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QUESTION 36 Which description of synchronous calls to an API is true? A.They can be used only within single-threaded processes. B.They pause execution and wait for the response. C.They always successfully return within a fixed time. D.They can be used only for small requests. Answer: B QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit. What does the response from the API contain when this code is executed? A.error message and status code of 403 B.newly created domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate C.updated domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate D.status and security details for the domains Answer: D QUESTION 38 Refer to the exhibit. A security engineer attempts to query the Cisco Security Management appliance to retrieve details of a specific message. What must be added to the script to achieve the desired result? A.Add message ID information to the URL string as a URI. B.Run the script and parse through the returned data to find the desired message. 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A.print(quiz[0]['choices']['b']) B.print(quiz['choices']['b']) C.print(quiz[0]['choices']['b']['802.1x']) D.print(quiz[0]['question']['choices']['b']) Answer: A QUESTION 41 What are two advantages of Python virtual environments? (Choose two.) A.Virtual environments can move compiled modules between different platforms. B.Virtual environments permit non-administrative users to install packages. C.The application code is run in an environment that is destroyed upon exit. D.Virtual environments allow for stateful high availability. E.Virtual environments prevent packaging conflicts between multiple Python projects. Answer: CE QUESTION 42 When the URI "/api/fmc_config/v1/domain/e276abec-e0f2-11e3-8169-6d9ed49b625f/policy/accesspolicies" is used to make a POST request, what does "e276abec-e0f2-11e3-8169-6d9ed49b625f" represent? A.API token B.domain UUID C.access policy UUID D.object UUID Answer: B QUESTION 44 Which Cisco AMP file disposition valid? 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A.query(config, secret, "getSessionByIpAddress/10.0.0.50", "ipAddress") B.query(config, "10.0.0.50", url, payload) C.query(config, secret, url, "10.0.0.50") D.query(config, secret, url, '{"ipAddress": "10.0.0.50"}') Answer: D QUESTION 51 Which API is used to query if the domain "example.com" has been flagged as malicious by the Cisco Security Labs team? A.https://s-platform.api.opendns.com/1.0/events?example.com B.https://investigate.api.umbrella.com/domains/categorization/example.com C.https://investigate.api.umbrella.com/domains/volume/example.com D.https://s-platform.api.opendns.com/1.0/domains?example.com Answer: B QUESTION 53 Which request searches for a process window in Cisco ThreatGRID that contains the word "secret"? 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QUESTION 46 Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.) A.The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters. B.Message filters configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters. C.The filterconfig command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters. D.Message filters can be configured only from the CLI. E.Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface. Answer: AD QUESTION 47 What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies? A.message splintering B.message exceptions C.message detachment D.message aggregation Answer: A QUESTION 48 Which default port is used by the Cisco ESA to quarantine the message on the Cisco Security Management Appliance? A.port 25fTCP B.port110/TCP C.port443/TCP D.port 6025/TCP E.port4766/UDP Answer: D QUESTION 49 When configuring CRES, where do you enable read receipts? A.In the encryption profile B.In the content filter condition menu C.In the content filter action menu D.In the mail policy Answer: A QUESTION 50 Which type of query must be configured when setting up the Spam Quarantine while merging notifications? A.Spam Quarantine Alias Routing Query B.Spam Quarantine Alias Consolidation Query C.Spam Quarantine Alias Authentication Query D.Spam Quarantine Alias Masquerading Query Answer: B QUESTION 51 Which two factors must be considered when message filter processing is configured? (Choose two.) A.message-filter order B.lateral processing C.structure of the combined packet D.mail policies E.MIME structure of the message Answer: AE QUESTION 52 How does the graymail safe unsubscribe feature function? A.It strips the malicious content of the URI before unsubscribing. B.It checks the URI reputation and category and allows the content filter to take an action on it. C.It redirects the end user who clicks the unsubscribe button to a sandbox environment to allow a safe unsubscribe. D.It checks the reputation of the URI and performs the unsubscribe process on behalf of the end user. Answer: D QUESTION 53 Which method enables an engineer to deliver a flagged message to a specific virtual gateway address in the most flexible way? A.Set up the interface group with the flag. B.Issue the altsrchost command. C.Map the envelope sender address to the host. D.Apply a filter on the message. Answer: D QUESTION 54 An administrator is trying to enable centralized PVO but receives the error, "Unable to proceed with Centralized Policy, Virus and Outbreak Quarantines