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Prüfungsnummer:156-315.80
Prüfungsname:Check Point Certified Security Expert - R80
Version:V19.99
Anzahl:533 Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen
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B.Implement an Amazon SQS queue to decouple the front-end and backend servers. C.Use an Amazon SNS queue to decouple the front-end and backend servers. D.Migrate the backend servers to on-premises and pull from an Amazon SNS queue. E.Modify the backend servers to pull from an Amazon SQS queue. Answer: BE QUESTION 685 A developer is asked to integrate Amazon CloudWatch into an on-premises application. How should the application access CloudWatch, according to AWS security best practices? A.Configure AWS credentials in the application server with an AWS SDK B.Implement and proxy API-calls through an EC2 instance C.Store IAM credentials in the source code to enable access D.Add the application server SSH-key to AWS Answer: A QUESTION 686 A company's new mobile app uses Amazon API Gateway. As the development team completes a new release of its APIs, a developer must safely and transparently roll out the API change. What is the SIMPLEST solution for the developer to use for rolling out the new API version to a limited number of users through API Gateway? A.Create a new API in API Gateway. Direct a portion of the traffic to the new API using an Amazon Route 53 weighted routing policy. B.Validate the new API version and promote it to production during the window of lowest expected utilization. C.Implement an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to trigger a rollback if the observed HTTP 500 status code rate exceeds a predetermined threshold. D.Use the canary release deployment option in API Gateway. Direct a percentage of the API traffic using the canarySettings setting. Answer: D QUESTION 687 A developer must modify an Alexa skill backed by an AWS Lambda function to access an Amazon DynamoDB table in a second account. A role in the second account has been created with permissions to access the table. How should the table be accessed? A.Modify the Lambda function execution role's permissions to include the new role. B.Change the Lambda function execution role to be the new role. C.Assume the new role in the Lambda function when accessing the table. D.Store the access key and the secret key for the new role and use then when accessing the table. Answer: A QUESTION 688 A developer is creating a new application that will be accessed by users through an API created using Amazon API Gateway. The users need to be authenticated by a third-party Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) identity provider. Once authenticated, users will need access to other AWS services, such as Amazon S3 and Amazon DynamoDB. How can these requirements be met? A.Use an Amazon Cognito user pool with SAML as the resource server. B.Use Amazon Cognito identity pools with a SAML identity provider as one of the authentication providers. C.Use the AWS IAM service to provide the sign-up and sign-in functionality. D.Use Amazon CloudFront signed URLs to connect with the SAML identity provider. Answer: A QUESTION 689 A company processes incoming documents from an Amazon S3 bucket. Users upload documents to an S3 bucket using a web user interface. Upon receiving files in S3, an AWS Lambda function is invoked to process the files, but the Lambda function times out intermittently. If the Lambda function is configured with the default settings, what will happen to the S3 event when there is a timeout exception? A.Notification of a failed S3 event is send as an email through Amazon SNS. B.The S3 event is sent to the default Dead Letter Queue. C.The S3 event is processed until it is successful. D.The S3 event is discarded after the event is retried twice. Answer: A QUESTION 690 A developer has designed a customer-facing application that is running on an Amazon EC2 instance. The application logs every request made to it. The application usually runs seamlessly, but a spike in traffic generates several logs that cause the disk to fill up and eventually run out of memory. Company policy requires old logs to be centralized for analysis. Which long-term solution should the developer employ to prevent the issue from reoccurring? A.Set up log rotation to rotate the file every day. Also set up log rotation to rotate after every 100 MB and compress the file. B.Install the Amazon CloudWatch agent on the instance to send the logs to CloudWatch. Delete the logs from the instance once they are sent to CloudWatch. C.Enable AWS Auto Scaling on Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) to automatically add volumes to the instance when it reaches a specified threshold. D.Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to pull the logs from the instance. Configure the rule to delete the logs after they have been pulled. Answer: C QUESTION 691 A developer is creating a serverless web application and maintains different branches of code. The developer wants to avoid updating the Amazon API Gateway target endpoint each time a new code push is performed. What solution would allow the developer to perform a code push efficiently, without the need to update the API Gateway? A.Associate different AWS Lambda functions to an API Gateway target endpoint. B.Create different stages in API Gateway, then associate API Gateway with AWS Lambda. C.Create aliases and versions in AWS Lambda. D.Tag the AWS Lambda functions with different names. Answer: C QUESTION 692 A developer wants to secure sensitive configuration data such as passwords, database strings, and application license codes. Access to this sensitive information must be tracked for future audit purposes. Where should the sensitive information be stored, adhering to security best practices and operational requirements? A.In an encrypted file on the source code bundle; grant the application access with Amazon IAM B.In the Amazon EC2 Systems Manager Parameter Store; grant the application access with IAM C.On an Amazon EBS encrypted volume; attach the volume to an Amazon EC2 instance to access the data D.As an object in an Amazon S3 bucket; grant an Amazon EC2 instance access with an IAM role Answer: B QUESTION 693 A developer has built an application using Amazon Cognito for authentication and authorization. After a user is successfully logged in to the application, the application creates a user record in an Amazon DynamoDB table. What is the correct flow to authenticate the user and create a record in the DynamoDB table? A.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito user pool. Use the token to access DynamoDB. B.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito identity pool. Use the token to access DynamoDB. C.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito user pool. Exchange the token for AWS credentials with an Amazon Cognito identity pool. Use the credentials to access DynamoDB. D.Authenticate and get a token from an Amazon Cognito identity pool. Exchange the token for AWS credentials with an Amazon Cognito user pool. Use the credentials to access DynamoDB. Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go AWS-Developer-Associate PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1dvoSqn8UfssZYMvGJJdAPW320Fvfpph3?usp=sharing
Learn Data Science From Industry Experts
What is Data Science? Data science is the discipline that uses the technical methods, domain knowledge, algorithms, understanding of math and figures to extract important visions from data. The beginning of new technologies has resulted a huge growth in data. This has providing an opportunity to analyze this data and develop a meaningful visions from it. Analyzing such data needs some special specialists like Data Scientist, who specializes in Data Science. These Data Scientists use many statistical and machine learning tools to analyze the data tired from different sectors like social media, e-commerce sites and Internet searches, etc. Therefore, we can understand Data Science as the learning that includes extracting important information from great amount of data using many technical ways, algorithms and methods. Why do we need Data Science? Today, Data Science has developed an important factor for the organization’s progress. It supports them to make a better choice to improve their business. Organizations with the support of Data Scientists grow the important insights from huge amount of data that allow them to analyze themselves and their show in the market. Data Science supports the association to recognize its customer wants better and provide them good facility that will support them to grow professionally. As more establishments are realizing Data Science into their business plans, it has resulted in making a number of jobs in the Data Science field. Data Science profession outlook Data Science specialists are in great demand in today’s IT industry. Some of the roles related with Data Science are as follows: · Data Scientist · Data Engineer · Data Analyst · Machine Learning Engineer · Statistician. Learn Data Science online Data Science specialists are in high request. Several IT professionals are seeing to make their career in this field. Then, where to learn Data Science? There are various answers for this question as there are various platforms available to learn data science course in delhi. One such platform is SSDN Technologies, a pioneer in providing online courses in Data Science. SSDN Technologies has well intended courses which are taught by industry professionals and provide whole knowledge about this field.
