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(April-2021)Braindump2go AZ-303 PDF and AZ-303 VCE Dumps(Q223-Q233)
QUESTION 223 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription. You have an on-premises file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2019. You manage Server1 by using Windows Admin Center. You need to ensure that if Server1 fails, you can recover Server1 files from Azure. Solution: You register Windows Admin Center in Azure and configure Azure Backup. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 224 You have an application that is hosted across multiple Azure regions. You need to ensure that users connect automatically to their nearest application host based on network latency. What should you implement? A.Azure Application Gateway B.Azure Load Balancer C.Azure Traffic Manager D.Azure Bastion Answer: C QUESTION 225 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company is deploying an on-premises application named App1. Users will access App1 by using a URL of https://app1.contoso.com. You register App1 in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and publish App1 by using the Azure AD Application Proxy. You need to ensure that App1 appears in the My Apps portal for all the users. Solution: You modify User and Groups for App1. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 226 You create a social media application that users can use to upload images and other content. Users report that adult content is being posted in an area of the site that is accessible to and intended for young children. You need to automatically detect and flag potentially offensive content. The solution must not require any custom coding other than code to scan and evaluate images. What should you implement? A.Bing Visual Search B.Bing Image Search C.Custom Vision Search D.Computer Vision API Answer: D QUESTION 227 You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains the resource groups in the following table. RG1 has a web app named WebApp1. WebApp1 is located in West Europe. You move WebApp1 to RG2. What is the effect of the move? A.The App Service plan for WebApp1 moves to North Europe. Policy1 applies to WebApp1. B.The App Service plan for WebApp1 remains in West Europe. Policy1 applies to WebApp1. C.The App Service plan for WebApp1 moves to North Europe. Policy2 applies to WebApp1. D.The App Service plan for WebApp1 remains in West Europe. Policy2 applies to WebApp1. Answer: D QUESTION 228 You have an Azure App Service API that allows users to upload documents to the cloud with a mobile device. A mobile app connects to the service by using REST API calls. When a new document is uploaded to the service, the service extracts the document metadata. Usage statistics for the app show significant increases in app usage. The extraction process is CPU-intensive. You plan to modify the API to use a queue. You need to ensure that the solution scales, handles request spikes, and reduces costs between request spikes. What should you do? A.Configure a CPU Optimized virtual machine (VM) and install the Web App service on the new instance. B.Configure a series of CPU Optimized virtual machine (VM) instances and install extraction logic to process a queue. C.Move the extraction logic into an Azure Function. Create a queue triggered function to process the queue. D.Configure Azure Container Service to retrieve items from a queue and run across a pool of virtual machine (VM) nodes using the extraction logic. Answer: C QUESTION 229 You have an Azure App Service named WebApp1. You plan to add a WebJob named WebJob1 to WebApp1. You need to ensure that WebJob1 is triggered every 15 minutes. What should you do? A.Change the Web.config file to include the 0*/15**** CRON expression B.From the application settings of WebApp1, add a default document named Settings.job. Add the 1-31 1-12 1-7 0*/15* CRON expression to the JOB file C.Add a file named Settings.job to the ZIP file that contains the WebJob script. Add the 0*/15**** CRON expression to the JOB file D.Create an Azure Automation account and add a schedule to the account. Set the recurrence for the schedule Answer: C QUESTION 230 You have an Azure App Service named WebApp1. You plan to add a WebJob named WebJob1 to WebApp1. You need to ensure that WebJob1 is triggered every 15 minutes. What should you do? A.Change the Web.config file to include the 1-31 1-12 1-7 0*/15* CRON expression B.From the properties of WebJob1, change the CRON expression to 0*/15****. C.Add a file named Settings.job to the ZIP file that contains the WebJob script. Add the 1-31 1-12 1-7 0*/15* CRON expression to the JOB file D.Create an Azure Automation account and add a schedule to the account. Set the recurrence for the schedule Answer: B QUESTION 231 You have an on-premises web app named App1 that is behind a firewall. The firewall blocks all incoming network traffic. You need to expose App1 to the internet via Azure. The solution must meet the following requirements: - Ensure that access to App1 requires authentication by using Azure. - Avoid deploying additional services and servers to the on-premises network. What should you use? A.Azure Application Gateway B.Azure Relay C.Azure Front Door Service D.Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Application Proxy Answer: D QUESTION 232 Your company is developing an e-commerce Azure App Service Web App to support hundreds of restaurant locations around the world. You are designing the messaging solution architecture to support the e-commerce transactions and messages. The solution will include the following features: You need to design a solution for the Inventory Distribution feature. Which Azure service should you use? A.Azure Service Bus B.Azure Relay C.Azure Event Grid D.Azure Event Hub Answer: A QUESTION 233 You are responsible for mobile app development for a company. The company develops apps on IOS, and Android. You plan to integrate push notifications into every app. You need to be able to send users alerts from a backend server. Which two options can you use to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.Azure Web App B.Azure Mobile App Service C.Azure SQL Database D.Azure Notification Hubs E.a virtual machine Answer: BD QUESTION 234 Hotspot Question You need to design an authentication solution that will integrate on-premises Active Directory and Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The solution must meet the following