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Google launches Flutter 2 with support for web and desktop apps

Google launches Flutter 2, the next generation of Flutter, built for web, mobile, and desktop. Check out what鈥檚 new in the latest version of its open-source UI toolkit for building portable apps. http://bit.ly/3ec25Xu
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(April-2021)Braindump2go 5V0-34.19 PDF and 5V0-34.19 VCE Dumps(Q29-Q49)
QUESTION 29 A user wants to create a super metric and apply it to a custom group to capture the total of CPU Demand (MHz) of virtual machines that are children of the custom group. Which super metric function would be used to accomplish this? A.Average B.Max C.Sum D.Count Answer: C QUESTION 30 Review the exhibit. When the Cluster Metric Load or Cluster Object Load exceeds 100%, what is the next step a vRealize Operations administrator should take? A.Reduce the vRealize Operations data retention time. B.Add an additional vRealize Operations data node. C.Increase vRealize Operations polling time. D.Remove a vCenter from the vSphere management pack. Answer: B QUESTION 31 Which object attributes are used in vRealize Operations Compliance analysis? A.tags B.properties C.user access lists D.host profiles Answer: B QUESTION 32 Based on the highlighted HIPPA compliance template above, how many hosts are in a compliant state? A.5 B.24 C.29 D.31 Answer: A QUESTION 33 How can vRealize Operations tags be used? A.be dynamically assigned to objects B.to group virtual machines in vCenter C.to set object access controls D.to filter objects within dashboard widgets Answer: B QUESTION 34 The default collection cycle is set. When changing the Cluster Time Remaining settings, how long will it take before time remaining and risk level are recalculated? A.5 minutes B.1 hour C.12 hours D.24 hours Answer: A QUESTION 35 What is a prerequisite for using Business Intent? A.DRS clusters B.storage policies C.vSphere 6.7 D.vCenter tags Answer: D QUESTION 36 What can be configured within a policy? A.alert notifications B.symptom definition threshold overrides C.custom group membership criteria D.symptom definition operator overrides Answer: B QUESTION 37 Which organizational construct within vRealize Operations has a user-configured dynamic membership criteria? A.Resource Pool B.Tags C.Custom group D.Custom Datacenter Answer: C QUESTION 38 How should a remote collector be added to a vRealize Operations installation? A.Log in as Admin on a master node and enable High Availability. B.Open the Setup Wizard from the login page. C.Navigate to a newly deployed node and click Expand an Existing Installation. D.Navigate to the Admin interface of a data node. Answer: C QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit. How is vSphere Usable Capacity calculated? A.Demand plus Reservation B.Total Capacity minus High Availability C.Total Capacity minus Overhead D.Demand plus High Availability Answer: B QUESTION 40 A view is created in vRealize Operations to track virtual machine maximum and average contention for the past thirty days. Which method is used to enhance the view to easily spot VMs with high contention values? A.Set a tag on virtual machines and filter on the tag. B.Edit the view and set filters for the transformation value maximum and average contention. C.Create a custom group to dynamically track virtual machines. D.Configure Metric Coloring in the Advanced Settings of the view. Answer: C QUESTION 41 Refer to the exhibit. A user has installed and configured Telegraf agent on a Windows domain controller. No application data is being collected. Which two actions should the user take to see the application data? (Choose two.) A.Verify the vCenter adapter collection status. B.Re-configure the agent on the Windows virtual machine manually. C.Verify Active Directory Service status. D.Configure ICMP Remote Check. E.Validate time synchronization between vRealize Application Remote Collector and vRealize Operations. Answer: AE QUESTION 42 Which dashboard widget provides a two-dimensional relationship? A.Heat Map B.Object Selector C.Scoreboard D.Top N Answer: A QUESTION 43 What must an administrator do to use the Troubleshoot with Logs Dashboard in vRealize Operations? A.Configure the vRealize Log Insight agent. B.Enable Log Forwarding within vRealize Operations. C.Configure vRealize Operations within vRealize Log Insight. D.Configure symptoms and alerts within vRealize Operations. Answer: C QUESTION 44 vRealize Operations places a tagless virtual machines on a tagged host. Which setting causes this behavior? A.Host-Based Business Intent B.Consolidated Operational Intent C.Balanced Operational Intent D.Cluster-Based Business Intent Answer: A QUESTION 45 The default collection cycle is set. How often are cost calculations run? A.every 5 minutes B.daily C.weekly D.monthly Answer: B QUESTION 46 vRealize Operations is actively collecting data from vCenter and the entire inventory is licensed. Why would backup