(April-2021)Braindump2go AZ-303 PDF and AZ-303 VCE Dumps(Q223-Q233)
QUESTION 223 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription. You have an on-premises file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2019. You manage Server1 by using Windows Admin Center. You need to ensure that if Server1 fails, you can recover Server1 files from Azure. Solution: You register Windows Admin Center in Azure and configure Azure Backup. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 224 You have an application that is hosted across multiple Azure regions. You need to ensure that users connect automatically to their nearest application host based on network latency. What should you implement? A.Azure Application Gateway B.Azure Load Balancer C.Azure Traffic Manager D.Azure Bastion Answer: C QUESTION 225 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company is deploying an on-premises application named App1. Users will access App1 by using a URL of https://app1.contoso.com. You register App1 in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and publish App1 by using the Azure AD Application Proxy. You need to ensure that App1 appears in the My Apps portal for all the users. Solution: You modify User and Groups for App1. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 226 You create a social media application that users can use to upload images and other content. Users report that adult content is being posted in an area of the site that is accessible to and intended for young children. You need to automatically detect and flag potentially offensive content. The solution must not require any custom coding other than code to scan and evaluate images. What should you implement? A.Bing Visual Search B.Bing Image Search C.Custom Vision Search D.Computer Vision API Answer: D QUESTION 227 You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains the resource groups in the following table. RG1 has a web app named WebApp1. WebApp1 is located in West Europe. You move WebApp1 to RG2. What is the effect of the move? A.The App Service plan for WebApp1 moves to North Europe. Policy1 applies to WebApp1. B.The App Service plan for WebApp1 remains in West Europe. Policy1 applies to WebApp1. C.The App Service plan for WebApp1 moves to North Europe. Policy2 applies to WebApp1. D.The App Service plan for WebApp1 remains in West Europe. Policy2 applies to WebApp1. Answer: D QUESTION 228 You have an Azure App Service API that allows users to upload documents to the cloud with a mobile device. A mobile app connects to the service by using REST API calls. When a new document is uploaded to the service, the service extracts the document metadata. Usage statistics for the app show significant increases in app usage. The extraction process is CPU-intensive. You plan to modify the API to use a queue. You need to ensure that the solution scales, handles request spikes, and reduces costs between request spikes. What should you do? A.Configure a CPU Optimized virtual machine (VM) and install the Web App service on the new instance. B.Configure a series of CPU Optimized virtual machine (VM) instances and install extraction logic to process a queue. C.Move the extraction logic into an Azure Function. Create a queue triggered function to process the queue. D.Configure Azure Container Service to retrieve items from a queue and run across a pool of virtual machine (VM) nodes using the extraction logic. Answer: C QUESTION 229 You have an Azure App Service named WebApp1. You plan to add a WebJob named WebJob1 to WebApp1. You need to ensure that WebJob1 is triggered every 15 minutes. What should you do? A.Change the Web.config file to include the 0*/15**** CRON expression B.From the application settings of WebApp1, add a default document named Settings.job. Add the 1-31 1-12 1-7 0*/15* CRON expression to the JOB file C.Add a file named Settings.job to the ZIP file that contains the WebJob script. Add the 0*/15**** CRON expression to the JOB file D.Create an Azure Automation account and add a schedule to the account. Set the recurrence for the schedule Answer: C QUESTION 230 You have an Azure App Service named WebApp1. You plan to add a WebJob named WebJob1 to WebApp1. You need to ensure that WebJob1 is triggered every 15 minutes. What should you do? A.Change the Web.config file to include the 1-31 1-12 1-7 0*/15* CRON expression B.From the properties of WebJob1, change the CRON expression to 0*/15****. C.Add a file named Settings.job to the ZIP file that contains the WebJob script. Add the 1-31 1-12 1-7 0*/15* CRON expression to the JOB file D.Create an Azure Automation account and add a schedule to the account. Set the recurrence for the schedule Answer: B QUESTION 231 You have an on-premises web app named App1 that is behind a firewall. The firewall blocks all incoming network traffic. You need to expose App1 to the internet via Azure. The solution must meet the following requirements: - Ensure that access to App1 requires authentication by using Azure. - Avoid deploying additional services and servers to the on-premises network. What should you use? A.Azure Application Gateway B.Azure Relay C.Azure Front Door Service D.Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Application Proxy Answer: D QUESTION 232 Your company is developing an e-commerce Azure App Service Web App to support hundreds of restaurant locations around the world. You are designing the messaging solution architecture to support the e-commerce transactions and messages. The solution will include the following features: You need to design a solution for the Inventory Distribution feature. Which Azure service should you use? A.Azure Service Bus B.Azure Relay C.Azure Event Grid D.Azure Event Hub Answer: A QUESTION 233 You are responsible for mobile app development for a company. The company develops apps on IOS, and Android. You plan to integrate push notifications into every app. You need to be able to send users alerts from a backend server. Which two options can you use to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.Azure Web App B.Azure Mobile App Service C.Azure SQL Database D.Azure Notification Hubs E.a virtual machine Answer: BD QUESTION 234 Hotspot Question You need to design an authentication solution that will integrate on-premises Active Directory and Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The solution must meet the following requirements: - Active Directory users must not be able to sign in to Azure AD-integrated apps outside of the sign-in hours configured in the Active Directory user accounts. - Active Directory users must authenticate by using multi-factor authentication (MFA) when they sign in to Azure AD-integrated apps. - Administrators must be able to obtain Azure AD-generated reports that list the Active Directory users who have leaked credentials. - The infrastructure required to implement and maintain the solution must be minimized. What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 235 Hotspot Question You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources shown in the following table. You plan to deploy an Azure virtual machine that will have the following configurations: - Name: VM1 - Azure region: Central US - Image: Ubuntu Server 18.04 LTS - Operating system disk size: 1 TB - Virtual machine generation: Gen 2 - Operating system disk type: Standard SSD You need to protect VM1 by using Azure Disk Encryption and Azure Backup. On VM1, which configurations should you change? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go AZ-303 PDF and AZ-303 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1l4-Ncx3vdn9Ra2pN5d9Lnjv3pxbJpxZB?usp=sharing
