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www.it-pruefungen.ch bietet Ihnen die reale Umgebung während der Vorbereitung, wie Sie sie in echten Zertifizierungsprüfung AZ-500-Fragen und antworten gefunden haben. Wenn Sie Anfänger sind und möchten Um Ihr Bildungswissen oder Ihre beruflichen Fähigkeiten zu verbessern, bietet Ihnen der AZ-500-Studienführer unter www.it-pruefungen.ch it-pruefungen.ch schrittweise Schulungen für Ihre Wunschziele an.

Microsoft AZ-500 Prüfungsfragen Prüfungsunterlagen

Info zu dieser Prüfungsvorbereitung AZ-500
Prüfungsnummer:AZ-500
Prüfungsname:Microsoft Azure Security Technologies
Version:V19.99
Anzahl:181 Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen
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How to Create Virtual Machines in VMware Workstation
Follow these steps to create a virtual machine using a VMware workstation: Start VMware Workstation. Click on a new virtual machine. Select the type of virtual machine you want to make and click Next: Note: Your choice depends in part on the hardware version you want your virtual machine to have. Custom: This gives you an option to create a virtual machine and choose its hardware compatibility. You can select from Workstation 16.x, Workstation 15.x, Workstation 14.x. Typical: This creates a virtual machine with the same hardware version as the Workstation version you are using. If you are using Workstation 16.x, it makes a virtual machine with hardware version 16. If you are using Workstation 15.x, a virtual machine with hardware version 15 is created. Click Next. Select your guest operating system (OS), then click Next. You can install the OS using: An installer disc (CD/DVD) An installer disc image file (ISO) Click Next. Enter your Product Key. Create a user name and password. Click Next. Enter a virtual machine name and specify a location for virtual machine files to be saved; click Next. Establish the virtual machine's disk size, select whether to store the virtual disk as a single file or split the virtual disk into 2GB files, click Next. Verify the other configuration settings for your virtual machine: Memory – change the amount of memory allocated to the virtual machine. Processors – change the number of processors, number of cores per processor, and the virtualization engine. CD / DVD – with advanced settings where you can choose between SCSI, IDE. Network adapter – configure it to the bridge, NAT, or Host-only mode, or customize where you can choose between 0 to 9 adapters. USB Controller. Sound card. Display – enable 3D graphics. After finishing the procedure, you may need to create an ESXi nested instance on a physical ESXi 6.5 host; the VM creation wizard takes this and configures the VM for optimal performance by automatically selecting the VMXNET3 network drive, SCSI paravirtual controller, and EFI firmware. Nested ESXi is easier than ever before!
Pharmacovigilance Methods
The most capable framework to address a specific condition is simply poor upon the drug being suggested. It moreover depends on the sign, an especially generally speaking public being regulated, and the issue that is being considered. Such a technique likewise depends on the real world if the information is feeling the absence of, such a threat being considered, anticipated risks, and if the sign disclosure, evaluation, or security presentation is the standard target of the appraisal—the choice of the methodology in looking out for flourishing concerns the most fitting game-plan should be used—the fundamental ways of thinking in pharmacovigilance help the specialists in pondering the arrangement of the whole cycle. The accomplices and regulatory experts go through superb and enthusiastic pharmacovigilance training while simultaneously seeking after pharmacovigilance courses to facilitate and develop these arrangements with the best balance of threats and benefits. These medicine basics require clinical fundamentals, henceforth making it obligatory for the help to go through extra clinical assessment getting ready subject to clinical research courses. The all out of the flourishing profile of the meds relies on its security profile tended to by the congeniality of the risks and benefits. These need to cling to the mentioning strategy, which is solely prepared and guided by the pharmacovigilance plan. This strategy ought to be reestablished constantly to ensure that the approach won't get crashed. This outline holds power in the adequacy of a medicine.
