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(April-2021)Braindump2go OG0-091 PDF and OG0-091 VCE Dumps(Q249-Q270)

QUESTION 249
What ADM phase defines the scope for the architecture development initiative and identifies the stakeholders?

A.Requirements Management
B.Phase D: Technology Architecture
C.Preliminary Phase
D.Phase A: Architecture Vision
E.Phase B: Business Architecture

Answer: D

QUESTION 250
What is the first step in the architecture development Phases B, C, and D?

A.Develop Baseline Architecture Description
B.Select reference models, viewpoints and tools
C.Perform gap analysis
D.Resolve impacts across the Architecture Landscape
E.Conduct formal stakeholder review

Answer: B

QUESTION 251
TOGAF Part VII describes how the ADM can be used to establish an Architecture Capability in an organization. Which architecture would describe the architecture processes and organization structure?

A.Technology Architecture
B.Data Architecture
C.Business Architecture
D.Transition Architecture
E.Application Architecture

Answer: C

QUESTION 252
Which one of the following is considered a relevant architecture resource in ADM Phase D?

A.Existing application models
B.Generic business models relevant to the organization's industry sector
C.Existing IT services
D.Generic data models relevant to the organization's industry sector

Answer: C

QUESTION 253
Which of the following terms is defined as the key interests that are crucially important to the stakeholders in a system?

A.Viewpoints
B.Concerns
C.Requirements
D.Principles
E.Views

Answer: B

QUESTION 254
What are the four architecture domains that the TOGAF standard deals with?

A.Capability, Segment, Enterprise, Federated
B.Business, Data, Application, Technology
C.Application, Data, Information, Knowledge
D.Process, Organization, Strategic, Requirements
E.Baseline, Candidate, Transition, Target

Answer: B

QUESTION 255
What ADM phase includes establishing the Architecture Capability and definition of Architecture Principles?

A.Phase C: Data Architecture
B.Preliminary Phase
C.Phase A: Architecture Vision
D.Phase F: Migration Planning
E.Phase B: Business Architecture

Answer: B

QUESTION 256
In which part of the ADM cycle do the earliest building block definitions start as abstract entities?

A.Phases E and F
B.Preliminary Phase
C.Phase B, C, and D
D.Phase G and H
E.Phase A

Answer: E

QUESTION 257
What is an objective of the ADM Preliminary Phase?

A.To create the initial version of the Architecture Roadmap
B.To develop a vision of the business value to be delivered by the proposed enterprise architecture
C.To select and implement tools to support the Architecture Capability
D.To obtain approval for the Statement of Architecture Work
E.To document the baseline architecture

Answer: C

QUESTION 258
What is an objective of ADM Phase G, Implementation Governance?

A.To ensure that implementation projects conform with the Target Architecture
B.To ensure that the enterprise's Architecture Capability meets current requirements
C.To assess the performance of the architecture and make recommendations for change
D.To establish the value realization process
E.To prioritise the projects through risk validation

Answer: A

QUESTION 259
What are considered as generic Building Blocks in the Solutions Continuum?

A.Common Systems Solutions
B.Strategic Solutions
C.Industry Solutions
D.Organization-Specific Solutions
E.Foundation Solutions

Answer: E

QUESTION 260
What version number does the TOGAF ADM use to indicate that a high-level outline of the architecture is in place?

A.Version 0.5
B.Version 0.7
C.Version 1.0
D.Version 0.1
E.Version 0.9

Answer: D

QUESTION 261
In which ADM Phase is the focus the creation of an Implementation and Migration Plan in co-operation with the portfolio and project managers?

A.Phase A
B.Phase F
C.Phase D
D.Phase G
E.Phase E

Answer: B

QUESTION 262
What level of risk is the risk categorization prior to determining and implementing mitigating actions?

A.Marginal
B.Residual
C.Low
D.Initial
E.Critical

Answer: D

QUESTION 263
Complete the sentence. The major information areas managed by a governance repository should include __________________.

A.Common Systems Solutions, Organization-Specific Solutions and Industry Solutions
B.Catalogs, Matrices and Diagrams
C.Artifacts, Best Practices and Standards
D.Audit Information, Process Status and Reference Data
E.Capability, Segment, and Transition Architectures

Answer: D

QUESTION 264
Which one of the following best describes the purpose of a Change Request?

A.To act as a deliverable container for artifacts created during a project
B.To ensure that the results of a Compliance Assessment are distributed to the Architecture Board
C.To request a dispensation or to kick-start a further cycle of architecture work
D.The ensure that information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time
E.To review project progress and ensure the implementation is inline with the objectives

Answer: C

QUESTION 265
Complete the sentence. In the TOGAF Architecture Content Framework, a work product that shows the relationship between things is known as a ___________.

A.deliverable
B.matrix
C.building block
D.diagram
E.catalog

Answer: B

QUESTION 266
Within the Architecture Repository, what does the class of information known as the Architecture Capability include?