VMDKs of an active virtual machine in the vCenter appear in Orphaned Disks? A.They are related to the VM. B.They are named the same as the VM. C.They are not in vCenter inventory. D.They are not actively being utilized. Answer: C QUESTION 47 In which two locations should all nodes be when deploying an analytics node? (Choose two.) A.same data center B.same vCenter C.remote data center D.same subnet E.different subnet Answer: AD QUESTION 48 Which type of view allows a user to create a view to provide tabular data about specific objects? A.Distribution B.Text C.List D.Trend Answer: C QUESTION 49 Which Operational Intent setting drives maximum application performance by avoiding resource spikes? A.Moderate B.Consolidate C.Over provision D.Balance Answer: B 2021 Latest Braindump2go 5V0-34.19 PDF and 5V0-34.19 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1i-g5X8oxKPFi-1oyAVi68bVlC5njt8PF?usp=sharing
Ionic vs Flutter The Better One?
Your success key factor is to reach out to a diverse audience, irrespective of the devices or the OS they are using. Here, the cross-platform mobile apps add an advantage to your business. Whether you are a business or entrepreneur, what matters from the user's perspective is to deliver the hassle-free, uninterrupted, on door delivery of your product or service. If we talk about accuracy, mobile app development services have eased half of the process for you. But before coming up with a mobile app, there is something you must need to know. Which mobile app development toolkit to u se to develop and deploy your mobile app? Well, we have a shared vision of developing attractive, high-performance apps that work everywhere. But which SDK to choose? To free your mind from hazel, we have thought to distinguish between the two most popular mobile app development toolkit used to develop mobile apps, i.e., Ionic and Flutter. Here is a quick comparison. What is Ionic? It is an open-source mobile UI toolkit for building high quality, cross-platform native and web app experiences. A comprehensive library of mobile and desktop-optimized technologies including HTML, CSS, Angular, Vue, and JS components used to develop fast apps with a small footprint and built-in best practices like hardware accelerated transitions, touch-optimized gestures, pre-rendering, and AOT compiling. Advantages of Ionic 路 Build with technology you prefer, i.e., Angular, Vue, React, and JavaScript 路 Simple Declarative UI components 路 Core Native device functionality Disadvantages of Ionic 路 Not for high performance 路 Not for UI intensive apps 路 Not for game development What is Flutter? Google's UI toolkit for developing attractive, natively compiled applications for mobile, web, and desktop from a single codebase. When it comes to delivering first-rate native experiences, it emerges as a game-changer technology for iOS and Android. Advantages of Flutter 路 Fast Deployment 路 Expressive UIs 路 Native Performance 路 Hot Reload Disadvantages of Flutter 路 Need to Learn Dart 路 Lack of Community support 路 Lack of Promotion 路 Lack of user-friendly documentation Ionic v/s Flutter Proximity to UI If it is about native look and feel, both the technologies appear similar. They update the design of UI elements to match the platform's look running on both can access platform services and native APIs via a library of pre-built plugins with a set of tools to build custom plugins. Learning Curve Ionic possesses an easy learning curve, while Flutter requires developers to first learn Dart. Ionic is growing because of its graphical apps or game development due to wrapper plugins. Still, Flutter is increasing in demand because it's baked with the best developers and the Google community. Code Portability When it comes to desktop and mobile app deployment, the comparison becomes harder. Flutter proclaims that you can design and develop appealing iOS and Android apps from a single codebase. Everything depends on whether you are willing to deploy your app over the web as a conventional desktop web app or a PWA. Flutter is the best option for mobile apps, but it comes with inherent limitations as for the web. Whereas, Ionic develops on the web and fundamentally based web standards. It comes to advantage in developing apps for mobile, desktop, and the web. In conclusion, Ionic's primary principle is to use the web platform and embracing open standards. On the other hand, Flutter has single-handedly created a self-contained ecosystem struggling with the standard languages, toolsets, and bars in the more ubiquitous development world. So, it is essential to have full information about both the mobile development toolkit to opt for mobile app development services. If you choose Flutter, you will learn the new flutter ways of doing things. Other vital factors that need to be considered before choosing the mobile app development toolkit, i.e., budget, time, application size, platforms, and so on, while you decide to select a framework for your cross-platform app development.