(April-2021)Braindump2go PT0-001 PDF and PT0-001 VCE Dumps(Q29-Q49)
QUESTION 230 At the information gathering stage, a penetration tester is trying to passively identify the technology running on a client's website. Which of the following approached should the penetration tester take? A.Run a spider scan in Burp Suite. B.Use web aggregators such as BuiltWith and Netcraft C.Run a web scraper and pull the website's content. D.Use Nmap to fingerprint the website's technology. Answer: A QUESTION 231 Which of the following BEST protects against a rainbow table attack? A.Increased password complexity B.Symmetric encryption C.Cryptographic salting D.Hardened OS configurations Answer: A QUESTION 232 A penetration tester is assessing the security of a web form for a client and enters ";id" in one of the fields. The penetration tester observes the following response: Based on the response, which of the following vulnerabilities exists? A.SQL injection B.Session hijacking C.Command injection D.XSS/XSRF Answer: C QUESTION 233 A penetration tester is connected to a client's local network and wants to passively identify cleartext protocols and potentially sensitive data being communicated across the network. Which of the following is the BEST approach to take? A.Run a network vulnerability scan. B.Run a stress test. C.Run an MITM attack. D.Run a port scan. Answer: C QUESTION 234 A penetration tester directly connects to an internal network. Which of the following exploits would work BEST for quick lateral movement within an internal network? A.Crack password hashes in /etc/shadow for network authentication. B.Launch dictionary attacks on RDP. C.Conduct a whaling campaign. D.Poison LLMNR and NBNS requests. Answer: A QUESTION 235 A penetration tester runs the following on a machine: Which of the following will be returned? A.1 B.3 C.5 D.6 Answer: B QUESTION 236 A penetration tester discovers an anonymous FTP server that is sharing the C:\drive. Which of the following is the BEST exploit? A.Place a batch script in the startup folder for all users. B.Change a service binary location path to point to the tester's own payload. C.Escalate the tester's privileges to SYSTEM using the at.exe command. D.Download, modify, and reupload a compromised registry to obtain code execution. Answer: B QUESTION 237 Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive type of penetration test on a network? A.Black box B.White box C.Gray box D.Red team E.Architecture review Answer: A QUESTION 238 An attacker performed a MITM attack against a mobile application. The attacker is attempting to manipulate the application's network traffic via a proxy tool. The attacker only sees limited traffic as cleartext. The application log files indicate secure SSL/TLS connections are failing. Which of the following is MOST likely preventing proxying of all traffic? A.Misconfigured routes B.Certificate pinning C.Strong cipher suites D.Closed ports Answer: B QUESTION 239 A company decides to remediate issues identified from a third-party penetration test done to its infrastructure. Management should instruct the IT team to: A.execute the hot fixes immediately to all vulnerabilities found. B.execute the hot fixes immediately to some vulnerabilities. C.execute the hot fixes during the routine quarterly patching. D.evaluate the vulnerabilities found and execute the hot fixes. Answer: D QUESTION 240 A penetration tester successfully exploits a system, receiving a reverse shell. Which of the following is a Meterpreter command that is used to harvest locally stored credentials? A.background B.hashdump C.session D.getuid E.psexec Answer: B QUESTION 241 A penetration tester is testing a web application and is logged in as a lower-privileged user. The tester runs arbitrary JavaScript within an application, which sends an XMLHttpRequest, resulting in exploiting features to which only an administrator should have access. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the vulnerability? A.Implement authorization checks. B.Sanitize all the user input. C.Prevent directory traversal. D.Add client-side security controls Answer: A QUESTION 242 During the exploitation phase of a penetration test, a vulnerability is discovered that allows command execution on a Linux web server. A cursory review confirms the system access is only in a low-privilege user context: www-data. After reviewing, the following output from /etc/sudoers: Which of the following users should be targeted for privilege escalation? A.Only members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, ADMINS, jedwards, and operator can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. B.All users on the machine can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. C.Bfranks, emann, members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. D.Jedwards, operator, bfranks, emann, OPERATOR, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. Answer: A QUESTION 243 During an engagement, a consultant identifies a number of areas that need further investigation and require an extension of the engagement. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the engagement may not be able to continue? A.The consultant did not sign an NDA. B.The consultant was not provided with the appropriate testing tools. C.The company did not properly scope the project. D.The initial findings were not communicated to senior leadership. Answer: C QUESTION 244 A penetration tester has been hired to perform a penetration test for an organization. Which of the following is indicative of an error-based SQL injection attack? A.a=1 or 1–– B.1=1 or b–– C.1=1 or 2–– D.1=1 or a–– Answer: A QUESTION 245 When negotiating a penetration testing contract with a prospective client, which of the following disclaimers should be included in order to mitigate liability in case of a future breach of the client's systems? A.The proposed mitigations and remediations in the final report do not include a cost-benefit analysis. B.The NDA protects the consulting firm from future liabilities in the event of a breach. C.The assessment reviewed the cyber key terrain and most critical assets of the client's network. D.The penetration test is based on the state of the system and its configuration at the time of assessment. Answer: D QUESTION 246 A tester was able to retrieve domain users' hashes. Which of the following tools can be used to uncover the users' passwords? (Choose two.) A.Hydra B.Mimikatz C.Hashcat D.John the Ripper E.PSExec F.Nessus Answer: BE QUESTION 247 A penetration tester is attempting to open a socket in a bash script