configuration as esa1 in Cluster has content filters / DLP actions available at a level different from the cluster level." What is the cause of this error? A.Content filters are configured at the machine-level on esa1. B.DLP is configured at the cluster-level on esa2. C.DLP is configured at the domain-level on esa1. D.DLP is not configured on host1. Answer: A QUESTION 55 Which feature must be configured before an administrator can use the outbreak filter for nonviral threats? A.quarantine threat level B.antispam C.data loss prevention D.antivirus Answer: B QUESTION 56 Which type of attack is prevented by configuring file reputation filtering and file analysis features? A.denial of service B.zero-day C.backscatter D.phishing Answer: B QUESTION 57 Which two service problems can the Cisco Email Security Appliance solve? (Choose two.) A.DLP B.IPS C.Antispam D.URL filtering Answer: AC QUESTION 58 Which of the following types of DNS records deals with mail delivery for a specific domain? A.A B.TXT C.MX D.PTR Answer: C QUESTION 59 When DKIM signing is configured, which DNS record must be updated to load the DKIM public signing key? A.AAAA record B.PTR record C.TXT record D.MX record Answer: C QUESTION 60 Which attack is mitigated by using Bounce Verification? A.spoof B.denial of service C.eavesdropping D.smurf Answer: B QUESTION 61 When outbreak filters are configured, which two actions are used to protect users from outbreaks? (Choose two.) A.redirect B.return C.drop D.delay E.abandon Answer: AD QUESTION 62 Which two features are applied to either incoming or outgoing mail policies? (Choose two.) A.Indication of Compromise B.application filtering C.outbreak filters D.sender reputation filtering E.antivirus Answer: CE QUESTION 63 What must be configured to allow the Cisco ESA to encrypt an email using the Cisco Registered Envelope Service? A.provisioned email encryption profile B.message encryption from a content filter that select "Message Encryption" over TLS C.message encryption from the mail flow policies with "CRES" selected D.content filter to forward the email to the Cisco Registered Envelope server Answer: A QUESTION 64 Which two configurations are used on multiple LDAP servers to connect with Cisco ESA? (Choose two.) A.load balancing B.SLA monitor C.active-standby D.failover E.active-active Answer: AD QUESTION 65 What is the default port to deliver emails from the Cisco ESA to the Cisco SMA using the centralized Spam Quarantine? A.8025 B.6443 C.6025 D.8443 Answer: C QUESTION 66 Which two steps are needed to disable local spam quarantine before external quarantine is enabled? (Choose two.) A.Uncheck the Enable Spam Quarantine check box. B.Select Monitor and click Spam Quarantine. C.Check the External Safelist/Blocklist check box. D.Select External Spam Quarantine and click on Configure. E.Select Security Services and click Spam Quarantine. Answer: AB QUESTION 67 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the steps to configure Cisco ESA to use SPF/SIDF verification from the left into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 68 Drag and Drop Question An Encryption Profile has been set up on the Cisco ESA. Drag and drop the steps from the left for creating an outgoing content filter to encrypt emails that contains the subject "Secure:" into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 69 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the Cisco ESA reactions to a possible DLP from the left onto the correct action types on the right. Answer: QUESTION 70 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the AsyncOS methods for performing DMARC verification from the left into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 71 A network administrator is modifying an outgoing mail policy to enable domain protection for the organization. A DNS entry is created that has the public key. Which two headers will be used as matching criteria in the outgoing mail policy? (Choose two.) A.message-ID B.sender C.URL reputation D.from E.mail-from Answer: BD QUESTION 72 To comply with a recent audit, an engineer must configure anti-virus message handling options on the incoming mail policies to attach warnings to the subject of an email. What should be configured to meet this requirement for known viral emails? A.Virus Infected Messages B.Unscannable Messages C.Encrypted Messages D.Positively Identified Messages Answer: C QUESTION 73 An administrator is managing multiple Cisco ESA devices and wants to view the quarantine emails from all devices in a central location. How is this accomplished? A.Disable the VOF feature before sending SPAM to the external quarantine. B.Configure a mail policy to determine whether the message is sent to the local or external quarantine. C.Disable the local quarantine before sending SPAM to the external quarantine. D.Configure a user policy to determine whether the message is sent to the local or external quarantine. Answer: B QUESTION 74 A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy match using a specific sender, the email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason of this? A.The Tram* header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. B.The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion. C.The To" header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. D.The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion. Answer: D QUESTION 75 An administrator identifies that, over the past week, the Cisco ESA is receiving many emails from certain senders and domains which are being consistently quarantined. The administrator wants to ensure that these senders and domain are unable to send anymore emails. Which feature on Cisco ESA should be used to achieve this? A.incoming mail policies B.safelist C.blocklist D.S/MIME Sending Profile Answer: A QUESTION 76 An engineer is testing mail flow on a new Cisco ESA and notices that messages for domain abc.com are stuck in the delivery queue. Upon further investigation, the engineer notices that the messages pending delivery are destined for 192.168.1.11, when they should instead be routed to 192.168.1.10. What configuration change needed to address this issue? A.Add an address list for domain abc.com. B.Modify Destination Controls entry for the domain abc.com. C.Modify the SMTP route for the domain and change the IP address to 192.168.1.10. D.Modify the Routing Tables and add a route for IP address to 192.168.1.10. Answer: C 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-720 PDF and 300-720 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1CWQxEgDC6s96s0xdef_OXd8TQRMElfP0?usp=sharing
2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-730 PDF Dumps(Q45-Q75)
QUESTION 45 Which feature allows the ASA to handle nonstandard applications and web resources so that they display correctly over a clientless SSL VPN connection? A.single sign-on B.Smart Tunnel C.WebType ACL D.plug-ins Answer: B QUESTION 46 Which command automatically initiates a smart tunnel when a user logs in to the WebVPN portal page? A.auto-upgrade B.auto-connect C.auto-start D.auto-run Answer: C QUESTION 48 Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands under the tunnel-group webvpn-attributes result in a Cisco AnyConnect user receiving the AnyConnect prompt in the exhibit? (Choose two.) A.group-url https://172.16.31.10/General enable B.group-policy General internal C.authentication aaa D.authentication certificate E.group-alias General enable Answer: CE QUESTION 49 Which two statements are true when designing a SSL VPN solution using Cisco AnyConnect? (Choose two.) A.The VPN server must have a self-signed certificate. B.A SSL group pre-shared key must be configured on the server. C.Server side certificate is optional if using AAA for client authentication. D.The VPN IP address pool can overlap with the rest of the LAN networks. E.DTLS can be enabled for better performance. Answer: DE QUESTION 50 An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and wants to choose an authentication protocol that is reliable and supports ACK and sequence. Which protocol accomplishes this goal? A.IKEv1 B.AES-192 C.ESP D.AES-256 Answer: C QUESTION 51 Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel? A.incorrect PSK B.crypto access list mismatch C.incorrect tunnel group D.crypto policy mismatch E.incorrect certificate Answer: B QUESTION 52 Which requirement is needed to use local authentication for Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Clients that connect to a FlexVPN server? A.use of certificates instead of username and password B.EAP-AnyConnect C.EAP query-identity D.AnyConnect profile Answer: D QUESTION 53 Which IKE identity does an IOS/IOS-XE headend expect to receive if an IPsec Cisco AnyConnect client uses default settings? A.*$SecureMobilityClient$* B.*$AnyConnectClient$* C.*$RemoteAccessVpnClient$* D.*$DfltlkeldentityS* Answer: B QUESTION 54 Refer to the exhibit. Which VPN technology is allowed for users connecting to the Employee tunnel group? A.SSL AnyConnect B.IKEv2 AnyConnect C.crypto map D.clientless Answer: D QUESTION 55 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting a new GRE over IPsec tunnel. The tunnel is established but the engineer cannot ping from spoke 1 to spoke 2. Which type of traffic is being blocked? A.ESP packets from spoke2 to spoke1 B.ISAKMP packets from spoke2 to spoke1 C.ESP packets from spoke1 to spoke2 D.ISAKMP packets from spoke1 to spoke2 Answer: A QUESTION 56 Which command is used to troubleshoot an IPv6 FlexVPN spoke-to-hub connectivity failure? A.show crypto ikev2 sa B.show crypto isakmp sa C.show crypto gkm D.show crypto identity Answer: A QUESTION 57 In a FlexVPN deployment, the spokes successfully connect to the hub, but spoke-to-spoke tunnels do not form. Which troubleshooting step solves the issue? A.Verify the spoke configuration to check if the NHRP redirect is enabled. B.Verify that the spoke receives redirect messages and sends resolution requests. C.Verify the hub configuration to check if the NHRP shortcut is enabled. D.Verify that the tunnel interface is contained within a VRF. Answer: B QUESTION 58 An engineer is troubleshooting a new DMVPN setup on a Cisco IOS router. After the show crypto isakmp sa command is issued, a response is returned of "MM_NO_STATE." Why does this failure occur? A.The ISAKMP policy priority values are invalid. B.ESP traffic is being dropped. C.The Phase 1 policy does not match on both devices. D.Tunnel protection is not applied to the DMVPN tunnel. Answer: C QUESTION 59 What are two variables for configuring clientless SSL VPN single sign-on? (Choose two.) A.CSCO_WEBVPN_OTP_PASSWORD B.CSCO_WEBVPN_INTERNAL_PASSWORD C.CSCO_WEBVPN_USERNAME D.CSCO_WEBVPN_RADIUS_USER Answer: BC QUESTION 60 Which two NHRP