentication login default fallback error local D.aaa authentication login default group local Answer: C QUESTION 240 A network engineer configures a converged network adapter (CNA) and must associate a virtual Fibre Channel 7 interface to VSAN 7. The CNA is connected to the interface Eth1/7, and VLAN 700 is mapped to the VSAN. Which configuration must be applied to create the virtual Fibre Channel interface and associate it with the Ethernet physical interface? A.switch(config)# vlan 700 switch(config-vlan)# fcoe vsan 7 B.switch(config)# vsan database switch(config-vsan)# vsan 7 interface vfc 7 C.switch(config)# interface ethernet 1/7 switch(config-if)# vfc 7 attach vlan 1,700 D.switch(config)# interface vfc 7 switch(config-if)# bind interface ethernet 1/7 Answer: D QUESTION 241 An engineer must use the Embedded Event Manager to monitor events that occur on a cisco Nexus 9000 series switch. An environment variable needs to be created so that several policies use the monitored events in in their actions. The external email server is represented by IP address 10.10.10.10. Which command sets the environment variable? A.N9k2(config)# event manager policy environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' B.N9k2# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' C.N9k2 (config-apple1)# environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' D.N9k2 (config)# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' Answer: D QUESTION 242 Which communication method does NFS use for requests between servers and clients? A.XDR B.SSC C.RPC D.SMB Answer: C QUESTION 243 A customer reports Fibre Channel login requests to a cisco MDS 9000 series Switch from an unauthorized source. The customer requires a feature that will allow all devices already logged in and learned in and learned to be added to the Fibre channel active database. Which two features must be enabled to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.) A.Auto-learning B.Port security C.Enhanced zoning D.Device aliases E.Smart aliases Answer: AB QUESTION 244 An engineer evaluates a UI-based infrastructure management system capable of monitoring and deploying standalone VXLAN BGP EVPN deployments. The storage administrators also need the solution to manage the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Cisco Intersight B.Cisco UCSD C.Cisco Tetration D.Cisco DCNM Answer: D QUESTION 245 Refer to the exhibit. Which backup operation type not include the preserve identities feature? A.Full state B.Logical configuration C.System configuration D.All configuration Answer: A QUESTION 246 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration ensure that the cisco Nexus 7000 series switches are the primary devices for LACP? A.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 B.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 100 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 200 C.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 D.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# role priority 1 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain )# role priority 2 Answer: A QUESTION 247 A network engineer must enable port security on all Cisco MDS Series Switches in the fabric. The requirement is to avoid the extensive manual configuration of the switch ports. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Activate CFS distribution and the auto-learning port security feature. B.Activate CFS distribution and file auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. C.Enable the auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. D.Enable the auto-learning port security feature. Answer: B QUESTION 248 A network engineer is deploying a Cisco All-Flash HyperFlex solution. Which local storage configuration is required for the operating system and persistent logging? A.Two solid state drives B.Two SATA drives C.One SATA drive D.One solid state drive Answer: A QUESTION 249 An engineer configures the properties of a Cisco UCS Cisco Integrated Management Controller network adapter for a standalone Cisco C-Series Server. The Failback Timeout in the vNIC was set to 600. When the failure occurs, the secondary interfaces must be used and then failback when the primary interface becomes available again. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Set default VLAN on the adapters. B.Increase Cos to 6. C.Disable VNTAG mode. D.Enable Uplink failover. Answer: D QUESTION 250 A network engineer must prevent data comuption due to cross fabric communication in an FCoE environment. Which configuration must be applied to the Cisco Nexus Unified Switches to achieve this objective? A.Switch(config)#fcoe fcmap 0x0efc2a B.Switch(config-if)# no fcoe fcf-priority 0 C.Switch(config-if) # shutdown lan D.Switch(config) # no fcoe fcf-priority Answer: A QUESTION 251 Which component is disrupted when the Cisco Integrated Management Controller is upgraded on a Cisco UCS Series Server? A.Cisco UCS Manager B.SAN traffic C.KVM sessions D.Data traffic Answer: C QUESTION 252 A company is investigating different options for IT automation tools. The IT team has experience with Python programming language and scripting using a declarative language. The proposed tool