but receives errors when running it. The current state of the relevant line in the script is as follows: Which of the following lines of code would correct the issue upon substitution? A.open 0<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}:${PORT} B.exec 0</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} C.exec 0</dev/tcp/$[HOST]:$[PORT] D.exec 3<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} E.open 3</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} F.open 3</dev/tcp/$[HOST]/$[PORT] Answer: C QUESTION 248 A vulnerability scan report shows what appears to be evidence of a memory disclosure vulnerability on one of the target hosts. The administrator claims the system is patched and the evidence is a false positive. Which of the following is the BEST method for a tester to confirm the vulnerability exists? A.Manually run publicly available exploit code. B.Confirm via evidence of the updated version number. C.Run the vulnerability scanner again. D.Perform dynamic analysis on the vulnerable service. Answer: C QUESTION 249 A penetration tester has gained physical access to a facility and connected directly into the internal network. The penetration tester now wants to pivot into the server VLAN. Which of the following would accomplish this? A.Spoofing a printer's MAC address B.Abusing DTP negotiation C.Performing LLMNR poisoning D.Conducting an STP attack Answer: D QUESTION 250 During an engagement an unsecure direct object reference vulnerability was discovered that allows the extraction of highly sensitive PII. The tester is required to extract and then exfil the information from a web application with identifiers 1 through 1000 inclusive. When running the following script, an error is encountered: Which of the following lines of code is causing the problem? A.url = "https://www.comptia.org?id=" B.req = requests.get(url) C.if req.status ==200: D.url += i Answer: D QUESTION 251 A security team is switching firewall vendors. The director of security wants to scope a penetration test to satisfy requirements to perform the test after major architectural changes. Which of the following is the BEST way to approach the project? A.Design a penetration test approach, focusing on publicly released firewall DoS vulnerabilities. B.Review the firewall configuration, followed by a targeted attack by a read team. C.Perform a discovery scan to identify changes in the network. D.Focus on an objective-based approach to assess network assets with a red team. Answer: D QUESTION 252 A penetration tester has identified a directory traversal vulnerability. Which of the following payloads could have helped the penetration tester identify this vulnerability? A.‘or ‘folder’ like ‘file’; –– B.|| is /tmp/ C.“><script>document.location=/root/</script> D.&& dir C:/ E.../../../../../../../. Answer: E QUESTION 253 An individual has been hired by an organization after passing a background check. The individual has been passing information to a competitor over a period of time. Which of the following classifications BEST describes the individual? A.APT B.Insider threat C.Script kiddie D.Hacktivist Answer: B QUESTION 254 A senior employee received a suspicious email from another executive requesting an urgent wire transfer. Which of the following types of attacks is likely occurring? A.Spear phishing B.Business email compromise C.Vishing D.Whaling Answer: A 2021 Latest Braindump2go PT0-001 PDF and PT0-001 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1upxI-JhgoyePRzSCJXgkSKrKo53vlXSw?usp=sharing
Last-Minute Gifting Ideas
Brainstorming for some special gifts for your loved ones can be difficult at times especially if it's very last minute! There come many occasions where we are bound to gift our loved ones or our partners but we run out of ideas or there is so little time left. This article might turn out to be useful for you and give some inspiration to pick out some last-minute gifts for your loved ones. 1) Perfume I know it is a very common gift but it is a no-brainer and actually a very useful gift. You’ve got to make sure that it is a fragrance which is suitable for all occasions and mostly everywhere they go. The fragrance should at least last 8 to 10 hours. You can select from the wide range of perfume choices from this amazing alternative to eBay. 2) Personalized Cuff Links Giving something personalized adds a little personal touch to it which makes the gift all the more meaningful. There are various websites that design personalized cuff links with initials on them. I understand that getting something personalized is not possible last minute but you can always look for other designs across the web too. 3) Electronic Gadgets Gifting gadgets is a really cool option as well. If you specifically know what the other person wants then you can go for that as well. If they are into PlayStation or video games, you can gift them a PS5 if you have your budget. It would be a really cool gifting option. 4) Airpods or Headphones If your loved ones are really into music or love to have some music while working out or doing some chores, this would be the best gift for them. You would find various color options and models, make sure you choose the best one! 5) Kindle If your loved ones are into reading books a lot, this would be the perfect option for them. Most of the time, book lovers get short of space to store their books. In such cases, Kindle comes much handy. It takes minimal space and stores a maximum number of books. 6) Coffee Machine There are so many people who are immense coffee lovers. But it gets difficult to spend money each time they need to drink coffee or spend so much time beating it to get it ready. In such cases, gift them a coffee machine and they would be the happiest people on this planet. 7) Chocolates and Flowers Now I know it is a very easy-peasy option but for the last minute, it can do wonders and you can never go wrong with it. Because ultimately it is the thought process and feelings behind it that counts, isn’t it? So pick out their favorite chocolates and a super elegant flower arrangement and you’re good to go. 8) Watch I personally really like watches. If your loved one is a watch person or if they don’t have any watches yet, you can help them build a watch collection. So, this is a great idea too. You can find a wide variety of watches online as well as from your nearby shops. These were some last-minute options that would never go wrong. I really hope I came out as a help to you in finding a perfect gift for your loved ones last minute. So, get some amazing gifts for them!