(April-2021)Braindump2go 300-425 PDF and 300-425 VCE Dumps(Q181-Q201)
QUESTION 81 An engineer is trying to determine the most cost-effective way to deploy high availability for a campus enterprise wireless network that currently leverages three wireless LAN controllers. Which architecture should the engineer deploy? A.N+1 solution without SSO B.N+1 with SSO C.N+N solution without SSO D.N+N with SSO Answer: B QUESTION 82 During a post deployment site survey, issues are found with non-Wi-Fi interference. What should the engineer use to identify the source of the interference? A.Cisco Spectrum Expert B.wireless intrusion prevention C.Wireshark D.network analysis module Answer: A QUESTION 83 Refer to the exhibit. An enterprise is using wireless as the main network connectivity for clients. To ensure service continuity, a pair of controllers will be installed in a datacenter. An engineer is designing SSO on the pair of controllers. What needs to be included m the design to avoid having the secondary controller go into maintenance mode? A.The keep alive timer is too low which causes synchronization problems. B.The connection between the redundancy ports is missing. C.The redundancy port must be the same subnet as the redundancy mgmt. D.The Global Configuration of SSO is set to Disabled on the controller. Answer: A QUESTION 84 Campus users report a poor wireless experience. An engineer investigating the issue notices that in high-density areas the wireless clients fail to switch the AP to which are automatically connected. This sticky client behavior is causing roaming issues. Which feature must the engineer configure? A.load balancing and band select B.optimized roaming C.Layer 3 roaming D.Layer 2 roaming Answer: B QUESTION 85 An engineer changed me TPC Power Threshold for a wireless deployment from the default value to 65 dBm. The engineer conducts a new post deployment survey to validate the results. What is the expected outcome? A.increased received sensitivity B.decreased channel overlap C.decreased client signal strength D.increased cell size Answer: C QUESTION 86 A customer is looking for a network design with Cisco Hyperlocation using AP4800 for location tracking via a custom mobile app issues appeared in me past with refresh rates for location updates. What needs to be implemented to meet these requirements? A.Cisco FastLocate technology B.redundant CMX and fetch location in round-robin fashion C.device Bluetooth via the app D.Cisco CMX SDK in the location app Answer: A QUESTION 87 What is the attenuation value of a human body on a wireless signal? A.3 dB B.4 dB C.6 dB D.12 dB Answer: B QUESTION 88 Why is 802.11a connectivity reduced in an X-ray room? A.X-rays impact the 802.11a UNll-2 channels Vial cause access points to dynamically change channels. B.X-ray rooms exhibit increased signal attenuation C.X-rays within these rooms cause multipath issues. D.X-rays create significant non-Wi-Fi interference on the 802.11a band Answer: B QUESTION 89 A medium-sized hospitality company with 50 hotels needs to upgrade the existing WLAN m each hotel to 802Hn. During the site surveys tor each hotel, what needs to be taken into consideration when determining the locations for each AP? A.Selecting AP locations where power is already available B.Selecting APs that can be hidden in ceiling panels lo provide a secure and clean aesthetic look. C.Selecting locations that make visual assessment of the AP operation easy D.Selecting locations that are easily accessed so maintenance and upgrades can be performed quickly Answer: A QUESTION 90 A network engineer needs to create a wireless design to bridge wired IP surveillance cameras in the parking lot through a mesh AP. To which operate mode of the AP should the cameras connect? A.RAP B.local C.FlexConnect D.MAP Answer: D QUESTION 91 An engineer at a global enterprise organization must ensure that a mesh deployment has the highest number of channels available to the backhaul regardless of region deployed. Which design meets this requirement? A.one controller per country code B.redundant controllers in the least restrictive regulatory domain C.redundant controllers in the most restrictive regulatory domain D.one controller per continent Answer: C QUESTION 92 An enterprise is using two wireless controllers to support the wireless network. The data center is located in the head office. Each controller has a corporate WLAN configured with the name CoprNET390595865WLC-1 and Copr-NET6837l638WLC-2. The APs are installed using a round-robin approach to load balance the traffic. What should be changed on the configuration to optimize roaming? A.Move all access points to one controller and use the other as N-1 HA. B.Use the same WLAN name for the corporate network on both controllers C.Move the controllers to an external data center with higher internet speeds D.Place the