functions are specific to DMVPN Phase 3 implementation? (Choose two.) A.registration request B.registration reply C.resolution request D.resolution reply E.redirect Answer: DE QUESTION 61 Refer to the exhibit. The customer can establish a Cisco AnyConnect connection without using an XML profile. When the host "ikev2" is selected in the AnyConnect drop down, the connection fails. What is the cause of this issue? A.The HostName is incorrect. B.The IP address is incorrect. C.Primary protocol should be SSL. D.UserGroup must match connection profile. Answer: D QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. A site-to-site tunnel between two sites is not coming up. Based on the debugs, what is the cause of this issue? A.An authentication failure occurs on the remote peer. B.A certificate fragmentation issue occurs between both sides. C.UDP 4500 traffic from the peer does not reach the router. D.An authentication failure occurs on the router. Answer: C QUESTION 63 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the debug output, which type of mismatch is preventing the VPN from coming up? A.interesting traffic B.lifetime C.preshared key D.PFS Answer: A Explanation: TS unacceptable: The IPsec SA setup has failed due to a mismatch in the policy rule definition between the gateways for the tunnel configuration. Check the local and remote network configuration on both gateways. QUESTION 64 Refer to the exhibit. The IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel between two routers is down. Based on the debug output, which type of mismatch is the problem? A.preshared key B.peer identity C.transform set D.ikev2 proposal Answer: B QUESTION 65 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of mismatch is causing the problem with the IPsec VPN tunnel? A.crypto access list B.Phase 1 policy C.transform set D.preshared key Answer: D QUESTION 66 Refer to the exhibit. What is a result of this configuration? A.Spoke 1 fails the authentication because the authentication methods are incorrect. B.Spoke 2 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2. C.Spoke 2 fails the authentication because the remote authentication method is incorrect. D.Spoke 1 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2. Answer: A QUESTION 67 Which two cryptographic technologies are recommended for use with FlexVPN? (Choose two.) A.SHA (HMAC variant) B.Diffie-Hellman C.DES D.MD5 (HMAC variant) Answer: AB QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator had the above configuration working with SSL protocol, but as soon as the administrator specified IPsec as the primary protocol, the Cisco AnyConnect client was not able to connect. What is the problem? A.IPsec will not work in conjunction with a group URL. B.The Cisco AnyConnect implementation does not allow the two group URLs to be the same. SSL does allow this. C.If you specify the primary protocol as IPsec, the User Group must be the exact name of the connection profile (tunnel group). D.A new XML profile should be created instead of modifying the existing profile, so that the clients force the update. Answer: C QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. Client 1 cannot communicate with client 2. Both clients are using Cisco AnyConnect and have established a successful SSL VPN connection to the hub ASA. Which command on the ASA is missing? A.dns-server value 10.1.1.2 B.same-security-traffic permit intra-interface C.same-security-traffic permit inter-interface D.dns-server value 10.1.1.3 Answer: B QUESTION 70 Refer to the exhibit. An SSL client is connecting to an ASA headend. The session fails with the message "Connection attempt has timed out. Please verify Internet connectivity." Based on how the packet is processed, which phase is causing the failure? A.phase 9: rpf-check B.phase 5: NAT C.phase 4: ACCESS-LIST D.phase 3: UN-NAT Answer: D QUESTION 71 Which redundancy protocol must be implemented for IPsec stateless failover to work? A.SSO B.GLBP C.HSRP D.VRRP Answer: C QUESTION 72 Which technology works with IPsec stateful failover? A.GLBR B.HSRP C.GRE D.VRRP Answer: B QUESTION 73 What are two functions of ECDH and ECDSA? (Choose two.) A.nonrepudiation B.revocation C.digital signature D.key exchange E.encryption Answer: CD QUESTION 74 What uses an Elliptic Curve key exchange algorithm? A.ECDSA B.ECDHE C.AES-GCM D.SHA Answer: B QUESTION 75 Which two remote access VPN solutions support SSL? (Choose two.) A.FlexVPN B.clientless C.EZVPN D.L2TP E.Cisco AnyConnect Answer: BE 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-730 PDF and 300-730 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1zBS7xcmszvPHlrS_lPaM4uUF1VvomE4a?usp=sharing
2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF Dumps(Q83-Q120)
