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(April-2021)Braindump2go COBIT-2019 PDF and COBIT-2019VCE Dumps(Q43-Q63)

QUESTION 43
The value that I&T delivers should be:

A.aligned directly with the values on which the business is focused.
B.focused exclusively on I&T investments that generate financial benefits.
C.restricted to maintaining and increasing value derived from existing I&T investments.

Answer: C

QUESTION 44
COBIT addresses governance issues by doing which of the following?

A.Grouping relevant governance components into objectives that can be managed to a required capability level
B.Providing a full description of the entire IT environment within an enterprise
C.Defining specific governance strategies and processes to implement in specific situations

Answer: A

QUESTION 45
Which of the following is a guiding principle in the development of COBIT?

A.COBIT aligns with other related and relevant I&T standards, frameworks and regulations
B.COBIT includes relevant content from other related I&T standards, frameworks and regulations.
C.COBIT serves as a comprehensive standalone framework that covers all relevant I&T-related activities.

Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Which of the following is an element of governance?

A.Building plans to align with the direction set by the governance body
B.Monitoring activities designed to achieve enterprise objectives
C.Evaluating stakeholder needs to determine enterprise objectives

Answer: A

QUESTION 47
In most cases, management of the enterprise is the responsibility of:

A.the project management office.
B.the executive management team.
C.the board of directors.

Answer: A

QUESTION 48
Which of the following benefits derived from the use of COBIT is PRIMARILY associated with an external stakeholder?

A.COBIT provides guidance on how to organize and monitor the performance of I&T across the enterprise.
B.COBIT helps to manage the dependency on the use of external service providers.
C.COBIT helps to ensure compliance with applicable rules and regulations.

Answer: A

QUESTION 49
Which of the following is MOST critical to ensuring the objective of managed availability and capacity?

A.Allocation of budgets for business continuity
B.Future prediction of I&T resource requirements
C.Identification of single points of failure

Answer: A

QUESTION 50
Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit associated with the management objective "managed strategy?"

A.Desired value is delivered through a roadmap of incremental changes
B.Service delivery is facilitated by adopting the latest technology innovations
C.Effective communication channels are established across all levels of management

Answer: A

QUESTION 51
Which of the following MUST be defined before determining alignment goals?

A.External laws and regulations
B.Stakeholder drivers and needs
C.Governance and management objectives

Answer: B

QUESTION 52
Time-to-market is a market that is directly related to which of the following enterprise goals?

A.Optimization of internal business process functionality
B.Portfolio of competitive products and services
C.Managed digital transformation programs

Answer: B

QUESTION 53
Which of the following would be an appropriate metric associated with an enterprise goal of "Business service continuity and availability"?

A.Satisfaction levels of board and executive management with business process capabilities
B.Ratio of significant incidents that were not identified in risk assessments vs. total incidents
C.Number of business processing hours lost due to unplanned service interruptions

Answer: C

QUESTION 54
Which of the following enterprise goals is within the Customer dimension of the IT balanced scorecard?

A.Delivery of programs on time and on budget
B.Product and business innovation
C.Quality of management information

Answer: C

QUESTION 55
Which of the following cascades to enterprise goals?

A.Stakeholder needs
B.Organizational objectives
C.Enterprise strategy

Answer: C

QUESTION 56
Which of the following metrics would BEST enable an enterprise to evaluate an alignment goal specifically related to security of information and privacy?

A.Ratio and extent of erroneous business decisions in which erroneous I&T-related information was a key factor
B.Number of critical business processes supported by up-to-date infrastructure and applications
C.Number of confidentiality incidents causing financial loss, business disruption or public embarrassment.

Answer: C

QUESTION 57
Which of the following would be an appropriate metric to align with a goal of "Delivery of programs on time, on budget, and meeting requirements and quality standards"?