access points per floor on the same controller. Answer: D QUESTION 93 An engineer is conducting a Layer 2 site survey. Which type of client must the engineer match to the survey? A.best client available B.phone client C.normal client D.worst client available Answer: C QUESTION 94 A wireless engineer is using Ekahau Site Survey to validate that an existing wireless network is operating as expected. Which type of survey should be used to identify the end-to-end network performance? A.spectrum analysis B.passive C.GPS assisted D.active ping Answer: A QUESTION 95 The wireless learn must configure a new voice SSID for optimized roaming across multiple WLCs with Cisco 8821 phones. Which two WLC settings accomplish this goal? (Choose two) A.Configure mobility groups between WLCs B.Use Cisco Centralized Key Management for authentication. C.Configure AP groups between WLCs. D.Configure AVC profiles on the SSlD E.Use AVC to lag traffic voice traffic as best effort. Answer: BE QUESTION 96 An engineer is designing an outdoor mesh network to cover several sports fields. The core of the network is located In a building at the entrance of a sports complex. Which type of antenna should be used with the RAP for backhaul connectivity? A.5 GHz. 8-dBi omnidirectional antenna B.2.4 GHz. 8-dBi patch antenna C.2 4 GHz. 14-dBi omnidirectional antenna D.5 GHz. 14-dBi patch antenna Answer: A QUESTION 97 A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP with high gam antennas tor industrial, maintenance, or storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey devices and surveys several Aps. Which strategy will reduce the negative impact of the design? A.Resurvey and adjust the design B.Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design C.Deploy the specified access points per area type D.increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points Answer: A QUESTION 98 An engineer is designing a wireless network to support nigh availability. The network will need to support the total number of APs and client SSO. Live services should continue to work without interruption during the failover. Which two requirements need to be incorporated into the design to meet these needs? (Choose two) A.redundant vWLC B.controller high availability pair with one of the WLCs having a valid AP count license C.10 sec RTT D.back-to-back direct connection between WLCs E.WLC 7.5 code or more recent Answer: BD QUESTION 99 Refer to the exhibit. During a post Mesh deployment survey, an engineer notices that frame cessions occur when MAP-1 and MAP-3 talk to RAP-2. Which type of issue does the engineer need to address in the design? A.co-channel interference B.backhaul latency C.hidden node D.exposed node Answer: A QUESTION 100 An enterprise is using the wireless network as the main network connection for corporate users and guests. To ensure wireless network availability, two standalone controllers are installed in the head office APs are connected to the controllers using a round-robin approach to load balance the traffic. After a power cut, the wireless clients disconnect while roaming. An engineer tried to ping from the controller but fails. Which protocol needs to be allowed between the networks that the controllers are Installed? A.IP Protocol 67 B.IP Protocol 77 C.IP Protocol 87 D.IP Protocol 97 Answer: D QUESTION 101 An engineer must perform a pre deployment site survey. For a new building in a high-security area. The design must provide a primary signal RSSI of -65 dBM for the clients. Which two requirements complete this design? (Choose two) A.site access B.AP model C.WLC model D.HVAC access E.number of clients Answer: BE 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-425 PDF and 300-425 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/116pgsScHZoMX_x10f-SEvzUZ9ec2kgWd?usp=sharing
(April-2021)Braindump2go AWS-Developer-Associate PDF and AWS-Developer-Associate VCE Dumps(Q680-Q693)
QUESTION 680 A developer is building an application that will run on Amazon EC2 instances. The application needs to connect to an Amazon DynamoDB table to read and write records. The security team must periodically rotate access keys. Which approach will satisfy these requirements? A.Create an IAM role with read and write access to the DynamoDB table. Generate access keys for the user and store the access keys in the application as environment variables. B.Create an IAM user with read and write access to the DynamoDB table. Store the user name and password in the application and generate access keys using an AWS SDK. C.Create an IAM role, configure read and write access for the DynamoDB table, and attach to the EC2 instances. D.Create an IAM user with read and write access to the DynamoDB table. Generate access keys for the user and store the access keys in the application as a credentials file. Answer: D QUESTION 681 A