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Know Which Is The Best Framework For Mobile App Development
React and Angular are two of the most common and versatile front-end development frameworks in the market, with both entering the Top 15 JS Frameworks for 2020 and this blog focuses on explaining to you in detail about them. In the coming minutes, you’ll learn what distinguishes Angular and React? Where the best React Native App Development business wins brownie points? and where brands can concentrate their energies on Angular app development.  We’ve focused this article on the comparison of Angular and React partly because they come from the same lineage as two strong rivals – Android and iOS and partly because they’re in some ways similar too.  For clearing the confusion about which is the best framework for Mobile App Development, we will cover Angular vs ReactJS equally and brief out on their functionalities, This will assist you in choosing the right framework as per your need.  Let’s discuss the fundamentals of React and Angular :- Angular:  Angular is an open-source JavaScript framework that is written in TypeScript. It was developed by Google and works with a variety of code editors. The use of Angular in front-end development is needed for the construction of interactive web apps and websites. It’s a full-featured JS platform for developing interactive single-page web applications. React: React Native is an open-source JavaScript library that was developed by Facebook. It is designed using JSX (a PHP extension) and JavaScript. The React Library breaks down a website into individual elements, making interface creation easier. The React JS system makes use of server-side rendering to provide a flexible and reliable solution. React vs. Angular: The Complete Comparison Let’s move on the next segment, where we’ll compare some elements in greater depth. 1- Learning Curve :- Angular has a very large database, learning all of the terms involved with it can take much more time than learning React Native. Since certain complex functions are built into the framework’s core, the developer would have to understand to use them. Furthermore, there are several methods to resolving a single issue. If you’re working with JavaScript, the React code would be relatively simple to understand. However, it takes quite some time to learn how to set up a project because there is no predefined project structure. You’ll also need to learn the Redux library, which is used to handle state in more than half of React applications.  2- Performance :- Bidirectional data-binding has a negative impact on the stability of Angular applications. The most recent version of Angular has greatly improved its performance, and it no longer follows React to the situation. Furthermore, an Angular application is significantly smaller than a React application. With the implementation of the interactive DOM, React’s performance has greatly improved. The load on the browser is reduced since all virtual DOM trees are lightweight and installed on a server. 3- Language :- Angular supports JavaScript and TypeScript, which is a superset of JS designed for bigger projects. TypeScript is smaller than JavaScript, the text is simpler to understand, and types are more obvious. The method of refactoring code also gets easier and quicker. React is built with JavaScript ES6+ and JSX script. JSX is a syntax extension that transforms JavaScript code into HTML-like syntax. This makes the code easier to understand, and typos are more easily identified. 4- App Structure :- Angular’s structure is fixed and complex, making it best suited for experienced developers. Model, Controller, and View are the three layers that make up Angular. The Controller creates an entity that is responsible for the Model and displays it with the View. React Native framework allows developers to make their own decisions. For a React app, there is no such thing as “the only correct framework.” Only the View layer is provided by React, while the Model and Controller layers are introduced by the use of third-party libraries. 5- App Performance and User Experience :- For its implementations, Angular uses real DOM. Real DOM is ideal for single-page websites that are maintained on a regular basis. Furthermore, the library is large, making the apps using Angular slower. UpWork is one of the most common Angular applications, since the user experience does not need to be modified regularly. React is ideally designed for pages that need frequent content updates because it uses a virtual DOM. The library is also small in size, making it more lightweight and dynamic. Instagram is an example of React, so the user feed must be updated frequently. 6- Testing :- Angular IO debugging and testing for an entire project is possible with single  software like Jasmine, Protractor, and Karma. React Js to perform various forms of checking, it needs a set of tools. 7- Ease of Update :- Angular releases one big upgrade every six months and gives each release a six-month depreciation term. The upgrade method is easy, and the complete system comes with its own set of packaged products. Scripts that use React can quickly switch between older and newer APIs. As we can see from Facebook’s interface, the APIs are very secure. In comparison to Angular, updates are fast and migration is easy. The major releases are secure and self-contained, but they have dynamic libraries. Key Features of Angular AJAX, HTTP, and Observables are all built-in. Large community support Typescript is time-saving. Consistent with technology Coding that is more clear and concise Error-handling support has been improved. Angular CLI allows for seamless updates. Local CSS / shadow DOM Separation of User Interface and Business Logic Key Features of React Allows to access libraries from other people. Time-Saving Simplicity and Composable Fully supported by Facebook. Improved customer interface and lightning-fast results. Faster Development One-directional binary linking provides code stability. React Components Angular and ReactJs Use Cases Choosing between Angular and React JS  is the most common confusion that most of us have experienced and are still familiar with. Let’s take a look at how Angular and Reactjs have collaborated to build world-changing applications. Angular