A.Percent of stakeholders satisfied with program/project quality
B.Percent of business staff satisfied that IT service delivery meets agreed service levels
C.Level of user satisfaction with the quality and availability of I&T-related management information

Answer: A

QUESTION 58
The alignment goal "Delivery of I&T services in line with business requirements" is organized into which IT balanced scorecard (BSC) dimension?

A.Customer
C.Internal

Answer: A

QUESTION 59
Which of the following management objectives is related to optimization of system performance?

A.Managed I&T management framework
B.Managed availability and capacity
C.Managed service agreements

Answer: B

QUESTION 60
The ability to rapidly turn business requirements into operational solutions is an example of which type of goal?

A.An enterprise goal
B.A strategic goal
C.An alignment goal

Answer: C

QUESTION 61
Which of the following would BEST help to determine whether intended outcomes of IT governance are being achieved?

A.Reviewing business satisfaction survey results
B.Reviewing the balanced scorecard
C.Reviewing the governance business case

Answer: B

QUESTION 62
The alignment goal titled "Knowledge, expertise and initiatives for business innovation" is aligned to which IT balanced scorecard (BSC) dimension?

A.Customer
B.Learning and Growth
C.Internal

Answer: B

QUESTION 63
Which of the following comprises the "information flow" component of a governance system?

A.People, skills and competencies
B.Assignment of responsibility and accountability roles
C.Process practices that include inputs and outputs

