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9 Interview Questions EVERY Recruiter Should Ask Their Candidates



Interview Questions
Recruiters face enough challenges as it is without worrying if they asked the right questions in an interview. It is essential when determining who the best fit for a job is. Of course, ensuring that a candidate has the required skill set is of primary concern, but it is also important to dig a little deeper and find out what kind of person they are. The goal is to snag a complete candidate, one with both the right personality and expertise.
So here are the best nine interview questions for you to ask your next star candidate.

1. “What hobbies do you have?”
Starting with an easy one here, and this question should be obvious for recruiters. Primarily it gives your candidate a chance to relax, but it can also offer you a key insight. For example, if they enjoy playing a lot of sport, it shows they are energetic individuals who are health conscious. If they like writing or drawing, ask them how they can transfer that creativity into their new role. Always have a follow-up question and try to revert it back to the role at hand.

2. “Tell me about your greatest professional achievement?”
You want a candidate that has their sights set high, right? This question allows your potential employee to share some of their proudest professional moments. You can assess each achievement and see how ambitious they are. There is a big difference between a candidate who tells you their greatest exploit was always being on-time for work and one who boosted website traffic by 65% over a six month period.

3. “What was the biggest obstacle you have overcome?”
Everyone faces certain challenges in both their personal and professional lives. What’s most important in this case is how your candidate overcame each hurdle. What did they learn from this
experience? How would they deal with this obstacle if it were to happen again? It gives you an opportunity to see their problem-solving skills and how they can deal with pressures of the role.

4. “Are you interested in continuing to develop your professional skills and knowledge?”
Continuous learning has seen rapid changes and growth, with companies looking to upskill and nurture their workers. Learning has become a key goal for companies, with many encouraging their
employees to partake in various courses in order to improve their base level. You want your candidate to believe in continuous learning and know that the business values their personal and professional progression.

5. “Can you tell me what the key trends are in this industry?”
Every industry has its own niche trends that are constantly changing. See if your candidate is up-to-date and informed about the latest insights. It’s important to understand the industry you work in, and if your candidate is ill-informed from the get-go, then that alone should be a telling sign.

6. “What is your biggest strength?”
A much more comprehensive question compared to the now mundane “what are your weaknesses?” archetype. Candidates predict the latter and generally have a bland, pre-prepared answer. When asking about strengths, it allows the interviewee to paint their skills and traits in a
positive light and generate a greater variety of answers.

7. “Tell me about a time when you got it all wrong?”
This question allows you to see how honest your candidate is. No one is perfect, and a dishonest answer should be a major red flag for any recruiter. When the interviewee extrapolates, ask them what they’ve learned from the tough experience. Admitting to errors or blunders also shows that they can take ownership of situations and look for solutions rather than transfer blame.

8. “Where do you see yourself in 5 years?”
You want your star candidate to think ahead. Only ambitious employees will truly push the boundaries, and that’s the kind of person you want working in your company. It also gives insight into how long the candidate might plan on staying at your business. The right candidate will list their career goals and be a motivated individual who is looking for career progression.

9. “Do you have any questions for me?”
A candidate that doesn’t take the opportunity to ask questions is missing out or is struggling to think of a question off the top of their head. Even simple queries like: “how long will the probation period
be?” or “what learning opportunities will be available to me?” are most definitely a positive look. It shows that the candidate is fully invested in the position and sees it as a long-term investment.

This Post origioally featured at Khawaja Manpoer's Blog
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(April-2021)Braindump2go PT0-001 PDF and PT0-001 VCE Dumps(Q29-Q49)
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A.1 B.3 C.5 D.6 Answer: B QUESTION 236 A penetration tester discovers an anonymous FTP server that is sharing the C:\drive. Which of the following is the BEST exploit? A.Place a batch script in the startup folder for all users. B.Change a service binary location path to point to the tester's own payload. C.Escalate the tester's privileges to SYSTEM using the at.exe command. D.Download, modify, and reupload a compromised registry to obtain code execution. Answer: B QUESTION 237 Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive type of penetration test on a network? A.Black box B.White box C.Gray box D.Red team E.Architecture review Answer: A QUESTION 238 An attacker performed a MITM attack against a mobile application. The attacker is attempting to manipulate the application's network traffic via a proxy tool. The attacker only sees limited traffic as cleartext. The application log files indicate secure SSL/TLS connections are failing. 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The tester runs arbitrary JavaScript within an application, which sends an XMLHttpRequest, resulting in exploiting features to which only an administrator should have access. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the vulnerability? A.Implement authorization checks. B.Sanitize all the user input. C.Prevent directory traversal. D.Add client-side security controls Answer: A QUESTION 242 During the exploitation phase of a penetration test, a vulnerability is discovered that allows command execution on a Linux web server. A cursory review confirms the system access is only in a low-privilege user context: www-data. After reviewing, the following output from /etc/sudoers: Which of the following users should be targeted for privilege escalation? A.Only members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, ADMINS, jedwards, and operator can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. B.All users on the machine can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. C.Bfranks, emann, members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. D.Jedwards, operator, bfranks, emann, OPERATOR, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. Answer: A QUESTION 243 During an engagement, a consultant identifies a number of areas that need further investigation and require an extension of the engagement. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the engagement may not be able to continue? A.The consultant did not sign an NDA. B.The consultant was not provided with the appropriate testing tools. C.The company did not properly scope the project. D.The initial findings were not communicated to senior leadership. Answer: C QUESTION 244 A penetration tester has been hired to perform a penetration test for an organization. Which of the following is indicative of an error-based SQL injection attack? A.a=1 or 1–– B.1=1 or b–– C.1=1 or 2–– D.1=1 or a–– Answer: A QUESTION 245 When negotiating a penetration testing contract with a prospective client, which of the following disclaimers should be included in order to mitigate liability in case of a future breach of the client's systems? A.The proposed mitigations and remediations in the final report do not include a cost-benefit analysis. B.The NDA protects the consulting firm from future liabilities in the event of a breach. C.The assessment reviewed the cyber key terrain and most critical assets of the client's network. D.The penetration test is based on the state of the system and its configuration at the time of assessment. Answer: D QUESTION 246 A tester was able to retrieve domain users' hashes. Which of the following tools can be used to uncover the users' passwords? (Choose two.) A.Hydra B.Mimikatz C.Hashcat D.John the Ripper E.PSExec F.Nessus Answer: BE QUESTION 247 A penetration tester is attempting to open a socket in a bash script but receives errors when running it. The current state of the relevant line in the script is as follows: Which of the following lines of code would correct the issue upon substitution? A.open 0<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}:${PORT} B.exec 0</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} C.exec 0</dev/tcp/$[HOST]:$[PORT] D.exec 3<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} E.open 3</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} F.open 3</dev/tcp/$[HOST]/$[PORT] Answer: C QUESTION 248 A vulnerability scan report shows what appears to be evidence of a memory disclosure vulnerability on one of the target hosts. The administrator claims the system is patched and the evidence is a false positive. Which of the following is the BEST method for a tester to confirm the vulnerability exists? A.Manually run publicly available exploit code. B.Confirm via evidence of the updated version number. C.Run the vulnerability scanner again. D.Perform dynamic analysis on the vulnerable service. Answer: C QUESTION 249 A penetration tester has gained physical access to a facility and connected directly into the internal network. The penetration tester now wants to pivot into the server VLAN. Which of the following would accomplish this? A.Spoofing a printer's MAC address B.Abusing DTP negotiation C.Performing LLMNR poisoning D.Conducting an STP attack Answer: D QUESTION 250 During an engagement an unsecure direct object reference vulnerability was discovered that allows the extraction of highly sensitive PII. The tester is required to extract and then exfil the information from a web application with identifiers 1 through 1000 inclusive. When running the following script, an error is encountered: Which of the following lines of code is causing the problem? A.url = "https://www.comptia.org?id=" B.req = requests.get(url) C.if req.status ==200: D.url += i Answer: D QUESTION 251 A security team is switching firewall vendors. The director of security wants to scope a penetration test to satisfy requirements to perform the test after major architectural changes. Which of the following is the BEST way to approach the project? A.Design a penetration test approach, focusing on publicly released firewall DoS vulnerabilities. B.Review the firewall configuration, followed by a targeted attack by a read team. C.Perform a discovery scan to identify changes in the network. D.Focus on an objective-based approach to assess network assets with a red team. Answer: D QUESTION 252 A penetration tester has identified a directory traversal vulnerability. Which of the following payloads could have helped the penetration tester identify this vulnerability? A.‘or ‘folder’ like ‘file’; –– B.|| is /tmp/ C.“><script>document.location=/root/</script> D.&& dir C:/ E.../../../../../../../. Answer: E QUESTION 253 An individual has been hired by an organization after passing a background check. The individual has been passing information to a competitor over a period of time. Which of the following classifications BEST describes the individual? A.APT B.Insider threat C.Script kiddie D.Hacktivist Answer: B QUESTION 254 A senior employee received a suspicious email from another executive requesting an urgent wire transfer. Which of the following types of attacks is likely occurring? A.Spear phishing B.Business email compromise C.Vishing D.Whaling Answer: A 2021 Latest Braindump2go PT0-001 PDF and PT0-001 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1upxI-JhgoyePRzSCJXgkSKrKo53vlXSw?usp=sharing
What is OPT (Optional Practical Training)?