requirements: - Active Directory users must not be able to sign in to Azure AD-integrated apps outside of the sign-in hours configured in the Active Directory user accounts. - Active Directory users must authenticate by using multi-factor authentication (MFA) when they sign in to Azure AD-integrated apps. - Administrators must be able to obtain Azure AD-generated reports that list the Active Directory users who have leaked credentials. - The infrastructure required to implement and maintain the solution must be minimized. What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 235 Hotspot Question You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources shown in the following table. You plan to deploy an Azure virtual machine that will have the following configurations: - Name: VM1 - Azure region: Central US - Image: Ubuntu Server 18.04 LTS - Operating system disk size: 1 TB - Virtual machine generation: Gen 2 - Operating system disk type: Standard SSD You need to protect VM1 by using Azure Disk Encryption and Azure Backup. On VM1, which configurations should you change? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go AZ-303 PDF and AZ-303 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1l4-Ncx3vdn9Ra2pN5d9Lnjv3pxbJpxZB?usp=sharing
(April-2021)Braindump2go 1Y0-231 PDF and 1Y0-231 VCE Dumps(Q21-Q41)
Question: 21 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to test a SAML authentication deployment to be used by internal users while accessing several externally hosted applications. During testing, the administrator notices that after successfully accessing any partner application, subsequent applications seem to launch without any explicit authentication request. Which statement is true regarding the behavior described above? A.It is expected if the Citrix ADC appliance is the common SAML identity provider (IdP) for all partners. B.It is expected due to SAML authentication successfully logging on to all internal applications. C.It is expected if all partner organizations use a common SAML service provider (SP). D.It indicates the SAML authentication has failed and the next available protocol was used. Answer: B Question: 22 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configured SNMP to send traps to an external SNMP system. When reviewing the messages, the administrator notices several entity UP and entity DOWN messages. To what are these messages related? A.Load-balancing virtual servers B.SSL certificate C.VLAN D.High availability nodes Answer: A Question: 23 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configured a new router that requires some incoming and outgoing traffic to take different paths through it. The administrator notices that this is failing and runs a network trace. After a short monitoring period, the administrator notices that the packets are still NOT getting to the new router from the Citrix ADC. Which mode should the administrator disable on the Citrix ADC to facilitate the successful routing of the packets? A.Layer3 B.USNIP C.MAC-based forwarding (MBF) D.USIP Answer: C Question: 24 A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Citrix ADC high availability (HA) pair with each Citrix ADC in a different subnet. What does the administrator need to do for HA to work in different subnets? A.Configure SyncVLAN B.Turn on Independent Network Configuration (INC) mode C.Turn on HA monitoring on all Interfaces D.Turn on fail-safe mode Answer: B Question: 25 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is managing a Citrix Gateway with a standard platform license and remote employees in the environment. The administrator wants to increase access by 3,000 users through the Citrix Gateway using VPN access. Which license should the administrator recommend purchasing? A.Citrix Gateway Express B.Citrix ADC Upgrade C.Citrix Gateway Universal D.Citrix ADC Burst Pack Answer: C Reference: https://support.citrix.com/content/dam/supportWS/kA560000000TNDvCAO/XD_and_XA_7.x_Licens ing_FAQ.pdf Question: 26 Which four steps should a Citrix Administrator take to configure SmartAccess? (Choose four.) A.Execute “set-BrokerSite -TrustRequestsSentToTheXMLServicePort $True” on any Citrix Delivery Controller in the Site. B.Enable Citrix Workspace control within StoreFront. C.Ensure that the SmartAccess filter name on the Delivery Group matches the name of the Citrix Gateway virtual server. D.Ensure that the SmartAccess filter name on the Delivery Group matches the name of the Citrix Gateway policy. E.Ensure that ICA Only is unchecked on the Citrix Gateway virtual server. F.Ensure that the Callback URL is defined in the Citrix Gateway configuration within Store Front. G.Ensure that ICA Only is checked on the Citrix Gateway virtual server. Answer: ACEF Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX227055 Question: 27 Which three Citrix Gateway elements can be configured by the Citrix Gateway Wizard? (Choose three.) A.The rewrite policy for HTTP to HTTPS redirect B.The responder policy for HTTP to HTTPS redirect C.The Citrix Gateway primary virtual server D.The bind SSL server certificate for the Citrix Gateway virtual server E.The primary and optional secondary authentications Answer: CDE Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/12-1/citrix-gateway-12.1.pdf (333) Question: 28 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configures an access control list (ACL) to block traffic from the IP address 10.102.29.5: add simpleacl rule1 DENY -srcIP 10.102.29.5 A week later, the administrator discovers that the ACL is no longer present on the Citrix ADC. What could be the reason for this? A.The administrator did NOT run the apply ACL command. B.The simple ACLs remain active for only 600 seconds. C.The simple ACLs remain active for only 60 seconds. D.The Citrix ADC has been restarted without saving the configurations. Answer: A Question: 29 While applying a new Citrix ADC device, a Citrix Administrator notices an issue with the time on the appliance. Which two steps can the administrator perform to automatically adjust the time? (Choose two.) A.Add an SNMP manager. B.Add an SNMP trap. C.Enable NTP synchronization. D.Add an NTP server. E.Configure an NTP monitor. Answer: CE Question: 30 A Citrix Network Engineer informs a Citrix Administrator that a data interface used by Citrix ADC SDX is being saturated. Which action could the administrator take to address this bandwidth concern? A.Add a second interface to each Citrix