Answer: C

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(May-2021)Braindump2go 350-801 PDF and 350-801 VCE Dumps(Q189-Q204)
QUESTION 189 What are two functions of MPLS Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.) A.LDP and BGP can be used for Pseudowire signaling. B.It is used for transparent point-to-multipoint connectivity between Ethernet links/sites. C.BGP is used for signaling customer VPNv4 routes between PE nodes. D.A packet with node segment ID is forwarded along with shortest path to destination. E.Customer traffic is encapsulated in a VPN label when it is forwarded in MPLS network. Answer: CE QUESTION 190 When configuring Control Plane Policing on a router to protect it from malicious traffic, an engineer observes that the configured routing protocols start flapping on that device. Which action in the Control Plane Policy prevents this problem in a production environment while achieving the security objective? 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(April-2021)Braindump2go 300-710 PDF and 300-710 VCE Dumps(Q93-Q115)
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C.In transparent firewall mode, routing between bridge groups is supported D.Routing between bridge groups is achieved only with a router-on-a-stick configuration on a connected router Answer: B QUESTION 99 Network traffic coining from an organization's CEO must never be denied. Which access control policy configuration option should be used if the deployment engineer is not permitted to create a rule to allow all traffic? A.Configure firewall bypass. B.Change the intrusion policy from security to balance. C.Configure a trust policy for the CEO. D.Create a NAT policy just for the CEO. Answer: C QUESTION 100 An organization has a compliancy requirement to protect servers from clients, however, the clients and servers all reside on the same Layer 3 network. Without readdressing IP subnets for clients or servers, how is segmentation achieved? A.Deploy a firewall in transparent mode between the clients and servers. B.Change the IP addresses of the clients, while remaining on the same subnet. C.Deploy a firewall in routed mode between the clients and servers D.Change the IP addresses of the servers, while remaining on the same subnet Answer: C QUESTION 101 In a multi-tenant deployment where multiple domains are in use. Which update should be applied outside of the Global Domain? A.minor upgrade B.local import of intrusion rules C.Cisco Geolocation Database D.local import of major upgrade Answer: C QUESTION 102 A mid-sized company is experiencing higher network bandwidth utilization due to a recent acquisition. The network operations team is asked to scale up their one Cisco FTD appliance deployment to higher capacities due to the increased network bandwidth. Which design option should be used to accomplish this goal? A.Deploy multiple Cisco FTD appliances in firewall clustering mode to increase performance. B.Deploy multiple Cisco FTD appliances using VPN load-balancing to scale performance. C.Deploy multiple Cisco FTD HA pairs to increase performance D.Deploy multiple Cisco FTD HA pairs in clustering mode to increase performance Answer: A QUESTION 103 An organization has seen a lot of traffic congestion on their links going out to the internet There is a Cisco Firepower device that processes all of the traffic going to the internet prior to leaving the enterprise. How is the congestion alleviated so that legitimate business traffic reaches the destination? A.Create a flexconfig policy to use WCCP for application aware bandwidth limiting B.Create a VPN policy so that direct tunnels are established to the business applications C.Create a NAT policy so that the Cisco Firepower device does not have to translate as many addresses D.Create a QoS policy rate-limiting high bandwidth applications Answer: D QUESTION 104 An engineer configures an access control rule that deploys file policy configurations to security zone or tunnel zones, and it causes the device to restart. What is the reason for the restart? A.Source or destination security zones in the access control rule matches the security zones that are associated with interfaces on the target devices. B.The source tunnel zone in the rule does not match a tunnel zone that is assigned to a tunnel rule in the destination policy. C.Source or destination security zones in the source tunnel zone do not match the security zones that are associated with interfaces on the target devices. D.The source tunnel zone in the rule does not match a tunnel zone that is assigned to a tunnel rule in the source policy. Answer: A QUESTION 105 An engineer is attempting to create a new dashboard within the Cisco FMC to have a single view with widgets from many of the other dashboards. The goal is to have a mixture of threat and security related widgets along with Cisco Firepower device health information. Which two widgets must be configured to provide this information? (Choose two.) A.Intrusion Events B.Correlation Information C.Appliance Status D.Current Sessions E.Network Compliance Answer: AC QUESTION 106 An organization is setting up two new Cisco FTD devices