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(May-2021)Braindump2go 350-801 PDF and 350-801 VCE Dumps(Q189-Q204)

QUESTION 189
What are two functions of MPLS Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)

A.LDP and BGP can be used for Pseudowire signaling.
B.It is used for transparent point-to-multipoint connectivity between Ethernet links/sites.
C.BGP is used for signaling customer VPNv4 routes between PE nodes.
D.A packet with node segment ID is forwarded along with shortest path to destination.
E.Customer traffic is encapsulated in a VPN label when it is forwarded in MPLS network.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 190
When configuring Control Plane Policing on a router to protect it from malicious traffic, an engineer observes that the configured routing protocols start flapping on that device.
Which action in the Control Plane Policy prevents this problem in a production environment while achieving the security objective?

A.Set the conform-action and exceed-action to transmit initially to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy in the output direction
B.Set the conform-action and exceed-action to transmit initially to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy in the input direction
C.Set the conform-action to transmit and exceed-action to drop to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy m the input direction
D.Set the conform-action to transmit and exceed-action to drop to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy m the output direction

Answer: B

QUESTION 191
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured route advertisement to a remote low resources rooter to use only the default route to reach any network but failed. Which action resolves this issue?

A.Change the direction of the distribute-list command from out to in.
B.Remove the line with the sequence number 5 from the prefix list.
C.Remove the prefix keyword from the distribute-list command.
D.Remove the line with the sequence number 10 from the prefix list.

Answer: B

QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit. The remote server is failing to receive the NetFlow data.
Which action resolves the issue?

A.Modify the flow transport command transport udp 2055 to move under flow monitor profile.
B.Modify the interlace command to Ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 Input.
C.Modify the udp port under flow exporter profile to Ip transport udp 4739.
D.Modify the flow record command record v4_M to move under flow exporter profile.

Answer: B

QUESTION 193
A DMVPN single hub topology is using IPsec + mGRE with OSPF. What should be configured on the hub to ensure it will be the designated router?

A.tunnel interface of the hub with ip nhrp ospf dr
B.OSPF priority to 0
C.route map to set the metrics of learned routes to 110
D.OSPF priority greater than 1

Answer: D

QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the Customer Edge router (AS 64511) to send only summarized routes toward ISP-1 (AS 100) and ISP-2 (AS 200).
router bgp 64511
network 172.16.20.0 mask 255.255.255.0
network 172.16.21.0 mask 255.255.255.0
network 172.16.22.0 mask 255.255.255.0
network 172.16.23.0 mask 255.255.255.0
aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0
After this configuration. ISP-1 and ISP-2 continue to receive the specific routes and the summary route. Which configuration resolves the issue?

A.router bgp 64511
aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only
B.router bgp 64511
neighbor 192.168.100.1 summary-only
neighbor 192.168.200.2 summary-only
C.interface E 0/0
ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC
!
interface E 0/1
ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC
!
ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC
permit 172.16.20.0/22 ge 24 !
route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10
match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC
D.ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC
deny 172.16.20.0/22 ge 22
ip prefix-list PL BLOCK SPECIFIC
permit 172.16.20.0/22 !
route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10
match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC
!
router bgp 64511
aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255 255.252.0 suppress-map BLOCKSPECIFIC

Answer: D

QUESTION 195
What are two MPLS label characteristics? (Choose two.)

A.The label edge router swaps labels on the received packets.
B.Labels are imposed in packets after the Layer 3 header.
C.LDP uses TCP for reliable delivery of information.
D.An MPLS label is a short identifier that identifies a forwarding equivalence class.
E.A maximum of two labels can be imposed on an MPLS packet.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 196
In which two ways does the IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table operate? (Choose two.)

A.by the recovery mechanism to recover the binding table in the event of a device reboot
B.by IPv6 routing protocols to securely build neighborships without the need of authentication
C.by IPv6 HSRP to make sure neighbors are authenticated before being used as gateways
D.by various IPv6 guard features to validate the data link layer address
E.by storing hashed keys for IPsec tunnels for the built-in IPsec features

Answer: AD

QUESTION 197
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured an IPv6 access list to allow TCP return traffic only, but it is not working as expected. Which changes resolve this issue?

A.ipv6 access-list inbound
permit tcp any any syn
deny ipv6 any any log
!
interface gi0/0
ipv6 traffic-filter inbound out
B.ipv6 access-list inbound
permit tcp any any syn
deny ipv6 any any log
!
interface gi0/0
ipv6 traffic-filter inbound in
C.ipv6 access-list inbound
permit tcp any any established
deny ipv6 any any log
!
interface gi0/0
ipv6 traffic-filter inbound in
D.ipv6 access-list inbound
permit tcp any any established
deny ipv6 any any log
!
interface gi0/0
ipv6 traffic-filter inbound out

Answer: C

QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured NTP on a Cisco router to get synchronized time for system and logs from a unified time source. The configuration did not work as desired. Which service must be enabled to resolve the issue?

A.Enter the service timestamps log datetime localtime global command.
B.Enter the service timestamps log datetime synchronize global command.
C.Enter the service timestamps log datetime console global command.
D.Enter the service timestamps log datetime clock-period global command

Answer: B

QUESTION 199
Refer to the exhibit. The engineer configured and connected Router2 to Router1. The link came up but could not establish a Telnet connection to Router1 IPv6 address of 2001:DB8::1.
Which configuration allows Router2 to establish a Telnet connection to Router1?