vs React: When to choose what? In this part, we’ll go through some of the conditions where Angular or React is a good fit. When to Choose Angular? In the following scenarios, Angular is the best platform to use for your app: When you need ready-to-use applications for increased efficiency. When you need a feature-rich, large-scale framework When the development team has worked with Java, C#, and previous Angular versions, The app’s difficulty is still at a low to medium degree. When to Choose to React? In the following scenarios, the React Native framework would be the best option: when you require a multi-event app. When the application development team has HTML, CSS, and JavaScript knowledge. When the requirement demands a customized app approach, React is the way to go. When you want to make shareable components for your app. Benefits of Angular: Angular is a JavaScript framework that is great for creating dynamically interactive web applications. Let’s look at Five of Angular’s most important benefits:  1. Angular’s created to be used alongside Typescript and it has a lot of support for it. 2. Angular language support that provides intelligence and autocompletes for external HTML template files used by components. 3. Two-way data linking allows the app to behave in a unique way, reducing the probability of errors. 4. MVVM (Model-View-ViewModel) helps developers to work on different sections of the same app while using the same data. 5. Framework and design designed especially for project virtualization. Benefits of React:  React is a JavaScript library created by Facebook and open-sourced in 2013. It’s ideal for creating modern single-page apps of any size and scope. Let’s look at seven of React’s most important benefits:  Because of its simple interface, use of JSX (an HTML-like syntax) for templating, and extensive documentation, it’s simple to learn. Developers spend less time thinking about framework-specific programming and more time writing modern JavaScript.. React’s Virtual DOM implementation and numerous rendering optimizations make it extremely smooth. Since data linking is one-way, there are fewer undesirable side effects. Redux, React’s a most common framework for controlling application state, is simple to understand and master, and React implements Functional Programming (FP) principles, resulting in code that is easy to test and reuse. Type-safe applications can be created with either Microsoft’s TypeScript or Facebook’s Flow, all of which support JSX natively. React Native programming skills may be added (often directly) to React. What Does Angular and React Future Hold? By 2021, or even 2025, none of the two systems will be obsolete. Important updates have been made to React, allowing developers to easily provide input on new features, JavaScript syntax enhancements, and experimental APIs. Angular, on the other hand, has already seen a large uptick in use, which will continue with the release of Angular 10. The rest of the time, deciding which platform or UI library is best for your software project comes down to the app’s specifications, difficulty, and the product development company’s expertise. Which is Better? Before we come to any conclusions, we must remember that there is no such thing as the best framework or library. Choosing a framework or library is entirely dependent on the level of the project, its criteria, and its objectives. Any architecture or library has advantages and disadvantages, and React and Angular are no exception. Based on the above reasons, whether you are a novice or have little coding experience, as well as if you want consistency for your project, you can choose React because its learning curve is shorter and simpler, and the demand for jobs is higher than Angular.  If you choose Angular, you will find it annoying because big Angular updates occur every six months. Also, if you want a full-fledged architecture to create a large-scale project and want a straightforward coding approach, Angular is the way to go. Hope that reading this article helped you go for the right framework for your app and if you are willing to Read More React Native App Development page. You can also reach out to us via email at info@hashstudioz.com.
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(April-2021)Braindump2go 200-301 PDF and 200-301 VCE Dumps(Q214-Q230)
QUESTION 450 An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface? A.ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B B.ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B C.ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B D.ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B Answer: A QUESTION 451 What describes the operation of virtual machines? A.Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources B.In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time. C.Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment. D.Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware Answer: B QUESTION 452 Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic? A.redundancy B.console C.distribution system D.service Answer: B QUESTION 453 Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet? A.global unicast B.unique local C.link-local D.multicast Answer: B QUESTION 454 An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result? A.logging trap 5 B.logging trap 2 C.logging trap 4 D.logging trap 3 Answer: C QUESTION 455 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go 200-301 PDF and 200-301 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1N579lVwFMNcTo1QgOz_B6__zxBTx36ev?usp=sharing
(April-2021)Braindump2go AWS-Developer-Associate PDF and AWS-Developer-Associate VCE Dumps(Q680-Q693)