to replace their current firewalls and cannot have any network downtime. During the setup process, the synchronization between the two devices is failing. What action is needed to resolve this issue? A.Confirm that both devices have the same port-channel numbering B.Confirm that both devices are running the same software version C.Confirm that both devices are configured with the same types of interfaces D.Confirm that both devices have the same flash memory sizes Answer: B QUESTION 107 There is an increased amount of traffic on the network and for compliance reasons, management needs visibility into the encrypted traffic. What is a result of enabling TLS'SSL decryption to allow this visibility? A.It prompts the need for a corporate managed certificate B.It has minimal performance impact C.It is not subject to any Privacy regulations D.It will fail if certificate pinning is not enforced Answer: A QUESTION 108 An organization wants to secure traffic from their branch office to the headquarter building using Cisco Firepower devices, They want to ensure that their Cisco Firepower devices are not wasting resources on inspecting the VPN traffic. What must be done to meet these requirements? A.Configure the Cisco Firepower devices to ignore the VPN traffic using prefilter policies B.Enable a flexconfig policy to re-classify VPN traffic so that it no longer appears as interesting traffic C.Configure the Cisco Firepower devices to bypass the access control policies for VPN traffic. D.Tune the intrusion policies in order to allow the VPN traffic through without inspection Answer: C QUESTION 109 A network administrator is seeing an unknown verdict for a file detected by Cisco FTD. Which malware policy configuration option must be selected in order to further analyse the file in the Talos cloud? A.Spero analysis B.Malware analysis C.Dynamic analysis D.Sandbox analysis Answer: C QUESTION 110 An engineer has been tasked with providing disaster recovery for an organization's primary Cisco FMC. What must be done on the primary and secondary Cisco FMCs to ensure that a copy of the original corporate policy is available if the primary Cisco FMC fails? A.Configure high-availability in both the primary and secondary Cisco FMCs B.Connect the primary and secondary Cisco FMC devices with Category 6 cables of not more than 10 meters in length. C.Place the active Cisco FMC device on the same trusted management network as the standby device D.Restore the primary Cisco FMC backup configuration to the secondary Cisco FMC device when the primary device fails Answer: A QUESTION 111 An engineer is attempting to add a new FTD device to their FMC behind a NAT device with a NAT ID of ACME001 and a password of Cisco388267669. Which command set must be used in order to accomplish this? A.configure manager add ACME001 <registration key> <FMC IP> B.configure manager add <FMC IP> ACME0O1 <registration key> C.configure manager add DONTRESOLVE <FMC IP> AMCE001 <registration key> D.configure manager add <FMC IP> registration key> ACME001 Answer: D QUESTION 112 Refer to the exhibit. An organization has an access control rule with the intention of sending all social media traffic for inspection. After using the rule for some time, the administrator notices that the traffic is not being inspected, but is being automatically allowed. What must be done to address this issue? A.Modify the selected application within the rule B.Change the intrusion policy to connectivity over security. C.Modify the rule action from trust to allow D.Add the social network URLs to the block list Answer: A QUESTION 113 A user within an organization opened a malicious file on a workstation which in turn caused a ransomware attack on the network. What should be configured within the Cisco FMC to ensure the file is tested for viruses on a sandbox system? A.Capacity handling B.Local malware analysis C.Spere analysis D.Dynamic analysis Answer: D QUESTION 114 An engineer configures a network discovery policy on Cisco FMC. Upon configuration, it is noticed that excessive and misleading events filing the database and overloading the Cisco FMC. A monitored NAT device is executing multiple updates of its operating system in a short period of time. What configuration change must be made to alleviate this issue? A.Leave default networks. B.Change the method to TCP/SYN. C.Increase the number of entries on the NAT device. D.Exclude load balancers and NAT devices. Answer: D QUESTION 115 administrator is configuring SNORT inspection policies and is seeing failed deployment messages in Cisco FMC. What information should the administrator generate for Cisco TAC to help troubleshoot? A.A Troubleshoot" file for the device in question. B.A "show tech" file for the device in question C.A "show tech" for the Cisco FMC. D.A "troubleshoot" file for the Cisco FMC Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-710 PDF and 300-710 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1k8dhswD5V9ioQSctkVOlp0ooiELn46gL?usp=sharing
Galacto‐Oligosaccharides (GOS) Market Share, Industry Trends, Size, Revenue, Demand, Growth Analysis, Top Leaders: Clasado, MEGMILK SNOW BRAND Co., Ltd., Royal Friesl and Campina N.V., Yakult Honsha Co