Prüfungsvorbereitung auf 201-450 Prüfungsfragen deutsch
Die LPI 201-450 Prüfungsfragen deutsch LPIC-2 Exam 201, Part 1 of 2, version 4.5 werden normalerweise von den IT-Spezialisten nach ihren Berufserfahrungen bearbeitet. So ist es auch bei it-pruefungen.de. Die IT-Experten bieten Ihnen Prüfungsfragen und Antworten, mit deren Hilfe Sie die Prügung erfolgreich ablegen können. Die Genauigkeit von unseren Prüfungsfragen und Antworten beträgt 100%. Mit Produkten können Sie ganz leicht die LPI-Zertifikate bekommen, was Ihnen eine große Beförderung in der IT-Branche ist. Lpi LPIC Level2 201-450 Prüfungsfragen Prüfungsunterlagen Info zu dieser Prüfungsvorbereitung 201-450 Prüfungsnummer:201-450 Prüfungsname:LPIC-2 Exam 201, Part 1 of 2, version 4.5 Version:V19.99 Anzahl:161 Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen Um Ihre Zertifizierungsprüfungen reibungslos erfolgreich zu meistern, brauchen Sie nur unsere Prüfungsfragen und Antworten zu LPI 201-450 Zertifizierungsprüfung LPIC-2 Exam 201, Part 1 of 2, version 4.5 auswendigzulernen. Viel Erfolg! Um in der IT-Branche große Fortschritte zu machen, entscheiden sich viele ambitionierte IT-Profis dafür, an der LPI 201-450 Zertifizierungsprüfung zu beteiligen und somit das IT-Zertifikat zu bekommen. Wegen des schwierigkeitsgrades der LPI 201-450 Zertifizierungsprüfung ist die Erfolgsquote sehr niedrig. Aber es ist doch eine weise Wahl, an der LPI 201-450 Zertifizierungsprüfung zu beteiligen, denn in der konkurrenzfähigen IT-Branche heute muss man sich immer noch verbessern. Und Sie können auch viele Methoden wählen, die Ihnen beim Bestehen der Prüfung helfen. Sie können im Internet teilweise die Fragen und Antworten zur LPI 201-450 Zertifizierungsprüfung LPIC-2 Exam 201, Part 1 of 2, version 4.5 von it-pruefungen.de kostenlos herunterladen, so dass Sie unsere Qualität testen können. Solange Sie unsere Produkte kaufen, versprechen wir Ihnen, dass wir alles tun würden, um Ihnen beim Bestehen der Prüfung zu helfen.
(April-2021)Braindump2go 350-401 PDF and 350-401 VCE Dumps(Q409-Q433)
QUESTION 409 A customer has 20 stores located throughout a city. Each store has a single Cisco AP managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analytics for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements? A.angle of arrival B.presence C.hyperlocation D.trilateration Answer: D QUESTION 410 A customer has a pair of Cisco 5520 WLCs set up in an SSO cluster to manage all APs. Guest traffic is anchored to a Cisco 3504 WLC located in a DM2. Which action is needed to ensure that the EolP tunnel remains in an UP state in the event of failover on the SSO cluster? A.Use the mobility MAC when the mobility peer is configured B.Use the same mobility domain on all WLCs C.Enable default gateway reachability check D.Configure back-to-back connectivity on the RP ports Answer: B QUESTION 411 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured RSPAN to troubleshoot an issue between switchl and switch2. The switches are connected using interface GigabitEthernet 1/1. An external packet capture device is connected to swich2 interface GigabitEthernet1/2. Which two commands must be added to complete this configuration? (Choose two) A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: BD QUESTION 412 Refer to the exhibit. Which Python code snippet prints the descriptions of disabled interfaces only? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: B QUESTION 413 Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is achieved with this Python code? A.displays the output of the show command in an unformatted way B.displays the output of the show command in a formatted way C.connects to a Cisco device using Telnet and exports the routing table information D.connects to a Cisco device using SSH and exports the routing table information Answer: B QUESTION 414 Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server? A.disk B.operating system C.VM configuration file D.applications Answer: A QUESTION 415 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts. Which command set accomplishes this task? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: A QUESTION 416 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a script that appends the output of the show process cpu sorted command to a file. Which action completes the configuration? A.action 4.0 syslog command "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" B.action 4.0 cli command "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" C.action 4.0 ens-event "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" D.action 4.0 publish-event "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file" Answer: B QUESTION 417 Refer to the exhibit. Which action completes the configuration to achieve a dynamic continuous mapped NAT for all users? A.Configure a match-host type NAT pool B.Reconfigure the pool to use the 192.168 1 0 address range C.Increase the NAT pool size to support 254 usable addresses D.Configure a one-to-one type NAT pool Answer: C QUESTION 418 Which function is handled by vManage in the Cisco SD-WAN fabric? A.Establishes BFD sessions to test liveliness of links and nodes B.Distributes policies that govern data forwarding C.Performs remote software upgrades for WAN Edge. vSmart and vBond D.Establishes IPsec tunnels with nodes. Answer: B QUESTION 419 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between Switch1 and Switch2 and notices the console message on Switch2. Based on the output, which action resolves this issue? A.Configure less member ports on Switch2. B.Configure the same port channel interface number on both switches C.Configure the same EtherChannel protocol on both switches D.Configure more member ports on Switch1. Answer: B QUESTION 420 How do cloud deployments differ from on-prem deployments? A.Cloud deployments require longer implementation times than on-premises deployments B.Cloud deployments are more customizable than on-premises deployments. C.Cloud deployments require less frequent upgrades than on-premises deployments. D.Cloud deployments have lower upfront costs than on-premises deployments. Answer: B QUESTION 421 Refer to the exhibit. Extended access-list 100 is configured on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 in an inbound direction, but it does not have the expected behavior of allowing only packets to or from 192 168 0.0/16. Which command set properly configures the access list? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: D QUESTION 422 An engineer is concerned with the deployment of a new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements? A.Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000 B.Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000 C.Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000 D.Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000 Answer: C QUESTION 423 What is a characteristic of a WLC that is in master controller mode? A.All new APs that join the WLAN are assigned to the master controller. B.The master controller is responsible for load balancing all connecting clients to other controllers. C.All wireless LAN controllers are managed by the master controller. D.Configuration on the master controller is executed on all wireless LAN controllers. Answer: A QUESTION 424 Refer to the exhibit. The connection between SW1 and SW2 is not operational. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.) A.configure switchport mode access on SW2 B.configure switchport nonegotiate on SW2 C.configure switchport mode trunk on SW2 D.configure switchport nonegotiate on SW1 E.configure switchport mode dynamic desirable on SW2 Answer: CE QUESTION 425 An engineer must create an EEM applet that sends a syslog message in the event a change happens in the network due to trouble with an OSPF process. Which action should the engineer use? A.action 1 syslog msg "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" B.action 1 syslog send "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" C.action 1 syslog pattern "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" D.action 1syslog write "OSPF ROUTING ERROR" Answer: C QUESTION 426 An engineer runs the sample code, and the terminal returns this output. Which change to the sample code corrects this issue? A.Change the JSON method from load() to loads(). B.Enclose null in the test_json string in double quotes C.Use a single set of double quotes and condense test_json to a single line D.Call the read() method explicitly on the test_json string Answer: D QUESTION 427 In a Cisco DNA Center Plug and Play environment, why would a device be labeled unclaimed? A.The device has not been assigned a workflow. B.The device could not be added to the fabric. C.The device had an error and could not be provisioned. D.The device is from a third-party vendor. Answer: A QUESTION 428 Which of the following statements regarding BFD are correct? (Select 2 choices.) A.BFD is supported by OSPF, EIGRP, BGP, and IS-IS. B.BFD detects link failures in less than one second. C.BFD can bypass a failed peer without relying on a routing protocol. D.BFD creates one session per routing protocol per interface. E.BFD is supported only on physical interfaces. F.BFD consumes more CPU resources than routing protocol timers do. Answer: AB QUESTION 429 An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows: Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two) A.The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than location C. B.Location D has the strongest RF signal strength. C.The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing. D.The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than location A E.The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than location B Answer: DE QUESTION 430 What is an advantage of using BFD? A.It local link failure at layer 1 and updates routing table B.It detects local link failure at layer 3 and updates routing protocols C.It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 3 problems. D.It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 2 problems. Answer: C QUESTION 431 Which three resources must the hypervisor make available to the virtual machines? (Choose three) A.memory B.bandwidth C.IP address D.processor E.storage F.secure access Answer: ABE QUESTION 432 What is the function of vBond in a Cisco SDWAN deployment? A.initiating connections with SD-WAN routers automatically B.pushing of configuration toward SD-WAN routers C.onboarding of SDWAN routers into the SD-WAN overlay D.gathering telemetry data from SD-WAN routers Answer: A QUESTION 433 Which three methods does Cisco DNA Center use to discover devices? (Choose three.) A.CDP B.SNMP C.LLDP D.Ping E.NETCONF F.specified range of IP addresses Answer: ACF 2021 Latest Braindump2go 350-401 PDF and 350-401 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1EIsykNTrKvqjDVs9JMySv052qbrCpe8V?usp=sharing
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Raising Sharp Readers
Here's an excellent article by Colby and Aliana Sharp, about how they are raising their three (soon to be four) children as readers. Colby is a founding member of The Nerdy Book Club, and I've followed his blog for years, but this insight into how he and his wife foster a love of reading at home provides great tips to share with parents. I've always believed surrounding children with books makes it inevitable that they will explore them, even if they can't read them yet. Corralling them on a single bookcase means books are easier to overlook. Remember, books are competing in most houses for attention. Leave them everywhere--they're not clutter, they're decor:) Be a reader yourself. One of my friends, an avid reader and book reviewer, remembers her mother stirring a pot with a book in her hand. Dinner was often overcooked, but reading was established as something very important! For some of us, local bookstores are a thing of the past, but the internet can allow you to connect your child with authors, keep up to date on new releases, and yes, seek out those elusive author visits, even if you have to drive a bit. Other tips that Colby and Aliana share include giving books as gifts (that's all I send my nieces and nephews. Scour the end of the year best book lists if you're not familiar with new children's books, or give classics that you enjoyed.) Also, frequent visits to the library to ensure you have a great selection--our library allows unlimited checkouts, and I love seeing a child carrying a large sack of books out the door. While you're at the library, be sure to explore all there is on offer--let your children pick out CDs or videos, play with puzzles or toys, etc. Our library has an outdoor space connected to the children's library. Believe me, creating positive memories about the library don't just have to involve books, but they will get kids back in the door when they're older! There are several other interesting tips in this article, so be sure to read it in its entirety, then share with parents with young ones.