should be easy to set up and should not require installing an agent on target devices. The team will also need to build custom modules based on the Python programming language to extend the tool's functionality. Which automation tool should be used to meet these requirements? A.Puppet B.Ansible C.NX-API D.Chef Answer: B QUESTION 253 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer needs to implement streaming telemetry on a cisco MDS 9000 series switch. The requirement is for the show command data to be collected every 30 seconds and sent to receivers. Which command must be added to the configuration meet this requirement? A.Sensor-grp 200 sample-period 30000 B.Snsr-grp 200 sample-interval 30 C.Sensor-grp 200 sample-period 30 D.Snsr-grp 200 sample-interval 30000 Answer: D QUESTION 254 A Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch experiences a startup configuration corruption. The engineer must implement a procedure to recover the backup configuration file from the switch. Which command set must be used? A.1. Copy the running-configuration to the startup configuration. 2. Clear the current configuration of the switch. 3. Restart the device. 4. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running configuration. B.1. Clear the current configuration of the switch 2. Restart the device. 3. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration 4. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running configuration C.1. Clear the current configuration of the switch 2. Restart the device. 3. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running-configuration 4. Copy the running-configuration to the startup configuration. D.1. Restarting device. 2. Copy the running-configuration file to a remote server. 3. Clear the current configuration of the switch. 4. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration Answer: C QUESTION 255 An engineer must configure OSPF in the data center. The external routes have already been redistributed OSPF. The network must meet these criteria: - The data centre servers must reach services in the cloud and the services behind the redistributed routes. - The exit point toward the internet should be propagated only when there is a dynamically learned default route from the upstream router. Which feature is required? A.Default-information originate B.Stubby area C.Totally stubby area D.Default-information originate always Answer: A QUESTION 256 What is a characteristic of the install all command on the cisco Nexus series switch? A.Upgrades only certain modules B.Automatically checks the image integrity C.Impact data plan traffic D.Continues the upgrade process if any step in the sequence fails Answer: B QUESTION 257 An engineer is using REST API calls to configure the cisco APIC. Which data structure must be used within a post message to receive a login token? A.{"aaaUser":{"attributes":{"name":"apiuser","pwd":"cisco123"}}} B.<aaaUser><name="apiuser"/><pwd="cisco123"/></aaaUser> C.{aaaUser:{attributes:{name:apiuser,pwd:cisco123}}} D.<aaaUser><name>apiuser</name><pwd>cisco123</pwd></aaaUser> Answer: A QUESTION 258 The EPLD update of the supervisor module has been scheduled for several Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. What will be the impact of the update? A.All control plane traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch remain operational for the duration of the upgrade. B.The redundant supervisor lakes over while the EPLD update is in progress and there is no service disruption. C.All traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. D.The redundant supervisor lakes while the EPLD update is in progress and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. Answer: C QUESTION 259 An engineer configures an intersignt virtual application and must claim over 200 targets. The engineer starts the Claim target procedure. The engineer has prepared this initial comma- separated value file to provision the targets: UCSFI,10.1.1.3,user-1,pwd5516b917 IMC,10.1.1.5/26,user-2,pwdc65b1c43f HX,10.1.2.1/30,user-3,pwd39913690 UCSD,1.1.1.1.user-4,pwd5003e9d5 Which Information must be included In the comma-separated value flit to provision the targets? A.FQON, AD name, IP address, email B.location, address, name. password C.certificate, user name, password. email D.target type, hostname or P address, user name, password Answer: D QUESTION 260 What is an advantage of NFSv4 over Fibre Channel protocol? A.Improved security B.Lossless throughout C.Congestion management D.Uses IP transport Answer: A QUESTION 261 Which two configuration settings are available in the in the cisco UCS flmware Auto sync server policy? A.User Notification B.User Acknowledge C.No Action D.Delayed Action E.Immediate Action Answer: BC QUESTION 262 An administrator is implementing DCNM so that events are triggered when monitored traffic exceeds the configured percent utilization threshold. The requirement is to configure a maximum limit of 39913690 bytes that applies directly to the statistics collected as a ratio of the total link capacity. Which DCNM performance monitoring configuration parameter must be implemented to achieve this result? A.Absolution Values B.Baseline C.Utill% D.Per port Monitoring Answer: A QUESTION 263 A network architect must redesign a data center network based on OSPFv2. The network must perform fast reconvergence between directly connected switches. Which two actions must be taken to meet the requirements? (Choose two.) A.Configure all links on AREA 0. B.Implement a virtual link between the switches. C.Use OSPF point-to-point links only. D.Set low OSPF hello and DEAD timers. E.Enable BFD for failure detection. Answer: CE QUESTION 264 Refer to the exhibit. A host with source address 10.10.10.10 sends traffic to multicast group 239.1.1.1. How do the vPC switches forward the multicast traffic? A.