Market Analysis and Insights: Global Galacto‐Oligosaccharides (GOS) Market Galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market is expected to gain a potential growth by 2027 growing at a growth rate of 8.70% in the forecast period of 2020 to 2027. The burgeoning requirement for the new-born recipe is amidst the essential determinants encouraging the germination of the market. The escalating infant population is required to enhance the provision of baby formula, thus arbitrarily influencing the need for galacto-oligosaccharides. Ascending affairs concerning chronic disorders copulated with the upsurge in the maturing people have supervised the augmented requirement for dietary supplements consequently stimulating the galacto-oligosaccharides (GOS) market. Augmenting remodelling and restructuring ventures are anticipated to thrust the utilization of breathable antimicrobial layers in the development sector. The proximity of essential business professionals is also foreseen to support market growth. The burgeoning requirement for dairy commodities such as butter and cheese is assumed to be the influential booster for the food and refreshment segment. Get More Insights About Global Galacto‐Oligosaccharides (GOS) Market, Request Sample @ https://www.databridgemarketresearch.com/request-a-sample/?dbmr=global-galacto-oligosaccharides-gos-market This galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market report provides details of new recent developments, trade regulations, import export analysis, production analysis, value chain optimization, market share, impact of domestic and localised market players, analyses opportunities in terms of emerging revenue pockets, changes in market regulations, strategic market growth analysis, market size, category market growths, application niches and dominance, product approvals, product launches, geographic expansions, technological innovations in the market. To gain more info on Data Bridge Market Research galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market contact us for an Analyst Brief, our team will help you take an informed market decision to achieve market growth. Global Galacto‐Oligosaccharides (GOS) Market Scope and Market Size Global Galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market is segmented on the basis of form, function type, food and beverage, source, and dietary supplements. The growth among segments helps you analyse niche pockets of growth and strategies to approach the market and determine your core application areas and the difference in your target markets. On the basis of form, the galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market is segmented into liquid and powder. On the basis of function type, the galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market is segmented into prebiotic and sweetener. On the basis of food and beverage, the galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market is segmented into bakery products, dairy products, cereals, and others. On the basis of dietary supplements, the galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market is segmented into infant formula, elderly nutrition, sports & clinical supplements, and others. On the basis of source, the galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market is segmented into plants, animals, and microorganisms. Know more about this report https://www.databridgemarketresearch.com/reports/global-galacto-oligosaccharides-gos-market Galacto‐Oligosaccharides (GOS) Market Country Level Analysis Galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market is analysed and market size, volume information is provided by country, form, function type, food and beverage, source, and dietary supplements as referenced above. The countries covered in the galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market report are the U.S., Canada, Mexico in North America, Germany, Sweden, Poland, Denmark, Italy, U.K., France, Spain, Netherland, Belgium, Switzerland, Turkey, Russia, Rest of Europe in Europe, Japan, China, India, South Korea, New Zealand, Vietnam, Australia, Singapore, Malaysia, Thailand, Indonesia, Philippines, Rest of Asia-Pacific (APAC) in Asia-Pacific (APAC), Brazil, Argentina, Rest of South America as a part of South America, UAE, Saudi Arabia, Oman, Qatar, Kuwait, South Africa, Rest of Middle East and Africa (MEA) as a part of Middle East and Africa (MEA). Europe is expected to be the most substantial market for galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) followed by Asia-Pacific (APAC) owing to ample ratio of infants and dietary supplement required for them. The country section of the galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market report also provides individual market impacting factors and changes in regulation in the market domestically that impacts the current and future trends of the market. Data points such as consumption volumes, production sites and volumes, import export analysis, price trend analysis, cost of raw materials, down-stream and upstream value chain analysis are