QUESTION 83 Which statement about hot-potato routing architecture design is true? A.Hot-potato routing is the preferred architecture when connecting to content providers B.Hop-potato keeps traffic under the control of the network administrator for longer C.OSPF uses hot-potato routing if all ASBRs use the same value for the external metric D.Hot-potato routing is prone to misconfiguration as well as poor coordination between two networks Answer: A QUESTION 84 Two enterprise networks must be connected together. Both networks are using the same private IP addresses. The client requests from both sides should be translated using hide NAT (dynamic NAT) with the overload feature to save IF addresses from the NAT pools. Which design addresses this requirement using only one Cisco I OS NAT router for both directions? A.This is not possible, because two Cisco IOS NAT routers are required to do dynamic NAT, with overload in both directions. B.The ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands must be configured at the interfaces with the overload option in both directions. C.The overload feature is the default and does not have to be configured. D.Two different NAT pools must be used for the ip nat inside source and the ip nat outside source commands for the overload feature in both directions. E.The Nat Virtual interface must be used to achieve this requirement. Answer: D QUESTION 85 Refer to the exhibit. As part of a redesign project, you must predict multicast behavior. What happens to the multicast traffic received on the shared tree (*,G), if it is received on the LHR interface indicated*? A.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPF check against the multicast source B.It is switched give that no RPF check is performed C.It is switched due to a successful RPF check against the routing table D.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPk8t8ck against the multicast receiver. Answer: A QUESTION 86 A BGP route reflector in the network is taking longer than expected to coverage during large network changes. Troubleshooting shows that the router cannot handle all the TCP acknowledgements during route updates. Which action can be performed to tune the device performance? A.Increase the size of the hold queue. B.Increase the size of the large buffers. C.Decrease the size of the small buffers. D.Increase the keepalive timers for each BGP neighbor. Answer: A QUESTION 87 Which two application requirements are mandatory tor traffic to receive proper treatment when placed in the priority queue? (Choose two.) A.small transactions (HTTP-like behavior) B.WRED drop treatment C.tolerance to packet loss D.intolerance to jitter E.TCP-based application Answer: CD QUESTION 88 Which two conditions must be met for EIGRP to maintain an alternate loop-free path to a remote network? (Choose two.) A.The Reported Distance from a successor is lower than the local Feasible Distance. B.The Reported Distance from a successor is higher than the local Feasible Distance. C.The feasibility condition does not need to be met. D.The Feasible Distance from a successor is lower than the local Reported Distance. E.A feasible successor must be present. Answer: AE QUESTION 89 You are designing a new Ethernet-based metro-area network for an enterprise customer to connect 50 sites within the same city OSPF will be the routing protocol used. The customer is primarily concerned with IPv4 address conservation and convergence time. Which two combined actions do you recommend? (Choose two) A.Use a multipoint Metro-E service for router connections B.Use a single address per router for all P2P links C.Use P2P links between routers in a hub-and-spoke design D.Configure address aggregation at each site router E.Determine which OSPF routers will be DR/BDR Answer: AC QUESTION 90 Which two statements about MLD snooping are true? (Choose two) A.When MLD snooping is enabled, QoS is automatically enabled. B.A VLAN can support multiple active MLD snooping queries, as long as each one is associated to a different multicast group. C.AN MLD snooping querier election occurs when any MLD snooping querier goes down or if there is an IP address change on the active querier. D.When multiple MLD snooping queriers are enabled in a VLAN, the querier with the lowest IP address in the VLAN is elected as the active MLD snooping querier. Answer: CD QUESTION 91 Which two design option are available to dynamically discover the RP in an IPv6 multicast network? (Choose two) A.embedded RP B.MSDP C.BSR D.Auto-RP E.MLD Answer: AC QUESTION 92 Company A has a hub-and spoke topology over an SP-managed infrastructure. To measure traffic performance metrics. IP SLA senders on all spoke CE routers and an IP SLA responder on the hub CE router. What must they monitor to have visibility on the potential performance impact due to the constantly increasing number of spoke sites? A.memory usage on the hub router B.interface buffers on the hub and spoke routers C.CPU and memory usage on the spoke routers D.CPU usage on the hub router Answer: D QUESTION 93 Which two descriptions of CWDM are true? (Choose two) A.typically used over long distances, but requires optical amplification B.uses the 850nm band C.allows up to 32 optical earners to be multiplexed onto a single fiber D.shares the same transmission window as DWDM E.Passive CWDM devices require no electrical power Answer: DE QUESTION 94 SDWAN networks capitalize the usage of broadband Internet links over traditional MPLS links to offer more cost benefits to enterprise customers. However, due to the insecure nature of the public Internet, it is mandatory to use encryption of traffic between any two SDWAN edge devices installed behind NAT gateways. Which overlay method can provide optimal transport over unreliable underlay networks that are behind NAT gateways? A.TLS B.DTLS C.IPsec D.GRE Answer: C QUESTION 95 Company XYZ runs OSPF in their network. A design engineer decides to implement hot-potato routing architecture. How can this implementation be achieved? A.Enable iBGP and apply prepend to ensure all prefixes will have the same length of the AS path attribute value. B.