What is OPT? So many international students in the USA are on an F1 visa. F1 visa holders are allowed to work in the USA only when they have OPT. So OPT is an optional training program that allows international students to work in the USA in their field of expertise for 12 months. The students who are undergraduates or graduates and who are pursuing their degree or have completed their degree can work in the USA and gain professional experience in the sector. USCIS permits F1 visa holders who are pursuing their degrees or have completed applying for optional practical training. The USCIS provides an F1 visa that is flexible and allows a lot of privileges to international students under OPT. if you want to be read about Types of OPT Employment, Who is eligible for OPT?, How to apply for OPT? and When to apply for OPT? OPTnation is sharing some useful information regarding for f1 students. Read About Wha is OPT? - OPT For F1 Students What Work Privileges are Available on OPT Although you can work under OPT during your graduation, you need to complete at least 12 months in the USA before you start working. There are some privileges given to international students to work in the USA. As an F1 visa holder, when you are about to complete your graduation, you can apply for OPT, which permits you to work for any employer in the USA (Subject to all of the rules of OPT). You can apply for a new OPT for each new course you pursue in the USA. For example, if you are completing your bachelor’s degree, you can apply for OPT and work for a year. Then go back to university, complete a Master’s, and apply for OPT again and work for another year in your field of study. Also Read: Overview of OPT – How to Apply for OPT OPT STEM FIELD: One thing interesting about OPT is that if you belong to the science, technology, engineering, or mathematics field, you get an additional 17 months of STEM extension after you complete your graduation and OPT. So basically, the USA allows you to work in your field of expertise for 29 months if you belong to the STEM field. The degrees that qualify for the OPT STEM extension are: · Computer Science Applications · Engineering · Actuarial Sciences · Mathematics · Engineering Technologies · Life Sciences · Physical Sciences · Military Technologies Staying updated with all the rules and regulations of an F1 visa and OPT is extremely important while you study and work in the USA or apply for OPT. This can be a little complicated due to its technicalities, but you need to make sure you get proper guidance and knowledge so that you do not miss out on any opportunities. Also Read: How to Search for OPT Jobs in USA Quickly and Effectively?
(April-2021)Braindump2go 350-401 PDF and 350-401 VCE Dumps(Q409-Q433)
QUESTION 409 A customer has 20 stores located throughout a city. Each store has a single Cisco AP managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analytics for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements? A.angle of arrival B.presence C.hyperlocation D.trilateration Answer: D QUESTION 410 A customer has a pair of Cisco 5520 WLCs set up in an SSO cluster to manage all APs. Guest traffic is anchored to a Cisco 3504 WLC located in a DM2. Which action is needed to ensure that the EolP tunnel remains in an UP state in the event of failover on the SSO cluster? A.Use the mobility MAC when the mobility peer is configured B.Use the same mobility domain on all WLCs C.Enable default gateway reachability check D.Configure back-to-back connectivity on the RP ports Answer: B QUESTION 411 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured RSPAN to troubleshoot an issue between switchl and switch2. The switches are connected using interface GigabitEthernet 1/1. An external packet capture device is connected to swich2 interface GigabitEthernet1/2. Which two commands must be added to complete this configuration? (Choose two) A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: BD QUESTION 412 Refer to the exhibit. Which Python code snippet prints the descriptions of disabled interfaces only? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: B QUESTION 413 Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is achieved with this Python code? A.displays the output of the show command in an unformatted way B.displays the output of the show command in a formatted way C.connects to a Cisco device using Telnet and exports the routing table information D.connects to a Cisco device using SSH and exports the routing table information Answer: B QUESTION 414 Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server? A.disk B.operating system C.VM configuration file D.applications Answer: A QUESTION 415 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts. Which command set accomplishes this task? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: A QUESTION 416 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a script that appends the output of the show process cpu sorted command to a file. Which action completes the configuration? A.action 4.0 syslog command "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" B.action 4.0 cli command "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" C.action 4.0 ens-event "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" D.action 4.0 publish-event "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" Answer: B QUESTION 417 Refer to the exhibit. Which action completes the configuration to achieve a dynamic continuous mapped NAT for all users? A.Configure a match-host type NAT pool B.Reconfigure the pool to use the 192.168 1 0 address range C.Increase the NAT pool size to support 254 usable addresses D.Configure a one-to-one type NAT pool Answer: C QUESTION 418 Which function is handled by vManage in the Cisco SD-WAN fabric? A.Establishes BFD sessions to test liveliness of links and nodes B.Distributes policies that govern data forwarding C.Performs remote software upgrades for WAN Edge. vSmart and vBond D.Establishes IPsec tunnels with nodes. Answer: B QUESTION 419 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between Switch1 and Switch2 and notices the console message on Switch2. Based on the output, which action resolves this issue? A.Configure less member ports on Switch2. B.Configure the same port channel interface number on both switches C.Configure the same EtherChannel protocol on both switches D.Configure more member ports on Switch1. Answer: B QUESTION 420 How do cloud deployments differ from on-prem deployments? A.Cloud deployments require longer implementation times than on-premises deployments B.Cloud deployments are more customizable than on-premises deployments. C.Cloud deployments require less frequent upgrades than on-premises deployments. D.Cloud deployments have lower upfront costs than on-premises deployments. Answer: B QUESTION 421 Refer to the exhibit. Extended access-list 100 is configured on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 in an inbound direction, but it does not have the expected behavior of allowing only packets to or from 192 168 0.0/16. Which command set properly configures the access list? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: D QUESTION 422 An engineer is concerned with the deployment of a new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements? A.Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000 B.Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000 C.Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000 D.Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000 Answer: C QUESTION 423 What is a characteristic of a WLC that is in master controller mode? A.All new APs that join the WLAN are assigned to the master controller. B.The master controller is responsible for load balancing all connecting clients to other controllers. C.All wireless LAN controllers are managed by the master controller. D.Configuration on the master controller is executed on all wireless LAN controllers. Answer: A QUESTION 424 Refer to the exhibit. The connection between SW1 and SW2 is not operational. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.) A.configure switchport mode access on SW2 B.configure switchport nonegotiate on SW2 C.configure switchport mode trunk on SW2 D.configure switchport nonegotiate on SW1 E.configure switchport mode dynamic desirable on SW2 Answer: CE QUESTION 425 An engineer must create an EEM applet that sends a syslog message in the event a change happens in the network due to trouble with an OSPF process. Which action should the engineer use? A.action 1 syslog msg "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" B.action 1 syslog send "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" C.action 1 syslog pattern "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" D.action 1syslog write "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" Answer: C QUESTION 426 An engineer runs the sample code, and the terminal returns this output. Which change to the sample code corrects this issue? A.Change the JSON method from load() to loads(). B.Enclose null in the test_json string in double quotes C.Use a single set of double quotes and condense test_json to a single line D.Call the read() method explicitly on the test_json string Answer: D QUESTION 427 In a Cisco DNA Center Plug and Play environment, why would a device be labeled unclaimed? A.The device has not been assigned a workflow. B.The device could not be added to the fabric. C.The device had an error and could not be provisioned. D.The device is from a third-party vendor. Answer: A QUESTION 428 Which of the following statements regarding BFD are correct? (Select 2 choices.) A.BFD is supported by OSPF, EIGRP, BGP, and IS-IS. B.BFD detects link failures in less than one second. C.BFD can bypass a failed peer without relying on a routing protocol. D.BFD creates one session per routing protocol per interface. E.BFD is supported only on physical interfaces. F.BFD consumes more CPU resources than routing protocol timers do. Answer: AB QUESTION 429 An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows: Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two) A.The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than location C. B.Location D has the strongest RF signal strength. C.The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing. D.The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than location A E.The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than location B Answer: DE QUESTION 430 What is an advantage of using BFD? A.It local link failure at layer 1 and updates routing table B.It detects local link failure at layer 3 and updates routing protocols C.It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 3 problems. D.It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 2 problems. Answer: C QUESTION 431 Which three resources must the hypervisor make available to the virtual machines? (Choose three) A.memory B.bandwidth C.IP address D.processor E.storage F.secure access Answer: ABE QUESTION 432 What is the function of vBond in a Cisco SDWAN deployment? A.initiating connections with SD-WAN routers automatically B.pushing of configuration toward SD-WAN routers C.onboarding of SDWAN routers into the SD-WAN overlay D.gathering telemetry data from SD-WAN routers Answer: A QUESTION 433 Which three methods does Cisco DNA Center use to discover devices? (Choose three.) A.CDP B.SNMP C.LLDP D.Ping E.NETCONF F.specified range of IP addresses Answer: ACF 2021 Latest Braindump2go 350-401 PDF and 350-401 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1EIsykNTrKvqjDVs9JMySv052qbrCpe8V?usp=sharing
What are the Benefits of Using Employee Tracking Software?
Employee monitoring may be viewed as a trespassing method of obtaining relevant details regarding an employee's performance at work using technology-oriented tools. The employee position tracking system is the product of a balance of hardware and software methods that can track an employee's every move. Additionally, certain workers are granted work-from-home options, which have become obligatory due to the recent pandemic. Managers and seniors in the company should be able to successfully track workers without creating any discord. To achieve the goal, HR and IT staff should work together. Employee time tracking software is used to track employee productivity and ensure that corporate resources are being used appropriately. HR should take the following steps to make this method less intrusive: Establish written policies that explicitly state timekeeping, phone tracking, and disciplinary guidelines, among other items. As evidence that the workers are aware of the rules, take their acknowledgment. When there is a default, take disciplinary action and make no distinction between workers. By keeping your policies within reason, you will focus on the outcome rather than the process. To maintain efficiency, block potentially harmful and unacceptable websites quietly. Make the employees aware of the monitoring software implementation and obtain their approval. Employee tracking is regarded as one of the most powerful methods for increasing a company's performance and productivity. Installing employee management software has both positive and negative effects. The organization's HR and management should carefully consider the benefits and drawbacks of the installation. Keeping track of Employee Attendance: The key goal of putting employee tracking software in place is to keep accurate records of employee attendance. Employee attendance is influenced by a variety of factors such as off-time schedules, start-time schedules, arrival times, leaves, break times, and so on. Hourly work attendance is a critical measure for assessing an employee's productivity. Employees Have a Better Perspective: Monitoring the workers not only identifies the worst performers but also highlights the best (so you can encourage them!). When a Dallas restaurant began using software to monitor each waiter's activities, including their passes, dishes, and beverages, management's primary aim was to avoid employee theft. Corrections on time are Now Possible: You will spot errors until they escalate out of reach if you have more insight into what your team members are doing. Perhaps you've noticed that one of your employees has started working on a low-priority project when you need him to concentrate on something more urgent or important. You should give him an email or a text message to say, "Hey!" "Will you please put Project X ahead of Project Y?" Increases the Organization's Security: Employee surveillance improves security. “If an employee is expected to be back at a certain time and nobody has heard from them,” says Paul Randhawa, senior management analyst at Santa Clara Valley Water District in California, “we can look upon the GPS, see where they're at, and check up on their safety.” Managers will get real-time updates about employee actions and see how involved they are in the workplace by tracking workers in the workplace. This practice would root out all dishonest workers, allowing management to take swift disciplinary action. The method of correcting mistakes in the early stages became much easier with the well-structured employee monitoring system. Employees Who Work From Home: Every manager struggles to keep their team on the same page, and as remote work becomes more popular, particularly in circumstances like the recent pandemic, the task of getting a group of people together has taken on a global scale. Employee surveillance has a significant effect on the ability to connect with others. You can get a high-level and granular view of what's going on at any time if you have access to data from every employee. This Leads to More Effective Delegation: You'll be able to delegate more easily if you have a better understanding of each employee's strengths and weaknesses. Delegation is mission-critical because it fosters teamwork, strengthens your staff, improves productivity, builds team trust, and allows you to concentrate on the big picture. If you delegate jobs to the wrong individuals, none of those advantages will be realized. You will delegate tasks correctly when you know who struggles with what (and, conversely, who excels at what). It might be necessary to give the task to the person who is least qualified to handle it so that he can improve. When there is no time constraint or the project is not extremely relevant. Prevents Data Loss and Lawsuits: Employees will often turn against the corporation and start revealing confidential business details to third parties. This can happen when they stand to benefit financially as well. Employees cannot give sensitive data to others, and strict monitoring procedures will avoid these bad practices. Employee integrity and data security can therefore be protected in a supervised work environment. Today's companies face a significant problem in the form of litigation. Emails are a form of written record that can be used as evidence. Employee surveillance will detect security breaches and unintentional misuse, allowing you to avoid potentially expensive legal problems.