A.jpv6 unicast-routing
B.permit ICMPv6 on access list INGRESS for Router2 to obtain IPv6 address
C.permit ip any any on access list EGRESS2 on Router1
D.IPv6 address on GigabitEthernet0/0

Answer: C

QUESTION 200
Refer to the exhibits. An engineer filtered messages based on severity to minimize log messages.
After applying the filter, the engineer noticed that it filtered required messages as well. Which action must the engineer take to resolve the issue?

A.Configure syslog level 2.
B.Configure syslog level 3.
C.Configure syslog level 4.
D.Configure syslog level 5.

Answer: B

QUESTION 201
An engineer configured policy-based routing for a destination IP address that does not exist in the routing table. How is the packet treated through the policy for configuring the set ip default next-hop command?

A.Packets are not forwarded to the specific next hop.
B.Packets are forwarded based on the routing table.
C.Packets are forwarded based on a static route.
D.Packets are forwarded to the specific next hop.

Answer: D

QUESTION 202
Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two paths to reach 192.168.13.0/24. but traffic is sent only through R3.
Which action allows traffic to use both paths?

A.Configure the bandwidth 2000 command under interface FastEthernet0/0 on R2.
B.Configure the variance 4 command under the EIGRP process on R2.
C.Configure the delay 1 command under interface FastEthernet0/0 on R2.
D.Configure the variance 2 command under the EIGRP process on R2

Answer: B

QUESTION 203
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?

A.Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
B.Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to allow when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
C.Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.
D.Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing domain.

Answer: A

QUESTION 204
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 cannot establish an EIGRP adjacency.
Which action establishes EIGRP adjacency?

A.Remove the current autonomous system number on one of the routers and change to a different value.
B.Remove the passive-interface command from the R2 configuration so that it matches the R1 configuration.
C.Add the no auto-summary command to the R2 configuration so that it matches the R1 configuration.
D.Add the passive-interface command to the R1 configuration so that it matches the R2 configuration.