A.Parameters, structures, and processes to support governance of the repository
B.Specifications to which architectures must conform
C.The organization specific architecture framework, including a method for architecture development and a metamodel for architecture content
D.A record of the governance activity across the enterprise
E.Patterns, templates, and guidelines used to create new architectures

Answer: A

QUESTION 267
What are the levels of the Architecture Landscape?

A.Foundation, Common and Solution Architectures
B.Business, Data, Applications and Technology Architectures
C.Capability, Segment and Strategic Architectures
D.Corporate EA, Project Team and Portfolio Team Architectures
E.Baseline, Transition and Target Architectures

Answer: C

QUESTION 268
In which ADM phase does the value and change management process determine the circumstances under which the Architecture Development Cycle will be initiated to develop a new architecture?

A.Phase H
B.Phase F
C.Phase E
D.Preliminary Phase
E.Phase G

Answer: A

QUESTION 269
Which of the following best describes Requirements Management within the TOGAF ADM?

A.Reviewing business requirements
B.Addressing and prioritizing architecture requirements
C.Developing requirements that deliver business value
D.Validating requirements between ADM phases
E.Managing architecture requirements throughout the ADM cycle

Answer: E

QUESTION 270
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Architecture Requirements Specification?

A.It is sent form the sponsor and triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
B.It provides a list of work packages and a schedule for implementation of the target architecture
C.It defines the scope and approach to complete an architecture project
D.It provides a set of statements that outline what a project must do to comply with the architecture
E.It contains an assessment of the current architecture requirements.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 226 You are developing a web application that runs as an Azure Web App. The web application stores data in Azure SQL Database and stores files in an Azure Storage account. The web application makes HTTP requests to external services as part of normal operations. The web application is instrumented with Application Insights. The external services are OpenTelemetry compliant. You need to ensure that the customer ID of the signed in user is associated with all operations throughout the overall system. What should you do? A.Create a new SpanContext with the TraceRags value set to the customer ID for the signed in user. B.On the current SpanContext, set the Traceld to the customer ID for the signed in user. C.Add the customer ID for the signed in user to the CorrelationContext in the web application. D.Set the header Ocp-Apim-Trace to the customer ID for the signed in user. Answer: D QUESTION 227 You develop and deploy an Azure Logic app thai calls an Azure Function app. The Azure Function app includes an OpenAPl (Swagger) definition and uses an Azure Blob storage account. All resources are secured by using Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The Azure Logic app must securely access the Azure Blob storage account. Azure AD resources must remain if the Azure Logic app is deleted. You need to secure the Azure Logic app. What should you do? A.Create an Azure AD custom role and assign role-based access controls. B.Create an Azure AD custom role and assign the role to the Azure Blob storage account. C.Create an Azure Key Vault and issue a client certificate. D.Create a user-assigned managed identity and assign role-based access controls. E.Create a system-assigned managed identity and issue a client certificate. Answer: C QUESTION 228 You develop a solution that uses Azure Virtual Machines (VMs). The VMs contain code that must access resources in an Azure resource group. You grant the VM access to the resource group in Resource Manager. You need to obtain an access token that uses the VMs system-assigned managed identity. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A.Use PowerShell on a remote machine to make a request to the local managed identity for Azure resources endpoint. B.Use PowerShell on the VM to make a request to the local managed identity for Azure resources endpoint. C.From the code on the VM. call Azure Resource Manager using an access token. D.From the code on the VM. call Azure Resource Manager using a SAS token. E.From the code on the VM. generate a user delegation SAS token. Answer: BC QUESTION 229 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You develop and deploy an Azure App Service API app to a Windows-hosted deployment slot named Development. You create additional deployment slots named Testing and Production. You enable auto swap on the Production deployment slot. You need to ensure that scripts run and resources are available before a swap operation occurs. Solution: Update the app with a method named statuscheck to run the scripts. Update the app settings for the app. Set the WEBSITE_SWAP_WARMUP_PING_PATH and WEBSITE_SWAP_WARMUP_PING_STATUSES with a path to the new method and appropriate response codes. Does the solution meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 230 You have an existing Azure storage account that stores large volumes of data across multiple containers. You need to copy all data from the existing storage account to a new storage account. The copy process must meet the following requirements: - Automate data movement. - Minimize user input required to perform the operation. - Ensure that the data movement process is recoverable. What should you use? A.AzCopy B.Azure Storage Explorer C.Azure portal D..NET Storage Client Library Answer: A QUESTION 231 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are developing a website that will run as an Azure Web App. Users will authenticate by using their Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) credentials. You plan to assign users one of the following permission levels for the website: admin, normal, and reader. A user's Azure AD group membership must be used to determine the permission level. You need to configure authorization. Solution: Configure and use Integrated Windows Authentication in the website. In the website, query Microsoft Graph API to load the group to which the user is a member. Does the solution meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 232 Hotspot Question You have a single page application (SPA) web application that manages information based on data returned by Microsoft Graph from another company's Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) instance. Users must be able to authenticate and access Microsoft Graph by using their own company's Azure AD instance. You need to configure the application manifest for the app registration. How should you complete the manifest? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 233 Hotspot Question You are developing an application that uses a premium block blob storage account. You are optimizing costs by automating Azure Blob Storage access tiers. You apply the following policy rules to the storage account. You must determine the implications of applying the rules to the data. (Line numbers are included for reference only.) What you should do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Answer: QUESTION 234 Hotspot Question You are building a website that is used to review restaurants. The website will use an Azure CDN to improve performance and add functionality to requests. You build and deploy a mobile app for Apple iPhones. Whenever a user accesses the website from an iPhone, the user must be redirected to the app store. You need to implement an Azure CDN rule that ensures that iPhone users are redirected to the app store. How should you complete the Azure Resource Manager template? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 235 Hotspot Question You are developing a .NET application that communicates with Azure Storage. A message must be stored when the application initializes. You need to implement the message. How should you complete the code segment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 236 Drag and Drop Question You are developing a web service that will run on Azure virtual machines that use Azure Storage. You configure all virtual machines to use managed identities. You have the following requirements: - Secret-based authentication mechanisms are not permitted for accessing an Azure Storage account. - Must use only Azure Instance Metadata Service endpoints. You need to write code to retrieve an access token to access Azure Storage. To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each code segment may be used once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 237 Drag and Drop Question You are developing a REST web service. Customers will access the service by using an Azure API Management instance. The web service does not correctly handle conflicts. Instead of returning an HTTP status code of 409, the service returns a status code of 500. The body of the status message contains only the word conflict. You need to ensure that conflicts produce the correct response. How should you complete the policy? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go AZ-204 PDF and AZ-204 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1qSt-4_6x_lmYQoqET8lOEQmDK4tWxrUP?usp=sharing
(May-2021)Braindump2go 300-820 PDF and 300-820 VCE Dumps(Q88-Q103)
QUESTION 88 Which complication does a NAT introduce in SDP for a SIP call? A.Additional headers due to NAT encapsulation can cause the packet size to exceed the MTU. B.When the client is behind a NAT they may be unable to determine the appropriate offset due to time zones. C.The IP address specified in the connection data field may be an unrouteable internal address. D.The encryption keys advertised in the SDP are only valid for clients not behind a NAT. Answer: D QUESTION 89 Cisco media traversal technology has enabled a secure environment where internal video endpoints call and receive calls from external video endpoints. How does the Expressway-C and Expressway-E communicate? A.Expressway-C establishes an outgoing request to Expressway-E, enabling the Expressway-E in the DMZ to notify the internal Expressway-C of an incoming call from an external endpoint. B.Internal endpoints are registered to Expressway-E in the DMZ. Expressway-C, which is also in the DMZ, will receive and make calls on behalf of Expressway-E because they are in the same network. C.Expressway-E establishes an outgoing request to Expressway-C, enabling the Expressway-C in the DMZ to notify the internal Expressway-E of an incoming call from an external endpoint. D.Internal endpoints are registered to Expressway-C in the DMZ. Expressway-E, which is also in the DMZ, will receive and make calls on behalf of Expressway-C because they are in the same network. Answer: A QUESTION 90 Which dial plan component is configured in Expressway-C to route a call to the Cisco UCM? A.call routing B.traversal subzone C.call policy D.search rule Answer: A Explanation: https://cmslab.ciscolive.com/pod8/cucm/expctrunk QUESTION 91 Which attribute in the SDP for a call is affected by the static NAT address configuration in an Expressway-E? A.connection B.name C.version D.bandwidth Answer: B Explanation: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X8-10/Mobile-Remote-Access-via-Expressway-Deployment-Guide-X8-10.pdf QUESTION 92 An engineer is deploying an Expressway solution for the SIP domain Cisco.com. Which SRV record should be configured in the public DNS to support inbound B2B calls? A._collab-edge._tls.cisco.com B._cisco-uds._tcp.cisco.com C._sip._tcp.cisco.com D._cuplogin._tcp.cisco.com Answer: C Explanation: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2018/pdf/BRKCOL-2018.pdf QUESTION 93 A call is sent by Cisco UCM to Expressway with a URI of 75080001@expc1a.pod8.test.lab. If (7508...) @expc1a\.pod8\.test\.lab.* is the pattern string, what would be the replacement string of the transform in Expressway to re-write the call so that it becomes 75080001@conf.pod8.test.lab? A.