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 Switch2, the traffic is forwarded out only one Po20. B.If multicast traffic is received on Po10 Switch1, the traffic is forwarded out on Po1 and Po20. C.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 and Switch2, the traffic is dropped. D.If multicast traffic is received on Switch over the vPC peer-link, the traffic is dropped. Answer: C QUESTION 265 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPC and non-vPC switches. However, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers. Which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.System-mac 0123.4567.89ab B.Peer-switch C.VPC local role-priority 4000 D.Peer-gateway Answer: B QUESTION 266 A company is running a pair of cisco Nexus 7706 series switches as part of a data center segment. All network engineers have restricted read-Write access to the core switches. A network engineer must a new FCoE VLAN to allow traffic from services toward FCoE storage. Which set of actions must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Create a user-defined role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a role to a user. B.1. Add the required privilege to the VDC-admin role. 2. Commit the changes to the active user database. C.1. Modify a network-operator role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a VDC-operator role to a user. D.1. Assign the network-admin role to a user. 2. Commit the role to the switch to the active user database Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-601 PDF and 350-601 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1M-Px6bHjOJgp4aPsLoYq-hgm90ZKxV_i?usp=sharing
Virtual Desktop Pricing Guide
In general, VDI pricing can be broken down into two main categories: infrastructure and management. Infrastructure costs are largely related to the hardware and software used to run VDI, while management costs are associated with the maintenance and administration of VDI services. Infrastructure Costs When calculating VDI infrastructure costs, there are two main factors to consider: on-premises vs cloud VDI and desktop image licensing. On-premises VDI requires a large upfront investment in servers and storage, plus ongoing expenses for maintenance and updates. In contrast, cloud VDI allows organizations to outsource their VDI deployments to an outside provider for a more cost-effective solution. Desktop imaging licenses must also be taken into account when evaluating VDI pricing—which can get expensive if you’re deploying multiple different VDI images. On the plus side, you can often save money by pooling desktop imaging licenses together or taking advantage of volume discounts from VDI providers. Management Costs When factoring in VDI management costs, there are three main types of expenses to consider: VDI monitoring, user support, and system maintenance. VDI monitoring covers all aspects of VDI performance and includes software that tracks usage patterns and resource utilization. User support involves providing help desk services to VDI users, while system maintenance involves regular updates to keep VDI systems running smoothly. When choosing a VDI provider for your organization, it’s important to factor in both infrastructure and management costs when determining total VDI pricing. VDI providers typically offer a variety of pricing models including pay-as-you-go and subscription-based plans, so it’s important to carefully evaluate all the options before making your decision. Finally, it’s also important to factor in non-cost-related considerations when evaluating VDI pricing such as ease of use, scalability, and security. After all, VDI is more than just a financial investment—it’s an investment in the future success of your business. Conclusion: Understanding virtual desktop pricing is essential if you’re considering implementing a VDI system into your business operations. By breaking down the different components—subscription models versus pay-as-you-go models; hardware costs; and software licensing fees—you’ll be well-equipped to make an informed decision about what type of system best meets your needs and budget requirements. With careful planning and research into available options—including researching potential discounts—you can find a solution that works best for both your business operations and wallet! When it comes to VDI pricing, one of the biggest questions businesses have is “How much will VDI cost?” Understanding VDI costs is a crucial step in the decision-making process when considering whether or not VDI makes sense for your business.
