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The Institutional Face of Humanity: KIIT, Odisha

On November 22, 2020, KIIT Odisha concluded its 16thConvocation ceremony. In the past 17 years of its establishment, the University has created a unique space for itself. Kalinga Institute of Information Technology, Odisha, was founded in 1992-93 with a measly sum of Rs. 5,000 as its seed money. From such humble origins to its sprawling 25-acre campus accommodating 28 different schools, KIIT truly has come a long way through.

The University boasts of all-around excellence in every sphere. Its alumni have performed at the highest level to bring laurels and accolades to the University and the nation. Notable alumni such as Dutee Chand and Amiya Mallick have represented the nation and have made the country proud with their spirited performance at the international level.

The government recognized the institution's quality when it became the youngest institution to receive a 'Deemed to be University' status in 6 years! Later on, KIIT was also conferred 'Institute Of Eminence' status and has earned some of the top laurels for its qualitative performance over the years.

Institutional excellence apart, the identity of the institutional ethos is represented through an institution's students. It is the teaching and impartation of values that manifest in the student's behaviour and reactions. KIIT's commitment to society shines through its resolve and action. It is the only University in the world to integrate formal education and the social world. The offshoot of KIIT – Kalinga Institute of Social Sciences (KISS) is the only University in the country that provides food, accommodation, health, and education from Kindergarten to Post-Graduate for 30,000 underprivileged tribal children.

KIIT's unflinching support to create the first exclusive tribal University in the form of KISS is a major milestone in the education sector. It continues to bolster its societal contributions, be it the conversion of Kalarabanka into a model smart village or converting the Manpur Panchayat into a modern one. Even in these testing times amidst the Pandemic situation, students of KIIT reached out to distressed people and distributed food, ration, and essential supplies and assuring professional education for the children of the COVID-19 deceased free of cost. The University continues to support four hospitals that are designated to treat COVID patients. It also has delivered books and dry fruits to the 30,000 education beneficiaries in the hinterlands of Odisha.
The institution does the commendable work that truly serves as a reminder for society to be more humane in the face of adversity.
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2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-601 PDF Dumps(Q236-Q266)
QUESTION 236 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPCand non-vPC switches, however, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receives the same STP bridge ID from the upstream which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.peer-switch B.peer-gateway C.systam-mac 0123.4567.89ab D.vpc local role-priority 4000 Answer: A QUESTION 237 A network engineer must perform a backup and restore of the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch configuration. The backup must be made to an external backup server. The only protocol permitted between the Cisco Nexus switch and the backup server is UDP. The backup must be used when the current working configuration of the switch gets corrupted. Which set of steps must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Perform a startup-config backup to an FTP server 2. Copy startup-config in the boot flash to the running-config file B.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the SFTP server to the running-config file C.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SCP server 2. Copy running-config in the boot flash to the running-config file D.1. Perform a startup-config backup to a TFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the backup server to the running-config file Answer: D QUESTION 238 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer requires remote access via SSH to a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. The solution must support secure access using the local user database when the RADIUS servers are unreachable from the switches. Which command meets these requirements? A.aaa authentication none B.aaa authentication login default group radius C.aaa authentication login default fallback error local D.aaa authentication login default group local Answer: C QUESTION 240 A network engineer configures a converged network adapter (CNA) and must associate a virtual Fibre Channel 7 interface to VSAN 7. The CNA is connected to the interface Eth1/7, and VLAN 700 is mapped to the VSAN. Which configuration must be applied to create the virtual Fibre Channel interface and associate it with the Ethernet physical interface? A.switch(config)# vlan 700 switch(config-vlan)# fcoe vsan 7 B.switch(config)# vsan database switch(config-vsan)# vsan 7 interface vfc 7 C.switch(config)# interface ethernet 1/7 switch(config-if)# vfc 7 attach vlan 1,700 D.switch(config)# interface vfc 7 switch(config-if)# bind interface ethernet 1/7 Answer: D QUESTION 241 An engineer must use the Embedded Event Manager to monitor events that occur on a cisco Nexus 9000 series switch. An environment variable needs to be created so that several policies use the monitored events in in their actions. The external email server is represented by IP address 10.10.10.10. Which command sets the environment variable? A.N9k2(config)# event manager policy environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' B.N9k2# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' C.N9k2 (config-apple1)# environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' D.N9k2 (config)# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' Answer: D QUESTION 242 Which communication method does NFS use for requests between servers and clients? A.XDR B.SSC C.RPC D.SMB Answer: C QUESTION 243 A customer reports Fibre Channel login requests to a cisco MDS 9000 series Switch from an unauthorized source. The customer requires a feature that will allow all devices already logged in and learned in and learned to be added to the Fibre channel active database. Which two features must be enabled to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.) 