National Scholarship Portal
National Scholarships Portal is a one-stop solution through which various services starting from student application, application receipt, processing, sanction, and disbursal of various scholarships to Students are enabled It is mandatory for all those eligible students to apply both under (Post Matric Scholarship) & NSP (National Scholarship Portal) to avail of this scholarship. To be noted those students who have applied under NSP Govt of India are only eligible to apply under Post Matric Scholarship Govt of Karnataka. How can I qualify for Post Matric Scholarship? 1. To qualify for Statutory Sick Pay (Post Matric Scholarship) employees must: 2. give you the correct notice. 3. have done some work under their contract. 4. have been sick for 4 or more days in a row (including non-working days) - known as a 'period of incapacity for work' earn an average of at least £120 per week. 5. have an employment contract. Who are eligible for the national scholarship portal? stream from the respective Board of Examination in Class XII of 10+2 pattern or equivalent and pursuing regular courses (not correspondence or distance mode) in Colleges/Institutions recognized by All India Council of Technical Education, UGC Act, 1956, Medical Council of India, Dental Council of India and respective What is the amount of NSP scholarship? National Scholarship Porta Ministry/Department Parental Income Amount Variation Disabilities 2.5 lakh Course Group & Hosteller/Day Scholar Degree of Disability Higher Education 6.0 lakh (4.5 lakh non-creamy) NA Minority Affairs 2.0 lakh Hosteller/Day Scholar Labor 1.0 to 1.2 lakh Gender How can I apply for PM Modi scholarship? PMSS Renewal application form 2020. Step 1- Visit the Official Website of the Prime Minister Scholarship Scheme of the Central Sainik Board i.e. desw.gov.in. Step 2- On the Homepage, Click on the Option ” Apply Online” button. Step 3- After this, the Login Form page will be displayed on the screen. Objectives · Provide a common portal for various Scholarships schemes of Central and State Governments · Ensure timely disbursement of Scholarships to students · Create a transparent database of scholars · Application of Direct Benefit Transfer · Avoid duplication in processing · Harmonisation of different Scholarships schemes & norms What is PM Modi Scholarship 2020? Candidates can now apply for the Prime Minister Scholarship Scheme 2020 which was recently launched by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi to encourage higher technical and professional education for the wards and widows of Ex/ Serving Army/Navy or Air Force personnel How do you get a scholarship? Where to find and apply for college scholarships 1. Look at your hobbies in a new way. You may not think of your hobbies and interests as a way to help pay for school, but you should. ... 2. Register for Scholarship Search. ... 3. Meet with your school counselor and others. ... 4. Consider scholarships for minority students. Do you get to keep extra scholarship money? What happens to leftover scholarship dollars. If you earned scholarships and grants that amount to more than your total cost of attendance, your school may send you a refund. ... Remember, scholarship money can be used to pay for any education expenses deemed necessary by your school. What if my scholarship is more than tuition? If you receive a general scholarship or grant aid in excess of the cost of tuition, fees, and books, the excess amount is taxable. In addition, specific scholarships or grants (e.g., health insurance grants) that are directed toward expenses other than tuition, fees, and books are subject to taxation. How long does it take to receive scholarship money? The funds for the majority of scholarships are deposited into your nominated bank account approximately three weeks after the census date once enrolment has been confirmed (some bursaries may differ in payment timeframes or be paid in installments throughout the Semester). What is an entrance scholarship? Entrance scholarships are monetary awards given to students that demonstrate one or more of the following: academic excellence; leadership abilities; extra-curricular involvement and research proposals. How do I get a scholarship to McGill University? To apply, log in to Minerva: 1. Select the Financial Aid/Awards tab. 2. Click on the Financial Aid Menu. 3. Apply for McGill Financial Aid. 4. Apply to Work-Study. 5. Update your financial aid profile. 6. Submit your application. Does McGill offer scholarships to international students? The Scholarships and Student Aid Office administers need-based Financial Aid Programs for future and current undergraduates from Canada, the US, and abroad. Our programs offer loans and bursaries to students in need of supplemental financial assistance and to those who are experiencing financial hardship. How do international students apply to McGill? How to apply in 7 easy steps 1. Know your deadlines. Mark your calendar with these important dates regarding your application. 2. Decide what to study. ... 3. Make sure you're eligible. ... 4. Get ready to apply. ... 5. Submit your application. ... 6. Apply for an entrance scholarship. ... 7. Submit documents and keep in touch. Does UBC give scholarships to international students? International Major Entrance Scholarships (IMES) are awarded to exceptional international students entering undergraduate programs at UBC. Students receive their IMES when they enter their first year at UBC and the scholarships are renewable for up to three additional years of study. What is an entrance scholarship? Entrance scholarships are monetary awards given to students that demonstrate one or more of the following: academic excellence; leadership abilities; extra-curricular involvement and research proposals How much money will I get from POST MATRIC SCHOLARSHIP? Listed below are the benefits received by the candidates through the Post Matric Scholarship: The candidates pursuing M. Phil will receive INR 8,000 towards the end of research work. The candidates pursuing a Ph.D. degree will receive INR 10,000 towards the end of their research work. Also Read:- SATA Login Sinkoth :-)
Swagbucks
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(April-2021)Braindump2go PT0-001 PDF and PT0-001 VCE Dumps(Q29-Q49)
QUESTION 230 At the information gathering stage, a penetration tester is trying to passively identify the technology running on a client's website. Which of the following approached should the penetration tester take? A.Run a spider scan in Burp Suite. B.Use web aggregators such as BuiltWith and Netcraft C.Run a web scraper and pull the website's content. D.Use Nmap to fingerprint the website's technology. Answer: A QUESTION 231 Which of the following BEST protects against a rainbow table attack? A.Increased password complexity B.Symmetric encryption C.Cryptographic salting D.Hardened OS configurations Answer: A QUESTION 232 A penetration tester is assessing the security of a web form for a client and enters ";id" in one of the fields. The penetration tester observes the following response: Based on the response, which of the following vulnerabilities exists? A.SQL injection B.Session hijacking C.Command injection D.XSS/XSRF Answer: C QUESTION 233 A penetration tester is connected to a client's local network and wants to passively identify cleartext protocols and potentially sensitive data being communicated across the network. Which of the following is the BEST approach to take? A.Run a network vulnerability scan. B.Run a stress test. C.Run an MITM attack. D.Run a port scan. Answer: C QUESTION 234 A penetration tester