(April-2021)Braindump2go 1Y0-231 PDF and 1Y0-231 VCE Dumps(Q21-Q41)
Question: 21 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to test a SAML authentication deployment to be used by internal users while accessing several externally hosted applications. During testing, the administrator notices that after successfully accessing any partner application, subsequent applications seem to launch without any explicit authentication request. Which statement is true regarding the behavior described above? A.It is expected if the Citrix ADC appliance is the common SAML identity provider (IdP) for all partners. B.It is expected due to SAML authentication successfully logging on to all internal applications. C.It is expected if all partner organizations use a common SAML service provider (SP). D.It indicates the SAML authentication has failed and the next available protocol was used. Answer: B Question: 22 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configured SNMP to send traps to an external SNMP system. When reviewing the messages, the administrator notices several entity UP and entity DOWN messages. To what are these messages related? A.Load-balancing virtual servers B.SSL certificate C.VLAN D.High availability nodes Answer: A Question: 23 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configured a new router that requires some incoming and outgoing traffic to take different paths through it. The administrator notices that this is failing and runs a network trace. After a short monitoring period, the administrator notices that the packets are still NOT getting to the new router from the Citrix ADC. Which mode should the administrator disable on the Citrix ADC to facilitate the successful routing of the packets? A.Layer3 B.USNIP C.MAC-based forwarding (MBF) D.USIP Answer: C Question: 24 A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Citrix ADC high availability (HA) pair with each Citrix ADC in a different subnet. What does the administrator need to do for HA to work in different subnets? A.Configure SyncVLAN B.Turn on Independent Network Configuration (INC) mode C.Turn on HA monitoring on all Interfaces D.Turn on fail-safe mode Answer: B Question: 25 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is managing a Citrix Gateway with a standard platform license and remote employees in the environment. The administrator wants to increase access by 3,000 users through the Citrix Gateway using VPN access. Which license should the administrator recommend purchasing? A.Citrix Gateway Express B.Citrix ADC Upgrade C.Citrix Gateway Universal D.Citrix ADC Burst Pack Answer: C Reference: https://support.citrix.com/content/dam/supportWS/kA560000000TNDvCAO/XD_and_XA_7.x_Licens ing_FAQ.pdf Question: 26 Which four steps should a Citrix Administrator take to configure SmartAccess? (Choose four.) A.Execute “set-BrokerSite -TrustRequestsSentToTheXMLServicePort $True” on any Citrix Delivery Controller in the Site. B.Enable Citrix Workspace control within StoreFront. C.Ensure that the SmartAccess filter name on the Delivery Group matches the name of the Citrix Gateway virtual server. D.Ensure that the SmartAccess filter name on the Delivery Group matches the name of the Citrix Gateway policy. E.Ensure that ICA Only is unchecked on the Citrix Gateway virtual server. F.Ensure that the Callback URL is defined in the Citrix Gateway configuration within Store Front. G.Ensure that ICA Only is checked on the Citrix Gateway virtual server. Answer: ACEF Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX227055 Question: 27 Which three Citrix Gateway elements can be configured by the Citrix Gateway Wizard? (Choose three.) A.The rewrite policy for HTTP to HTTPS redirect B.The responder policy for HTTP to HTTPS redirect C.The Citrix Gateway primary virtual server D.The bind SSL server certificate for the Citrix Gateway virtual server E.The primary and optional secondary authentications Answer: CDE Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/12-1/citrix-gateway-12.1.pdf (333) Question: 28 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configures an access control list (ACL) to block traffic from the IP address 10.102.29.5: add simpleacl rule1 DENY -srcIP 10.102.29.5 A week later, the administrator discovers that the ACL is no longer present on the Citrix ADC. What could be the reason for this? A.The administrator did NOT run the apply ACL command. B.The simple ACLs remain active for only 600 seconds. C.The simple ACLs remain active for only 60 seconds. D.The Citrix ADC has been restarted without saving the configurations. Answer: A Question: 29 While applying a new Citrix ADC device, a Citrix Administrator notices an issue with the time on the appliance. Which two steps can the administrator perform to automatically adjust the time? (Choose two.) A.Add an SNMP manager. B.Add an SNMP trap. C.Enable NTP synchronization. D.Add an NTP server. E.Configure an NTP monitor. Answer: CE Question: 30 A Citrix Network Engineer informs a Citrix Administrator that a data interface used by Citrix ADC SDX is being saturated. Which action could the administrator take to address this bandwidth concern? A.Add a second interface to each Citrix ADC VPX instance. B.Configure LACP on the SDX for management interface. C.Configure LACP on the SDX for the data interface. D.Configure a failover interface set on each Citrix ADC VPX instance. Answer: C Reference: https://training.citrix.com/public/Exam+Prep+Guides/241/1Y0- 241_Exam_Preparation_Guide_v01.pdf (22) Question: 31 Scenario: Users are attempting to logon through Citrix Gateway. They successfully pass the Endpoint Analysis (EPA) scan, but are NOT able to see the client choices at logon. What can a Citrix Administrator disable to allow users to see the client choices at logon? A.Quarantine groups B.Client choices globally C.Split tunneling D.nFactor authentication Answer: A Reference: https://www.carlstalhood.com/category/netscaler/netscaler-12/netscaler-gateway-12/ Question: 32 Scenario: To meet the security requirements of the organization, a Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Citrix Gateway virtual server with time-outs for user sessions triggered by the behaviors below: Inactivity for at least 15 minutes. No keyboard or mouse activity for at least 15 minutes Which set of time-out settings can the administrator configure to meet the requirements? A.Session time-out and client idle time-out set to 15 B.Session time-out and forced time-out set to 15 C.Client idle time-out and forced time-out set to 15 D.Client idle time-out and forced time-out set to 900 Answer: A Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/current-release/vpn-user-config/configure- pluginconnections/configure-time-out-settings.html Question: 33 A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Citrix Gateway virtual IP to allow incoming connections initiated exclusively from web browser sessions. Which advanced policy will accomplish this? A.REQ.HTTP.HEADER User-Agent NOTCONTAINS CitrixReceiver B.REQ.HTTP.HEADER User-Agent CONTAINS Chrome/78.0.3904.108 Safari/537.36 C.HTTP.REQ.HEADER(“User-Agent”).CONTAINS(“Mozilla”) D.HTTP.REQ.HEADER(“User-Agent”).CONTAINS(“CitrixReceiver”) Answer: A Reference: https://stalhood2.rssing.com/chan-58610415/all_p2.html Question: 34 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator currently manages a Citrix ADC environment for a growing retail company that may soon double its business volume. A Citrix ADC MPX 5901 is currently handling web and SSL transactions, but is close to full capacity. Due to the forecasted growth, the administrator needs to find a costeffective solution. Which cost-effective recommendation can the administrator provide to management to handle the growth? A.A license upgrade to a Citrix ADC MPX 5905 B.The addition of another MPX 5901 appliance C.A hardware upgrade to a Citrix ADC MPX 8905 D.A hardware upgrade to a Citrix ADC SDX 15020 Answer: A Question: 35 What can a Citrix Administrator configure to access RDP shortcuts? A.Split tunneling B.Bookmarks C.Next hop server D.Intranet applications Answer: B Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/current-release/rdp-proxy.html Question: 36 If a user device does NOT comply with a company’s security requirements, which type of policy can a Citrix Administrator apply to a Citrix Gateway virtual server to limit access to Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops resources? A.Session B.Responder C.Authorization D.Traffic Answer: A Reference:https://www.citrix.com/content/dam/citrix/en_us/documents/products- solutions/creating-andenforcing-advanced-access-policies-with-xenapp.pdf Question: 37 A Citrix Administrator has received a low disk space alert for /var on the Citrix ADC. Which type of files should the administrator archive to free up space? A.Syslog B.Nslog C.DNScache D.Nsconfig Answer: B Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX205014?recommended Question: 38 Which license type must be installed to configure Endpoint Analysis scans? A.Citrix Web App Firewall B.Universal C.Platform D.Burst pack Answer: B Reference:https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/current-release/citrix-gateway-licensing.html Question: 39 Which two features can a Citrix Administrator use to allow secure external access to a sensitive company web server that is load-balanced by the Citrix ADC? (Choose two.) A.Authentication, authorization, and auditing (AAA) B.Citrix Web App Firewall C.ICA proxy D.AppFlow E.Integrated caching Answer: AB Question: 40 Scenario: A Citrix ADC MPX is using one of four available 10G ports. A Citrix Administrator discovers a traffic bottleneck at the Citrix ADC. What can the administrator do to increase bandwidth on the Citrix ADC? A.Add two more 10G Citrix ADC ports to the network and configure VLAN. B.Add another 10G Citrix ADC port to the switch, and configure link aggregation control protocol (LACP). C.Purchase another Citrix ADC MPX appliance. D.Plug another 10G Citrix ADC port into the router. Answer: A Question: 41 Scenario: Client connections to certain virtual servers are abnormally high. A Citrix Administrator needs to be alerted whenever the connections pass a certain threshold. How can the administrator use Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to accomplish this? A.Configure TCP Insight on the Citrix ADM. B.Configure SMTP reporting on the Citrix ADM by adding the threshold and email address. C.Configure specific alerts for virtual servers using Citrix ADM. D.Configure network reporting on the Citrix ADM by setting the threshold and email address. Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go 1Y0-231 PDF and 1Y0-231 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1QWBrUQIP4dhwazi-gFooYmyX1m-iWAlw?usp=sharing