ADC VPX instance. B.Configure LACP on the SDX for management interface. C.Configure LACP on the SDX for the data interface. D.Configure a failover interface set on each Citrix ADC VPX instance. Answer: C Reference: https://training.citrix.com/public/Exam+Prep+Guides/241/1Y0- 241_Exam_Preparation_Guide_v01.pdf (22) Question: 31 Scenario: Users are attempting to logon through Citrix Gateway. They successfully pass the Endpoint Analysis (EPA) scan, but are NOT able to see the client choices at logon. What can a Citrix Administrator disable to allow users to see the client choices at logon? A.Quarantine groups B.Client choices globally C.Split tunneling D.nFactor authentication Answer: A Reference: https://www.carlstalhood.com/category/netscaler/netscaler-12/netscaler-gateway-12/ Question: 32 Scenario: To meet the security requirements of the organization, a Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Citrix Gateway virtual server with time-outs for user sessions triggered by the behaviors below: Inactivity for at least 15 minutes. No keyboard or mouse activity for at least 15 minutes Which set of time-out settings can the administrator configure to meet the requirements? A.Session time-out and client idle time-out set to 15 B.Session time-out and forced time-out set to 15 C.Client idle time-out and forced time-out set to 15 D.Client idle time-out and forced time-out set to 900 Answer: A Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/current-release/vpn-user-config/configure- pluginconnections/configure-time-out-settings.html Question: 33 A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Citrix Gateway virtual IP to allow incoming connections initiated exclusively from web browser sessions. Which advanced policy will accomplish this? A.REQ.HTTP.HEADER User-Agent NOTCONTAINS CitrixReceiver B.REQ.HTTP.HEADER User-Agent CONTAINS Chrome/78.0.3904.108 Safari/537.36 C.HTTP.REQ.HEADER(“User-Agent”).CONTAINS(“Mozilla”) D.HTTP.REQ.HEADER(“User-Agent”).CONTAINS(“CitrixReceiver”) Answer: A Reference: https://stalhood2.rssing.com/chan-58610415/all_p2.html Question: 34 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator currently manages a Citrix ADC environment for a growing retail company that may soon double its business volume. A Citrix ADC MPX 5901 is currently handling web and SSL transactions, but is close to full capacity. Due to the forecasted growth, the administrator needs to find a costeffective solution. Which cost-effective recommendation can the administrator provide to management to handle the growth? A.A license upgrade to a Citrix ADC MPX 5905 B.The addition of another MPX 5901 appliance C.A hardware upgrade to a Citrix ADC MPX 8905 D.A hardware upgrade to a Citrix ADC SDX 15020 Answer: A Question: 35 What can a Citrix Administrator configure to access RDP shortcuts? A.Split tunneling B.Bookmarks C.Next hop server D.Intranet applications Answer: B Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/current-release/rdp-proxy.html Question: 36 If a user device does NOT comply with a company’s security requirements, which type of policy can a Citrix Administrator apply to a Citrix Gateway virtual server to limit access to Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops resources? A.Session B.Responder C.Authorization D.Traffic Answer: A Reference:https://www.citrix.com/content/dam/citrix/en_us/documents/products- solutions/creating-andenforcing-advanced-access-policies-with-xenapp.pdf Question: 37 A Citrix Administrator has received a low disk space alert for /var on the Citrix ADC. Which type of files should the administrator archive to free up space? A.Syslog B.Nslog C.DNScache D.Nsconfig Answer: B Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX205014?recommended Question: 38 Which license type must be installed to configure Endpoint Analysis scans? A.Citrix Web App Firewall B.Universal C.Platform D.Burst pack Answer: B Reference:https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/current-release/citrix-gateway-licensing.html Question: 39 Which two features can a Citrix Administrator use to allow secure external access to a sensitive company web server that is load-balanced by the Citrix ADC? (Choose two.) A.Authentication, authorization, and auditing (AAA) B.Citrix Web App Firewall C.ICA proxy D.AppFlow E.Integrated caching Answer: AB Question: 40 Scenario: A Citrix ADC MPX is using one of four available 10G ports. A Citrix Administrator discovers a traffic bottleneck at the Citrix ADC. What can the administrator do to increase bandwidth on the Citrix ADC? A.Add two more 10G Citrix ADC ports to the network and configure VLAN. B.Add another 10G Citrix ADC port to the switch, and configure link aggregation control protocol (LACP). C.Purchase another Citrix ADC MPX appliance. D.Plug another 10G Citrix ADC port into the router. Answer: A Question: 41 Scenario: Client connections to certain virtual servers are abnormally high. A Citrix Administrator needs to be alerted whenever the connections pass a certain threshold. How can the administrator use Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to accomplish this? A.Configure TCP Insight on the Citrix ADM. B.Configure SMTP reporting on the Citrix ADM by adding the threshold and email address. C.Configure specific alerts for virtual servers using Citrix ADM. D.Configure network reporting on the Citrix ADM by setting the threshold and email address. Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go 1Y0-231 PDF and 1Y0-231 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1QWBrUQIP4dhwazi-gFooYmyX1m-iWAlw?usp=sharing
If life is a game, You must be top Gamer