\1@conf\.pod8.test.lab.@ B.\1@conf\.pod8\.test\lab.* C.\1@conf.pod8\.test\.lab D.\1@conf\.pod8\.test.lab.! Answer: C QUESTION 94 Refer to the exhibit. Calls to locally registered endpoints are failing. At present, there are two endpoints registered locally to this Expressway. An H.323 endpoint with an alias of "EndpointA" is registered, and a SIP endpoint with an alias of "EndpointB@pod1.local" is also registered. How is this issue resolved? A.The dialplan must be redesigned to use the transforms to convert the alias into SIP URI format and then use separate search rules for each format that needs to be dialed within the local zone. B.The calls are failing because there are insufficient licenses. Additional licenses must be installed for the Expressway to route these calls. C.The current search rule does not match the call, so the search rule must be modified to include a SIP Variant of "Standards-Based". D.Calling parties are placing calls with the wrong domain. End-users must be instructed not to use the pod1.local domain as that is owned by the local system. Calls to any other domain would work. Answer: A QUESTION 95 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is deploying mobile and remote access in an environment that already had functioning Business to Business calling. Mobile and remote access SIP registrations are failing. To troubleshoot, SIP logs were collected. How is this issue resolved? A.Change the SIP profile on the SIP trunk for the Expressway-E to Standard SIP Profile for TelePresence Endpoint B.Change the "Incoming Port" in the SIP Trunk Security Profile for the Expressway-C to not match SIP line registrations C.Enable autoregistration for the appropriate DN range on the Cisco UCM servers running the CallManager service D.Write a custom normalization script since the "vcs-interop" normalization script does not allow registrations Answer: B QUESTION 96 Refer to the exhibit. Logins and failing via mobile and remote access. How is this resolved? A.Mobile and remote access login has not been enabled for the domain configured in the Expressway-C. The domain must be edited to allow Cisco UCM registrations. B.SIP is disabled on the Expressway-E. The SIP protocol must be enabled on the server. C.No Cisco UCM servers are configured in the Expressway-C. Servers must be added for CallManager and IM and Presence services. D.Although a traversal client zone exists, there is no Unified Communications traversal client zone. One must be created. Answer: C QUESTION 97 Refer to the exhibit. Mobile and remote access is being added to an existing B2B deployment and is failing. When the administrator looks at the alarms on the Expressway-C, the snippets are shown. Which configuration action should the administrator take to fix this issue? A.The listening port on the Expressway-C for SIP TCP must be changed to a value other than 5060 B.The listening port on the Expressway-C for SIP TLS must be changed to a value other than 5061 C.The listening port on the Cisco UCM for the Expressway-C SIP trunk must be changed to something other than 5060 or 5061 D.The listening port on the Cisco UCM for the Expressway-C SIP trunk is set to something other than 5060 or 5061. It must be set to 5060 for insecure and 5061 for secure SIP Answer: A QUESTION 98 Refer to the exhibit. The administrator attempted to log in, but Jabber clients cannot log in via mobile and remote access. How is this issue resolved? A.Skype for Business mode must be disabled on the DNS server because it conflicts with Jabber login requirements. B.The domain pod1.local must be deprovisioned from the Webex cloud for Jabber logins. C.A DNS SRV record must be created for _collab-edge._tls.pod1.local that points to the Expressway-D. D.The username jabberuser@pod1.local is invalid. The user should instead sign-in simply as jabberuser. Answer: C QUESTION 99 Refer to the exhibit showing logs from the Expressway-C, a copy of the Expressway-E certificate, and the UC traversal zone configuration for the Expressway-C. An office administrator is deploying mobile and remote access and sees an issue with the UC traversal zone. The zone is showing "TLS negotiation failure". What is causing this issue? A.The Expressway-E certificate includes the Expressway-C FQDN as a SAN entry B.The Expressway-C is missing the FQDN of Cisco UCM in the Common Name of its certificate C.In the UC Traversal Zone on the Expressway-C, the peer address is set to the IP of the Expressway- E, which is not a SAN entry in the Expressway-E certificate D.The Expressway-E does not have the FQDN of Cisco UCM listed as a SAN in its certificate Answer: D QUESTION 100 An administrator has been tasked to bulk entitle 200 existing users and ensure all future users are automatically configured for the Webex Hybrid Calendar Service. Which two options should be used to configure these users? (Choose two.) A.Export a CSV list of users in the Cisco Webex Control Hub, set the Hybrid Calendar Service to TRUE for users to be enabled, then import the file back to Manage Users menu in the Cisco Webex Control Hub. B.Set up an Auto-Assign template that enables Hybrid Calendar. C.Select the Hybrid Services settings card in the Cisco Webex Control Hub and import a User Status report that contains only users to be enabled. D.On the Users tab in the Cisco Webex Control Hub, check the box next to each user who should be enabled, then click the toggle for the Hybrid Calendar service to turn it on. E.From Cisco Webex Control Hub, verify the domain that your Hybrid Calendar users will use, which automatically activates them for the service. Answer: AE QUESTION 101 What is a requirement when configuring the Cisco Webex Hybrid Message account for accessing the API of the Cisco UCM IM and Presence Service? A.Add a new end-user with the "Standard AXL API Access" role B.Use an application user with only the "Standard CTI Allow Control of All Devices" role C.Use an application user not the main administrator account with the "Standard AXL API Access" role D.Use the main administrator account if it includes the "Standard AXL API Access" role Answer: C QUESTION 102 The Cisco Webex Hybrid Message service is deployed geographically for separate Cisco Unified IM and Presence clusters. What must be configured in the Cisco Webex Control Hub to achieve this deployment? A.geo-locations B.distributed DNS C.verified domains D.resource groups Answer: D QUESTION 103 What should an engineer use to create users for a Cisco Jabber Cloud Deployment? A.Cisco Webex Administration Tool B.Cisco UCM C.Cisco Webex Directory Connector D.Cisco Unified IM and Presence Server Answer: A 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-820 PDF and 300-820 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1ULQBToBaq2l2IzA9WVup50JNAMT-vW5M?usp=sharing