directly connects to an internal network. Which of the following exploits would work BEST for quick lateral movement within an internal network? A.Crack password hashes in /etc/shadow for network authentication. B.Launch dictionary attacks on RDP. C.Conduct a whaling campaign. D.Poison LLMNR and NBNS requests. Answer: A QUESTION 235 A penetration tester runs the following on a machine: Which of the following will be returned? A.1 B.3 C.5 D.6 Answer: B QUESTION 236 A penetration tester discovers an anonymous FTP server that is sharing the C:\drive. Which of the following is the BEST exploit? A.Place a batch script in the startup folder for all users. B.Change a service binary location path to point to the tester's own payload. C.Escalate the tester's privileges to SYSTEM using the at.exe command. D.Download, modify, and reupload a compromised registry to obtain code execution. Answer: B QUESTION 237 Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive type of penetration test on a network? A.Black box B.White box C.Gray box D.Red team E.Architecture review Answer: A QUESTION 238 An attacker performed a MITM attack against a mobile application. The attacker is attempting to manipulate the application's network traffic via a proxy tool. The attacker only sees limited traffic as cleartext. The application log files indicate secure SSL/TLS connections are failing. Which of the following is MOST likely preventing proxying of all traffic? A.Misconfigured routes B.Certificate pinning C.Strong cipher suites D.Closed ports Answer: B QUESTION 239 A company decides to remediate issues identified from a third-party penetration test done to its infrastructure. Management should instruct the IT team to: A.execute the hot fixes immediately to all vulnerabilities found. B.execute the hot fixes immediately to some vulnerabilities. C.execute the hot fixes during the routine quarterly patching. D.evaluate the vulnerabilities found and execute the hot fixes. Answer: D QUESTION 240 A penetration tester successfully exploits a system, receiving a reverse shell. Which of the following is a Meterpreter command that is used to harvest locally stored credentials? A.background B.hashdump C.session D.getuid E.psexec Answer: B QUESTION 241 A penetration tester is testing a web application and is logged in as a lower-privileged user. The tester runs arbitrary JavaScript within an application, which sends an XMLHttpRequest, resulting in exploiting features to which only an administrator should have access. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the vulnerability? A.Implement authorization checks. B.Sanitize all the user input. C.Prevent directory traversal. D.Add client-side security controls Answer: A QUESTION 242 During the exploitation phase of a penetration test, a vulnerability is discovered that allows command execution on a Linux web server. A cursory review confirms the system access is only in a low-privilege user context: www-data. After reviewing, the following output from /etc/sudoers: Which of the following users should be targeted for privilege escalation? A.Only members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, ADMINS, jedwards, and operator can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. B.All users on the machine can execute privileged commands useful for privilege escalation. C.Bfranks, emann, members of the Linux admin group, OPERATORS, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. D.Jedwards, operator, bfranks, emann, OPERATOR, and ADMINS can execute commands useful for privilege escalation. Answer: A QUESTION 243 During an engagement, a consultant identifies a number of areas that need further investigation and require an extension of the engagement. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the engagement may not be able to continue? A.The consultant did not sign an NDA. B.The consultant was not provided with the appropriate testing tools. C.The company did not properly scope the project. D.The initial findings were not communicated to senior leadership. Answer: C QUESTION 244 A penetration tester has been hired to perform a penetration test for an organization. Which of the following is indicative of an error-based SQL injection attack? A.a=1 or 1–– B.1=1 or b–– C.1=1 or 2–– D.1=1 or a–– Answer: A QUESTION 245 When negotiating a penetration testing contract with a prospective client, which of the following disclaimers should be included in order to mitigate liability in case of a future breach of the client's systems? A.The proposed mitigations and remediations in the final report do not include a cost-benefit analysis. B.The NDA protects the consulting firm from future liabilities in the event of a breach. C.The assessment reviewed the cyber key terrain and most critical assets of the client's network. D.The penetration test is based on the state of the system and its configuration at the time of assessment. Answer: D QUESTION 246 A tester was able to retrieve domain users' hashes. Which of the following tools can be used to uncover the users' passwords? (Choose two.) A.Hydra B.Mimikatz C.Hashcat D.John the Ripper E.PSExec F.Nessus Answer: BE QUESTION 247 A penetration tester is attempting to open a socket in a bash script but receives errors when running it. The current state of the relevant line in the script is as follows: Which of the following lines of code would correct the issue upon substitution? A.open 0<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}:${PORT} B.exec 0</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} C.exec 0</dev/tcp/$[HOST]:$[PORT] D.exec 3<>/dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} E.open 3</dev/tcp/${HOST}/${PORT} F.open 3</dev/tcp/$[HOST]/$[PORT] Answer: C QUESTION 248 A vulnerability scan report shows what appears to be evidence of a memory disclosure vulnerability on one of the target hosts. The administrator claims the system is patched and the evidence is a false positive. Which of the following is the BEST method for a tester to confirm the vulnerability exists? A.Manually run publicly available exploit code. B.Confirm via evidence of the updated version number. C.Run the vulnerability scanner again. D.Perform dynamic analysis on the vulnerable service. Answer: C QUESTION 249 A penetration tester has gained physical access to a facility and connected directly into the internal network. The penetration tester now wants to pivot into the server VLAN. Which of the following would accomplish this? A.Spoofing a printer's MAC address B.Abusing DTP negotiation C.Performing LLMNR poisoning D.Conducting an STP attack Answer: D QUESTION 250 During an engagement an unsecure direct object reference vulnerability was discovered that allows the extraction of highly sensitive PII. The tester is required to extract and then exfil the information from a web application with identifiers 1 through 1000 inclusive. When running the following script, an error is encountered: Which of the following lines of code is causing the problem? A.url = "https://www.comptia.org?id=" B.req = requests.get(url) C.if req.status ==200: D.url += i Answer: D QUESTION 251 A security team is switching firewall vendors. The director of security wants to scope a penetration test to satisfy requirements to perform the test after major architectural changes. Which of the following is the BEST way to approach the project? A.Design a penetration test approach, focusing on publicly released firewall DoS vulnerabilities. B.Review the firewall configuration, followed by a targeted attack by a read team. C.Perform a discovery scan to identify changes in the network. D.Focus on an objective-based approach to assess network assets with a red team. Answer: D QUESTION 252 A penetration tester has identified a directory traversal vulnerability. Which of the following payloads could have helped the penetration tester identify this vulnerability? A.‘or ‘folder’ like ‘file’; –– B.|| is /tmp/ C.“><script>document.location=/root/</script> D.&& dir C:/ E.../../../../../../../. Answer: E QUESTION 253 An individual has been hired by an organization after passing a background check. The individual has been passing information to a competitor over a period of time. Which of the following classifications BEST describes the individual? A.APT B.Insider threat C.Script kiddie D.Hacktivist Answer: B QUESTION 254 A senior employee received a suspicious email from another executive requesting an urgent wire transfer. Which of the following types of attacks is likely occurring? A.Spear phishing B.Business email compromise C.Vishing D.Whaling Answer: A 2021 Latest Braindump2go PT0-001 PDF and PT0-001 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1upxI-JhgoyePRzSCJXgkSKrKo53vlXSw?usp=sharing