2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF Dumps(Q46-Q76)
QUESTION 46 A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.) A.incident response playbooks B.asset vulnerability assessment C.report of staff members with asset relations D.key assets and executives E.malware analysis report Answer: BE QUESTION 47 Refer to the exhibit. At which stage of the threat kill chain is an attacker, based on these URIs of inbound web requests from known malicious Internet scanners? A.exploitation B.actions on objectives C.delivery D.reconnaissance Answer: C QUESTION 48 What should a security analyst consider when comparing inline traffic interrogation with traffic tapping to determine which approach to use in the network? A.Tapping interrogation replicates signals to a separate port for analyzing traffic B.Tapping interrogations detect and block malicious traffic C.Inline interrogation enables viewing a copy of traffic to ensure traffic is in compliance with security policies D.Inline interrogation detects malicious traffic but does not block the traffic Answer: A QUESTION 49 Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.) A.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3 B.Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network C.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections D.Move the webserver to the internal network E.Move the webserver to the external network Answer: AB QUESTION 50 According to GDPR, what should be done with data to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability? A.Perform a vulnerability assessment B.Conduct a data protection impact assessment C.Conduct penetration testing D.Perform awareness testing Answer: B QUESTION 51 A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow? A.Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker's motives, and identify missing patches B.Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody C.Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited D.Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation plan Answer: B QUESTION 52 A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching? A.Identify the business applications running on the assets B.Update software to patch third-party software C.Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit D.Fix applications according to the risk scores Answer: D QUESTION 53 An engineer is analyzing a possible compromise that happened a week ago when the company database servers unexpectedly went down. The analysis reveals that attackers tampered with Microsoft SQL Server Resolution Protocol and launched a DDoS attack. The engineer must act quickly to ensure that all systems are protected. Which two tools should be used to detect and mitigate this type of future attack? (Choose two.) A.firewall B.Wireshark C.autopsy D.SHA512 E.IPS Answer: AE QUESTION 54 A European-based advertisement company collects tracking information from partner websites and stores it on a local server to provide tailored ads. Which standard must the company follow to safeguard the resting data? A.HIPAA B.PCI-DSS C.Sarbanes-Oxley D.GDPR Answer: D QUESTION 55 An organization had a breach due to a phishing attack. An engineer leads a team through the recovery phase of the incident response process. Which action should be taken during this phase? A.Host a discovery meeting and define configuration and policy updates B.Update the IDS/IPS signatures and reimage the affected hosts C.Identify the systems that have been affected and tools used to detect the attack D.Identify the traffic with data capture using Wireshark and review email filters Answer: B QUESTION 56 An engineer is going through vulnerability triage with company management because of a recent malware outbreak from which 21 affected assets need to be patched or remediated. Management decides not to prioritize fixing the assets and accepts the vulnerabilities. What is the next step the engineer should take? A.Investigate the vulnerability to prevent further spread B.Acknowledge the vulnerabilities and document the risk C.Apply vendor patches or available hot fixes D.Isolate the assets affected in a separate network Answer: B QUESTION 57 A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs. Which technology should be used to accomplish this task? A.application whitelisting/blacklisting B.network NGFW C.host-based IDS D.antivirus/antispyware software Answer: A QUESTION 58 Which command does an engineer use to set read/write/execute access on a folder for everyone who reaches the resource? A.chmod 666 B.chmod 774 C.chmod 775 D.chmod 777 Answer: D QUESTION 59 A SIEM tool fires an alert about a VPN connection attempt from an unusual location. The incident response team validates that an attacker has installed a remote access tool on a user's laptop while traveling. The attacker has the user's credentials and is attempting to connect to the network. What is the next step in handling the incident? A.Block the source IP from the firewall B.Perform an antivirus scan on the laptop C.Identify systems or services at risk D.Identify lateral movement Answer: C QUESTION 60 A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company's infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage? A.Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches B.Analyze event logs and restrict network access C.Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity D.Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list Answer: A QUESTION 61 A patient views information that is not theirs when they sign in to the hospital's online portal. The patient calls the support center at the hospital but continues to be put on hold because other patients are experiencing the same issue. An incident has been declared, and an engineer is now on the incident bridge as the CyberOps Tier 3 Analyst. There is a concern about the disclosure of PII occurring in real- time. What is the first step the analyst should take to address this incident? A.Evaluate visibility tools to determine if external access resulted in tampering B.Contact the third-party handling provider to respond to the incident as critical C.Turn off all access to the patient portal to secure patient records D.Review system and application logs to identify errors in the portal code Answer: C QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script? A.Seeds for existing domains are checked B.A search is conducted for additional seeds C.Domains are compared to seed rules D.A list of domains as seeds is blocked Answer: B QUESTION 63 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is reverse engineering a suspicious file by examining its resources. What does this file indicate? A.a DOS MZ executable format B.a MS-DOS executable archive C.an archived malware D.a Windows executable file Answer: D QUESTION 64 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing a static analysis on a malware and knows that it is capturing keys and webcam events on a company server. What is the indicator of compromise? A.The malware is performing comprehensive fingerprinting of the host, including a processor, motherboard manufacturer, and connected removable storage. B.The malware is a ransomware querying for installed anti-virus products and operating systems to encrypt and render unreadable until payment is made for file decryption. C.The malware has moved to harvesting cookies and stored account information from major browsers and configuring a reverse proxy for intercepting network activity. D.The malware contains an encryption and decryption routine to hide URLs/IP addresses and is storing the output of loggers and webcam captures in locally encrypted files for retrieval. Answer: D QUESTION 65 An audit is assessing a small business that is selling automotive parts and diagnostic services. Due to increased customer demands, the company recently started to accept credit card payments and acquired a POS terminal. Which compliance regulations must the audit apply to the company? A.HIPAA B.FISMA C.COBIT D.PCI DSS Answer: D QUESTION 66 A customer is using a central device to manage network devices over SNMPv2. A remote attacker caused a denial of service condition and can trigger this vulnerability by issuing a GET request for the ciscoFlashMIB OID on an affected device. Which should be disabled to resolve the issue? A.SNMPv2 B.TCP small services C.port UDP 161 and 162 D.UDP small services Answer: A QUESTION 67 Refer to the exhibit. Which indicator of compromise is represented by this STIX? A.website redirecting traffic to ransomware server B.website hosting malware to download files C.web server vulnerability exploited by malware D.cross-site scripting vulnerability to backdoor server Answer: B QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring in this packet capture? A.TCP port scan B.TCP flood C.DNS flood D.DNS tunneling Answer: B QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling? A.The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices B.Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution C.Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority D.Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution Answer: B QUESTION 70 The incident response team receives information about the abnormal behavior of a host. A malicious file is found being executed from an external USB flash drive. The team collects and documents all the necessary evidence from the computing resource. What is the next step? A.Conduct a risk assessment of systems and applications B.Isolate the infected host from the rest of the subnet C.Install malware prevention software on the host D.Analyze network traffic on the host's subnet Answer: B QUESTION 71 An organization had several cyberattacks over the last 6 months and has tasked an engineer with looking for patterns or trends that will help the organization anticipate future attacks and mitigate them. Which data analytic technique should the engineer use to accomplish this task? A.diagnostic B.qualitative C.predictive D.statistical Answer: C QUESTION 72 A malware outbreak is detected by the SIEM and is confirmed as a true positive. The incident response team follows the playbook to mitigate the threat. What is the first action for the incident response team? A.Assess the network for unexpected behavior B.Isolate critical hosts from the network C.Patch detected vulnerabilities from critical hosts D.Perform analysis based on the established risk factors Answer: B QUESTION 73 Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report? A.Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified B.Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified C.Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified D.Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected Answer: D QUESTION 74 An organization is using a PKI management server and a SOAR platform to manage the certificate lifecycle. The SOAR platform queries a certificate management tool to check all endpoints for SSL certificates that have either expired or are nearing expiration. Engineers are struggling to manage problematic certificates outside of PKI management since deploying certificates and tracking them requires searching server owners manually. Which action will improve workflow automation? A.Implement a new workflow within SOAR to create tickets in the incident response system, assign problematic certificate update requests to server owners, and register change requests. B.Integrate a PKI solution within SOAR to create certificates within the SOAR engines to track, update, and monitor problematic certificates. C.Implement a new workflow for SOAR to fetch a report of assets that are outside of the PKI zone, sort assets by certification management leads and automate alerts that updates are needed. D.Integrate a SOAR solution with Active Directory to pull server owner details from the AD and send an automated email for problematic certificates requesting updates. Answer: D QUESTION 75 Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is being used? A.JSON B.HTML C.XML D.CSV Answer: C QUESTION 76 The incident response team was notified of detected malware. The team identified the infected hosts, removed the malware, restored the functionality and data of infected systems, and planned a company meeting to improve the incident handling capability. Which step was missed according to the NIST incident handling guide? A.Contain the malware B.Install IPS software C.Determine the escalation path D.Perform vulnerability assessment Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF and 350-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1AxXpeiNddgUeSboJXzaOVsnt5wFFoDnO?usp=sharing