in case you are a professional gamer with excessive-give-up requirements or an informal gamer or streamer, this computer configuration will make sure you placed your money to high-quality use. when you’re spending an excessive amount of cash, there are numerous options to choose from and we will assist you to make the selections. Best Gaming Laptops The components we've decided on for this gaming computer will no longer simplest offer you the nice frame prices with remarkable pics in games nowadays however additionally live aggressive within the destiny. For the CPU we've long gone in favor of the blue team. The i5 9400F is an ideal mid-range gaming processor. although it’s a completely stable preference to go with, there are worth options from the red group as well. The AMD Ryzen 5 2600 is likewise available in a similar price category, a touch extra high priced. Why we've got chosen the i5 9400F over the Ryzen counterpart is the high single-center performance. The middle i5 pulls ahead inside the unmarried-center workloads which makes it higher for gaming. but, Ryzen CPUs are recognized to perform better in multicore situations, like video enhancing or rendering. In case you are a content material writer, you may take gain of the 6 cores and 12 threads on the Ryzen five 2600 vs the 6 cores and six threads on the i5 9400F. Spending a few more money will advantage you if you could exploit the hyper-threading. As this pc is focused on gaming, we will go together with the gaming king, Intel. Acer Predator Helios 300 New Inspiron 15 7501 By Dell ASUS ROG Zephyrus G14 Lenovo Legion Y7000 SE Laptop Acer Nitro 5 HP Gaming Pavilion 15 Asus TUF Gaming A17 MSI GF65 M1 Macbook Air Acer Predator Triton 300
(April-2021)Braindump2go PT0-001 PDF and PT0-001 VCE Dumps(Q29-Q49)
QUESTION 230 At the information gathering stage, a penetration tester is trying to passively identify the technology running on a client's website. Which of the following approached should the penetration tester take? A.Run a spider scan in Burp Suite. B.Use web aggregators such as BuiltWith and Netcraft C.Run a web scraper and pull the website's content. D.Use Nmap to fingerprint the website's technology. Answer: A QUESTION 231 Which of the following BEST protects against a rainbow table attack? A.Increased password complexity B.Symmetric encryption C.Cryptographic salting D.Hardened OS configurations Answer: A QUESTION 232 A penetration tester is assessing the security of a web form for a client and enters ";id" in one of the fields. The penetration tester observes the following response: Based on the response, which of the following vulnerabilities exists? A.SQL injection B.Session hijacking C.Command injection D.XSS/XSRF Answer: C QUESTION 233 A penetration tester is connected to a client's local network and wants to passively identify cleartext protocols and potentially sensitive data being communicated across the network. Which of the following is the BEST approach to take? A.Run a network vulnerability scan. B.Run a stress test. C.Run an MITM attack. D.Run a port scan. Answer: C QUESTION 234 A penetration tester directly connects to an internal network. Which of the following exploits would work BEST for quick lateral movement within an internal network? A.Crack password hashes in /etc/shadow for network authentication. B.Launch dictionary attacks on RDP. C.Conduct a whaling campaign. D.Poison LLMNR and NBNS requests. Answer: A QUESTION 235 A penetration tester runs the following on a machine: Which of the following will be returned? A.1 B.3 C.5 D.6 Answer: B QUESTION 236 A penetration tester discovers an anonymous FTP server that is sharing the C:\drive. Which of the following is the BEST exploit? A.Place a batch script in the startup folder for all users. B.Change a service binary location path to point to the tester's own payload. C.Escalate the tester's privileges to SYSTEM using the at.exe command. D.Download, modify, and reupload a compromised registry to obtain code execution. Answer: B QUESTION 237 Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive type of penetration test on a network? A.Black box B.White box C.Gray box D.Red team E.Architecture review Answer: A QUESTION 238 An attacker performed a MITM attack against a mobile application. The attacker is attempting to manipulate the application's network traffic via a proxy tool. The attacker only sees limited traffic as cleartext. The application log files indicate secure SSL/TLS connections are failing. Which of the following is MOST likely preventing proxying of all traffic? A.Misconfigured routes B.Certificate pinning C.Strong cipher suites D.Closed ports Answer: B QUESTION 239 A company decides to remediate issues identified from a third-party penetration test done to its infrastructure. Management should instruct the IT team to: A.execute the hot fixes immediately to all vulnerabilities found. B.execute the hot fixes immediately to some vulnerabilities. C.execute the hot fixes during the routine quarterly patching. D.evaluate the vulnerabilities found and execute the hot fixes. Answer: D QUESTION 240 A penetration tester successfully exploits a system, receiving a reverse shell. Which of the following is a Meterpreter command that is used to harvest locally stored credentials? A.background B.hashdump C.session D.getuid E.psexec Answer: B QUESTION 241 A penetration tester is testing a web application and is logged in as a lower-privileged user. The tester runs arbitrary JavaScript within an application, which sends an XMLHttpRequest, resulting in exploiting features to which only an administrator should have access. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the vulnerability? A.Implement authorization checks. B.Sanitize all the user input. C.Prevent directory traversal. D.Add client-side security controls Answer: A QUESTION 242 During the exploitation phase of a penetration test, a vulnerability is discovered that allows command execution on a Linux web server. A cursory review confirms the system access is only in a low-privilege user context: www-data. After reviewing, the following output from /etc/sudoers: Which of the following users should be targeted for privilege escalation? A.Only members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, ADMINS, jedwards, and operator can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. B.All users on the machine can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. C.Bfranks, emann, members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. D.Jedwards, operator, bfranks, emann, OPERATOR, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. Answer: A QUESTION 243 During an engagement, a consultant identifies a number of areas that need further investigation and require an extension of the engagement. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the engagement may not be able to continue? A.The consultant did not sign an NDA. B.The consultant was not provided with the appropriate testing tools. C.The company did not properly scope the project. D.The initial findings were not communicated to senior leadership. Answer: C QUESTION 244 A penetration tester has been hired to perform a penetration test for an organization. Which of the following is indicative of an error-based SQL injection attack? A.a=1 or 1–– B.1=1 or b–– C.1=1 or 2–– D.1=1 or a–– Answer: A QUESTION 245 When negotiating a penetration testing contract with a prospective client, which of the following disclaimers should be included in order to mitigate liability in case of a future breach of the client's systems? A.The proposed mitigations and remediations in the final report do not include a cost-benefit analysis. B.The NDA protects the consulting firm from future liabilities in the event of a breach. C.The assessment reviewed the cyber key terrain and most critical assets of the client's network. D.The penetration test is based on the state of the system and its configuration at the time of assessment. Answer: D QUESTION 246 A tester was able to retrieve domain users' hashes. Which of the following tools can be used to uncover the users' passwords? (Choose two.) A.Hydra B.Mimikatz C.Hashcat D.John the Ripper E.PSExec F.Nessus Answer: BE QUESTION 247 A penetration tester is attempting to open a socket in a bash script but receives errors when running it. The current state of the relevant line in the script is as follows: Which of the following lines of code would correct the issue upon substitution? A.open 0<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}:${PORT} B.exec 0</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} C.exec 0</dev/tcp/$[HOST]:$[PORT] D.exec 3<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} E.open 3</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} F.open 3</dev/tcp/$[HOST]/$[PORT] Answer: C QUESTION 248 A vulnerability scan report shows what appears to be evidence of a memory disclosure vulnerability on one of the target hosts. The administrator claims the system is patched and the evidence is a false positive. Which of the following is the BEST method for a tester to confirm the vulnerability exists? A.Manually run publicly available exploit code. B.Confirm via evidence of the updated version number. C.Run the vulnerability scanner again. D.Perform dynamic analysis on the vulnerable service. Answer: C QUESTION 249 A penetration tester has gained physical access to a facility and connected directly into the internal network. The penetration tester now wants to pivot into the server VLAN. Which of the following would accomplish this? A.Spoofing a printer's MAC address B.Abusing DTP negotiation C.Performing LLMNR poisoning D.Conducting an STP attack Answer: D QUESTION 250 During an engagement an unsecure direct object reference vulnerability was discovered that allows the extraction of highly sensitive PII. The tester is required to extract and then exfil the information from a web application with identifiers 1 through 1000 inclusive. When running the following script, an error is encountered: Which of the following lines of code is causing the problem? A.url = "https://www.comptia.org?id=" B.req = requests.get(url) C.if req.status ==200: D.url += i Answer: D QUESTION 251 A security team is switching firewall vendors. The director of security wants to scope a penetration test to satisfy requirements to perform the test after major architectural changes. Which of the following is the BEST way to approach the project? A.Design a penetration test approach, focusing on publicly released firewall DoS vulnerabilities. B.Review the firewall configuration, followed by a targeted attack by a read team. C.Perform a discovery scan to identify changes in the network. D.Focus on an objective-based approach to assess network assets with a red team. Answer: D QUESTION 252 A penetration tester has identified a directory traversal vulnerability. Which of the following payloads could have helped the penetration tester identify this vulnerability? A.‘or ‘folder’ like ‘file’; –– B.|| is /tmp/ C.“><script>document.location=/root/</script> D.&& dir C:/ E.../../../../../../../. Answer: E QUESTION 253 An individual has been hired by an organization after passing a background check. The individual has been passing information to a competitor over a period of time. Which of the following classifications BEST describes the individual? A.APT B.Insider threat C.Script kiddie D.Hacktivist Answer: B QUESTION 254 A senior employee received a suspicious email from another executive requesting an urgent wire transfer. Which of the following types of attacks is likely occurring? A.Spear phishing B.Business email compromise C.Vishing D.Whaling Answer: A 2021 Latest Braindump2go PT0-001 PDF and PT0-001 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1upxI-JhgoyePRzSCJXgkSKrKo53vlXSw?usp=sharing
How do I Manually Connect to my Brother Wireless Printer?
How to Manually Connect to Brother Wireless Printer? Brother wireless printer has a large customer base not only because of the product quality but the customer services too. Though, many users find it hard to comprehend the connection. It is quite possible with those who are using the device for the first time. If you are one among them and want to connect with Brother wireless printer manually, and then go through below mentioned write-up. Steps of Connecting To Brother Wireless Printer Manually There are some easy steps that can make the connection process easy and you can leverage this amazing wireless printer. 1. First of all, you have to connect all the chords of the Brother printer. All of them are connected properly. 2. Go to the machine’s control panel and click on the Menu option. 3. Now, you have to select the arrow key to select the network. 4. When you find the available network, click on “Ok” and move to the next option. 5. Select WLAN and press Ok, but these steps may not be applicable to all the available devices. But, if it is present or applicable then you can see this on the screen. 6. Now, set up the WIZARD, you have to again use the Up and Down key. There will be different Wizards, then you have to connect with the one which is available. 7. Check WLAN is enabled or not, if it is not, click ON. It may take a few seconds or minutes, but during this make sure the printer is getting the continuous source. 8. Go for the SSID and select and press Ok. 9. If your printer is connected, then you can see on the display, connection: Ok, and if not, then Connection: xx. If you are searching for how do I troubleshoot my Brother printer? Then you can direct the above-mentioned points after reset. If you face any complications while running this process, then you can connect with the service team and get technical assistance.