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A.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 B.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 100 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 200 C.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 D.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# role priority 1 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain )# role priority 2 Answer: A QUESTION 247 A network engineer must enable port security on all Cisco MDS Series Switches in the fabric. The requirement is to avoid the extensive manual configuration of the switch ports. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Activate CFS distribution and the auto-learning port security feature. B.Activate CFS distribution and file auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. C.Enable the auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. D.Enable the auto-learning port security feature. Answer: B QUESTION 248 A network engineer is deploying a Cisco All-Flash HyperFlex solution. Which local storage configuration is required for the operating system and persistent logging? A.Two solid state drives B.Two SATA drives C.One SATA drive D.One solid state drive Answer: A QUESTION 249 An engineer configures the properties of a Cisco UCS Cisco Integrated Management Controller network adapter for a standalone Cisco C-Series Server. The Failback Timeout in the vNIC was set to 600. When the failure occurs, the secondary interfaces must be used and then failback when the primary interface becomes available again. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Set default VLAN on the adapters. B.Increase Cos to 6. C.Disable VNTAG mode. D.Enable Uplink failover. Answer: D QUESTION 250 A network engineer must prevent data comuption due to cross fabric communication in an FCoE environment. Which configuration must be applied to the Cisco Nexus Unified Switches to achieve this objective? A.Switch(config)#fcoe fcmap 0x0efc2a B.Switch(config-if)# no fcoe fcf-priority 0 C.Switch(config-if) # shutdown lan D.Switch(config) # no fcoe fcf-priority Answer: A QUESTION 251 Which component is disrupted when the Cisco Integrated Management Controller is upgraded on a Cisco UCS Series Server? A.Cisco UCS Manager B.SAN traffic C.KVM sessions D.Data traffic Answer: C QUESTION 252 A company is investigating different options for IT automation tools. The IT team has experience with Python programming language and scripting using a declarative language. The proposed tool should be easy to set up and should not require installing an agent on target devices. The team will also need to build custom modules based on the Python programming language to extend the tool's functionality. Which automation tool should be used to meet these requirements? 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Restart the device. 3. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration 4. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running configuration C.1. Clear the current configuration of the switch 2. Restart the device. 3. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running-configuration 4. Copy the running-configuration to the startup configuration. D.1. Restarting device. 2. Copy the running-configuration file to a remote server. 3. Clear the current configuration of the switch. 4. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration Answer: C QUESTION 255 An engineer must configure OSPF in the data center. The external routes have already been redistributed OSPF. The network must meet these criteria: - The data centre servers must reach services in the cloud and the services behind the redistributed routes. - The exit point toward the internet should be propagated only when there is a dynamically learned default route from the upstream router. Which feature is required? A.Default-information originate B.Stubby area C.Totally stubby area D.Default-information originate always Answer: A QUESTION 256 What is a characteristic of the install all command on the cisco Nexus series switch? A.Upgrades only certain modules B.Automatically checks the image integrity C.Impact data plan traffic D.Continues the upgrade process if any step in the sequence fails Answer: B QUESTION 257 An engineer is using REST API calls to configure the cisco APIC. Which data structure must be used within a post message to receive a login token? A.{"aaaUser":{"attributes":{"name":"apiuser","pwd":"cisco123"}}} B.<aaaUser><name="apiuser"/><pwd="cisco123"/></aaaUser> C.{aaaUser:{attributes:{name:apiuser,pwd:cisco123}}} D.