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure the total metric calculation includes only the ext value and the value is the same in all ASBRs. C.Enable OSPF load-balancing over unequal cost path. D.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure that the total metric calculation includes external internal values. Answer: D QUESTION 96 What are two primary design constraints when a robust infrastructure solution is created? (Choose two.) A.monitoring capabilities B.project time frame C.staff experience D.component availability E.total cost Answer: BE QUESTION 97 SD-WAN can be used to provide secure connectivity to remote offices, branch offices, campus networks, data centers, and the cloud over any type of IP-based underlay transport network. Which two statements describe SD WAN solutions? (Choose two.) A.SD-WAN networks are inherently protected against slow performance. B.Control and data forwarding planes are kept separate. C.Improved operational efficiencies result In cost savings. D.Solutions include centralized orchestration, control, and zero-touch provisioning. E.Solutions allow for variations of commodity and specialized switching hardware. Answer: CD QUESTION 98 An architect designs a multi-controller network architecture with these requirements: - Achieve fast failover to control traffic when controllers fail. - Yield a short distance and high resiliency in the connection between the switches and the controller. - Reduce connectivity loss and enable smart recovery to improve the SDN survivability. - Improve connectivity by adding path diversity and capacity awareness for controllers. Which control plane component of the multi-controller must be built to meet the requirements? A.control node reliability B.controller stale consistency C.control path reliability D.controller clustering Answer: D QUESTION 99 Company XYZ is planning to deploy primary and secondary (disaster recovery) data center sites. Each of these sites will have redundant SAN fabrics and data protection is expected between the data center sites. The sites are 100 miles (160 km) apart and target RPO/RTO are 3 hrs and 24 hrs, respectively. Which two considerations must Company XYZ bear in mind when deploying replication in their scenario? (Choose two.) A.Target RPO/RTO requirements cannot be met due to the one-way delay introduced by the distance between sites. B.VSANs must be routed between sites to isolate fault domains and increase overall availability. C.Synchronous data replication must be used to meet the business requirements. D.Asynchronous data replication should be used in this scenario to avoid performance impact in the primary site. E.VSANs must be extended from the primary to the secondary site to improve performance and availability. Answer: CD Explanation: RPO and RTO tend to vary based on the application involved. These metrics tend to fluctuate between data that cannot be lost (i.e., low RPO but high RTO) such as financial and healthcare data as well as real-time systems that cannot be down (i.e., high RPO but low RTO) such as an E-commerce web server. QUESTION 100 Which undesired effect of increasing the jitter compensation buffer is true? A.The overall transport jitter decreases and quality improves. B.The overall transport jitter increases and quality issues can occur. C.The overall transport delay increases and quality issues can occur. D.The overall transport delay decreases and quality improves. Answer: C QUESTION 101 Which three tools are used for ongoing monitoring and maintenance of a voice and video environment? (Choose three.) A.flow-based analysis to measure bandwidth mix of applications and their flows B.call management analysis to identify network convergence-related failures C.call management analysis to identify CAC failures and call quality issues D.active monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter E.passive monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter F.flow-based analysis with PTP time-stamping to measure loss, latency, and jitter Answer: ACD QUESTION 102 Which two advantages of using DWDM over traditional optical networks are true? (Choose two.) A.inherent topology flexibility and service protection provided without penalty through intelligent oversubscription of bandwidth reservation B.ability to expand bandwidth over existing optical Infrastructure C.inherent topology flexibility with built-in service protection D.inherent topology flexibility with intelligent chromatic dispersion E.inherent topology flexibility with a service protection provided through a direct integration with an upper layer protocol Answer: AB QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. This network is running OSPF and EIGRP as the routing protocols. Mutual redistribution of the routing protocols has been configured on the appropriate ASBRs. The OSPF network must be designed so that flapping routes in EIGRP domains do not affect the SPF runs within OSPF. The design solution must not affect the way EIGRP routes are propagated into the EIGRP domains. Which technique accomplishes the requirement? A.route summarization the ASBR interfaces facing the OSPF domain B.route summarization on the appropriate ASBRS. C.route summarization on the appropriate ABRS. D.route summarization on EIDRP routers connecting toward the ASBR Answer: D QUESTION 104 Company XYZ is running OSPF in their network. They have merged with another company that is running EIGRP as the routing protocol. Company XYZ now needs the two domains to talk to each other with redundancy, while maintaining a loop free environment. The solution must scale when new networks are added into the network in the near future. Which technology can be used to meet these requirements? A.