Answer: C


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QUESTION 86 Which two NHRP functions are specific to DMVPN Phase 3 implementation? (Choose two.) A.registration reply B.redirect C.resolution reply D.registration request E.resolution request Answer: BC QUESTION 88 Which two features are valid backup options for an IOS FlexVPN client? (Choose two.) A.HSRP stateless failover B.DNS-based hub resolution C.reactivate primary peer D.tunnel pivot E.need distractor Answer: BC QUESTION 89 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN is used? A.GETVPN B.clientless SSL VPN C.Cisco Easy VPN D.Cisco AnyConnect SSL VPN Answer: C QUESTION 91 Which Cisco AnyConnect component ensures that devices in a specific internal subnet are only accessible using port 443? A.routing B.WebACL C.split tunnel D.VPN filter Answer: D QUESTION 92 Refer to the exhibit. Upon setting up a tunnel between two sites, users are complaining that connections to applications over the VPN are not working consistently. The output of show crypto ipsec sa was collected on one of the VPN devices. Based on this output, what should be done to fix this issue? A.Lower the tunnel MTU. B.Enable perfect forward secrecy. C.Specify the application networks in the remote identity. D.Make an adjustment to IPSec replay window. Answer: A QUESTION 93 After a user configures a connection profile with a bookmark list and tests the clientless SSLVPN connection, all of the bookmarks are grayed out. What must be done to correct this behavior? A.Apply the bookmark to the correct group policy. B.Specify the correct port for the web server under the bookmark. C.Configure a DNS server on the Cisco ASA and verify it has a record for the web server. D.Verify HTTP/HTTPS connectivity between the Cisco ASA and the web server. Answer: C QUESTION 94 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN is being configured, based on the partial configuration snippet? A.GET VPN with COOP key server B.GET VPN with dual group member C.FlexVPN load balancer D.FlexVPN backup gateway Answer: A QUESTION 95 An administrator is designing a VPN with a partner's non-Cisco VPN solution. The partner's VPN device will negotiate an IKEv2 tunnel that will only encrypt subnets 192.168.0.0/24 going to 10.0.0.0/24. Which technology must be used to meet these requirements? A.VTI B.crypto map C.GETVPN D.DMVPN Answer: B QUESTION 96 A company's remote locations connect to the data centers via MPLS. A new request requires that unicast and multicast traffic that exits in the remote locations be encrypted. Which non-tunneled technology should be used to satisfy this requirement? A.SSL B.FlexVPN C.DMVPN D.GETVPN Answer: D QUESTION 97 While troubleshooting, an engineer finds that the show crypto isakmp sa command indicates that the last state of the tunnel is MM_KEY_EXCH. What is the next step that should be taken to resolve this issue? A.Verify that the ISAKMP proposals match. B.Ensure that UDP 500 is not being blocked between the devices. C.Correct the peer's IP address on the crypto map. D.Confirm that the pre-shared keys match on both devices. Answer: C QUESTION 98 Which VPN technology must be used to ensure that routers are able to dynamically form connections with each other rather than sending traffic through a hub and be able to advertise routes without the use of a dynamic routing protocol? A.FlexVPN B.DMVPN Phase 3 C.DMVPN Phase 2 D.GETVPN Answer: B QUESTION 99 An administrator is setting up AnyConnect for the first time for a few users. Currently, the router does not have access to a RADIUS server. Which AnyConnect protocol must be used to allow users to authenticate? A.EAP-GTC B.EAP-MSCHAPv2 C.EAP-MD5 D.EAP-AnyConnect Answer: D QUESTION 100 Refer to the exhibit. DMVPN spoke-to-spoke traffic works, but it passes through the hub, and never sends direct spoke-to-spoke traffic. Based on the tunnel interface configuration shown, what must be configured on the hub to solve the issue? A.Enable NHRP redirect. B.Enable split horizon. C.Enable IP redirects. D.Enable NHRP shortcut. Answer: D QUESTION 102 Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions should be drawn from the DMVPN phase 2 configuration? (Choose two.) A.Next-hop-self is required. B.EIGRP neighbor adjacency will fail. C.EIGRP is used as the dynamic routing protocol. D.EIGRP route redistribution is not allowed. E.Spoke-to-spoke communication is allowed. Answer: CE QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. The VPN tunnel between the FlexVPN spoke and FlexVPN hub 192.168.0.12 is failing. What should be done to correct this issue? A.Add the address 192.168.0.12 255.255.255.255 command to the keyring configuration. B.Add the match fvrf any command to the IKEv2 policy. C.Add the aaa authorization group psk list Flex_AAA Flex_Auth command to the IKEv2 profile configuration. D.Add the tunnel mode gre ip command to the tunnel configuration. Answer: C QUESTION 104 Refer to the exhibit. An IKEv2 site-to-site tunnel between an ASA and a remote peer is not building successfully. What will fix the problem based on the debug output? A.Ensure crypto IPsec policy matches on both VPN devices. B.Install the correct certificate to validate the peer. C.Correct crypto access list on both VPN devices. D.Specify the peer IP address in the tunnel group name. Answer: A QUESTION 105 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is reconfiguring clientless SSLVPN during a maintenance window, and after testing the new configuration, is unable to establish the connection. What must be done to remediate this problem? A.Enable client services on the outside interface. B.Enable clientless protocol under the group policy. C.Enable DTLS under the group policy. D.Enable auto sign-on for the user's IP address. Answer: B QUESTION 106 What are two purposes of the key server in Cisco IOS GETVPN? (Choose two.) A.to download encryption keys B.to maintain encryption policies C.to distribute routing information D.to encrypt data traffic E.to authenticate group members Answer: BE QUESTION 107 An engineer notices that while an employee is connected remotely, all traffic is being routed to the corporate network. Which split-tunnel policy allows a remote client to use their local provider for Internet access when working from home? A.tunnelall B.excludeall C.tunnelspecified D.excludespecified Answer: C QUESTION 108 In order to enable FlexVPN to use a AAA attribute list, which two tasks must be performed? (Choose two.) A.Define the RADIUS server. B.Verify that clients are using the correct authorization policy. C.Define the AAA server. D.Assign the list to an authorization policy. E.Set the maximum segment size. Answer: BD QUESTION 109 Which technology and VPN component allows a VPN headend to dynamically learn post NAT IP addresses of remote routers at different sites? A.DMVPN with ISAKMP B.GETVPN with ISAKMP C.DMVPN with NHRP D.GETVPN with NHRP Answer: C QUESTION 110 An engineer must configure remote desktop connectivity for offsite admins via clientless SSL VPN, configured on a Cisco ASA to Windows Vista workstations. Which two configurations provide the requested access? (Choose two.) A.Telnet bookmark via the Telnet plugin B.RDP2 bookmark via the RDP2 plugin C.VNC bookmark via the VNC plugin D.Citrix bookmark via the ICA plugin E.SSH bookmark via the