<aaaUser><name>apiuser</name><pwd>cisco123</pwd></aaaUser> Answer: A QUESTION 258 The EPLD update of the supervisor module has been scheduled for several Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. What will be the impact of the update? A.All control plane traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch remain operational for the duration of the upgrade. B.The redundant supervisor lakes over while the EPLD update is in progress and there is no service disruption. C.All traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. D.The redundant supervisor lakes while the EPLD update is in progress and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. Answer: C QUESTION 259 An engineer configures an intersignt virtual application and must claim over 200 targets. The engineer starts the Claim target procedure. The engineer has prepared this initial comma- separated value file to provision the targets: UCSFI,10.1.1.3,user-1,pwd5516b917 IMC,10.1.1.5/26,user-2,pwdc65b1c43f HX,10.1.2.1/30,user-3,pwd39913690 UCSD,1.1.1.1.user-4,pwd5003e9d5 Which Information must be included In the comma-separated value flit to provision the targets? A.FQON, AD name, IP address, email B.location, address, name. password C.certificate, user name, password. email D.target type, hostname or P address, user name, password Answer: D QUESTION 260 What is an advantage of NFSv4 over Fibre Channel protocol? A.Improved security B.Lossless throughout C.Congestion management D.Uses IP transport Answer: A QUESTION 261 Which two configuration settings are available in the in the cisco UCS flmware Auto sync server policy? A.User Notification B.User Acknowledge C.No Action D.Delayed Action E.Immediate Action Answer: BC QUESTION 262 An administrator is implementing DCNM so that events are triggered when monitored traffic exceeds the configured percent utilization threshold. The requirement is to configure a maximum limit of 39913690 bytes that applies directly to the statistics collected as a ratio of the total link capacity. Which DCNM performance monitoring configuration parameter must be implemented to achieve this result? A.Absolution Values B.Baseline C.Utill% D.Per port Monitoring Answer: A QUESTION 263 A network architect must redesign a data center network based on OSPFv2. The network must perform fast reconvergence between directly connected switches. Which two actions must be taken to meet the requirements? (Choose two.) A.Configure all links on AREA 0. B.Implement a virtual link between the switches. C.Use OSPF point-to-point links only. D.Set low OSPF hello and DEAD timers. E.Enable BFD for failure detection. Answer: CE QUESTION 264 Refer to the exhibit. A host with source address 10.10.10.10 sends traffic to multicast group 239.1.1.1. How do the vPC switches forward the multicast traffic? A.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 Switch2, the traffic is forwarded out only one Po20. B.If multicast traffic is received on Po10 Switch1, the traffic is forwarded out on Po1 and Po20. C.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 and Switch2, the traffic is dropped. D.If multicast traffic is received on Switch over the vPC peer-link, the traffic is dropped. Answer: C QUESTION 265 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPC and non-vPC switches. However, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers. Which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.System-mac 0123.4567.89ab B.Peer-switch C.VPC local role-priority 4000 D.Peer-gateway Answer: B QUESTION 266 A company is running a pair of cisco Nexus 7706 series switches as part of a data center segment. All network engineers have restricted read-Write access to the core switches. A network engineer must a new FCoE VLAN to allow traffic from services toward FCoE storage. Which set of actions must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Create a user-defined role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a role to a user. B.1. Add the required privilege to the VDC-admin role. 2. Commit the changes to the active user database. C.1. Modify a network-operator role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a VDC-operator role to a user. D.1. Assign the network-admin role to a user. 2. Commit the role to the switch to the active user database Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-601 PDF and 350-601 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1M-Px6bHjOJgp4aPsLoYq-hgm90ZKxV_i?usp=sharing
2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF Dumps(Q46-Q76)
QUESTION 46 A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.) A.incident response playbooks B.asset vulnerability assessment C.report of staff members with asset relations D.key assets and executives E.malware analysis report Answer: BE QUESTION 47 Refer to the exhibit. At which stage of the threat kill chain is an attacker, based on these URIs of inbound web requests from known malicious Internet scanners? A.exploitation B.actions on objectives C.delivery D.reconnaissance Answer: C QUESTION 48 What should a security analyst consider when comparing inline traffic interrogation with traffic tapping to determine which approach to use in the network? A.Tapping interrogation replicates signals to a separate port for analyzing traffic B.Tapping interrogations detect and block malicious traffic C.Inline interrogation enables viewing a copy of traffic to ensure traffic is in compliance with security policies D.Inline interrogation detects malicious traffic but does not block the traffic Answer: A QUESTION 49 Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.) A.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3 B.Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network C.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections D.Move the webserver to the internal network E.Move the webserver to the external network Answer: AB QUESTION 50 According to GDPR, what should be done with data to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability? A.Perform a vulnerability assessment B.Conduct a data protection impact assessment C.Conduct penetration testing D.Perform awareness testing Answer: B QUESTION 51 A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow? A.Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker's motives, and identify missing patches B.Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody C.Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited D.Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation plan Answer: B QUESTION 52 A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching? A.Identify the business applications running on the assets B.Update software to patch third-party software C.Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit D.Fix applications according to the risk scores Answer: D QUESTION 53 An engineer is analyzing a possible compromise that happened a week ago when the company database servers unexpectedly went down. The analysis reveals that attackers tampered with Microsoft SQL Server Resolution Protocol and launched a DDoS attack. The engineer must act quickly to ensure that all systems are protected. Which two tools should be used to detect and mitigate this type of future attack? (Choose two.) A.firewall B.Wireshark C.autopsy D.SHA512 E.IPS Answer: AE QUESTION 54 A European-based advertisement company collects tracking information from partner websites and stores it on a local server to provide tailored ads. Which standard must the company follow to safeguard the resting data? A.HIPAA B.PCI-DSS C.Sarbanes-Oxley D.GDPR Answer: D QUESTION 55 An organization had a breach due to a phishing attack. An engineer leads a team through the recovery phase of the incident response process. Which action should be taken during this phase? A.Host a discovery meeting and define configuration and policy updates B.Update the IDS/IPS signatures and reimage the affected hosts C.Identify the systems that have been affected and tools used to detect the attack D.Identify the traffic with data capture using Wireshark and review email filters Answer: B QUESTION 56 An engineer is going through vulnerability triage with company management because of a recent malware outbreak from which 21 affected assets need to be patched or remediated. Management decides not to prioritize fixing the assets and accepts the vulnerabilities. What is the next step the engineer should take? A.Investigate the vulnerability to prevent further spread B.Acknowledge the vulnerabilities and document the risk C.Apply vendor patches or available hot fixes D.Isolate the assets affected in a separate network Answer: B QUESTION 57 A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs. Which technology should be used to accomplish this task? A.application whitelisting/blacklisting B.network NGFW C.host-based IDS D.antivirus/antispyware software Answer: A QUESTION 58 Which command does an engineer use to set read/write/execute access on a folder for everyone who reaches the resource? A.chmod 666 B.chmod 774 C.chmod 775 D.chmod 777 Answer: D QUESTION 59 A SIEM tool fires an alert about a VPN connection attempt from an unusual location. The incident response team validates that an attacker has installed a remote access tool on a user's laptop while traveling. The attacker has the user's credentials and is attempting to connect to the network. What is the next step in handling the incident? A.Block the source IP from the firewall B.Perform an antivirus scan on the laptop C.Identify systems or services at risk D.Identify lateral movement Answer: C QUESTION 60 A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company's infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage? A.Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches B.Analyze event logs and restrict network access C.Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity D.Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list Answer: A QUESTION 61 A patient views information that is not theirs when they sign in to the hospital's online portal. The patient calls the support center at the hospital but continues to be put on hold because other patients are experiencing the same issue. An incident has been declared, and an engineer is now on the incident bridge as the CyberOps Tier 3 Analyst. There is a concern about the disclosure of PII occurring in real- time. What is the first step the analyst should take to address this incident? A.Evaluate visibility tools to determine if external access resulted in tampering B.Contact the third-party handling provider to respond to the incident as critical C.Turn off all access to the patient portal to secure patient records D.Review system and application logs to identify errors in the portal code Answer: C QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script? A.Seeds for existing domains are checked B.A search is conducted for additional seeds C.Domains are compared to seed rules D.A list of domains as seeds is blocked Answer: B QUESTION 63 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is reverse engineering a suspicious file by examining its resources. What does this file indicate? A.a DOS MZ executable format B.a MS-DOS executable archive C.an archived malware D.a Windows executable file Answer: D QUESTION 64 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing a static analysis on a malware and knows that it is capturing keys and webcam events on a company server. What is the indicator of compromise? A.The malware is performing comprehensive fingerprinting of the host, including a processor, motherboard manufacturer, and connected removable storage. B.The malware is a ransomware querying for installed anti-virus products and operating systems to encrypt and render unreadable until payment is made for file decryption. C.The malware has moved to harvesting cookies and stored account information from major browsers and configuring a reverse proxy for intercepting network activity. D.The malware contains an encryption and decryption routine to hide URLs/IP addresses and is storing the output of loggers and webcam captures in locally encrypted files for retrieval. Answer: D QUESTION 65 An audit is assessing a small business that is selling automotive parts and diagnostic services. Due to increased customer demands, the company recently started to accept credit card payments and acquired a POS terminal. Which compliance regulations must the audit apply to the company? A.HIPAA B.FISMA C.COBIT D.PCI DSS Answer: D QUESTION 66 A customer is using a central device to manage network devices over SNMPv2. A remote attacker caused a denial of service condition and can trigger this vulnerability by issuing a GET request for the ciscoFlashMIB OID on an affected device. Which should be disabled to resolve the issue? A.SNMPv2 B.TCP small services C.port UDP 161 and 162 D.UDP small services Answer: A QUESTION 67 Refer to the exhibit. Which indicator of compromise is represented by this STIX? A.website redirecting traffic to ransomware server B.website hosting malware to download files C.web server vulnerability exploited by malware D.cross-site scripting vulnerability to backdoor server Answer: B QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring in this packet capture? A.TCP port scan B.TCP flood C.DNS flood D.DNS tunneling Answer: B QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling? A.The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices B.Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution C.Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority D.Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution Answer: B QUESTION 70 The incident response team receives information about the abnormal behavior of a host. A malicious file is found being executed from an external USB flash drive. The team collects and documents all the necessary evidence from the computing resource. What is the next step? A.Conduct a risk assessment of systems and applications B.Isolate the infected host from the rest of the subnet C.Install malware prevention software on the host D.Analyze network traffic on the host's subnet Answer: B QUESTION 71 An organization had several cyberattacks over the last 6 months and has tasked an engineer with looking for patterns or trends that will help the organization anticipate future attacks and mitigate them. Which data analytic technique should the engineer use to accomplish this task? A.diagnostic B.qualitative C.predictive D.statistical Answer: C QUESTION 72 A malware outbreak is detected by the SIEM and is confirmed as a true positive. The incident response team follows the playbook to mitigate the threat. What is the first action for the incident response team? A.Assess the network for unexpected behavior B.Isolate critical hosts from the network C.Patch detected vulnerabilities from critical hosts D.Perform analysis based on the established risk factors Answer: B QUESTION 73 Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report? A.Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified B.Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified C.Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified D.Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected Answer: D QUESTION 74 An organization is using a PKI management server and a SOAR platform to manage the certificate lifecycle. The SOAR platform queries a certificate management tool to check all endpoints for SSL certificates that have either expired or are nearing expiration. Engineers are struggling to manage problematic certificates outside of PKI management since deploying certificates and tracking them requires searching server owners manually. Which action will improve workflow automation? A.Implement a new workflow within SOAR to create tickets in the incident response system, assign problematic certificate update requests to server owners, and register change requests. B.Integrate a PKI solution within SOAR to create certificates within the SOAR engines to track, update, and monitor problematic certificates. C.Implement a new workflow for SOAR to fetch a report of assets that are outside of the PKI zone, sort assets by certification management leads and automate alerts that updates are needed. D.Integrate a SOAR solution with Active Directory to pull server owner details from the AD and send an automated email for problematic certificates requesting updates. Answer: D QUESTION 75 Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is being used? A.JSON B.HTML C.XML D.CSV Answer: C QUESTION 76 The incident response team was notified of detected malware. The team identified the infected hosts, removed the malware, restored the functionality and data of infected systems, and planned a company meeting to improve the incident handling capability. Which step was missed according to the NIST incident handling guide? A.Contain the malware B.Install IPS software C.Determine the escalation path D.Perform vulnerability assessment Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF and 350-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1AxXpeiNddgUeSboJXzaOVsnt5wFFoDnO?usp=sharing
Giới thiệu
Mục tiêu khóa học Cung cấp kiến thức về cách đọc nốt nhạc, kỹ thuật chơi đàn, lịch sử âm nhạc… giúp học viên hình thành hiểu biết cơ bản và vững chắc. Bước đầu xây dựng, gợi mở khả năng cảm thụ và biểu cảm thông qua âm nhạc. Rèn luyện bản lĩnh sân khấu, xử lý tình huống thông qua các hoạt động biểu diễn. Hướng dẫn chơi các tác phẩm kinh điển, các bản nhạc phổ biến và thịnh hành nhằm nâng cao tính ứng dụng. Xây dựng môi trường học tập năng động, sáng tạo, tạo hứng thú trong quá trình học. Định hướng nghề nghiệp cho những học viên có năng khiếu âm nhạc. Năng lực đầu ra Nắm vững kiến thức lý thuyết âm nhạc cơ bản. Luyện tư thế ngồi chơi đàn chuẩn và đẹp. Hình thành phong cách biểu diễn qua các kỹ thuật: Legato, Non Legato, Staccato… Chạy các gam Trưởng và Thứ cơ bản. Thị tấu và chơi các bản nhạc linh hoạt, đúng sắc thái. Biểu diễn thành thục tác phẩm thuộc thể loại độc tấu cơ bản. Quay và dựng video clip các sản phẩm âm nhạc của bản thân. Chương trình học Khóa học Piano cơ bản xây dựng lộ trình học qua 4 giai đoạn, tương ứng với 4 cấp độ dành cho mọi đối tượng học viên ở mọi lứa tuổi. Mỗi cấp độ sẽ cung cấp khối lượng kiến thức và kỹ năng cụ thể, được phân bổ phù hợp với trình độ của học viên. Giáo trình hiện đại, cập nhật những kiến thức mới nhất, kèm theo đó là các tác phẩm ứng dụng được giảng viên linh động triển khai theo từng thời điểm, phù hợp với nhu cầu và năng lực của học viên. Xem thêm: https://www.huongnghiepaau.com/hoc-vien-am-nhac/khoa-nhac-cu/piano