Know Which Is The Best Framework For Mobile App Development
React and Angular are two of the most common and versatile front-end development frameworks in the market, with both entering the Top 15 JS Frameworks for 2020 and this blog focuses on explaining to you in detail about them. In the coming minutes, you’ll learn what distinguishes Angular and React? Where the best React Native App Development business wins brownie points? and where brands can concentrate their energies on Angular app development.  We’ve focused this article on the comparison of Angular and React partly because they come from the same lineage as two strong rivals – Android and iOS and partly because they’re in some ways similar too.  For clearing the confusion about which is the best framework for Mobile App Development, we will cover Angular vs ReactJS equally and brief out on their functionalities, This will assist you in choosing the right framework as per your need.  Let’s discuss the fundamentals of React and Angular :- Angular:  Angular is an open-source JavaScript framework that is written in TypeScript. It was developed by Google and works with a variety of code editors. The use of Angular in front-end development is needed for the construction of interactive web apps and websites. It’s a full-featured JS platform for developing interactive single-page web applications. React: React Native is an open-source JavaScript library that was developed by Facebook. It is designed using JSX (a PHP extension) and JavaScript. The React Library breaks down a website into individual elements, making interface creation easier. The React JS system makes use of server-side rendering to provide a flexible and reliable solution. React vs. Angular: The Complete Comparison Let’s move on the next segment, where we’ll compare some elements in greater depth. 1- Learning Curve :- Angular has a very large database, learning all of the terms involved with it can take much more time than learning React Native. Since certain complex functions are built into the framework’s core, the developer would have to understand to use them. Furthermore, there are several methods to resolving a single issue. If you’re working with JavaScript, the React code would be relatively simple to understand. However, it takes quite some time to learn how to set up a project because there is no predefined project structure. You’ll also need to learn the Redux library, which is used to handle state in more than half of React applications.  2- Performance :- Bidirectional data-binding has a negative impact on the stability of Angular applications. The most recent version of Angular has greatly improved its performance, and it no longer follows React to the situation. Furthermore, an Angular application is significantly smaller than a React application. With the implementation of the interactive DOM, React’s performance has greatly improved. The load on the browser is reduced since all virtual DOM trees are lightweight and installed on a server. 3- Language :- Angular supports JavaScript and TypeScript, which is a superset of JS designed for bigger projects. TypeScript is smaller than JavaScript, the text is simpler to understand, and types are more obvious. The method of refactoring code also gets easier and quicker. React is built with JavaScript ES6+ and JSX script. JSX is a syntax extension that transforms JavaScript code into HTML-like syntax. This makes the code easier to understand, and typos are more easily identified. 4- App Structure :- Angular’s structure is fixed and complex, making it best suited for experienced developers. Model, Controller, and View are the three layers that make up Angular. The Controller creates an entity that is responsible for the Model and displays it with the View. React Native framework allows developers to make their own decisions. For a React app, there is no such thing as “the only correct framework.” Only the View layer is provided by React, while the Model and Controller layers are introduced by the use of third-party libraries. 5- App Performance and User Experience :- For its implementations, Angular uses real DOM. Real DOM is ideal for single-page websites that are maintained on a regular basis. Furthermore, the library is large, making the apps using Angular slower. UpWork is one of the most common Angular applications, since the user experience does not need to be modified regularly. React is ideally designed for pages that need frequent content updates because it uses a virtual DOM. The library is also small in size, making it more lightweight and dynamic. Instagram is an example of React, so the user feed must be updated frequently. 6- Testing :- Angular IO debugging and testing for an entire project is possible with single  software like Jasmine, Protractor, and Karma. React Js to perform various forms of checking, it needs a set of tools. 7- Ease of Update :- Angular releases one big upgrade every six months and gives each release a six-month depreciation term. The upgrade method is easy, and the complete system comes with its own set of packaged products. Scripts that use React can quickly switch between older and newer APIs. As we can see from Facebook’s interface, the APIs are very secure. In comparison to Angular, updates are fast and migration is easy. The major releases are secure and self-contained, but they have dynamic libraries. Key Features of Angular AJAX, HTTP, and Observables are all built-in. Large community support Typescript is time-saving. Consistent with technology Coding that is more clear and concise Error-handling support has been improved. Angular CLI allows for seamless updates. Local CSS / shadow DOM Separation of User Interface and Business Logic Key Features of React Allows to access libraries from other people. Time-Saving Simplicity and Composable Fully supported by Facebook. Improved customer interface and lightning-fast results. Faster Development One-directional binary linking provides code stability. React Components Angular and ReactJs Use Cases Choosing between Angular and React JS  is the most common confusion that most of us have experienced and are still familiar with. Let’s take a look at how Angular and Reactjs have collaborated to build world-changing applications. Angular vs React: When to choose what? In this part, we’ll go through some of the conditions where Angular or React is a good fit. When to Choose Angular? In the following scenarios, Angular is the best platform to use for your app: When you need ready-to-use applications for increased efficiency. When you need a feature-rich, large-scale framework When the development team has worked with Java, C#, and previous Angular versions, The app’s difficulty is still at a low to medium degree. When to Choose to React? In the following scenarios, the React Native framework would be the best option: when you require a multi-event app. When the application development team has HTML, CSS, and JavaScript knowledge. When the requirement demands a customized app approach, React is the way to go. When you want to make shareable components for your app. Benefits of Angular: Angular is a JavaScript framework that is great for creating dynamically interactive web applications. Let’s look at Five of Angular’s most important benefits:  1. Angular’s created to be used alongside Typescript and it has a lot of support for it. 2. Angular language support that provides intelligence and autocompletes for external HTML template files used by components. 