“Work From Home” - What COVID-19 Alert Level 3 Means For Businesses
Employsure is here to support business owners to comply with the restrictions under the COVID-19 alert levels. The Government last week outlined the details of what relaxing restrictions from Alert Level 4 would look like, and has now announced the lowered restrictions under Alert Level 3 will come into effect at 11:59pm on Monday 27 April. Alert Level 3 will last for a minimum of a fortnight, and will then be reviewed by the government, before it makes a further decision on 11 May. Business owners that want to open can spend the next week preparing to do so, e.g. get stock etc, but have been asked to stick to social distancing and their bubbles. Schools and Early Learning Centres can be accessed for cleaning, preparation and maintenance. On 28 April, teachers will be allowed into the building – students who can attend will be allowed in the next day. “For those who can work from home during this period, it will allow them to still enable cash flow into their business, while eliminating the risk of spreading the virus between potentially infected employees,” said Employsure Senior Employment Relations Adviser Ashlea Maley. “While this may not be an option for all businesses, it is still the best course of short-term action, to keep things running as smoothly as possible. “Allowing more businesses to resume operations will help reduce the unemployment rate and will allow the economy to begin to correct itself. “While it would be good to see all businesses operating as soon as possible, the risk is still too high.” What businesses are open? Under Alert Level 3, major restrictions apply to hospitality businesses like restaurants, bars and cafes, as well as retail and hardware stores. Non-essential businesses that meet safety guidelines will be allowed to operate, but transactions but must be done through an app or online portal - not be face-to-face. Contactless food delivery or click and collect services must also be adhered to. Businesses that don’t have a customer-facing function and are only accessed by staff can reopen, but staff must practise physical distancing and comply with health and safety standards. The Government’s main message to employers is to still work from home if you can. Schools will open for children up to and including year 10 but physical attendance is voluntary. Those in years 11-13 will continue to learn from home. Looking ahead: “We won’t yet know the full extent the government’s decision to lower the alert level will have on small business owners,” said Ms. Maley. “For those non-essential businesses that can’t operate from home and have to return to the workplace, these next few weeks will be the factor in deciding if the decision to relax restrictions was the right one. “If they stick to good hygiene and abide by the safety measures they put in place, I can see this as a positive step forward. “Employers should ensure all staff are abiding by the rules and should take the correct steps in maximizing safety if a worker breaches them. “The coming months will be a new test for New Zealanders, and it’s up to all of us to work together, to ensure we can come out of this on the other side.” Resource Hub For Employers: To help employers meet this unprecedented challenge, Employsure has built a free Resource Hub, containing workplace policies, communications, checklists and FAQs. All information is free for business owners and can be found at employsure.co.nz/coronavirus #covid19 #newzelandbusiness #employee
(April-2021)Braindump2go DAS-C01 PDF and DAS-C01 VCE Dumps(Q88-Q113)
QUESTION 88 An online gaming company is using an Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics SQL application with a Kinesis data stream as its source. The source sends three non-null fields to the application: player_id, score, and us_5_digit_zip_code. A data analyst has a .csv mapping file that maps a small number of us_5_digit_zip_code values to a territory code. The data analyst needs to include the territory code, if one exists, as an additional output of the Kinesis Data Analytics application. How should the data analyst meet this requirement while minimizing costs? A.Store the contents of the mapping file in an Amazon DynamoDB table. Preprocess the records as they arrive in the Kinesis Data Analytics application with an AWS Lambda function that fetches the mapping and supplements each record to include the territory code, if one exists. Change the SQL query in the application to include the new field in the SELECT statement. B.Store the mapping file in an Amazon S3 bucket and configure the reference data column headers for the .csv file in the Kinesis Data Analytics application. Change the SQL query in the application to include a join to the file's S3 Amazon Resource Name (ARN), and add the territory code field to the SELECT columns. C.Store the mapping file in an Amazon S3 bucket and configure it as a reference data source for the Kinesis Data Analytics application. Change the SQL query in the application to include a join to the reference table and add the territory code field to the SELECT columns. D.Store the contents of the mapping file in an Amazon DynamoDB table. Change the Kinesis Data Analytics application to send its output to an AWS Lambda function that fetches the mapping and supplements each record to include the territory code, if one exists. Forward the record from the Lambda function to the original application destination. Answer: C QUESTION 89 A company has collected more than 100 TB of log files in the last 24 months. The files are stored as raw text in a dedicated Amazon S3 bucket. Each object has a key of the form year-month- day_log_HHmmss.txt where HHmmss represents the time the log file was initially created. A table was created in Amazon Athena that points to the S3 bucket. One-time queries are run against a subset of columns in the table several times an hour. A data analyst must make changes to reduce the cost of running these queries. Management wants a solution with minimal maintenance overhead. Which combination of steps should the data analyst take to meet these requirements? (Choose three.) A.Convert the log files to Apace Avro format. B.Add a key prefix of the form date=year-month-day/ to the S3 objects to partition the data. C.Convert the log files to Apache Parquet format. D.Add a key prefix of the form year-month-day/ to the S3 objects to partition the data. E.Drop and recreate the table with the PARTITIONED BY clause. Run the ALTER TABLE ADD PARTITION statement. F.Drop and recreate the table with the PARTITIONED BY clause. Run the MSCK REPAIR TABLE statement. Answer: BCF QUESTION 90 A company has an application that ingests streaming data. The company needs to analyze this stream over a 5-minute timeframe to evaluate the stream for anomalies with Random Cut Forest (RCF) and summarize the current count of status codes. The source and summarized data should be persisted for future use. Which approach would enable the desired outcome while keeping data persistence costs low? A.Ingest the data stream with Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. Have an AWS Lambda consumer evaluate the stream, collect the number status codes, and evaluate the data against a previously trained RCF model. Persist the source and results as a time series to Amazon DynamoDB. B.Ingest the data stream with Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. Have a Kinesis Data Analytics application evaluate the stream over a 5-minute window using the RCF function and summarize the count of status codes. Persist the source and results to Amazon S3 through output delivery to Kinesis Data Firehouse. C.Ingest the data stream with Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose with a delivery frequency of 1 minute or 1 MB in Amazon S3. Ensure Amazon S3 triggers an event to invoke an AWS Lambda consumer that evaluates the batch data, collects the number status codes, and evaluates the data against a previously trained RCF model. Persist the source and results as a time series to Amazon DynamoDB. D.Ingest the data stream with Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose with a delivery frequency of 5 minutes or 1 MB into Amazon S3. Have a Kinesis Data Analytics application evaluate the stream over a 1-minute window using the RCF function and summarize the count of status codes. Persist the results to Amazon S3 through a Kinesis Data Analytics output to an AWS Lambda integration. Answer: B QUESTION 91 An online retailer needs to deploy a product sales reporting solution. The source data is exported from an external online transaction processing (OLTP) system for reporting. Roll-up data is calculated each day for the previous day's activities. The reporting system has the following requirements: - Have the daily roll-up data readily available for 1 year. - After 1 year, archive the daily roll-up data for occasional but immediate access. - The source data exports stored in the reporting system must be retained for 5 years. Query access will be needed only for re-evaluation, which may occur within the first 90 days. Which combination of actions will meet these requirements while keeping storage costs to a minimum? (Choose two.) A.Store the source data initially in the Amazon S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard-IA) storage class. Apply a lifecycle configuration that changes the storage class to Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive 90 days after creation, and then deletes the data 5 years after creation. B.Store the source data initially in the Amazon S3 Glacier storage class. Apply a lifecycle configuration that changes the storage class from Amazon S3 Glacier to Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive 90 days after creation, and then deletes the data 5 years after creation. C.Store the daily roll-up data initially in the Amazon S3 Standard storage class. Apply a lifecycle configuration that changes the storage class to Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive 1 year after data creation. D.Store the daily roll-up data initially in the Amazon S3 Standard storage class. Apply a lifecycle configuration that changes the storage class to Amazon S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard- IA) 1 year after data creation. E.Store the daily roll-up data initially in the Amazon S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard-IA) storage class. Apply a lifecycle configuration that changes the storage class to Amazon S3 Glacier 1 year after data creation. Answer: BE QUESTION 92 A company needs to store objects containing log data in JSON format. The objects are generated by eight applications running in AWS. Six of the applications generate a total of 500 KiB of data per second, and two of the applications can generate up to 2 MiB of data per second. A data engineer wants to implement a scalable solution to capture and store usage data in an Amazon S3 bucket. The usage data objects need to be reformatted, converted to .csv format, and then compressed before they are stored in Amazon S3. The company requires the solution to include the least custom code possible and has authorized the data engineer to request a service quota increase if needed. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Configure an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream for each application. Write AWS Lambda functions to read log data objects from the stream for each application. Have the function perform reformatting and .csv conversion. Enable compression on all the delivery streams. B.Configure an Amazon Kinesis data stream with one shard per application. Write an AWS Lambda function to read usage data objects from the shards. Have the function perform .csv conversion, reformatting, and compression of the data. Have the function store the output in Amazon S3. C.Configure an Amazon Kinesis data stream for each application. Write an AWS Lambda function to read usage data objects from the stream for each application. Have the function perform .csv conversion, reformatting, and compression of the data. Have the function store the output in Amazon S3. D.Store usage data objects in an Amazon DynamoDB table. Configure a DynamoDB stream to copy the objects to an S3 bucket. Configure an AWS Lambda function to be triggered when objects are written to the S3 bucket. Have the function convert the objects into .csv format. Answer: B QUESTION 93 A data analytics specialist is building an automated ETL ingestion pipeline using AWS Glue to ingest compressed files that have been uploaded to an Amazon S3 bucket. The ingestion pipeline should support incremental data processing. Which AWS Glue feature should the data analytics specialist use to meet this requirement? A.Workflows B.Triggers C.Job bookmarks D.Classifiers Answer: B QUESTION 94 A telecommunications company is looking for an anomaly-detection solution to identify fraudulent calls. The company currently uses Amazon Kinesis to stream voice call records in a JSON format from its on- premises database to Amazon S3. The existing dataset contains voice call records with 200 columns. To detect fraudulent calls, the solution would need to look at 5 of these columns only. The company is interested in a cost-effective solution using AWS that requires minimal effort and experience in anomaly-detection algorithms. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Use an AWS Glue job to transform the data from JSON to Apache Parquet. Use AWS Glue crawlers to discover the schema and build the AWS Glue Data Catalog. Use Amazon Athena to create a table with a subset of columns. Use Amazon QuickSight to visualize the data and then use Amazon QuickSight machine learning-powered anomaly detection. B.Use Kinesis Data Firehose to detect anomalies on a data stream from Kinesis by running SQL queries, which compute an anomaly score for all calls and store the output in Amazon RDS. Use Amazon Athena to build a dataset and Amazon QuickSight to visualize the results. C.Use an AWS Glue job to transform the data from JSON to Apache Parquet. Use AWS Glue crawlers to discover the schema and build the AWS Glue Data Catalog. Use Amazon SageMaker to build an anomaly detection model that can detect fraudulent calls by ingesting data from Amazon S3. D.Use Kinesis Data Analytics to detect anomalies on a data stream from Kinesis by running SQL queries, which compute an anomaly score for all calls. Connect Amazon QuickSight to Kinesis Data Analytics to visualize the anomaly scores. Answer: A QUESTION 95 An online retailer is rebuilding its inventory management system and inventory reordering system to automatically reorder products by using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. The inventory management system uses the Kinesis Producer Library (KPL) to publish data to a stream. The inventory reordering system uses the Kinesis Client Library (KCL) to consume data from the stream. The stream has been configured to scale as needed. Just before production deployment, the retailer discovers that the inventory reordering system is receiving duplicated data. Which factors could be causing the duplicated data? (Choose two.) A.The producer has a network-related timeout. B.The stream's value for the IteratorAgeMilliseconds metric is too high. C.There was a change in the number of shards, record processors, or both. D.The AggregationEnabled configuration property was set to true. E.The max_records configuration property was set to a number that is too high. Answer: BD QUESTION 96 A large retailer has successfully migrated to an Amazon S3 data lake architecture. The company's marketing team is using Amazon Redshift and Amazon QuickSight to analyze data, and derive and visualize insights. To ensure the marketing team has the most up-to-date actionable information, a data analyst implements nightly refreshes of Amazon Redshift using terabytes of updates from the previous day. After the first nightly refresh, users report that half of the most popular dashboards that had been running correctly before the refresh are now running much slower. Amazon CloudWatch does not show any alerts. What is the MOST likely cause for the performance degradation? A.The dashboards are suffering from inefficient SQL queries. B.The cluster is undersized for the queries being run by the dashboards. C.The nightly data refreshes are causing a lingering transaction that cannot be automatically closed by Amazon Redshift due to ongoing user workloads. D.The nightly data refreshes left the dashboard tables in need of a vacuum operation that could not be automatically performed by Amazon Redshift due to ongoing user workloads. Answer: B QUESTION 97 A marketing company is storing its campaign response data in Amazon S3. A consistent set of sources has generated the data for each campaign. The data is saved into Amazon S3 as .csv files. A business analyst will use Amazon Athena to analyze each campaign's data. The company needs the cost of ongoing data analysis with Athena to be minimized. Which combination of actions should a data analytics specialist take to meet these requirements? (Choose two.) A.Convert the .csv files to Apache Parquet. B.Convert the .csv files to Apache Avro. C.Partition the data by campaign. D.Partition the data by source. E.Compress the .csv files. Answer: BC QUESTION 98 An online retail company is migrating its reporting system to AWS. The company's legacy system runs data processing on online transactions using a complex series of nested Apache Hive queries. Transactional data is exported from the online system to the reporting system several times a day. Schemas in the files are stable between updates. A data analyst wants to quickly migrate the data processing to AWS, so any code changes should be minimized. To keep storage costs low, the data analyst decides to store the data in Amazon S3. It is vital that the data from the reports and associated analytics is completely up to date based on the data in Amazon S3. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage the Hive metadata. Create an AWS Glue crawler over Amazon S3 that runs when data is refreshed to ensure that data changes are updated. Create an Amazon EMR cluster and use the metadata in the AWS Glue Data Catalog to run Hive processing queries in Amazon EMR. B.Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage the Hive metadata. Create an Amazon EMR cluster with consistent view enabled. Run emrfs sync before each analytics step to ensure data changes are updated. Create an EMR cluster and use the metadata in the AWS Glue Data Catalog to run Hive processing queries in Amazon EMR. C.Create an Amazon Athena table with CREATE TABLE AS SELECT (CTAS) to ensure data is refreshed from underlying queries against the raw dataset. Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage the Hive metadata over the CTAS table. Create an Amazon EMR cluster and use the metadata in the AWS Glue Data Catalog to run Hive processing queries in Amazon EMR. D.Use an S3 Select query to ensure that the data is properly updated. Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage the Hive metadata over the S3 Select table. Create an Amazon EMR cluster and use the metadata in the AWS Glue Data Catalog to run Hive processing queries in Amazon EMR. Answer: A QUESTION 99 A media company is using Amazon QuickSight dashboards to visualize its national sales data. The dashboard is using a dataset with these fields: ID, date, time_zone, city, state, country, longitude, latitude, sales_volume, and number_of_items. To modify ongoing campaigns, the company wants an interactive and intuitive visualization of which states across the country recorded a significantly lower sales volume compared to the national average. Which addition to the company's QuickSight dashboard will meet this requirement? A.A geospatial color-coded chart of sales volume data across the country. B.A pivot table of sales volume data summed up at the state level. C.A drill-down layer for state-level sales volume data. D.A drill through to other dashboards containing state-level sales volume data. Answer: B QUESTION 100 A company hosts an on-premises PostgreSQL database that contains historical data. An internal legacy application uses the database for read-only activities. The company's business team wants to move the data to a data lake in Amazon S3 as soon as possible and enrich the data for analytics. The company has set up an AWS Direct Connect connection between its VPC and its on-premises network. A data analytics specialist must design a solution that achieves the business team's goals with the least operational overhead. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Upload the data from the on-premises PostgreSQL database to Amazon S3 by using a customized batch upload process. Use the AWS Glue crawler to catalog the data in Amazon S3. Use an AWS Glue job to enrich and store the result in a separate S3 bucket in Apache Parquet format. Use Amazon Athena to query the data. B.Create an Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL database and use AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) to migrate the data into Amazon RDS. Use AWS Data Pipeline to copy and enrich the data from the Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL table and move the data to Amazon S3. Use Amazon Athena to query the data. C.Configure an AWS Glue crawler to use a JDBC connection to catalog the data in the on-premises database. Use an AWS Glue job to enrich the data and save the result to Amazon S3 in Apache Parquet format. Create an Amazon Redshift cluster and use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to query the data. D.Configure an AWS Glue crawler to use a JDBC connection to catalog the data in the on-premises database. Use an AWS Glue job to enrich the data and save the result to Amazon S3 in Apache Parquet format. Use Amazon Athena to query the data. Answer: B QUESTION 101 A medical company has a system with sensor devices that read metrics and send them in real time to an Amazon Kinesis data stream. The Kinesis data stream has multiple shards. The company needs to calculate the average value of a numeric metric every second and set an alarm for whenever the value is above one threshold or below another threshold. The alarm must be sent to Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) in less than 30 seconds. Which architecture meets these requirements? A.Use an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream to read the data from the Kinesis data stream with an AWS Lambda transformation function that calculates the average per second and sends the alarm to Amazon SNS. B.Use an AWS Lambda function to read from the Kinesis data stream to calculate the average per second and sent the alarm to Amazon SNS. C.Use an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose deliver stream to read the data from the Kinesis data stream and store it on Amazon S3. Have Amazon S3 trigger an AWS Lambda function that calculates the average per second and sends the alarm to Amazon SNS. D.Use an Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics application to read from the Kinesis data stream and calculate the average per second. Send the results to an AWS Lambda function that sends the alarm to Amazon SNS. Answer: C QUESTION 102 An IoT company wants to release a new device that will collect data to track sleep overnight on an intelligent mattress. Sensors will send data that will be uploaded to an Amazon S3 bucket. About 2 MB of data is generated each night for each bed. Data must be processed and summarized for each user, and the results need to be available as soon as possible. Part of the process consists of time windowing and other functions. Based on tests with a Python script, every run will require about 1 GB of memory and will complete within a couple of minutes. Which solution will run the script in the MOST cost-effective way? A.AWS Lambda with a Python script B.AWS Glue with a Scala job C.Amazon EMR with an Apache Spark script D.AWS Glue with a PySpark job Answer: A QUESTION 103 A company wants to provide its data analysts with uninterrupted access to the data in its Amazon Redshift cluster. All data is streamed to an Amazon S3 bucket with Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose. An AWS Glue job that is scheduled to run every 5 minutes issues a COPY command to move the data into Amazon Redshift. The amount of data delivered is uneven throughout then day, and cluster utilization is high during certain periods. The COPY command usually completes within a couple of seconds. However, when load spike occurs, locks can exist and data can be missed. Currently, the AWS Glue job is configured to run without retries, with timeout at 5 minutes and concurrency at 1. How should a data analytics specialist configure the AWS Glue job to optimize fault tolerance and improve data availability in the Amazon Redshift cluster? A.Increase the number of retries. Decrease the timeout value. Increase the job concurrency. B.Keep the number of retries at 0. Decrease the timeout value. Increase the job concurrency. C.Keep the number of retries at 0. Decrease the timeout value. Keep the job concurrency at 1. D.Keep the number of retries at 0. Increase the timeout value. Keep the job concurrency at 1. Answer: B QUESTION 104 A retail company leverages Amazon Athena for ad-hoc queries against an AWS Glue Data Catalog. The data analytics team manages the data catalog and data access for the company. The data analytics team wants to separate queries and manage the cost of running those queries by different workloads and teams. Ideally, the data analysts want to group the queries run by different users within a team, store the query results in individual Amazon S3 buckets specific to each team, and enforce cost constraints on the queries run against the Data Catalog. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Create IAM groups and resource tags for each team within the company. Set up IAM policies that control user access and actions on the Data Catalog resources. B.Create Athena resource groups for each team within the company and assign users to these groups. Add S3 bucket names and other query configurations to the properties list for the resource groups. C.Create Athena workgroups for each team within the company. Set up IAM workgroup policies that control user access and actions on the workgroup resources. D.Create Athena query groups for each team within the company and assign users to the groups. Answer: A QUESTION 105 A manufacturing company uses Amazon S3 to store its data. The company wants to use AWS Lake Formation to provide granular-level security on those data assets. The data is in Apache Parquet format. The company has set a deadline for a consultant to build a data lake. How should the consultant create the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements? A.Run Lake Formation blueprints to move the data to Lake Formation. Once Lake Formation has the data, apply permissions on Lake Formation. B.To create the data catalog, run an AWS Glue crawler on the existing Parquet data. Register the Amazon S3 path and then apply permissions through Lake Formation to provide granular-level security. C.Install Apache Ranger on an Amazon EC2 instance and integrate with Amazon EMR. Using Ranger policies, create role-based access control for the existing data assets in Amazon S3. D.Create multiple IAM roles for different users and groups. Assign IAM roles to different data assets in Amazon S3 to create table-based and column-based access controls. Answer: C QUESTION 106 A company has an application that uses the Amazon Kinesis Client Library (KCL) to read records