some of the major pointers used to forecast the market scenario for individual countries. Also, presence and availability of global brands and their challenges faced due to large or scarce competition from local and domestic brands, impact of domestic tariffs and trade routes are considered while providing forecast analysis of the country data. Get Access Report @ https://www.databridgemarketresearch.com/checkout/buy/singleuser/global-galacto-oligosaccharides-gos-market Competitive Landscape and Galacto‐Oligosaccharides (GOS) Market Share Analysis Galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market competitive landscape provides details by competitor. Details included are company overview, company financials, revenue generated, market potential, investment in research and development, new market initiatives, global presence, production sites and facilities, production capacities, company strengths and weaknesses, product launch, product width and breadth, application dominance. The above data points provided are only related to the companies’ focus related to galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market. The major players covered in the galacto‐oligosaccharides (GOS) market report are · Clasado · MEGMILK SNOW BRAND Co., Ltd. · Royal Friesl and Campina N.V. · Yakult Honsha Co., Ltd. · Nissin Sugar Co., Ltd. · Ingredion Incorporated · First Milk Limited · Kerry Group plc · Kowa Europe GmbH. · SAMYANG OPTICS among other domestic and global players. Market share data is available for global, North America, Europe, Asia-Pacific (APAC), Middle East and Africa (MEA) and South America separately. DBMR analysts understand competitive strengths and provide competitive analysis for each competitor separately. Request for Detailed TOC @ https://www.databridgemarketresearch.com/toc/?dbmr=global-galacto-oligosaccharides-gos-market Browse Trending Related Reports @ · Cardamom Oil Market · Fruit and Vegetable Concentrates Market · Biscuits Market · Watermelon Seeds Market · Food Grade Paraffin Wax Market About Data Bridge Market Research: Data Bridge Market Research set forth itself as an unconventional and neoteric Market research and consulting firm with unparalleled level of resilience and integrated approaches. We are determined to unearth the best market opportunities and foster efficient information for your business to thrive in the market Contact: Data Bridge Market Research Tel: +1-888-387-2818 Email: Sopan.gedam@databridgemarketresearch.com
(May-2021)Braindump2go 350-801 PDF and 350-801 VCE Dumps(Q176-Q200)
QUESTION 176 Which two steps should be taken to provision after the Self-Provisioning feature was configured for end users? A.Dial the self-provisioning IVR extension and associate the phone to an end user. B.Plug the phone into the network. C.Ask the Cisco UCM administrator to associate the phone to an end user. D.Enter settings menu on the phone and press *,*,# (star, star, pound). E.Dial the hunt pilot extension and associate the phone to an end user. Answer: AB QUESTION 177 On a cisco catalyst switch, which command is required to send CDP packets on a switch port that configures a cisco IP phone to transmit voice traffic in 802.1q frames tagged with the voice VLAN ID 221? A.Device(config-if)# switchport access vlan 221 B.Device(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 221 C.Device(config-if)# switchport vlan voice 221 D.Device(config-if)# switchport voice vlan 221 Answer: D QUESTION 178 An end used at a remote site is trying initiate an ad hoc conference call to an end user at the main site the conference bridge is configured to support G.711 remote user phone only support G.729 the remote end user receives an error message on the phone "cannot complete conference call, what is the cause of the issue? A.The remote phone does not have the conference feature assigned. B.A Media Termination Point is missing C.The transcoder resource is missing. D.A software conference bridge is not assigned Answer: C QUESTION 179 An administrator is in the process of moving cisco unity connection mailboxes between mailbox stores the administrator notices that some mailboxes have active message waiting indicators, what happens to these mailboxes when they are moved? A.The move will fall If MWI status Is active. B.Moving the mailboxes from one store to another falls If MWI Is turned on. C.If source and target mailbox store are not disabled. MWI status is not retained. D.The MWI status is retained after a mailbox is moved from one store to another. Answer: D QUESTION 180 Which command must be defined before an administrator changes the linecode value on an ISDN T1 PRI in slot 0/2 on an IOS-XE gateway? A.isdn incoming-voice voice B.pri-group timeslots 1-24 C.card type t1 0 2 D.voice-port 0/2/0:23 Answer: C QUESTION 181 Which DSCP class selector is necessary to mark scavenger traffic? A.CS1 B.AF21 C.AF11 D.CS2 Answer: A QUESTION 182 Which service must be enabled when LDAP on cisco UCM is used? A.Cisco AXL Web Service B.Cisco CallManager SNMP Service C.Cisco DirSync D.Cisco Bulk provisioning Service Answer: C QUESTION 183 Which two protocols should be configured for the cisco unity connection and cisco UCM integration? A.SIP B.H.323 C.MGCP D.RTP E.SCCP Answer: AE QUESTION 184 An end user at a remote site is trying to initiate an Ad Hoc conference call to an end user at the main site. The conference receives an error message on the phone: Cannot complete conference call. What is the cause of the issue? A.The transcoder resource Is missing. B.The remote phone does not have the conference feature assigned C.A software conference bridge is not assigned. D.A Media Termination Point is missing. Answer: A QUESTION 185 What dialed number match this cisco UCM route pattern? 