3. Two-way data linking allows the app to behave in a unique way, reducing the probability of errors. 4. MVVM (Model-View-ViewModel) helps developers to work on different sections of the same app while using the same data. 5. Framework and design designed especially for project virtualization. Benefits of React:  React is a JavaScript library created by Facebook and open-sourced in 2013. It’s ideal for creating modern single-page apps of any size and scope. Let’s look at seven of React’s most important benefits:  Because of its simple interface, use of JSX (an HTML-like syntax) for templating, and extensive documentation, it’s simple to learn. Developers spend less time thinking about framework-specific programming and more time writing modern JavaScript.. React’s Virtual DOM implementation and numerous rendering optimizations make it extremely smooth. Since data linking is one-way, there are fewer undesirable side effects. Redux, React’s a most common framework for controlling application state, is simple to understand and master, and React implements Functional Programming (FP) principles, resulting in code that is easy to test and reuse. Type-safe applications can be created with either Microsoft’s TypeScript or Facebook’s Flow, all of which support JSX natively. React Native programming skills may be added (often directly) to React. What Does Angular and React Future Hold? By 2021, or even 2025, none of the two systems will be obsolete. Important updates have been made to React, allowing developers to easily provide input on new features, JavaScript syntax enhancements, and experimental APIs. Angular, on the other hand, has already seen a large uptick in use, which will continue with the release of Angular 10. The rest of the time, deciding which platform or UI library is best for your software project comes down to the app’s specifications, difficulty, and the product development company’s expertise. Which is Better? Before we come to any conclusions, we must remember that there is no such thing as the best framework or library. Choosing a framework or library is entirely dependent on the level of the project, its criteria, and its objectives. Any architecture or library has advantages and disadvantages, and React and Angular are no exception. Based on the above reasons, whether you are a novice or have little coding experience, as well as if you want consistency for your project, you can choose React because its learning curve is shorter and simpler, and the demand for jobs is higher than Angular.  If you choose Angular, you will find it annoying because big Angular updates occur every six months. Also, if you want a full-fledged architecture to create a large-scale project and want a straightforward coding approach, Angular is the way to go. Hope that reading this article helped you go for the right framework for your app and if you are willing to Read More React Native App Development page. You can also reach out to us via email at info@hashstudioz.com.
Planning of pharmacovigilance on the basis of the norms
The entire pharmacovigilance plan rotates the security completions of the cure. The plan is developed solely after a discussion with the regulators during thing progress. The technique can be a free record. In any case, it should have the exemplification of the whole undertaking. Meds with no bugs regularly go through an ordinary pharmacovigilance plan which ought to be satisfactory for post-support achievement checking with an additional exercises. Additional exercises are proposed to address concerns like anticipated perils or missing information for things with saw threats. The length of this report depends on the sudden new development and designing endeavor of the prescription. This pharmacovigilance plan expects a fundamental part in the development of the drug and should be reinforced constantly. This game-plan is revived as colossal information on the flourishing of the arrangement is found, and accomplishments are refined. Progression of the Pharmacovigilance Plan reliant on the Norms. Take Clinical Research Training. The improvement of a pharmacovigilance plan is the most central plan. This system is changed continually reliant on the achievement closes and the issues identified with a particular arrangement. Routine pharmacovigilance procedures are created on a wide degree of arrangements. These are done freed from the additional structures which are a piece of the pharmacovigilance plan. This consistently plan for the most part joins techniques and systems that guarantee that information essentially the total of the evaluated unfriendly outcomes uncovered are from the start amassed and later organized in an astounding manner. Routine frameworks in like manner join the improvement of reports for the authoritative arranged specialists. Uncommon achievement update reports (PSUR) and empowered hostile medicine reaction reports (ADR) are drawn up. Another sincere piece of this routine pharmacovigilant system intertwines the strong seeing of the achievement profile of the drug. This consolidates signal assertion, issue assessment, reviving of the inscriptions, and contact with the readied specialists. The local guidelines pick the rest. A philosophy for the achievement issues is acquainted and kept up subject with the objective of the proposed improvement of the cure. These consolidate rehearses proposed by the authentic medicine, the pondering these proposed rehearses achieved by the prescription, achievement profile of the arrangement, checking of the drug reliant on the security profile, the created accomplishments for appraisal and uncovering of the drug. An overall course of action for the arrangement joining the exercises for all individual security issues ought to be presented. It is practicable that accomplishments for the completion of the examinations and various types of appraisal and the solace of prospering results ought to be connected with the Pharmacovigilance Training. While in transit to achieving these accomplishments, the focal issues to be checked on include: •Results of the advancing or proposed security contemplates are to be open. •The responsiveness to the drug would have showed up at a particular level of depiction subject to the opposing effects of concern or settling a particular issue. The regulatory accomplishments are everything seen as agreed with these accomplishments. These are unequivocally used to change or revive the Pharmacovigilance plan.