(May-2021)Braindump2go 350-801 PDF and 350-801 VCE Dumps(Q176-Q200)
QUESTION 176 Which two steps should be taken to provision after the Self-Provisioning feature was configured for end users? A.Dial the self-provisioning IVR extension and associate the phone to an end user. B.Plug the phone into the network. C.Ask the Cisco UCM administrator to associate the phone to an end user. D.Enter settings menu on the phone and press *,*,# (star, star, pound). E.Dial the hunt pilot extension and associate the phone to an end user. Answer: AB QUESTION 177 On a cisco catalyst switch, which command is required to send CDP packets on a switch port that configures a cisco IP phone to transmit voice traffic in 802.1q frames tagged with the voice VLAN ID 221? A.Device(config-if)# switchport access vlan 221 B.Device(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 221 C.Device(config-if)# switchport vlan voice 221 D.Device(config-if)# switchport voice vlan 221 Answer: D QUESTION 178 An end used at a remote site is trying initiate an ad hoc conference call to an end user at the main site the conference bridge is configured to support G.711 remote user phone only support G.729 the remote end user receives an error message on the phone "cannot complete conference call, what is the cause of the issue? A.The remote phone does not have the conference feature assigned. B.A Media Termination Point is missing C.The transcoder resource is missing. D.A software conference bridge is not assigned Answer: C QUESTION 179 An administrator is in the process of moving cisco unity connection mailboxes between mailbox stores the administrator notices that some mailboxes have active message waiting indicators, what happens to these mailboxes when they are moved? A.The move will fall If MWI status Is active. B.Moving the mailboxes from one store to another falls If MWI Is turned on. C.If source and target mailbox store are not disabled. MWI status is not retained. D.The MWI status is retained after a mailbox is moved from one store to another. Answer: D QUESTION 180 Which command must be defined before an administrator changes the linecode value on an ISDN T1 PRI in slot 0/2 on an IOS-XE gateway? A.isdn incoming-voice voice B.pri-group timeslots 1-24 C.card type t1 0 2 D.voice-port 0/2/0:23 Answer: C QUESTION 181 Which DSCP class selector is necessary to mark scavenger traffic? A.CS1 B.AF21 C.AF11 D.CS2 Answer: A QUESTION 182 Which service must be enabled when LDAP on cisco UCM is used? A.Cisco AXL Web Service B.Cisco CallManager SNMP Service C.Cisco DirSync D.Cisco Bulk provisioning Service Answer: C QUESTION 183 Which two protocols should be configured for the cisco unity connection and cisco UCM integration? A.SIP B.H.323 C.MGCP D.RTP E.SCCP Answer: AE QUESTION 184 An end user at a remote site is trying to initiate an Ad Hoc conference call to an end user at the main site. The conference receives an error message on the phone: Cannot complete conference call. What is the cause of the issue? A.The transcoder resource Is missing. B.The remote phone does not have the conference feature assigned C.A software conference bridge is not assigned. D.A Media Termination Point is missing. Answer: A QUESTION 185 What dialed number match this cisco UCM route pattern? 1[23]XX A.1200 through 1399 only B.1230 through 1239 only C.12300 through 12399 only D.1200 through 1300 only Answer: D QUESTION 186 Users want their mobile phones to be able to access their cisco unity connection mailboxes with only having to enter their voicemail pin at the login prompt calling pilot number, where should an engineer configure this feature? A.message settings B.greetings C.alternate extensions D.transfer rules Answer: C QUESTION 187 Refer to the exhibit. Which Codec is negotiated? A.729ILBC B.711ulaw C.728 Answer: C QUESTION 188 An engineer is setting up a system with voice and video endpoints using auto-QoS policy on the switches. Which DSCP values are expected for interactive voice and video? A.EF AND AF41 B.EF AND AF21 C.EF AND CS3 D.EF AND CS6 Answer: A QUESTION 189 During the Cisco IP Phone registration process the TFTP download fails. What are two reasons for this issue'? (Choose two) A.The DNS server was not specified, which is needed to resolve a hostname in an Option 150 string. B.The Cisco IP Phone does not know the IP address of the TFTP server C.The Cisco IP Phone does not know the IP address of any of the Cisco UCM Subscriber nodes D.Option 100 string was not specified, or an incorrect Option 100 string was specified E.Option 150 string was not specified, or an incorrect Option 150 string was specified Answer: BE QUESTION 190 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures fax dial-peers on a Cisco IOS gateway and finds that faxes are not working correctly. Which change should be made to resolve this issue? A.codec g723ar63 B.codec g729br81 C.codec g726r32 D.codec g711ulaw Answer: D QUESTION 191 An administrator is integrating a Cisco Unity Express module to a Cisco UCME system A test call is placed to the Cisco Unity Express pilot number, but the administrator receives a busy signal. The dial- peer is configured as follows: How is this issue resolved? A.The dial-peer needs to be reconfigured to support the G 711 voice codec. B.The