developer is monitoring an application running on an Amazon EC2 instance. The application accesses an Amazon DynamoDB table and the developer has configured a custom Amazon CloudWatch metric with data granularity of 1 second. If there are any issues, the developer wants to be notified within 30 seconds using Amazon SNS. Which CloudWatch mechanism will satisfy this requirement? A.Configure a high-resolution CloudWatch alarm. B.Set up a custom AWS Lambda CloudWatch log. C.Use a Cloud Watch stream. D.Change to a default CloudWatch metric. Answer: A QUESTION 682 A developer is implementing authentication and authorization for an application. The developer needs to ensure that the user credentials are never exposed. Which approach should the developer take to meet this requirement? A.Store the user credentials in Amazon DynamoDB. Build an AWS Lambda function to validate the credentials and authorize users. B.Deploy a custom authentication and authorization API on an Amazon EC2 instance. Store the user credentials in Amazon S3 and encrypt the credentials using Amazon S3 server-side encryption. C.Use Amazon Cognito to configure a user pool, and user the Cognito API to authenticate and authorize the user. D.Store the user credentials in Amazon RDS. Enable the encryption option for the Amazon RDS DB instances. Build an API using AWS Lambda to validate the credentials and authorize users. Answer: C QUESTION 683 A developer is building a new complex application on AWS. The application consists of multiple microservices hosted on Amazon EC2. The developer wants to determine which microservice adds the most latency while handling a request. Which method should the developer use to make this determination? A.Instrument each microservice request using the AWS X-Ray SDK. Examine the annotations associated with the requests. B.Instrument each microservice request using the AWS X-Ray SDK. Examine the subsegments associated with the requests. C.Instrument each microservice request using the AWS X-Ray SDK. Examine the Amazon CloudWatch EC2 instance metrics associated with the requests. D.Instrument each microservice request using the Amazon CloudWatch SDK. Examine the CloudWatch EC2 instance metrics associated with the requests. Answer: C QUESTION 684 A company has a two-tier application running on an Amazon EC2 server that handles all of its AWS based e-commerce activity. During peak times, the backend servers that process orders are overloaded with requests. This results in some orders failing to process. A developer needs to create a solution that will re- factor the application. Which steps will allow for more flexibility during peak times, while still remaining cost-effective? (Choose two.) A.Increase the backend T2 EC2 instance sizes to x1 to handle the largest possible load throughout the year. B.Implement an Amazon SQS queue to decouple the front-end and backend servers. C.Use an Amazon SNS queue to decouple the front-end and backend servers. D.Migrate the backend servers to on-premises and pull from an Amazon SNS queue. E.Modify the backend servers to pull from an Amazon SQS queue. Answer: BE QUESTION 685 A developer is asked to integrate Amazon CloudWatch into an on-premises application. How should the application access CloudWatch, according to AWS security best practices? A.Configure AWS credentials in the application server with an AWS SDK B.Implement and proxy API-calls through an EC2 instance C.Store IAM credentials in the source code to enable access D.Add the application server SSH-key to AWS Answer: A QUESTION 686 A company's new mobile app uses Amazon API Gateway. As the development team completes a new release of its APIs, a developer must safely and transparently roll out the API change. What is the SIMPLEST solution for the developer to use for rolling out the new API version to a limited number of users through API Gateway? A.Create a new API in API Gateway. Direct a portion of the traffic to the new API using an Amazon Route 53 weighted routing policy. B.Validate the new API version and promote it to production during the window of lowest expected utilization. C.Implement an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to trigger a rollback if the observed HTTP 500 status code rate exceeds a predetermined threshold. D.Use the canary release deployment option in API Gateway. Direct a percentage of the API traffic using the canarySettings setting. Answer: D QUESTION 687 A developer must modify an Alexa skill backed by an AWS Lambda function to access an Amazon DynamoDB table in a second account. A role in the second account has been created with permissions to access the table. How should the table be accessed? A.Modify the Lambda function execution role's permissions to include the new role. B.Change the Lambda function execution role to be the new role. C.Assume the new role in the Lambda