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs B.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags C.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags D.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs Answer: B QUESTION 105 Company XYZ is in the process of identifying which transport mechanism(s) to use as their WAN technology. Their main two requirements are. - a technology that could offer DPI, SLA, secure tunnels, privacy, QoS, scalability, reliability, and ease of management - a technology that is cost-effective Which WAN technology(ies) should be included in the design of company XYZ? A.Software-defined WAN should be the preferred choice because it complements both technologies, covers all the required features, and it is the most cost-effective solution. B.Internet should be the preferred option because it is cost effective and supports BFD, IP SLA. and IPsec for secure transport over the public Internet. C.Both technologies should be used. Each should be used to back up the other one; where the primary links are MPLS, the internet should be used as a backup link with IPsec (and vice versa). D.MPLS meets all these requirements and it is more reliable than using the Internet. It is widely used with defined best practices and an industry standard. Answer: A QUESTION 106 Which MPLS TE design consideration is true? A.MPLS TE replaces LDP and the dependency of the IGP to identify the best path. B.MPLS TE provides link and node protection C.MPLS TE optimizes the routing of IP traffic, given the constraints imposed by backbone capacity and application requirements. D.MPLS TE requires Layer 3 VPN full-mesh topology deployment Answer: C QUESTION 107 The network designer needs to use GLOP IP address in order make them unique within their ASN, which multicast address range will be considered? A.239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 B.224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 C.233.0.0.0 to 233.255.255.255 D.232.0.0.0 to 232.255.255.255 Answer: C QUESTION 108 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right. Answer: QUESTION 109 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the end-to-end network virtualization elements from the left onto the correct network areas on the right. Answer: QUESTION 110 Which two data plane hardening techniques are true? (Choose two) A.warning banners B.redundant AAA servers C.Control Plane Policing D.SNMPv3 E.infrastructure ACLs F.disable unused services G.routing protocol authentication Answer: CE QUESTION 111 You have been asked to design a high-density wireless network for a university campus. Which two principles would you apply in order to maximize the wireless network capacity? (Choose two.) A.Implement a four-channel design on 2.4 GHz to increase the number of available channels B.Choose a high minimum data rate to reduce the duty cycle. C.increases the number of SSlDs to load-balance the client traffic. D.Make use of the 5-GHz band to reduce the spectrum utilization on 2.4 GHz when dual-band clients are used. E.Enable 802.11n channel bonding on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz to increase the maximum aggregated cell throughput. Answer: BD QUESTION 112 Company XYZ is redesigning their QoS policy. Some of the applications used by the company are real- time applications. The QoS design must give these applications preference in terms of transmission. Which QoS strategy can be used to fulfill the requirement? A.weighted fair queuing B.weighted random early detection C.low-latency queuing D.first-in first-out Answer: C QUESTION 113 As part of workspace digitization, a large enterprise has migrated all their users to Desktop as a Sen/ice (DaaS), by hosting the backend system in their on-premises data center. Some of the branches have started to experience disconnections to the DaaS at periodic intervals, however, local users in the data center and head office do not experience this behavior. Which technology can be used to mitigate this issue? A.tail drop B.traffic shaping C.WRED D.traffic policing Answer: B QUESTION 114 A healthcare provider discovers that protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data. Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue? A.technical and physical access control B.administrative security management processes C.physical device and media control D.technical integrity and transmission security Answer: D QUESTION 115 Which two technologies enable multilayer segmentation? (Choose two.) A.policy-based routing B.segment routing C.data plane markings D.firewalls E.filter lists Answer: AD QUESTION 116 IPFIX data collection via standalone IPFIX probes is an alternative to flow collection from routers and switches. Which use case is suitable for using IPFIX probes? A.performance monitoring B.security C.observation of critical links D.capacity planning Answer: A QUESTION 117 Company XYZ wants to use the FCAPS ISO standard for network management design. The focus of the design should be to monitor and keep track of any performance issues by continuously collecting and analyzing statistical information to monitor, correct, and optimize any reduced responsiveness across the network. Which layer accomplishes this design requirement? A.fault management B.accounting management C.performance management D.security management Answer: C QUESTION 118 While designing a switched topology, in which two options is UplinkFast recommended? (Choose two ) A.when switches of different spanning-tree types are connected (for example. 