SSH plugin Answer: BE QUESTION 111 A network engineer must design a clientless VPN solution for a company. VPN users must be able to access several internal web servers. When reachability to those web servers was tested, it was found that one website is not being rewritten correctly by the ASA. What is a potential solution for this issue while still allowing it to be a clientless VPN setup? A.Set up a smart tunnel with the IP address of the web server. B.Set up a NAT rule that translates the ASA public address to the web server private address on port 80. C.Set up Cisco AnyConnect with a split tunnel that has the IP address of the web server. D.Set up a WebACL to permit the IP address of the web server. Answer: A QUESTION 112 Which two types of SSO functionality are available on the Cisco ASA without any external SSO servers? (Choose two.) A.SAML B.NTLM C.Kerberos D.OAuth 2.0 E.HTTP Basic Answer: BE QUESTION 113 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN implementation is displayed? A.IKEv1 cluster B.IKEv2 backup gateway C.IKEv2 load balancer D.IKEv2 reconnect Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-730 PDF and 300-730 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1zBS7xcmszvPHlrS_lPaM4uUF1VvomE4a?usp=sharing
Best Way to Learn Python Programming Language
Python is an essential programming language to know. it's widely-used in arenas like data science, web development, software engineering, game development, automation. But which is the best way to learn Python? That can be hard and painful to figure out. Check the Best Way to Learn Python Tip: Code Daily Reliability is very main when you are learning a new language. We recommend creation a promise to code each day. It may be hard to trust, but muscle memory shows a big part in programming. Obliging to coding daily will actually support develop that muscle memory. Though it may seem scary at first, reflect starting small with 25 minutes normal and working your method up from there. Tip: Write It Out As you growth on your journey as a new programmer, you may surprise if you should be taking notes. Yes, you should! In fact, study advises that taking notes by hand is most helpful for longstanding retention. This will be mainly helpful for those working towards the aim of becoming a full-time developer, as various interviews will include writing code on a whiteboard. Tip: Go Interactive! Whether you are education about basic Python data structures (strings, lists, dictionaries, etc.) for the first time, or you are servicing an application, the interactive Python shell will be one of your best knowledge tools. Tip: Take Breaks Breaks are mainly important when you are debugging. If you knockout a bug and can’t quite figure out what is going incorrect, take a break. Step away from your workstation, go for a walk, or chat with a friend. In programming, your code need follow the instructions of a language and reason exactly, so even lost a quotation spot will break all. Fresh eyes make a big change. Tip: Become a Bug Bounty Hunter Talking of hitting a bug, it is predictable once you start writing difficult programs that you will path into bugs in your code. It chances to all of us! Don’t let bugs irritate you. Instead, hold these instants with pride and think of yourself as a bug bounty hunter. Tip: Edge Yourself with Others Who Are Learning Python Though coding may appear like a lonely activity, it really works greatest when you work together. It is very main when you are learning to code in Python that you edge yourself with other people who are learning as well. This will let you to share the instructions and tricks you learn beside the way. Tip: Explain It is said that the greatest way to learn somewhat is to teach it. This is factual when you are learning Python. There are various methods to do this: whiteboarding with other Python lovers, writing blog posts clarifying newly learned thoughts, recording videos in which you clarify somewhat you learned, or simply speaking to yourself at your computer. Each of these plans will set your understanding as well as representation any gaps in your understanding. Tip: Pair Program Pair programming has various benefits: it provides you a chance to not only have somebody review your code, but also understand how someone other might be thoughtful about a difficult. Being exposed to many planning and ways of thinking will support you in difficult solving when you got back to coding on your individual. Tip: Ask “GOOD” Questions Good questions can save a lot of time. Skipping any of these stages can outcome in back-and-forth discussions that can reason battle. As a beginner, you want to make sure you query good questions so that you practice interactive your thought process, and so that persons who support you will be happy to remain supporting you. Tip: Build Somewhat, Anything For learners, there are various small trainings that will actually support you become assured with Python, as well as develop the muscle memory that we spoke about above. Once you have a firm grip on basic data structures (strings, lists, dictionaries, and sets), object-oriented programming, and writing programs, it’s time to start structure! There are various lists out there with thoughts for learner Python projects. Here are some ideas to get you on-going: · Number predicting game · Simple calculator app · Dice roll simulator · Bitcoin Price Notification Service Tip: Contribute to Open Source Contributing to an open-source Python project is a great way to create extremely valuable learning practices. Let’s say you choose to submit a bug hit request: you submit a “pull request” for your fix to be fixed into the code. Go Forward and Learn! Now that you have these plans for learning, you are set to begin your Python journey! Find Actual Python’s Beginners Roadmap for knowledge here! We also offer a beginner to advance level python course in noida, which practices remarkable examples to support you learn programming and web development.
(April-2021)Braindump2go 300-435 PDF and 300-435 VCE Dumps(Q98-Q114)
QUESTION 98 What is a benefit of developing an application in a Python virtual environment? A.The application operates in multiple target systems simultaneously. B.The application supports concurrency or multithreading. C.The application operates across systems that have different operating systems. D.The development environment is isolated from Python projects that already exist. Answer: B QUESTION 99 Refer to the exhibit. Which device type is functioning in a degraded state? A.access point B.distribution switch C.access switch D.wireless LAN controller Answer: C QUESTION 100 When working with MV Sense APIs, which type of protocol is MQTT based upon? A.publish-subscribe messaging protocol B.simple mail transport protocol C.heavyweight messaging protocol D.computer vision protocol Answer: A QUESTION 101 Refer to the exhibit. What is a characteristic of the tree? A.three optional metrics B.two leaf-lists C.ten leaf-lists D.three containers Answer: A QUESTION 102 Refer to the exhibit. A RESTCONF GET request is sent to a Cisco IOS XE device. The base URL of the request and the response in XML format are shown in the exhibit. What are the two YANG data nodes and modules referenced in the response? (Choose two.) A.description is a key field