function when accessing the table. D.Store the access key and the secret key for the new role and use then when accessing the table. Answer: A QUESTION 688 A developer is creating a new application that will be accessed by users through an API created using Amazon API Gateway. The users need to be authenticated by a third-party Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) identity provider. Once authenticated, users will need access to other AWS services, such as Amazon S3 and Amazon DynamoDB. How can these requirements be met? A.Use an Amazon Cognito user pool with SAML as the resource server. B.Use Amazon Cognito identity pools with a SAML identity provider as one of the authentication providers. C.Use the AWS IAM service to provide the sign-up and sign-in functionality. D.Use Amazon CloudFront signed URLs to connect with the SAML identity provider. Answer: A QUESTION 689 A company processes incoming documents from an Amazon S3 bucket. Users upload documents to an S3 bucket using a web user interface. Upon receiving files in S3, an AWS Lambda function is invoked to process the files, but the Lambda function times out intermittently. If the Lambda function is configured with the default settings, what will happen to the S3 event when there is a timeout exception? A.Notification of a failed S3 event is send as an email through Amazon SNS. B.The S3 event is sent to the default Dead Letter Queue. C.The S3 event is processed until it is successful. D.The S3 event is discarded after the event is retried twice. Answer: A QUESTION 690 A developer has designed a customer-facing application that is running on an Amazon EC2 instance. The application logs every request made to it. The application usually runs seamlessly, but a spike in traffic generates several logs that cause the disk to fill up and eventually run out of memory. Company policy requires old logs to be centralized for analysis. Which long-term solution should the developer employ to prevent the issue from reoccurring? A.Set up log rotation to rotate the file every day. Also set up log rotation to rotate after every 100 MB and compress the file. B.Install the Amazon CloudWatch agent on the instance to send the logs to CloudWatch. Delete the logs from the instance once they are sent to CloudWatch. C.Enable AWS Auto Scaling on Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) to automatically add volumes to the instance when it reaches a specified threshold. D.Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to pull the logs from the instance. Configure the rule to delete the logs after they have been pulled. Answer: C QUESTION 691 A developer is creating a serverless web application and maintains different branches of code. The developer wants to avoid updating the Amazon API Gateway target endpoint each time a new code push is performed. What solution would allow the developer to perform a code push efficiently, without the need to update the API Gateway? A.Associate different AWS Lambda functions to an API Gateway target endpoint. B.Create different stages in API Gateway, then associate API Gateway with AWS Lambda. C.Create aliases and versions in AWS Lambda. D.Tag the AWS Lambda functions with different names. Answer: C QUESTION 692 A developer wants to secure sensitive configuration data such as passwords, database strings, and application license codes. Access to this sensitive information must be tracked for future audit purposes. Where should the sensitive information be stored, adhering to security best practices and operational requirements? A.In an encrypted file on the source code bundle; grant the application access with Amazon IAM B.In the Amazon EC2 Systems Manager Parameter Store; grant the application access with IAM C.On an Amazon EBS encrypted volume; attach the volume to an Amazon EC2 instance to access the data D.As an object in an Amazon S3 bucket; grant an Amazon EC2 instance access with an IAM role Answer: B QUESTION 693 A developer has built an application using Amazon Cognito for authentication and authorization. After a user is successfully logged in to the application, the application creates a user record in an Amazon DynamoDB table. What is the correct flow to authenticate the user and create a record in the DynamoDB table? A.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito user pool. Use the token to access DynamoDB. B.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito identity pool. Use the token to access DynamoDB. C.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito user pool. Exchange the token for AWS credentials with an Amazon Cognito identity pool. Use the credentials to access DynamoDB. D.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito identity pool. Exchange the token for AWS credentials with an Amazon Cognito user pool. Use the credentials to access DynamoDB. Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go AWS-Developer-Associate PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1dvoSqn8UfssZYMvGJJdAPW320Fvfpph3?usp=sharing