1[23]XX A.1200 through 1399 only B.1230 through 1239 only C.12300 through 12399 only D.1200 through 1300 only Answer: D QUESTION 186 Users want their mobile phones to be able to access their cisco unity connection mailboxes with only having to enter their voicemail pin at the login prompt calling pilot number, where should an engineer configure this feature? A.message settings B.greetings C.alternate extensions D.transfer rules Answer: C QUESTION 187 Refer to the exhibit. Which Codec is negotiated? A.729ILBC B.711ulaw C.728 Answer: C QUESTION 188 An engineer is setting up a system with voice and video endpoints using auto-QoS policy on the switches. Which DSCP values are expected for interactive voice and video? A.EF AND AF41 B.EF AND AF21 C.EF AND CS3 D.EF AND CS6 Answer: A QUESTION 189 During the Cisco IP Phone registration process the TFTP download fails. What are two reasons for this issue'? (Choose two) A.The DNS server was not specified, which is needed to resolve a hostname in an Option 150 string. B.The Cisco IP Phone does not know the IP address of the TFTP server C.The Cisco IP Phone does not know the IP address of any of the Cisco UCM Subscriber nodes D.Option 100 string was not specified, or an incorrect Option 100 string was specified E.Option 150 string was not specified, or an incorrect Option 150 string was specified Answer: BE QUESTION 190 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures fax dial-peers on a Cisco IOS gateway and finds that faxes are not working correctly. Which change should be made to resolve this issue? A.codec g723ar63 B.codec g729br81 C.codec g726r32 D.codec g711ulaw Answer: D QUESTION 191 An administrator is integrating a Cisco Unity Express module to a Cisco UCME system A test call is placed to the Cisco Unity Express pilot number, but the administrator receives a busy signal. The dial- peer is configured as follows: How is this issue resolved? A.The dial-peer needs to be reconfigured to support the G 711 voice codec. B.The dial-peer needs to be reconfigured to support vad. C.The destination pattern needs to be changed to match the dialed number of 4100. D.The dial-peer needs to be reconfigured to support H 323 instead of SIP. Answer: A QUESTION 192 What is the difference between Cisco Unified Border Element and a conventional Session Border Controller? A.SIP security B.DTMF interworking C.Voice policy D.Address hiding Answer: C QUESTION 193 How does traffic policing respond to violations? A.AH traffic is treated equally. B.Excess traffic is retransmitted. C.Excess traffic is dropped. D.Excess traffic is queued. Answer: C QUESTION 194 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is confining class of control for a user in Cisco UCM. Which change will ensure that the user is unable to call 2143? A.Change line partition to Partition_A B.Change line CSS to only contain Partition_B C.Set the user's line CSS to <None> D.Set the users device CSS to <None> Answer: D QUESTION 195 Users dial a 9 before a 10-digit phone number to make an off-net call All 11 digits are sent to the Cisco Unified Border Element before going out to the PSTN The PSTN provider accepts only 10 digits. Which configuration is needed on the Cisco Unified Border Element for calls to be successful? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: A QUESTION 196 A customer enters no IP domain lookup on the Cisco IOS XE gateway to suppress the interpreting of invalid commands as hostnames Which two commands are needed to restore DNS SRV or A record resolutions? (Choose two.) A.ip dhcp excluded-address B.ip dhcp-sip C.ip dhcp pool D.transport preferred none E.ip domain lookup Answer: DE QUESTION 197 An administrator is asked to implement toll fraud prevention in Cisco UCM, specifically to restrict off- net to off-net call transfers How is this implemented? A.Implement time-of-day routing. B.Use the correct route filters. C.Set the appropriate service parameter D.Enforce ad-hoc conference restrictions Answer: C QUESTION 198 A network administrator with ID392116981 has determined that a WAN link between two Cisco UCM clusters supports only 1 Mbps of bandwidth for voice traffic. How many calls does this link support if G.711 as the audio codec is used? A.15 B.16 C.13 D.12 Answer: D QUESTION 199 An engineer is asked to implement on-net/off-net call classification in Cisco UCM. Which two components are required to implement this configuration? (Choose two) A.SIP trunk B.CTI route point C.route group D.route pattern E.SIP route patterns Answer: AD QUESTION 200 An administrator installed a Cisco Unified IP 8831 Conference Phone that is failing to register. Which two actions are taken to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two) A.Disable HSRP on lhe access layer switch. B.Verify that the switch port of the phone is enabled C.Check the RJ-65 cable. D.Verify that the RJ-11 cable is plugged into the PC port. E.Verify that the phone's network can access the option 150 server. Answer: BE 2021 Latest Braindump2go 350-801 PDF and 350-801 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1pALdeSmYT0960h3st7rEH4WExsy2Mjgq?usp=sharing