defined in the interface list B.The ethernetCsmacd type is imported from the iana-if-type module C.address is a container defined in the ietf-interfaces module D.ipv4 is a container defined in the ietf-ip module E.interface has the YANG data node type of container Answer: AB QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is included in the payload resulting from the script? A.ethernet 1 B.ethernet 100 C.ethernet 1/1 D.ethernet 0 Answer: D QUESTION 104 Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces named Loopback0, Loopback1, and Loopback2 must be created and enabled on a Cisco IOS XE target device in the lab group. Which loop must be added to the end of the Ansible "create int" task? A.with_items: "{{intlist}}" B.with_parent: "{{intlist}}" C.with_list: "{{intlist}}" D.with_groups: "{{intlist}}" Answer: C QUESTION 105 Refer to the exhibit. A Python script is used to configure a Cisco IOS XE router. The Loopback2 interface currently has a description of Management2 and an IP address/netmask of 10.222.34.22/32. What is the result of executing the script? A.The interface description remains the same. B.The router rejects all commands and the configuration remains the same. C.The interface is removed from the configuration. D.The interface description is removed from the configuration. Answer: A QUESTION 106 Refer to the exhibit. NTP server 10.1.1.20 must be configured on the target Cisco IOS XE device without using authentication and logging. Which state should be added on a new line at the end of the Ansible task? A.state: true B.state: started C.state: present D.state: installed Answer: C QUESTION 107 Refer to the exhibit. The configuration commands are entered in CLI config mode to configure a static telemetry subscription on a Cisco IOS XE device. The commands are accepted by the device, but the consumer receives no telemetry data. Which change must be made to ensure that the consumer receives the telemetry data? A.The IP address of the receiver must be set. B.The stream type must be set to YANG. C.The update policy period must be shortened. D.The sender IP address must be set. Answer: B QUESTION 109 What is an advantage of software-defined networks as compared to traditional networks? A.They simplify operations by creating a concrete copy of the network. B.They reduce complexity by coupling the control and the data plane. C.They enable older hardware to be repurposed without an investment in new infrastructure. D.They deliver a distributed management architecture that provides better resilience to errors. Answer: D QUESTION 110 What does Cisco DNA Center use to manage third-party devices? A.command runners B.multivendor SDK C.templates D.device packages Answer: D QUESTION 111 Refer to the exhibit. After executing the call, an engineer obtains the result of the Command Runner execution. The three commands show as blocklisted in the downloaded file. What is the cause of the error? A.The API user in Cisco DNA does not have write privileges on the devices. B.The engineer attempting to access the devices in Cisco DNA Center does not have privilege 15. C.The format of the JSON body must follow the CLI format. D.Command Runner supports only the show command and the read-only command. Answer: D QUESTION 112 Refer to the exhibit. Cisco SD-WAN deployment must be fixed using vManage APIs. A call to vEdge Hardware Health API returns the data in the exhibit (only a portion is shown). If the JSON shown in the exhibit is converted to a Python dictionary named "d", how is the "status" property referenced? A.d[`data'][`statusList'][`status'] B.nbvnbvvnbhg C.d{`data'}[0]{`statusList'}[0]{`status'} D.d[data][0][statusList][0][status] Answer: C QUESTION 113 What is a capability of Cisco SD-WAN vManage Certificate Management API? A.deletes existing installed certificates B.distributes the root certificate to client devices C.generates SSL certificates D.creates certificate signing requests Answer: D QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. A template is provided to a junior developer to automate the creation of a network on the Meraki dashboard. The new network needs to have the id 123456789 and support only wired network connections. What type needs to be added to the API? A.switch B.wireless C.appliance D.systemsManager Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-435 PDF and 300-435 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1aZd2kZQpLrc_X9Zy57wn5fhkgF2IMSG5?usp=sharing
[June-2021]Braindump2go New MS-101 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q272-Q291)
QUESTION 272 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. You plan to deploy 100 new Windows 10 devices. You need to identify the appropriate version of Windows 10 for the new devices. The version must meet the following requirements: - Be serviced for a minimum of 24 months. - Support Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V). Which version should you identify? A.Windows 10 Pro, version 1909 B.Windows 10 Pro, version 2004 C.Windows 10 Enterprise, version 1909 D.Windows 10 Enterprise, version 2004 Answer: D QUESTION 273 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains four devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune as shown in the following table. You plan to deploy Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise by using Microsoft Endpoint Manager. To which devices can you deploy Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise? A.Device1 only B.Device1 and Device3 only C.Device2 and Device4 only D.Device1, Device2, and Device3 only E.Device1, Device2, Device3, and Device4 Answer: B QUESTION 274 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains the devices shown in the following table. You plan to review device startup performance issues by using Endpoint analytics. Which devices can you monitor by using Endpoint analytics? A.Device1 only B.Device1 and Device2 only C.Device1, Device2, and Device3 only D.Device1, Device2, and Device4 only E.Device1, Device2, Device3, and Device4 Answer: A QUESTION 275 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains 100 Windows 10 devices. You plan to deploy a Windows 10 Security Baseline profile that will protect secrets stored in memory. What should you configure in the profile? A.Microsoft Defender Credential Guard B.BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) C.Microsoft Defender D.Microsoft Defender Exploit Guard Answer: A QUESTION 276 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer that runs Windows 10. You need to verify which version of Windows 10 is installed. Solution: From Device Manager, you view the computer properties. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 277 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer that runs Windows 10. You need to verify which version of Windows 10 is installed. Solution: At a command prompt, you run the winver.exe command. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 278 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer that runs Windows 10. You need to verify which version of Windows 10 is installed. Solution: From the Settings app, you select Update & Security to view the update history. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 279 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You plan to manage incidents in the tenant by using the Microsoft 365 security center. Which Microsoft service source will appear on the Incidents page of the Microsoft 365 security center? A.Microsoft Cloud App Security B.Azure Sentinel C.Azure Web Application Firewall D.Azure Defender Answer: A QUESTION 280 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You plan to manage incidents in the tenant by using the Microsoft 365 security center. Which Microsoft service source will appear on the Incidents page of the Microsoft 365 security center? A.Azure Sentinel B.Azure Information Protection C.Azure Security Center D.Microsoft Defender for Identity Answer: D QUESTION 281 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. All users have Mac computers. All the computers are enrolled in Microsoft Endpoint Manager and onboarded to Microsoft Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Microsoft Defender ATP). You need to configure Microsoft Defender ATP on the computers. What should you create from the Endpoint Management admin center? A.a Microsoft Defender ATP baseline profile B.a device configuration profile C.an update policy for iOS D.a mobile device management (MDM) security baseline profile Answer: B QUESTION 282 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You need to be notified when emails with attachments that contain sensitive personal data are sent to external recipients. Which two policies can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.a data loss prevention (DLP) policy B.a sensitivity label policy C.a Microsoft Cloud App Security file policy D.a communication compliance policy E.a retention label policy Answer: AD QUESTION 283 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You create an auto-labeling policy to encrypt emails that contain a sensitive info type. You specify the locations where the policy will be applied. You need to deploy the policy. What should you do first? A.Review the sensitive information in Activity explorer B.Turn on the policy C.Run the policy in simulation mode D.Configure Azure Information Protection analytics Answer: C QUESTION 284 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant and a LinkedIn company page. You plan to archive data from the LinkedIn page to Microsoft 365 by using the LinkedIn connector. Where can you store data from the LinkedIn connector? A.a Microsoft OneDrive for Business folder B.a Microsoft SharePoint Online document library C.a Microsoft 365 mailbox D.Azure Files Answer: C QUESTION 285 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains two users named User1 and User2 and the groups shown in the following table. You have a Microsoft Intune enrollment policy that has the following settings: MDM user scope: Some - Groups: Group1 MAM user scope: Some - Groups: Group2 You purchase the devices shown in the following table. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 286 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune. The devices are configured as shown in the following table. You plan to perform the following device management tasks in Microsoft Endpoint Manager: - Deploy a VPN connection by using a VPN device configuration profile. - Configure security settings by using an Endpoint Protection device configuration profile. You need to identify which devices will support the management tasks. What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 287 Drag and Drop Question You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains 500 Android devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune. You need to use Microsoft Endpoint Manager to deploy a managed Google Play app to the devices. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Answer: QUESTION 288 Drag and Drop Question Your company has a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. Users access resources in the tenant by using both personal and company-owned Android devices. Company policies requires that the devices have a threat level of medium or lower to access Microsoft Exchange Online mailboxes. You need to recommend a solution to identify the threat level of the devices and to control access of the devices to the resources. What should you include in the solution for each device type? To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct devices. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 289 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains five devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune as shown in the following table. All the devices have an app named App1 installed. You need to prevent users from copying data from App1 and pasting the data into other apps. Which policy should you create in Microsoft Endpoint Manager, and what is the minimum number of required policies? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 290 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains 500 Windows 10 devices and a Windows 10 compliance policy. You deploy a third-party antivirus solution to the devices. You need to ensure that the devices are marked as compliant. Which three settings should you modify in the compliance policy? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 291 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Site1. Site1 contains the files shown in the following table. You create a sensitivity label named Sensitivity1 and an auto-label policy that has the following configurations: - Name: AutoLabel1 - Label to auto-apply: Sensitivity1 - Rules for SharePoint Online sites: Rule1-SPO - Choose locations where you want to apply the label: Site1 - Rule1-SPO is configured as shown in the following exhibit. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go MS-101 PDF and MS-101 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1KVZ6uvgke0CyiKN6s3PCc3F5LsZZYt7A?usp=sharing
[June-2021]Braindump2go New SAA-C02 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q654-Q669)
QUESTION 654 A company is building a web-based application running on Amazon EC2 instances in multiple Availability Zones. The web application will provide access to a repository of text documents totaling about 900 TB in size. The company anticipates that the web application will experience periods of high demand. A solutions architect must ensure that the storage component for the text documents can scale to meet the demand of the application at all times. The company is concerned about the overall cost of the solution. Which storage solution meets these requirements MOST cost-effectively? A.Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) B.Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) C.Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES) D.Amazon S3 Answer: C QUESTION 655 A company has an application that uses overnight digital images of products on store shelves to analyze inventory data. The application runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB) and obtains the images from an Amazon S3 bucket for its metadata to be processed by worker nodes for analysis. A solutions architect needs to ensure that every image is processed by the worker nodes. What should the solutions architect do to meet this requirement in the MOST cost-efficient way? A.Send the image metadata from the application directly to a second ALB for the worker nodes that use an Auto Scaling group of EC2 Spot Instances as the target group. B.Process the image metadata by sending it directly to EC2 Reserved Instances in an Auto Scaling group. With a dynamic scaling policy, use an Amazon CloudWatch metric for average CPU utilization of the Auto Scaling group as soon as the front-end application obtains the images. C.Write messages to Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) when the front-end application obtains an image. Process the images with EC2 On-Demand instances in an Auto Scaling group with instance scale-in protection and a fixed number of instances with periodic health checks. D.Write messages to Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) when the application obtains an image. Process the images with EC2 Spot Instances in an Auto Scaling group with instance scale-in protection and a dynamic scaling policy using a custom Amazon CloudWatch metric for the current number of messages in the queue. Answer: B QUESTION 656 A company is using a centralized AWS account to store log data in various Amazon S3 buckets. A solutions architect needs to ensure that the data is encrypted at rest before the data is uploaded to the S3 buckets. The data also must be encrypted in transit. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Use client-side encryption to encrypt the data that is being uploaded to the S3 buckets. B.Use server-side encryption to encrypt the data that is being uploaded to the S3 buckets. C.Create bucket policies that require the use of server-side encryption with S3 managed encryption keys (SSE-S3) for S3 uploads. D.Enable the security option to encrypt the S3 buckets through the use of a default AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) key. Answer: B QUESTION 657 A company's HTTP application is behind a Network Load Balancer (NLB). The NLB's target group is configured to use an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group with multiple EC2 instances that run the web service. The company notices that the NLB is not detecting HTTP errors for the application. These errors require a manual restart of the EC2 instances that run the web service. The company needs to improve the application's availability without writing custom scripts or code. What should a solutions architect do to meet these requirements? A.Enable HTTP health checks on the NLB, supplying the URL of the company's application. B.Add a cron job to the EC2 instances to check the local application's logs once each minute. If HTTP errors are detected, the application will restart. C.Replace the NLB with an Application Load Balancer. Enable HTTP health checks by supplying the URL of the company's application. Configure an Auto Scaling action to replace unhealthy instances. D.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that monitors the UnhealthyHostCount metric for the NLB. Configure an Auto Scaling action to replace unhealthy instances when the alarm is in the ALARM state. Answer: C QUESTION 658 A company has two VPCs that are located in the us-west-2 Region within the same AWS account. The company needs to allow network traffic between these VPCs. Approximately 500 GB of data transfer will occur between the VPCs each month. What is the MOST cost-effective solution to connect these VPCs? A.Implement AWS Transit Gateway to connect the VPCs. Update the route tables of each VPC to use the transit gateway for inter-VPC communication. B.Implement an AWS Site-to-Site VPN tunnel between the VPCs. Update the route tables of each VPC to use the VPN tunnel for inter-VPC communication. C.Set up a VPC peering connection between the VPCs. Update the route tables of each VPC to use the VPC peering connection for inter-VPC communication. D.Set up a 1 GB AWS Direct Connect connection between the VPCs. Update the route tables of each VPC to use the Direct Connect connection for inter-VPC communication. Answer: D QUESTION 659 A company is running a global application. The application's users submit multiple videos that are then merged into a single video file. The application uses a single Amazon S3 bucket in the us-east-1 Region to receive uploads from users. The same S3 bucket provides the download location of the single video file that is produced. The final video file output has an average size of 250 GB. The company needs to develop a solution that delivers faster uploads and downloads of the video files that are stored in Amazon S2. The company will offer the solution as a subscription to users who want to pay for the increased speed. What should a solutions architect do to meet these requirements? A.Enable AWS Global Accelerator for the S3 endpoint. Adjust the application's upload and download links to use the Global Accelerator S3 endpoint for users who have a subscription. B.Enable S3 Cross-Region Replication to S3 buckets in all other AWS Regions. Use an Amazon Route 53 geolocation routing policy to route S3 requests based on the location of users who have a subscription. C.Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution and use the S3 bucket in us-east-1 as an origin. Adjust the application to use the CloudFront URL as the upload and download links for users who have a subscription. D.Enable S3 Transfer Acceleration for the S3 bucket in us-east-1. Configure the application to use the bucket's S3-accelerate endpoint domain name for the upload and download links for users who have a subscription. Answer: C QUESTION 660 A company is using AWS Organizations with two AWS accounts: Logistics and Sales. The Logistics account operates an Amazon Redshift cluster. The Sales account includes Amazon EC2 instances. The Sales account needs to access the Logistics account's Amazon Redshift cluster. What should a solutions architect recommend to meet this requirement MOST cost-effectively? A.Set up VPC sharing with the Logistics account as the owner and the Sales account as the participant to transfer the data. B.Create an AWS Lambda function in the Logistics account to transfer data to the Amazon EC2 instances in the Sales account. C.Create a snapshot of the Amazon Redshift cluster, and share the snapshot with the Sales account. In the Sales account, restore the cluster by using the snapshot ID that is shared by the Logistics account. D.Run COPY commands to load data from Amazon Redshift into Amazon S3 buckets in the Logistics account. Grant permissions to the Sales account to access the S3 buckets of the Logistics account. Answer: C QUESTION 661 A company is using Amazon Redshift for analytics and to generate customer reports. The company recently acquired 50 TB of additional customer demographic data. The data is stored in .csv files in Amazon S3. The company needs a solution that joins the data and visualizes the results with the least possible cost and effort. What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements? A.Use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to query the data in Amazon S3 directly and join that data with the existing data in Amazon Redshift. Use Amazon QuickSight to build the visualizations. B.Use Amazon Athena to query the data in Amazon S3. Use Amazon QuickSight to join the data from Athena with the existing data in Amazon Redshift and to build the visualizations. C.Increase the size of the Amazon Redshift cluster, and load the data from Amazon S3. Use