QUESTION 680 A developer is building an application that will run on Amazon EC2 instances. The application needs to connect to an Amazon DynamoDB table to read and write records. The security team must periodically rotate access keys. Which approach will satisfy these requirements? A.Create an IAM role with read and write access to the DynamoDB table. Generate access keys for the user and store the access keys in the application as environment variables. B.Create an IAM user with read and write access to the DynamoDB table. Store the user name and password in the application and generate access keys using an AWS SDK. C.Create an IAM role, configure read and write access for the DynamoDB table, and attach to the EC2 instances. D.Create an IAM user with read and write access to the DynamoDB table. Generate access keys for the user and store the access keys in the application as a credentials file. Answer: D QUESTION 681 A developer is monitoring an application running on an Amazon EC2 instance. The application accesses an Amazon DynamoDB table and the developer has configured a custom Amazon CloudWatch metric with data granularity of 1 second. If there are any issues, the developer wants to be notified within 30 seconds using Amazon SNS. Which CloudWatch mechanism will satisfy this requirement? A.Configure a high-resolution CloudWatch alarm. B.Set up a custom AWS Lambda CloudWatch log. C.Use a Cloud Watch stream. D.Change to a default CloudWatch metric. Answer: A QUESTION 682 A developer is implementing authentication and authorization for an application. The developer needs to ensure that the user credentials are never exposed. Which approach should the developer take to meet this requirement? A.Store the user credentials in Amazon DynamoDB. Build an AWS Lambda function to validate the credentials and authorize users. B.Deploy a custom authentication and authorization API on an Amazon EC2 instance. Store the user credentials in Amazon S3 and encrypt the credentials using Amazon S3 server-side encryption. C.Use Amazon Cognito to configure a user pool, and user the Cognito API to authenticate and authorize the user. D.Store the user credentials in Amazon RDS. Enable the encryption option for the Amazon RDS DB instances. Build an API using AWS Lambda to validate the credentials and authorize users. Answer: C QUESTION 683 A developer is building a new complex application on AWS. The application consists of multiple microservices hosted on Amazon EC2. The developer wants to determine which microservice adds the most latency while handling a request. Which method should the developer use to make this determination? A.Instrument each microservice request using the AWS X-Ray SDK. Examine the annotations associated with the requests. B.Instrument each microservice request using the AWS X-Ray SDK. Examine the subsegments associated with the requests. C.Instrument each microservice request using the AWS X-Ray SDK. Examine the Amazon CloudWatch EC2 instance metrics associated with the requests. D.Instrument each microservice request using the Amazon CloudWatch SDK. Examine the CloudWatch EC2 instance metrics associated with the requests. Answer: C QUESTION 684 A company has a two-tier application running on an Amazon EC2 server that handles all of its AWS based e-commerce activity. During peak times, the backend servers that process orders are overloaded with requests. This results in some orders failing to process. A developer needs to create a solution that will re- factor the application. Which steps will allow for more flexibility during peak times, while still remaining cost-effective? (Choose two.) A.Increase the backend T2 EC2 instance sizes to x1 to handle the largest possible load throughout the year. B.Implement an Amazon SQS queue to decouple the front-end and backend servers. C.Use an Amazon SNS queue to decouple the front-end and backend servers. D.Migrate the backend servers to on-premises and pull from an Amazon SNS queue. E.Modify the backend servers to pull from an Amazon SQS queue. Answer: BE QUESTION 685 A developer is asked to integrate Amazon CloudWatch into an on-premises application. How should the application access CloudWatch, according to AWS security best practices? A.Configure AWS credentials in the application server with an AWS SDK B.Implement and proxy API-calls through an EC2 instance C.Store IAM credentials in the source code to enable access D.Add the application server SSH-key to AWS Answer: A QUESTION 686 A company's new mobile app uses Amazon API Gateway. As the development team completes a new release of its APIs, a developer must safely and transparently roll out the API change. What is the SIMPLEST solution for the developer to use for rolling out the new API version to a limited number of users through API Gateway? A.Create a new API in API Gateway. Direct a portion of the traffic to the new API using an Amazon Route 53 weighted routing policy. B.Validate the new API version and promote it to production during the window of lowest expected utilization. C.Implement an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to trigger a rollback if the observed HTTP 500 status code rate exceeds a predetermined threshold. D.Use the canary release deployment option in API Gateway. Direct a percentage of the API traffic using the canarySettings setting. Answer: D QUESTION 687 A developer must modify an Alexa skill backed by an AWS Lambda function to access an Amazon DynamoDB table in a second account. A role in the second account has been created with permissions to access the table. How should the table be accessed? A.Modify the Lambda function execution role's permissions to include the new role. B.Change the Lambda function execution role to be the new role. C.Assume the new role in the Lambda function when accessing the table. D.Store the access key and the secret key for the new role and use then when accessing the table. Answer: A QUESTION 688 A developer is creating a new application that will be accessed by users through an API created using Amazon API Gateway. The users need to be authenticated by a third-party Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) identity provider. Once authenticated, users will need access to other AWS services, such as Amazon S3 and Amazon DynamoDB. How can these requirements be met? A.Use an Amazon Cognito user pool with SAML as the resource server. B.Use Amazon Cognito identity pools with a SAML identity provider as one of the authentication providers. C.Use the AWS IAM service to provide the sign-up and sign-in functionality. D.Use Amazon CloudFront signed URLs to connect with the SAML identity provider. Answer: A QUESTION 689 A company processes incoming documents from an Amazon S3 bucket. Users upload documents to an S3 bucket using a web user interface. Upon receiving files in S3, an AWS Lambda function is invoked to process the files, but the Lambda function times out intermittently. If the Lambda