(April-2021)Braindump2go 5V0-34.19 PDF and 5V0-34.19 VCE Dumps(Q29-Q49)
QUESTION 29 A user wants to create a super metric and apply it to a custom group to capture the total of CPU Demand (MHz) of virtual machines that are children of the custom group. Which super metric function would be used to accomplish this? A.Average B.Max C.Sum D.Count Answer: C QUESTION 30 Review the exhibit. When the Cluster Metric Load or Cluster Object Load exceeds 100%, what is the next step a vRealize Operations administrator should take? A.Reduce the vRealize Operations data retention time. B.Add an additional vRealize Operations data node. C.Increase vRealize Operations polling time. D.Remove a vCenter from the vSphere management pack. Answer: B QUESTION 31 Which object attributes are used in vRealize Operations Compliance analysis? A.tags B.properties C.user access lists D.host profiles Answer: B QUESTION 32 Based on the highlighted HIPPA compliance template above, how many hosts are in a compliant state? A.5 B.24 C.29 D.31 Answer: A QUESTION 33 How can vRealize Operations tags be used? A.be dynamically assigned to objects B.to group virtual machines in vCenter C.to set object access controls D.to filter objects within dashboard widgets Answer: B QUESTION 34 The default collection cycle is set. When changing the Cluster Time Remaining settings, how long will it take before time remaining and risk level are recalculated? A.5 minutes B.1 hour C.12 hours D.24 hours Answer: A QUESTION 35 What is a prerequisite for using Business Intent? A.DRS clusters B.storage policies C.vSphere 6.7 D.vCenter tags Answer: D QUESTION 36 What can be configured within a policy? A.alert notifications B.symptom definition threshold overrides C.custom group membership criteria D.symptom definition operator overrides Answer: B QUESTION 37 Which organizational construct within vRealize Operations has a user-configured dynamic membership criteria? A.Resource Pool B.Tags C.Custom group D.Custom Datacenter Answer: C QUESTION 38 How should a remote collector be added to a vRealize Operations installation? A.Log in as Admin on a master node and enable High Availability. B.Open the Setup Wizard from the login page. C.Navigate to a newly deployed node and click Expand an Existing Installation. D.Navigate to the Admin interface of a data node. Answer: C QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit. How is vSphere Usable Capacity calculated? A.Demand plus Reservation B.Total Capacity minus High Availability C.Total Capacity minus Overhead D.Demand plus High Availability Answer: B QUESTION 40 A view is created in vRealize Operations to track virtual machine maximum and average contention for the past thirty days. Which method is used to enhance the view to easily spot VMs with high contention values? A.Set a tag on virtual machines and filter on the tag. B.Edit the view and set filters for the transformation value maximum and average contention. C.Create a custom group to dynamically track virtual machines. D.Configure Metric Coloring in the Advanced Settings of the view. Answer: C QUESTION 41 Refer to the exhibit. A user has installed and configured Telegraf agent on a Windows domain controller. No application data is being collected. Which two actions should the user take to see the application data? (Choose two.) A.Verify the vCenter adapter collection status. B.Re-configure the agent on the Windows virtual machine manually. C.Verify Active Directory Service status. D.Configure ICMP Remote Check. E.Validate time synchronization between vRealize Application Remote Collector and vRealize Operations. Answer: AE QUESTION 42 Which dashboard widget provides a two-dimensional relationship? A.Heat Map B.Object Selector C.Scoreboard D.Top N Answer: A QUESTION 43 What must an administrator do to use the Troubleshoot with Logs Dashboard in vRealize Operations? A.Configure the vRealize Log Insight agent. B.Enable Log Forwarding within vRealize Operations. C.Configure vRealize Operations within vRealize Log Insight. D.Configure symptoms and alerts within vRealize Operations. Answer: C QUESTION 44 vRealize Operations places a tagless virtual machines on a tagged host. Which setting causes this behavior? A.Host-Based Business Intent B.Consolidated Operational Intent C.Balanced Operational Intent D.Cluster-Based Business Intent Answer: A QUESTION 45 The default collection cycle is set. How often are cost calculations run? A.every 5 minutes B.daily C.weekly D.monthly Answer: B QUESTION 46 vRealize Operations is actively collecting data from vCenter and the entire inventory is licensed. Why would backup VMDKs of an active virtual machine in the vCenter appear in Orphaned Disks? A.They are related to the VM. B.They are named the same as the VM. C.They are not in vCenter inventory. D.They are not actively being utilized. Answer: C QUESTION 47 In which two locations should all nodes be when deploying an analytics node? (Choose two.) A.same data center B.same vCenter C.remote data center D.same subnet E.different subnet Answer: AD QUESTION 48 Which type of view allows a user to create a view to provide tabular data about specific objects? A.Distribution B.Text C.List D.Trend Answer: C QUESTION 49 Which Operational Intent setting drives maximum application performance by avoiding resource spikes? A.Moderate B.Consolidate C.Over provision D.Balance Answer: B 2021 Latest Braindump2go 5V0-34.19 PDF and 5V0-34.19 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1i-g5X8oxKPFi-1oyAVi68bVlC5njt8PF?usp=sharing
(April-2021)Braindump2go 300-425 PDF and 300-425 VCE Dumps(Q181-Q201)