dial-peer needs to be reconfigured to support vad. C.The destination pattern needs to be changed to match the dialed number of 4100. D.The dial-peer needs to be reconfigured to support H 323 instead of SIP. Answer: A QUESTION 192 What is the difference between Cisco Unified Border Element and a conventional Session Border Controller? A.SIP security B.DTMF interworking C.Voice policy D.Address hiding Answer: C QUESTION 193 How does traffic policing respond to violations? A.AH traffic is treated equally. B.Excess traffic is retransmitted. C.Excess traffic is dropped. D.Excess traffic is queued. Answer: C QUESTION 194 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is confining class of control for a user in Cisco UCM. Which change will ensure that the user is unable to call 2143? A.Change line partition to Partition_A B.Change line CSS to only contain Partition_B C.Set the user's line CSS to <None> D.Set the users device CSS to <None> Answer: D QUESTION 195 Users dial a 9 before a 10-digit phone number to make an off-net call All 11 digits are sent to the Cisco Unified Border Element before going out to the PSTN The PSTN provider accepts only 10 digits. Which configuration is needed on the Cisco Unified Border Element for calls to be successful? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: A QUESTION 196 A customer enters no IP domain lookup on the Cisco IOS XE gateway to suppress the interpreting of invalid commands as hostnames Which two commands are needed to restore DNS SRV or A record resolutions? (Choose two.) A.ip dhcp excluded-address B.ip dhcp-sip C.ip dhcp pool D.transport preferred none E.ip domain lookup Answer: DE QUESTION 197 An administrator is asked to implement toll fraud prevention in Cisco UCM, specifically to restrict off- net to off-net call transfers How is this implemented? A.Implement time-of-day routing. B.Use the correct route filters. C.Set the appropriate service parameter D.Enforce ad-hoc conference restrictions Answer: C QUESTION 198 A network administrator with ID392116981 has determined that a WAN link between two Cisco UCM clusters supports only 1 Mbps of bandwidth for voice traffic. How many calls does this link support if G.711 as the audio codec is used? A.15 B.16 C.13 D.12 Answer: D QUESTION 199 An engineer is asked to implement on-net/off-net call classification in Cisco UCM. Which two components are required to implement this configuration? (Choose two) A.SIP trunk B.CTI route point C.route group D.route pattern E.SIP route patterns Answer: AD QUESTION 200 An administrator installed a Cisco Unified IP 8831 Conference Phone that is failing to register. Which two actions are taken to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two) A.Disable HSRP on lhe access layer switch. B.Verify that the switch port of the phone is enabled C.Check the RJ-65 cable. D.Verify that the RJ-11 cable is plugged into the PC port. E.Verify that the phone's network can access the option 150 server. Answer: BE 2021 Latest Braindump2go 350-801 PDF and 350-801 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1pALdeSmYT0960h3st7rEH4WExsy2Mjgq?usp=sharing
(May-2021)Braindump2go 350-801 PDF and 350-801 VCE Dumps(Q189-Q204)
QUESTION 189 What are two functions of MPLS Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.) A.LDP and BGP can be used for Pseudowire signaling. B.It is used for transparent point-to-multipoint connectivity between Ethernet links/sites. C.BGP is used for signaling customer VPNv4 routes between PE nodes. D.A packet with node segment ID is forwarded along with shortest path to destination. E.Customer traffic is encapsulated in a VPN label when it is forwarded in MPLS network. Answer: CE QUESTION 190 When configuring Control Plane Policing on a router to protect it from malicious traffic, an engineer observes that the configured routing protocols start flapping on that device. Which action in the Control Plane Policy prevents this problem in a production environment while achieving the security objective? A.Set the conform-action and exceed-action to transmit initially to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy in the output direction B.Set the conform-action and exceed-action to transmit initially to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy in the input direction C.Set the conform-action to transmit and exceed-action to drop to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy m the input direction D.Set the conform-action to transmit and exceed-action to drop to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy m the output direction Answer: B QUESTION 191 Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured route advertisement to a remote low resources rooter to use only the default route to reach any network but failed. Which action resolves this issue? A.Change the direction of the distribute-list command from out to in. B.Remove the line with the sequence number 5 from the prefix list. C.Remove the prefix keyword from the distribute-list command. D.Remove the line with the sequence number 10 from the prefix list. Answer: B QUESTION 192 Refer to the exhibit. The remote server is failing to receive the NetFlow data. Which action resolves the issue? A.Modify the flow transport command transport udp 2055 to move under flow monitor profile. B.Modify the interlace command to Ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 Input. C.Modify the udp port under flow exporter profile to Ip transport udp 4739. D.Modify the flow record command record v4_M to move under flow exporter profile. Answer: B QUESTION 193 A DMVPN single hub topology is using IPsec + mGRE with OSPF. What should be configured on the hub to ensure it will be the designated router? A.tunnel interface of the hub with ip nhrp ospf dr B.OSPF priority to 0 C.route map to set the metrics of learned routes to 110 D.OSPF priority greater than 1 Answer: D QUESTION 194 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the Customer Edge router (AS 64511) to send only summarized routes toward ISP-1 (AS 100) and ISP-2 (AS 200). router bgp 64511 network 172.16.20.0 mask 255.255.255.0 network 172.16.21.0 mask 255.255.255.0 network 172.16.22.0 mask 255.255.255.0 network 172.16.23.0 mask 255.255.255.0 aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0 After this configuration. ISP-1 and ISP-2 continue to receive the specific routes and the summary route. Which configuration resolves the issue? A.router bgp 64511 aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only B.router bgp 64511 neighbor 192.168.100.1 summary-only neighbor 192.168.200.2 summary-only C.interface E 0/0 ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC ! interface E 0/1 ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC ! ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22 ge 24 ! route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10 match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC D.ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC deny 172.16.20.0/22 ge 22 ip prefix-list PL BLOCK SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22 ! route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10 match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC ! router bgp 64511 aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255 255.252.0 suppress-map BLOCKSPECIFIC Answer: D QUESTION 195 What are two MPLS label characteristics? (Choose two.) A.The label edge router swaps labels on the received packets. B.Labels are imposed in packets after the Layer 3 header. C.LDP uses TCP for reliable delivery of information. D.An MPLS label is a short identifier that identifies a forwarding equivalence class. E.A maximum of two labels can be imposed on an MPLS packet. Answer: AD QUESTION 196 In which two ways does the IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table operate? (Choose two.) A.by the recovery mechanism to recover the binding table in the event of a device reboot B.by IPv6 routing protocols to securely build neighborships without the need of authentication C.by IPv6 HSRP to make sure neighbors are authenticated before being used as gateways D.by various IPv6 guard features to validate the data link layer address E.by storing hashed keys for IPsec tunnels for the built-in IPsec features Answer: AD QUESTION 197 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured an IPv6 access list to allow TCP return traffic only, but it is not working as expected. Which changes resolve this issue? A.ipv6 access-list inbound permit tcp any any syn deny ipv6 any any log ! interface gi0/0 ipv6 traffic-filter inbound out B.ipv6 access-list inbound permit tcp any any syn deny ipv6 any any log ! interface gi0/0 ipv6 traffic-filter inbound in C.ipv6 access-list inbound permit tcp any any established deny ipv6 any any log ! interface gi0/0 ipv6 traffic-filter inbound in D.ipv6 access-list inbound permit tcp any any established deny ipv6 any any log ! interface gi0/0 ipv6 traffic-filter inbound out Answer: C QUESTION 198 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured NTP on a Cisco router to get synchronized time for system and logs from a unified time source. The configuration did not work as desired. Which service must be enabled to resolve the issue? A.Enter the service timestamps log datetime localtime global command. B.Enter the service timestamps log datetime synchronize global command. C.Enter the service timestamps log datetime console global command. D.Enter the service timestamps log datetime clock-period global command Answer: B QUESTION 199 Refer to the exhibit. The engineer configured and connected Router2 to Router1. The link came up but could not establish a Telnet connection to Router1 IPv6 address of 2001:DB8::1. Which configuration allows Router2 to establish a Telnet connection to Router1? A.jpv6 unicast-routing B.permit ICMPv6 on access list INGRESS for Router2 to obtain IPv6 address C.permit ip any any on access list EGRESS2 on Router1 D.IPv6 address on GigabitEthernet0/0 Answer: C QUESTION 200 Refer to the exhibits. An engineer filtered messages based on severity to minimize log messages. After applying the filter, the engineer noticed that it filtered required messages as well. Which action must the engineer take to resolve the issue? A.Configure syslog level 2. B.Configure syslog level 3. C.Configure syslog level 4. D.Configure syslog level 5. Answer: B QUESTION 201 An engineer configured policy-based routing for a destination IP address that does not exist in the routing table. How is the packet treated through the policy for configuring the set ip default next-hop command? A.Packets are not forwarded to the specific next hop. B.Packets are forwarded based on the routing table. C.Packets are forwarded based on a static route. D.Packets are forwarded to the specific next hop. Answer: D QUESTION 202 Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two paths to reach 192.168.13.0/24. but traffic is sent only through R3. Which action allows traffic to use both paths? A.Configure the bandwidth 2000 command under interface FastEthernet0/0 on R2. B.Configure the variance 4 command under the EIGRP process on R2. C.Configure the delay 1 command under interface FastEthernet0/0 on R2. D.Configure the variance 2 command under the EIGRP process on R2 Answer: B QUESTION 203 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue? A.Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP. B.Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to allow when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP. C.Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF. D.Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing domain. Answer: A QUESTION 204 Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 cannot establish an EIGRP adjacency. Which action establishes EIGRP adjacency? A.Remove the current autonomous system number on one of the routers and change to a different value. B.Remove the passive-interface command from the R2 configuration so that it matches the R1 configuration. C.Add the no auto-summary command to the R2 configuration so that it matches the R1 configuration. D.Add the passive-interface command to the R1 configuration so that it matches the R2 configuration. Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-410 PDF and 300-410 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1NkZ6PH5JebhsyHrMEXD3IWxkOLRjQ-B-?usp=sharing