function is configured with the default settings, what will happen to the S3 event when there is a timeout exception? A.Notification of a failed S3 event is send as an email through Amazon SNS. B.The S3 event is sent to the default Dead Letter Queue. C.The S3 event is processed until it is successful. D.The S3 event is discarded after the event is retried twice. Answer: A QUESTION 690 A developer has designed a customer-facing application that is running on an Amazon EC2 instance. The application logs every request made to it. The application usually runs seamlessly, but a spike in traffic generates several logs that cause the disk to fill up and eventually run out of memory. Company policy requires old logs to be centralized for analysis. Which long-term solution should the developer employ to prevent the issue from reoccurring? A.Set up log rotation to rotate the file every day. Also set up log rotation to rotate after every 100 MB and compress the file. B.Install the Amazon CloudWatch agent on the instance to send the logs to CloudWatch. Delete the logs from the instance once they are sent to CloudWatch. C.Enable AWS Auto Scaling on Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) to automatically add volumes to the instance when it reaches a specified threshold. D.Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to pull the logs from the instance. Configure the rule to delete the logs after they have been pulled. Answer: C QUESTION 691 A developer is creating a serverless web application and maintains different branches of code. The developer wants to avoid updating the Amazon API Gateway target endpoint each time a new code push is performed. What solution would allow the developer to perform a code push efficiently, without the need to update the API Gateway? A.Associate different AWS Lambda functions to an API Gateway target endpoint. B.Create different stages in API Gateway, then associate API Gateway with AWS Lambda. C.Create aliases and versions in AWS Lambda. D.Tag the AWS Lambda functions with different names. Answer: C QUESTION 692 A developer wants to secure sensitive configuration data such as passwords, database strings, and application license codes. Access to this sensitive information must be tracked for future audit purposes. Where should the sensitive information be stored, adhering to security best practices and operational requirements? A.In an encrypted file on the source code bundle; grant the application access with Amazon IAM B.In the Amazon EC2 Systems Manager Parameter Store; grant the application access with IAM C.On an Amazon EBS encrypted volume; attach the volume to an Amazon EC2 instance to access the data D.As an object in an Amazon S3 bucket; grant an Amazon EC2 instance access with an IAM role Answer: B QUESTION 693 A developer has built an application using Amazon Cognito for authentication and authorization. After a user is successfully logged in to the application, the application creates a user record in an Amazon DynamoDB table. What is the correct flow to authenticate the user and create a record in the DynamoDB table? A.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito user pool. Use the token to access DynamoDB. B.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito identity pool. Use the token to access DynamoDB. C.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito user pool. Exchange the token for AWS credentials with an Amazon Cognito identity pool. Use the credentials to access DynamoDB. D.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito identity pool. Exchange the token for AWS credentials with an Amazon Cognito user pool. Use the credentials to access DynamoDB. Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go AWS-Developer-Associate PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1dvoSqn8UfssZYMvGJJdAPW320Fvfpph3?usp=sharing
(April-2021)Braindump2go 300-425 PDF and 300-425 VCE Dumps(Q181-Q201)
QUESTION 81 An engineer is trying to determine the most cost-effective way to deploy high availability for a campus enterprise wireless network that currently leverages three wireless LAN controllers. Which architecture should the engineer deploy? A.N+1 solution without SSO B.N+1 with SSO C.N+N solution without SSO D.N+N with SSO Answer: B QUESTION 82 During a post deployment site survey, issues are found with non-Wi-Fi interference. What should the engineer use to identify the source of the interference? A.Cisco Spectrum Expert B.wireless intrusion prevention C.Wireshark D.network analysis module Answer: A QUESTION 83 Refer to the exhibit. An enterprise is using wireless as the main network connectivity for clients. To ensure service continuity, a pair of controllers will be installed in a datacenter. An engineer is designing SSO on the pair of controllers. What needs to be included m the design to avoid having the secondary controller go into maintenance mode? A.The keep alive timer is too low which causes synchronization problems. B.The connection between the redundancy ports is missing. C.The redundancy port must be the same subnet as the redundancy mgmt. D.The Global Configuration of SSO is set to Disabled on the controller. Answer: A QUESTION 84 Campus users report a poor wireless experience. An engineer investigating the issue notices that in high-density areas the wireless clients fail to switch the AP to which are automatically connected. This sticky client behavior is causing roaming issues. Which feature must the engineer configure? A.load balancing and band select B.optimized roaming C.Layer 3 roaming D.Layer 2 roaming Answer: B QUESTION 85 An engineer changed me TPC Power Threshold for a wireless deployment from the default value to 65 dBm. The engineer conducts a new post deployment survey to validate the results. What is the expected outcome? A.increased received sensitivity B.decreased channel overlap C.decreased client signal strength D.increased cell size Answer: C QUESTION 86 A customer is looking for a network design with Cisco Hyperlocation using AP4800 for location tracking via a custom mobile app issues appeared in me past with refresh rates for location updates. What needs to be implemented to meet these requirements? A.Cisco FastLocate technology B.redundant CMX and fetch location in round-robin fashion C.device Bluetooth via the app