(April-2021)Braindump2go OG0-091 PDF and OG0-091 VCE Dumps(Q249-Q270)
QUESTION 249 What ADM phase defines the scope for the architecture development initiative and identifies the stakeholders? A.Requirements Management B.Phase D: Technology Architecture C.Preliminary Phase D.Phase A: Architecture Vision E.Phase B: Business Architecture Answer: D QUESTION 250 What is the first step in the architecture development Phases B, C, and D? A.Develop Baseline Architecture Description B.Select reference models, viewpoints and tools C.Perform gap analysis D.Resolve impacts across the Architecture Landscape E.Conduct formal stakeholder review Answer: B QUESTION 251 TOGAF Part VII describes how the ADM can be used to establish an Architecture Capability in an organization. Which architecture would describe the architecture processes and organization structure? A.Technology Architecture B.Data Architecture C.Business Architecture D.Transition Architecture E.Application Architecture Answer: C QUESTION 252 Which one of the following is considered a relevant architecture resource in ADM Phase D? A.Existing application models B.Generic business models relevant to the organization's industry sector C.Existing IT services D.Generic data models relevant to the organization's industry sector Answer: C QUESTION 253 Which of the following terms is defined as the key interests that are crucially important to the stakeholders in a system? A.Viewpoints B.Concerns C.Requirements D.Principles E.Views Answer: B QUESTION 254 What are the four architecture domains that the TOGAF standard deals with? A.Capability, Segment, Enterprise, Federated B.Business, Data, Application, Technology C.Application, Data, Information, Knowledge D.Process, Organization, Strategic, Requirements E.Baseline, Candidate, Transition, Target Answer: B QUESTION 255 What ADM phase includes establishing the Architecture Capability and definition of Architecture Principles? A.Phase C: Data Architecture B.Preliminary Phase C.Phase A: Architecture Vision D.Phase F: Migration Planning E.Phase B: Business Architecture Answer: B QUESTION 256 In which part of the ADM cycle do the earliest building block definitions start as abstract entities? A.Phases E and F B.Preliminary Phase C.Phase B, C, and D D.Phase G and H E.Phase A Answer: E QUESTION 257 What is an objective of the ADM Preliminary Phase? A.To create the initial version of the Architecture Roadmap B.To develop a vision of the business value to be delivered by the proposed enterprise architecture C.To select and implement tools to support the Architecture Capability D.To obtain approval for the Statement of Architecture Work E.To document the baseline architecture Answer: C QUESTION 258 What is an objective of ADM Phase G, Implementation Governance? A.To ensure that implementation projects conform with the Target Architecture B.To ensure that the enterprise's Architecture Capability meets current requirements C.To assess the performance of the architecture and make recommendations for change D.To establish the value realization process E.To prioritise the projects through risk validation Answer: A QUESTION 259 What are considered as generic Building Blocks in the Solutions Continuum? A.Common Systems Solutions B.Strategic Solutions C.Industry Solutions D.Organization-Specific Solutions E.Foundation Solutions Answer: E QUESTION 260 What version number does the TOGAF ADM use to indicate that a high-level outline of the architecture is in place? A.Version 0.5 B.Version 0.7 C.Version 1.0 D.Version 0.1 E.Version 0.9 Answer: D QUESTION 261 In which ADM Phase is the focus the creation of an Implementation and Migration Plan in co-operation with the portfolio and project managers? A.Phase A B.Phase F C.Phase D D.Phase G E.Phase E Answer: B QUESTION 262 What level of risk is the risk categorization prior to determining and implementing mitigating actions? A.Marginal B.Residual C.Low D.Initial E.Critical Answer: D QUESTION 263 Complete the sentence. The major information areas managed by a governance repository should include __________________. A.Common Systems Solutions, Organization-Specific Solutions and Industry Solutions B.Catalogs, Matrices and Diagrams C.Artifacts, Best Practices and Standards D.Audit Information, Process Status and Reference Data E.Capability, Segment, and Transition Architectures Answer: D QUESTION 264 Which one of the following best describes the purpose of a Change Request? A.To act as a deliverable container for artifacts created during a project B.To ensure that the results of a Compliance Assessment are distributed to the Architecture Board C.To request a dispensation or to kick-start a further cycle of architecture work D.The ensure that information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time E.To review project progress and ensure the implementation is inline with the objectives Answer: C QUESTION 265 Complete the sentence. In the TOGAF Architecture Content Framework, a work product that shows the relationship between things is known as a ___________. A.deliverable B.matrix C.building block D.diagram E.catalog Answer: B QUESTION 266 Within the Architecture Repository, what does the class of information known as the Architecture Capability include? A.Parameters, structures, and processes to support governance of the repository B.Specifications to which architectures must conform C.The organization specific architecture framework, including a method for architecture development and a metamodel for architecture content D.A record of the governance activity across the enterprise E.Patterns, templates, and guidelines used to create new architectures Answer: A QUESTION 267 What are the levels of the Architecture Landscape? A.Foundation, Common and Solution Architectures B.Business, Data, Applications and Technology Architectures C.Capability, Segment and Strategic Architectures D.Corporate EA, Project Team and Portfolio Team Architectures E.Baseline, Transition and Target Architectures Answer: C QUESTION 268 In which ADM phase does the value and change management process determine the circumstances under which the Architecture Development Cycle will be initiated to develop a new architecture? A.Phase H B.Phase F C.Phase E D.Preliminary Phase E.Phase G Answer: A QUESTION 269 Which of the following best describes Requirements Management within the TOGAF ADM? A.Reviewing business requirements B.Addressing and prioritizing architecture requirements C.Developing requirements that deliver business value D.Validating requirements between ADM phases E.Managing architecture requirements throughout the ADM cycle Answer: E QUESTION 270 Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Architecture Requirements Specification? A.It is sent form the sponsor and triggers the start of an architecture development cycle B.It provides a list of work packages and a schedule for implementation of the target architecture C.It defines the scope and approach to complete an architecture project D.It provides a set of statements that outline what a project must do to comply with the architecture E.It contains an assessment of the current architecture requirements. Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go OG0-091 PDF and OG0-091 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1eRiDkUWfbKGtT5lDv9Bc2DEbQP0LDO-8?usp=sharing