IBM pr眉fung C1000-010 Testfragen deutsch
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Pros and Cons of Flutter for Mobile App Development
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(April-2021)Braindump2go PT0-001 PDF and PT0-001 VCE Dumps(Q29-Q49)
QUESTION 230 At the information gathering stage, a penetration tester is trying to passively identify the technology running on a client's website. Which of the following approached should the penetration tester take? A.Run a spider scan in Burp Suite. B.Use web aggregators such as BuiltWith and Netcraft C.Run a web scraper and pull the website's content. D.Use Nmap to fingerprint the website's technology. Answer: A QUESTION 231 Which of the following BEST protects against a rainbow table attack? A.Increased password complexity B.Symmetric encryption C.Cryptographic salting D.Hardened OS configurations Answer: A QUESTION 232 A penetration tester is assessing the security of a web form for a client and enters ";id" in one of the fields. The penetration tester observes the following response: Based on the response, which of the following vulnerabilities exists? A.SQL injection B.Session hijacking C.Command injection D.XSS/XSRF Answer: C QUESTION 233 A penetration tester is connected to a client's local network and wants to passively identify cleartext protocols and potentially sensitive data being communicated across the network. Which of the following is the BEST approach to take? A.Run a network vulnerability scan. B.Run a stress test. C.Run an MITM attack. D.Run a port scan. Answer: C QUESTION 234 A penetration tester directly connects to an internal network. Which of the following exploits would work BEST for quick lateral movement within an internal network? A.Crack password hashes in /etc/shadow for network authentication. B.Launch dictionary attacks on RDP. C.Conduct a whaling campaign. D.Poison LLMNR and NBNS requests. Answer: A QUESTION 235 A penetration tester runs the following on a machine: Which of the following will be returned? A.1 B.3 C.5 D.6 Answer: B QUESTION 236 A penetration tester discovers an anonymous FTP server that is sharing the C:\drive. Which of the following is the BEST exploit? A.Place a batch script in the startup folder for all users. B.Change a service binary location path to point to the tester's own payload. C.Escalate the tester's privileges to SYSTEM using the at.exe command. D.Download, modify, and reupload a compromised registry to obtain code execution. Answer: B QUESTION 237 Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive type of penetration test on a network? A.Black box B.White box C.Gray box D.Red team E.Architecture review Answer: A QUESTION 238 An attacker performed a MITM attack against a mobile application. The attacker is attempting to manipulate the application's network traffic via a proxy tool. The attacker only sees limited traffic as cleartext. The application log files indicate secure SSL/TLS connections are failing. Which of the following is MOST likely preventing proxying of all traffic? A.Misconfigured routes B.Certificate pinning C.Strong cipher suites D.Closed ports Answer: B QUESTION 239 A company decides to remediate issues identified from a third-party penetration test done to its infrastructure. Management should instruct the IT team to: A.execute the hot fixes immediately to all vulnerabilities found. B.execute the hot fixes immediately to some vulnerabilities. C.execute the hot fixes during the routine quarterly patching. D.evaluate the vulnerabilities found and execute the hot fixes. Answer: D QUESTION 240 A penetration tester successfully exploits a system, receiving a reverse shell. Which of the following is a Meterpreter command that is used to harvest locally stored credentials? A.background B.hashdump C.session D.getuid E.psexec Answer: B QUESTION 241 A penetration tester is testing a web application and is logged in as a lower-privileged user. The tester runs arbitrary JavaScript within an application, which sends an XMLHttpRequest, resulting in exploiting features to which only an administrator should have access. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the vulnerability? A.Implement authorization checks. B.Sanitize all the user input. C.Prevent directory traversal. D.Add client-side security controls Answer: A QUESTION 242 During the exploitation phase of a penetration test, a vulnerability is discovered that allows command execution on a Linux web server. A cursory review confirms the system access is only in a low-privilege user context: www-data. After reviewing, the following output from /etc/sudoers: Which of the following users should be targeted for privilege escalation? A.Only members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, ADMINS, jedwards, and operator can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. B.All users on the machine can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. C.Bfranks, emann, members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. D.Jedwards, operator, bfranks, emann, OPERATOR, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. Answer: A QUESTION 243 During an engagement, a consultant identifies a number of areas that need further investigation and require an extension of the engagement. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the engagement may not be able to continue? A.The consultant did not sign an NDA. B.The consultant was not provided with the appropriate testing tools. C.The company did not properly scope the project. D.The initial findings were not communicated to senior leadership. Answer: C QUESTION 244 A penetration tester has been hired to perform a penetration test for an organization. Which of the following is indicative of an error-based SQL injection attack? A.a=1 or 1鈥撯 B.1=1 or b鈥撯 C.1=1 or 2鈥撯 D.1=1 or a鈥撯 Answer: A QUESTION 245 When negotiating a penetration testing contract with a prospective client, which of the following disclaimers should be included in order to mitigate liability in case of a future breach of the client's systems? A.The proposed mitigations and remediations in the final report do not include a cost-benefit analysis. B.The NDA protects the consulting firm from future liabilities in the event of a breach. C.The assessment reviewed the cyber key terrain and most critical assets of the client's network. D.The penetration test is based on the state of the system and its configuration at the time of assessment. Answer: D QUESTION 246 A tester was able to retrieve domain users' hashes. Which of the following tools can be used to uncover the users' passwords? (Choose two.) A.Hydra B.Mimikatz C.Hashcat D.John the Ripper E.PSExec F.Nessus Answer: BE QUESTION 247 A penetration tester is attempting to open a socket in a bash script but receives errors when running it. The current state of the relevant line in the script is as follows: Which of the following lines of code would correct the issue upon substitution? A.open 0<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}:${PORT} B.exec 0</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} C.exec 0</dev/tcp/$[HOST]:$[PORT] D.exec 3<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} E.open 3</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} F.open 3</dev/tcp/$[HOST]/$[PORT] Answer: C QUESTION 248 A vulnerability scan report shows what appears to be evidence of a memory disclosure vulnerability on one of the target hosts. The administrator claims the system is patched and the evidence is a false positive. Which of the following is the BEST method for a tester to confirm the vulnerability exists? A.Manually run publicly available exploit code. B.Confirm via evidence of the updated version number. C.Run the vulnerability scanner again. D.Perform dynamic analysis on the vulnerable service. Answer: C QUESTION 249 A penetration tester has gained physical access to a facility and connected directly into the internal network. The penetration tester now wants to pivot into the server VLAN. Which of the following would accomplish this? A.Spoofing a printer's MAC address B.Abusing DTP negotiation C.Performing LLMNR poisoning D.Conducting an STP attack Answer: D QUESTION 250 During an engagement an unsecure direct object reference vulnerability was discovered that allows the extraction of highly sensitive PII. The tester is required to extract and then exfil the information from a web application with identifiers 1 through 1000 inclusive. When running the following script, an error is encountered: Which of the following lines of code is causing the problem? A.url = "https://www.comptia.org?id=" B.req = requests.get(url) C.if req.status ==200: D.url += i Answer: D QUESTION 251 A security team is switching firewall vendors. The director of security wants to scope a penetration test to satisfy requirements to perform the test after major architectural changes. Which of the following is the BEST way to approach the project? A.Design a penetration test approach, focusing on publicly released firewall DoS vulnerabilities. B.Review the firewall configuration, followed by a targeted attack by a read team. C.Perform a discovery scan to identify changes in the network. D.Focus on an objective-based approach to assess network assets with a red team. Answer: D QUESTION 252 A penetration tester has identified a directory traversal vulnerability. Which of the following payloads could have helped the penetration tester identify this vulnerability? 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