9 Interview Questions EVERY Recruiter Should Ask Their Candidates
Interview Questions Recruiters face enough challenges as it is without worrying if they asked the right questions in an interview. It is essential when determining who the best fit for a job is. Of course, ensuring that a candidate has the required skill set is of primary concern, but it is also important to dig a little deeper and find out what kind of person they are. The goal is to snag a complete candidate, one with both the right personality and expertise. So here are the best nine interview questions for you to ask your next star candidate. 1. “What hobbies do you have?” Starting with an easy one here, and this question should be obvious for recruiters. Primarily it gives your candidate a chance to relax, but it can also offer you a key insight. For example, if they enjoy playing a lot of sport, it shows they are energetic individuals who are health conscious. If they like writing or drawing, ask them how they can transfer that creativity into their new role. Always have a follow-up question and try to revert it back to the role at hand. 2. “Tell me about your greatest professional achievement?” You want a candidate that has their sights set high, right? This question allows your potential employee to share some of their proudest professional moments. You can assess each achievement and see how ambitious they are. There is a big difference between a candidate who tells you their greatest exploit was always being on-time for work and one who boosted website traffic by 65% over a six month period. 3. “What was the biggest obstacle you have overcome?” Everyone faces certain challenges in both their personal and professional lives. What’s most important in this case is how your candidate overcame each hurdle. What did they learn from this experience? How would they deal with this obstacle if it were to happen again? It gives you an opportunity to see their problem-solving skills and how they can deal with pressures of the role. 4. “Are you interested in continuing to develop your professional skills and knowledge?” Continuous learning has seen rapid changes and growth, with companies looking to upskill and nurture their workers. Learning has become a key goal for companies, with many encouraging their employees to partake in various courses in order to improve their base level. You want your candidate to believe in continuous learning and know that the business values their personal and professional progression. 5. “Can you tell me what the key trends are in this industry?” Every industry has its own niche trends that are constantly changing. See if your candidate is up-to-date and informed about the latest insights. It’s important to understand the industry you work in, and if your candidate is ill-informed from the get-go, then that alone should be a telling sign. 6. “What is your biggest strength?” A much more comprehensive question compared to the now mundane “what are your weaknesses?” archetype. Candidates predict the latter and generally have a bland, pre-prepared answer. When asking about strengths, it allows the interviewee to paint their skills and traits in a positive light and generate a greater variety of answers. 7. “Tell me about a time when you got it all wrong?” This question allows you to see how honest your candidate is. No one is perfect, and a dishonest answer should be a major red flag for any recruiter. When the interviewee extrapolates, ask them what they’ve learned from the tough experience. Admitting to errors or blunders also shows that they can take ownership of situations and look for solutions rather than transfer blame. 8. “Where do you see yourself in 5 years?” You want your star candidate to think ahead. Only ambitious employees will truly push the boundaries, and that’s the kind of person you want working in your company. It also gives insight into how long the candidate might plan on staying at your business. The right candidate will list their career goals and be a motivated individual who is looking for career progression. 9. “Do you have any questions for me?” A candidate that doesn’t take the opportunity to ask questions is missing out or is struggling to think of a question off the top of their head. Even simple queries like: “how long will the probation period be?” or “what learning opportunities will be available to me?” are most definitely a positive look. It shows that the candidate is fully invested in the position and sees it as a long-term investment. This Post origioally featured at Khawaja Manpoer's Blog