(April-2021)Braindump2go 300-435 PDF and 300-435 VCE Dumps(Q98-Q114)
QUESTION 98 What is a benefit of developing an application in a Python virtual environment? A.The application operates in multiple target systems simultaneously. B.The application supports concurrency or multithreading. C.The application operates across systems that have different operating systems. D.The development environment is isolated from Python projects that already exist. Answer: B QUESTION 99 Refer to the exhibit. Which device type is functioning in a degraded state? A.access point B.distribution switch C.access switch D.wireless LAN controller Answer: C QUESTION 100 When working with MV Sense APIs, which type of protocol is MQTT based upon? A.publish-subscribe messaging protocol B.simple mail transport protocol C.heavyweight messaging protocol D.computer vision protocol Answer: A QUESTION 101 Refer to the exhibit. What is a characteristic of the tree? A.three optional metrics B.two leaf-lists C.ten leaf-lists D.three containers Answer: A QUESTION 102 Refer to the exhibit. A RESTCONF GET request is sent to a Cisco IOS XE device. The base URL of the request and the response in XML format are shown in the exhibit. What are the two YANG data nodes and modules referenced in the response? (Choose two.) A.description is a key field defined in the interface list B.The ethernetCsmacd type is imported from the iana-if-type module C.address is a container defined in the ietf-interfaces module D.ipv4 is a container defined in the ietf-ip module E.interface has the YANG data node type of container Answer: AB QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is included in the payload resulting from the script? A.ethernet 1 B.ethernet 100 C.ethernet 1/1 D.ethernet 0 Answer: D QUESTION 104 Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces named Loopback0, Loopback1, and Loopback2 must be created and enabled on a Cisco IOS XE target device in the lab group. Which loop must be added to the end of the Ansible "create int" task? A.with_items: "{{intlist}}" B.with_parent: "{{intlist}}" C.with_list: "{{intlist}}" D.with_groups: "{{intlist}}" Answer: C QUESTION 105 Refer to the exhibit. A Python script is used to configure a Cisco IOS XE router. The Loopback2 interface currently has a description of Management2 and an IP address/netmask of 10.222.34.22/32. What is the result of executing the script? A.The interface description remains the same. B.The router rejects all commands and the configuration remains the same. C.The interface is removed from the configuration. D.The interface description is removed from the configuration. Answer: A QUESTION 106 Refer to the exhibit. NTP server 10.1.1.20 must be configured on the target Cisco IOS XE device without using authentication and logging. Which state should be added on a new line at the end of the Ansible task? A.state: true B.state: started C.state: present D.state: installed Answer: C QUESTION 107 Refer to the exhibit. The configuration commands are entered in CLI config mode to configure a static telemetry subscription on a Cisco IOS XE device. The commands are accepted by the device, but the consumer receives no telemetry data. Which change must be made to ensure that the consumer receives the telemetry data? A.The IP address of the receiver must be set. B.The stream type must be set to YANG. C.The update policy period must be shortened. D.The sender IP address must be set. Answer: B QUESTION 109 What is an advantage of software-defined networks as compared to traditional networks? A.They simplify operations by creating a concrete copy of the network. B.They reduce complexity by coupling the control and the data plane. C.They enable older hardware to be repurposed without an investment in new infrastructure. D.They deliver a distributed management architecture that provides better resilience to errors. Answer: D QUESTION 110 What does Cisco DNA Center use to manage third-party devices? A.command runners B.multivendor SDK C.templates D.device packages Answer: D QUESTION 111 Refer to the exhibit. After executing the call, an engineer obtains the result of the Command Runner execution. The three commands show as blocklisted in the downloaded file. What is the cause of the error? A.The API user in Cisco DNA does not have write privileges on the devices. B.The engineer attempting to access the devices in Cisco DNA Center does not have privilege 15. C.The format of the JSON body must follow the CLI format. D.Command Runner supports only the show command and the read-only command. Answer: D QUESTION 112 Refer to the exhibit. Cisco SD-WAN deployment must be fixed using vManage APIs. A call to vEdge Hardware Health API returns the data in the exhibit (only a portion is shown). If the JSON shown in the exhibit is converted to a Python dictionary named "d", how is the "status" property referenced? A.d[`data'][`statusList'][`status'] B.nbvnbvvnbhg C.d{`data'}[0]{`statusList'}[0]{`status'} D.d[data][0][statusList][0][status] Answer: C QUESTION 113 What is a capability of Cisco SD-WAN vManage Certificate Management API? A.deletes existing installed certificates B.distributes the root certificate to client devices C.generates SSL certificates D.creates certificate signing requests Answer: D QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. A template is provided to a junior developer to automate the creation of a network on the Meraki dashboard. The new network needs to have the id 123456789 and support only wired network connections. What type needs to be added to the API? A.switch B.wireless C.appliance D.systemsManager Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-435 PDF and 300-435 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1aZd2kZQpLrc_X9Zy57wn5fhkgF2IMSG5?usp=sharing