QUESTION 81 An engineer is trying to determine the most cost-effective way to deploy high availability for a campus enterprise wireless network that currently leverages three wireless LAN controllers. Which architecture should the engineer deploy? A.N+1 solution without SSO B.N+1 with SSO C.N+N solution without SSO D.N+N with SSO Answer: B QUESTION 82 During a post deployment site survey, issues are found with non-Wi-Fi interference. What should the engineer use to identify the source of the interference? A.Cisco Spectrum Expert B.wireless intrusion prevention C.Wireshark D.network analysis module Answer: A QUESTION 83 Refer to the exhibit. An enterprise is using wireless as the main network connectivity for clients. To ensure service continuity, a pair of controllers will be installed in a datacenter. An engineer is designing SSO on the pair of controllers. What needs to be included m the design to avoid having the secondary controller go into maintenance mode? A.The keep alive timer is too low which causes synchronization problems. B.The connection between the redundancy ports is missing. C.The redundancy port must be the same subnet as the redundancy mgmt. D.The Global Configuration of SSO is set to Disabled on the controller. Answer: A QUESTION 84 Campus users report a poor wireless experience. An engineer investigating the issue notices that in high-density areas the wireless clients fail to switch the AP to which are automatically connected. This sticky client behavior is causing roaming issues. Which feature must the engineer configure? A.load balancing and band select B.optimized roaming C.Layer 3 roaming D.Layer 2 roaming Answer: B QUESTION 85 An engineer changed me TPC Power Threshold for a wireless deployment from the default value to 65 dBm. The engineer conducts a new post deployment survey to validate the results. What is the expected outcome? A.increased received sensitivity B.decreased channel overlap C.decreased client signal strength D.increased cell size Answer: C QUESTION 86 A customer is looking for a network design with Cisco Hyperlocation using AP4800 for location tracking via a custom mobile app issues appeared in me past with refresh rates for location updates. What needs to be implemented to meet these requirements? A.Cisco FastLocate technology B.redundant CMX and fetch location in round-robin fashion C.device Bluetooth via the app D.Cisco CMX SDK in the location app Answer: A QUESTION 87 What is the attenuation value of a human body on a wireless signal? A.3 dB B.4 dB C.6 dB D.12 dB Answer: B QUESTION 88 Why is 802.11a connectivity reduced in an X-ray room? A.X-rays impact the 802.11a UNll-2 channels Vial cause access points to dynamically change channels. B.X-ray rooms exhibit increased signal attenuation C.X-rays within these rooms cause multipath issues. D.X-rays create significant non-Wi-Fi interference on the 802.11a band Answer: B QUESTION 89 A medium-sized hospitality company with 50 hotels needs to upgrade the existing WLAN m each hotel to 802Hn. During the site surveys tor each hotel, what needs to be taken into consideration when determining the locations for each AP? A.Selecting AP locations where power is already available B.Selecting APs that can be hidden in ceiling panels lo provide a secure and clean aesthetic look. C.Selecting locations that make visual assessment of the AP operation easy D.Selecting locations that are easily accessed so maintenance and upgrades can be performed quickly Answer: A QUESTION 90 A network engineer needs to create a wireless design to bridge wired IP surveillance cameras in the parking lot through a mesh AP. To which operate mode of the AP should the cameras connect? A.RAP B.local C.FlexConnect D.MAP Answer: D QUESTION 91 An engineer at a global enterprise organization must ensure that a mesh deployment has the highest number of channels available to the backhaul regardless of region deployed. Which design meets this requirement? A.one controller per country code B.redundant controllers in the least restrictive regulatory domain C.redundant controllers in the most restrictive regulatory domain D.one controller per continent Answer: C QUESTION 92 An enterprise is using two wireless controllers to support the wireless network. The data center is located in the head office. Each controller has a corporate WLAN configured with the name CoprNET390595865WLC-1 and Copr-NET6837l638WLC-2. The APs are installed using a round-robin approach to load balance the traffic. What should be changed on the configuration to optimize roaming? A.Move all access points to one controller and use the other as N-1 HA. B.Use the same WLAN name for the corporate network on both controllers C.Move the controllers to an external data center with higher internet speeds D.Place the access points per floor on the same controller. Answer: D QUESTION 93 An engineer is conducting a Layer 2 site survey. Which type of client must the engineer match to the survey? A.best client available B.phone client C.normal client D.worst client available Answer: C QUESTION 94 A wireless engineer is using Ekahau Site Survey to validate that an existing wireless network is operating as expected. Which type of survey should be used to identify the end-to-end network performance? A.spectrum analysis B.passive C.GPS assisted D.active ping Answer: A QUESTION 95 The wireless learn must configure a new voice SSID for optimized roaming across multiple WLCs with Cisco 8821 phones. Which two WLC settings accomplish this goal? (Choose two) A.Configure mobility groups between WLCs B.Use Cisco Centralized Key Management for authentication. C.Configure AP groups between WLCs. D.Configure AVC profiles on the SSlD E.Use AVC to lag traffic voice traffic as best effort. Answer: BE QUESTION 96 An engineer is designing an outdoor mesh network to cover several sports fields. The core of the network is located In a building at the entrance of a sports complex. Which type of antenna should be used with the RAP for backhaul connectivity? A.5 GHz. 8-dBi omnidirectional antenna B.2.4 GHz. 8-dBi patch antenna C.2 4 GHz. 14-dBi omnidirectional antenna D.5 GHz. 14-dBi patch antenna Answer: A QUESTION 97 A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP with high gam antennas tor industrial, maintenance, or storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey devices and surveys several Aps. Which strategy will reduce the negative impact of the design? A.Resurvey and adjust the design B.Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design C.Deploy the specified access points per area type D.increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points Answer: A QUESTION 98 An engineer is designing a wireless network to support nigh availability. The network will need to support the total number of APs and client SSO. Live services should continue to work without interruption during the failover. Which two requirements need to be incorporated into the design to meet these needs? (Choose two) A.redundant vWLC B.controller high availability pair with one of the WLCs having a valid AP count license C.10 sec RTT D.back-to-back direct connection between WLCs E.WLC 7.5 code or more recent Answer: BD QUESTION 99 Refer to the exhibit. During a post Mesh deployment survey, an engineer notices that frame cessions occur when MAP-1 and MAP-3 talk to RAP-2. Which type of issue does the engineer need to address in the design? A.co-channel interference B.backhaul latency C.hidden node D.exposed node Answer: A QUESTION 100 An enterprise is using the wireless network as the main network connection for corporate users and guests. To ensure wireless network availability, two standalone controllers are installed in the head office APs are connected to the controllers using a round-robin approach to load balance the traffic. After a power cut, the wireless clients disconnect while roaming. An engineer tried to ping from the controller but fails. Which protocol needs to be allowed between the networks that the controllers are Installed? A.IP Protocol 67 B.IP Protocol 77 C.IP Protocol 87 D.IP Protocol 97 Answer: D QUESTION 101 An engineer must perform a pre deployment site survey. For a new building in a high-security area. The design must provide a primary signal RSSI of -65 dBM for the clients. Which two requirements complete this design? (Choose two) A.site access B.AP model C.WLC model D.HVAC access E.number of clients Answer: BE 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-425 PDF and 300-425 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/116pgsScHZoMX_x10f-SEvzUZ9ec2kgWd?usp=sharing