802.1d connecting to 802.1w) B.on distribution layer switches C.when hello timers are changed to more aggressive values D.on access layer switches E.on the core switches Answer: AD QUESTION 119 You are using iSCSI to transfer files between a 10 Gigabit Ethernet storage system and a 1 Gigabit Ethernet server. The performance is only approximately 700 Mbps and output drops are occurring on the server switch port. Which action will improve performance in a cost-effective manner? A.Change the protocol to CIFS. B.Increase the queue to at least 1 GB C.Use a WRED random drop policy D.Enable the TCP Nagle algorithm on the receiver Answer: A QUESTION 120 Customer XYZ network consists of an MPLS core. IS-IS running as IGP a pair of BGP route reflectors for route propagation, and a few dozens of MPLS-TE tunnels for specific tactical traffic engineering requirements. The customer's engineering department has some questions about the use of the Overload Bit in the IS-IS networks and how it could be used to improve their current network design. Which two concepts about the Overload Bit are true? (Choose two.) A.It can be set on a router during the startup process for a fixed period of time B.Networks advertised within the LSPs of the respective node will become unreachable C.It forces the midpoint MPLS-TE node to reoptimize the primary tunnels going through the OL node. D.It can be set on a router until other interacting protocols have signaled convergence. E.It is not recommended on BGP Route Reflectors Answer: AD 2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF and 400-007 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1wV28HLjscHjQ8TOrCglIRRU5nn6jytDd?usp=sharing
Difference between Inverter & UPS? | Orrofast
What is UPS? An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) is a device that allows an Electronic Devices to keep running for at least a short period of time when incoming power is interrupted. As long as utility power is flowing, it also replaces and maintains the energy storage. (Uninterruptible Power Supply) A device that provides battery backup when the electrical power fails or drops to an unacceptable voltage level. Small UPS systems provide power for a few minutes; enough to power down electronic devices in an orderly manner, while larger systems have enough battery for several hours. What is Inverter? Inverter is power electronics that regulate the flow of electrical power. Fundamentally, an inverter undertakes the DC-to-AC conversion by switching the direction of a DC input back and forth very rapidly. As a result, a DC input becomes an AC output. In other words, Inverter is a circuit that inverts the direct current (DC) into alternating current (AC). An inverter uses electric supply from an AC source to charge a ORROFAST Inverter Battery. During the power fail ure, the inverter takes the DC supply from the ORROFAST Inverter Battery, converts it into AC supply and provides the power supply to the electrical appliances. Conclusion: The UPS is more efficient as compared to the inverter. The UPS provides the electric backup to the appliances without delay and fluctuation. And the inverter is a medium between the primary power supply and the ORROFAST Inverter Battery. How does an Inverter work? Fundamentally, an inverter undertakes the DC-to-AC conversion by switching the direction of a DC input back and forth very rapidly. As a result, a DC input becomes an AC output. In other words, Inverter is a circuit that inverts the direct current (DC) into alternating current (AC). An inverter uses electric supply from an AC source to charge a ORROFAST Inverter Battery. How does a UPS work? The main parts of a typical UPS system are rectifier, ORROFAST Tubular Battery, inverter and controller. The rectifier converts the AC supply in DC supply to charge the battery. The battery is connected to the inverter which converts the DC output of battery into AC and supply to the connected device or system. The controller is provided to control the operation of the entire system. FAQs What are the 3 types of UPS? UPS is of three types as − Offline UPS Online UPS Standby or interruptive UPS Why is UPS called an Inverter? These devices work for the same intention to converts DC into AC UPS and inverter are both used to provide backup power to the electrical appliances. What are the main problems of UPS? A UPS provides less backup time. UPS has relatively more complex circuit. It is more expensive than an inverter. Do UPS & INVERTER need maintenance? Due to more wiring and need of distilled water in ORROFAST Inverter Batteries, the inverters require relatively more & frequent maintenance. Whereas UPS are almost maintenance free, except the battery.