D.Cisco CMX SDK in the location app Answer: A QUESTION 87 What is the attenuation value of a human body on a wireless signal? A.3 dB B.4 dB C.6 dB D.12 dB Answer: B QUESTION 88 Why is 802.11a connectivity reduced in an X-ray room? A.X-rays impact the 802.11a UNll-2 channels Vial cause access points to dynamically change channels. B.X-ray rooms exhibit increased signal attenuation C.X-rays within these rooms cause multipath issues. D.X-rays create significant non-Wi-Fi interference on the 802.11a band Answer: B QUESTION 89 A medium-sized hospitality company with 50 hotels needs to upgrade the existing WLAN m each hotel to 802Hn. During the site surveys tor each hotel, what needs to be taken into consideration when determining the locations for each AP? A.Selecting AP locations where power is already available B.Selecting APs that can be hidden in ceiling panels lo provide a secure and clean aesthetic look. C.Selecting locations that make visual assessment of the AP operation easy D.Selecting locations that are easily accessed so maintenance and upgrades can be performed quickly Answer: A QUESTION 90 A network engineer needs to create a wireless design to bridge wired IP surveillance cameras in the parking lot through a mesh AP. To which operate mode of the AP should the cameras connect? A.RAP B.local C.FlexConnect D.MAP Answer: D QUESTION 91 An engineer at a global enterprise organization must ensure that a mesh deployment has the highest number of channels available to the backhaul regardless of region deployed. Which design meets this requirement? A.one controller per country code B.redundant controllers in the least restrictive regulatory domain C.redundant controllers in the most restrictive regulatory domain D.one controller per continent Answer: C QUESTION 92 An enterprise is using two wireless controllers to support the wireless network. The data center is located in the head office. Each controller has a corporate WLAN configured with the name CoprNET390595865WLC-1 and Copr-NET6837l638WLC-2. The APs are installed using a round-robin approach to load balance the traffic. What should be changed on the configuration to optimize roaming? A.Move all access points to one controller and use the other as N-1 HA. B.Use the same WLAN name for the corporate network on both controllers C.Move the controllers to an external data center with higher internet speeds D.Place the access points per floor on the same controller. Answer: D QUESTION 93 An engineer is conducting a Layer 2 site survey. Which type of client must the engineer match to the survey? A.best client available B.phone client C.normal client D.worst client available Answer: C QUESTION 94 A wireless engineer is using Ekahau Site Survey to validate that an existing wireless network is operating as expected. Which type of survey should be used to identify the end-to-end network performance? A.spectrum analysis B.passive C.GPS assisted D.active ping Answer: A QUESTION 95 The wireless learn must configure a new voice SSID for optimized roaming across multiple WLCs with Cisco 8821 phones. Which two WLC settings accomplish this goal? (Choose two) A.Configure mobility groups between WLCs B.Use Cisco Centralized Key Management for authentication. C.Configure AP groups between WLCs. D.Configure AVC profiles on the SSlD E.Use AVC to lag traffic voice traffic as best effort. Answer: BE QUESTION 96 An engineer is designing an outdoor mesh network to cover several sports fields. The core of the network is located In a building at the entrance of a sports complex. Which type of antenna should be used with the RAP for backhaul connectivity? A.5 GHz. 8-dBi omnidirectional antenna B.2.4 GHz. 8-dBi patch antenna C.2 4 GHz. 14-dBi omnidirectional antenna D.5 GHz. 14-dBi patch antenna Answer: A QUESTION 97 A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP with high gam antennas tor industrial, maintenance, or storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey devices and surveys several Aps. Which strategy will reduce the negative impact of the design? A.Resurvey and adjust the design B.Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design C.Deploy the specified access points per area type D.increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points Answer: A QUESTION 98 An engineer is designing a wireless network to support nigh availability. The network will need to support the total number of APs and client SSO. Live services should continue to work without interruption during the failover. Which two requirements need to be incorporated into the design to meet these needs? (Choose two) A.redundant vWLC B.controller high availability pair with one of the WLCs having a valid AP count license C.10 sec RTT D.back-to-back direct connection between WLCs E.WLC 7.5 code or more recent Answer: BD QUESTION 99 Refer to the exhibit. During a post Mesh deployment survey, an engineer notices that frame cessions occur when MAP-1 and MAP-3 talk to RAP-2. Which type of issue does the engineer need to address in the design? A.co-channel interference B.backhaul latency C.hidden node D.exposed node Answer: A QUESTION 100 An enterprise is using the wireless network as the main network connection for corporate users and guests. To ensure wireless network availability, two standalone controllers are installed in the head office APs are connected to the controllers using a round-robin approach to load balance the traffic. After a power cut, the wireless clients disconnect while roaming. An engineer tried to ping from the controller but fails. Which protocol needs to be allowed between the networks that the controllers are Installed? A.IP Protocol 67 B.IP Protocol 77 C.IP Protocol 87 D.IP Protocol 97 Answer: D QUESTION 101 An engineer must perform a pre deployment site survey. For a new building in a high-security area. The design must provide a primary signal RSSI of -65 dBM for the clients. Which two requirements complete this design? (Choose two) A.site access B.AP model C.WLC model D.HVAC access E.number of clients Answer: BE 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-425 PDF and 300-425 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/116pgsScHZoMX_x10f-SEvzUZ9ec2kgWd?usp=sharing
MD-100-deutsch Prüfung, MD-100 Fragen und antworten
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