from a Kinesis data stream. After a successful marketing campaign, the application experienced a significant increase in usage. As a result, a data analyst had to split some shards in the data stream. When the shards were split, the application started throwing an ExpiredIteratorExceptions error sporadically. What should the data analyst do to resolve this? A.Increase the number of threads that process the stream records. B.Increase the provisioned read capacity units assigned to the stream's Amazon DynamoDB table. C.Increase the provisioned write capacity units assigned to the stream's Amazon DynamoDB table. D.Decrease the provisioned write capacity units assigned to the stream's Amazon DynamoDB table. Answer: C QUESTION 107 A company is building a service to monitor fleets of vehicles. The company collects IoT data from a device in each vehicle and loads the data into Amazon Redshift in near-real time. Fleet owners upload .csv files containing vehicle reference data into Amazon S3 at different times throughout the day. A nightly process loads the vehicle reference data from Amazon S3 into Amazon Redshift. The company joins the IoT data from the device and the vehicle reference data to power reporting and dashboards. Fleet owners are frustrated by waiting a day for the dashboards to update. Which solution would provide the SHORTEST delay between uploading reference data to Amazon S3 and the change showing up in the owners' dashboards? A.Use S3 event notifications to trigger an AWS Lambda function to copy the vehicle reference data into Amazon Redshift immediately when the reference data is uploaded to Amazon S3. B.Create and schedule an AWS Glue Spark job to run every 5 minutes. The job inserts reference data into Amazon Redshift. C.Send reference data to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. Configure the Kinesis data stream to directly load the reference data into Amazon Redshift in real time. D.Send the reference data to an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream. Configure Kinesis with a buffer interval of 60 seconds and to directly load the data into Amazon Redshift. Answer: A QUESTION 108 A company is migrating from an on-premises Apache Hadoop cluster to an Amazon EMR cluster. The cluster runs only during business hours. Due to a company requirement to avoid intraday cluster failures, the EMR cluster must be highly available. When the cluster is terminated at the end of each business day, the data must persist. Which configurations would enable the EMR cluster to meet these requirements? (Choose three.) A.EMR File System (EMRFS) for storage B.Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS) for storage C.AWS Glue Data Catalog as the metastore for Apache Hive D.MySQL database on the master node as the metastore for Apache Hive E.Multiple master nodes in a single Availability Zone F.Multiple master nodes in multiple Availability Zones Answer: BCF QUESTION 109 A retail company wants to use Amazon QuickSight to generate dashboards for web and in-store sales. A group of 50 business intelligence professionals will develop and use the dashboards. Once ready, the dashboards will be shared with a group of 1,000 users. The sales data comes from different stores and is uploaded to Amazon S3 every 24 hours. The data is partitioned by year and month, and is stored in Apache Parquet format. The company is using the AWS Glue Data Catalog as its main data catalog and Amazon Athena for querying. The total size of the uncompressed data that the dashboards query from at any point is 200 GB. Which configuration will provide the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements? A.Load the data into an Amazon Redshift cluster by using the COPY command. Configure 50 author users and 1,000 reader users. Use QuickSight Enterprise edition. Configure an Amazon Redshift data source with a direct query option. B.Use QuickSight Standard edition. Configure 50 author users and 1,000 reader users. Configure an Athena data source with a direct query option. C.Use QuickSight Enterprise edition. Configure 50 author users and 1,000 reader users. Configure an Athena data source and import the data into SPICE. Automatically refresh every 24 hours. D.Use QuickSight Enterprise edition. Configure 1 administrator and 1,000 reader users. Configure an S3 data source and import the data into SPICE. Automatically refresh every 24 hours. Answer: C QUESTION 110 A central government organization is collecting events from various internal applications using Amazon Managed Streaming for Apache Kafka (Amazon MSK). The organization has configured a separate Kafka topic for each application to separate the data. For security reasons, the Kafka cluster has been configured to only allow TLS encrypted data and it encrypts the data at rest. A recent application update showed that one of the applications was configured incorrectly, resulting in writing data to a Kafka topic that belongs to another application. This resulted in multiple errors in the analytics pipeline as data from different applications appeared on the same topic. After this incident, the organization wants to prevent applications from writing to a topic different than the one they should write to. Which solution meets these requirements with the least amount of effort? A.Create a different Amazon EC2 security group for each application. Configure each security group to have access to a specific topic in the Amazon MSK cluster. Attach the security group to each application based on the topic that the applications should read and write to. B.Install Kafka Connect on each application instance and configure each Kafka Connect instance to write to a specific topic only. C.Use Kafka ACLs and configure read and write permissions for each topic. Use the distinguished name of the clients' TLS certificates as the principal of the ACL. D.Create a different Amazon EC2 security group for each application. Create an Amazon MSK cluster and Kafka topic for each application. Configure each security group to have access to the specific cluster. Answer: B QUESTION 111 A company wants to collect and process events data from different departments in near-real time. Before storing the data in Amazon S3, the company needs to clean the data by standardizing the format of the address and timestamp columns. The data varies in size based on the overall load at each particular point in time. A single data record can be 100 KB-10 MB. How should a data analytics specialist design the solution for data ingestion? A.Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. Configure a stream for the raw data. Use a Kinesis Agent to write data to the stream. Create an Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics application that reads data from the raw stream, cleanses it, and stores the output to Amazon S3. B.Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose. Configure a Firehose delivery stream with a preprocessing AWS Lambda function for data cleansing. Use a Kinesis Agent to write data to the delivery stream. Configure Kinesis Data Firehose to deliver the data to Amazon S3. C.Use Amazon Managed Streaming for Apache Kafka. Configure a topic for the raw data. Use a Kafka producer to write data to the topic. Create an application on Amazon EC2 that reads data from the topic by using the Apache Kafka consumer API, cleanses the data, and writes to Amazon S3. D.Use Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS). Configure an AWS Lambda function to read events from the SQS queue and upload the events to Amazon S3. Answer: B QUESTION 112 An operations team notices that a few AWS Glue jobs for a given ETL application are failing. The AWS Glue jobs read a large number of small JOSN files from an Amazon S3 bucket and write the data to a different S3 bucket in Apache Parquet format with no major transformations. Upon initial investigation, a data engineer notices the following error message in the History tab on the AWS Glue console: "Command Failed with Exit Code 1." Upon further investigation, the data engineer notices that the driver memory profile of the failed jobs crosses the safe threshold of 50% usage quickly and reaches 90?5% soon after. The average memory usage across all executors continues to be less than 4%. The data engineer also notices the following error while examining the related Amazon CloudWatch Logs. What should the data engineer do to solve the failure in the MOST cost-effective way? A.Change the worker type from Standard to G.2X. B.Modify the AWS Glue ETL code to use the `groupFiles': `inPartition' feature. C.Increase the fetch size setting by using AWS Glue dynamics frame. D.Modify maximum capacity to increase the total maximum data processing units (DPUs) used. Answer: D QUESTION 113 A transport company wants to track vehicular movements by capturing geolocation records. The records are 10 B in size and up to 10,000 records are captured each second. Data transmission delays of a few minutes are acceptable, considering unreliable network conditions. The transport company decided to use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to ingest the data. The company is looking for a reliable mechanism to send data to Kinesis Data Streams while maximizing the throughput efficiency of the Kinesis shards. Which solution will meet the company's requirements? A.Kinesis Agent B.Kinesis Producer Library (KPL) C.Kinesis Data Firehose D.Kinesis SDK Answer: B 2021 Latest Braindump2go DAS-C01 PDF and DAS-C01 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1WbSRm3ZlrRzjwyqX7auaqgEhLLzmD-2w?usp=sharing
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