Amazon EMR Notebooks to query the data and build the visualizations in Amazon Redshift. D.Export the data from the Amazon Redshift cluster into Apache Parquet files in Amazon S3. Use Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES) to query the data. Use Kibana to visualize the results. Answer: A QUESTION 662 A company's database is hosted on an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster in the us-east-1 Region. The database is 4 TB in size. The company needs to expand its disaster recovery strategy to the us-west-2 Region. The company must have the ability to fail over to us-west-2 with a recovery time objective (RTO) of 15 minutes. What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements? A.Create a Multi-Region Aurora MySQL DB cluster in us-east-1 and use-west-2. Use an Amazon Route 53 health check to monitor us-east-1 and fail over to us-west-2 upon failure. B.Take a snapshot of the DB cluster in us-east-1. Configure an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that invokes an AWS Lambda function upon receipt of resource events. Configure the Lambda function to copy the snapshot to us-west-2 and restore the snapshot in us-west- 2 when failure is detected. C.Create an AWS CloudFormation script to create another Aurora MySQL DB cluster in us-west-2 in case of failure. Configure an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that invokes an AWS Lambda function upon receipt of resource events. Configure the Lambda function to deploy the AWS CloudFormation stack in us-west-2 when failure is detected. D.Recreate the database as an Aurora global database with the primary DB cluster in us-east-1 and a secondary DB cluster in us-west-2. Configure an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that invokes an AWS Lambda function upon receipt of resource events. Configure the Lambda function to promote the DB cluster in us-west-2 when failure is detected. Answer: B QUESTION 663 A company is migrating its applications to AWS. Currently, applications that run on premises generate hundreds of terabytes of data that is stored on a shared file system. The company is running an analytics application in the cloud that runs hourly to generate insights from this data. The company needs a solution to handle the ongoing data transfer between the on-premises shared file system and Amazon S3. The solution also must be able to handle occasional interruptions in internet connectivity. Which solutions should the company use for the data transfer to meet these requirements? A.AWS DataSync B.AWS Migration Hub C.AWS Snowball Edge Storage Optimized D.AWS Transfer for SFTP Answer: A QUESTION 664 A solutions architect is designing the architecture for a new web application. The application will run on AWS Fargate containers with an Application Load Balancer (ALB) and an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL database. The web application will perform primarily read queries against the database. What should the solutions architect do to ensure that the website can scale with increasing traffic? (Choose two.) A.Enable auto scaling on the ALB to scale the load balancer horizontally. B.Configure Aurora Auto Scaling to adjust the number of Aurora Replicas in the Aurora cluster dynamically. C.Enable cross-zone load balancing on the ALB to distribute the load evenly across containers in all Availability Zones. D.Configure an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) cluster in each Availability Zone to distribute the load across multiple Availability Zones. E.Configure Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) Service Auto Scaling with a target tracking scaling policy that is based on CPU utilization. Answer: BE QUESTION 665 A company captures ordered clickstream data from multiple websites and uses batch processing to analyze the data. The company receives 100 million event records, all approximately 1 KB in size, each day. The company loads the data into Amazon Redshift each night, and business analysts consume the data. The company wants to move toward near-real-time data processing for timely insights. The solution should process the streaming data while requiring the least possible operational overhead. Which combination of AWS services will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively? (Choose two.) A.Amazon EC2 B.AWS Batch C.Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) D.Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose E.Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics Answer: CE QUESTION 666 A company has a customer relationship management (CRM) application that stores data in an Amazon RDS DB instance that runs Microsoft SQL Server. The company's IT staff has administrative access to the database. The database contains sensitive data. The company wants to ensure that the data is not accessible to the IT staff and that only authorized personnel can view the data. What should a solutions architect do to secure the data? A.Use client-side encryption with an Amazon RDS managed key. B.Use client-side encryption with an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) customer managed key. C.Use Amazon RDS encryption with an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) default encryption key. D.Use Amazon RDS encryption with an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) customer managed key. Answer: C QUESTION 667 A company with a single AWS account runs its internet-facing containerized web application on an Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) cluster. The EKS cluster is placed in a private subnet of a VPC. System administrators access the EKS cluster through a bastion host on a public subnet. A new corporate security policy requires the company to avoid the use of bastion hosts. The company also must not allow internet connectivity to the EKS cluster. Which solution meets these requirements MOST cost-effectively? A.Set up an AWS Direct Connect connection. B.Create a transit gateway. C.Establish a VPN connection. D.Use AWS Storage Gateway. Answer: B QUESTION 668 A company has deployed a multiplayer game for mobile devices. The game requires live location tracking of players based on latitude and longitude. The data store for the game must support rapid updates and retrieval of locations. The game uses an Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance with read replicas to store the location data. During peak usage periods, the database is unable to maintain the performance that is needed for reading and writing updates. The game's user base is increasing rapidly. What should a solutions architect do to improve the performance of the data tier? A.Take a snapshot of the existing DB instance. Restore the snapshot with Multi-AZ enabled. B.Migrate from Amazon RDS to Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES) with Kibana. C.Deploy Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) in front of the existing DB instance. Modify the game to use DAX. D.Deploy an Amazon ElastiCache for Redis cluster in front of the existing DB instance. Modify the game to use Redis. Answer: C QUESTION 669 A company is migrating a large, mission-critical database to AWS. A solutions architect has decided to use an Amazon RDS for MySQL Multi-AZ DB instance that is deployed with 80,000 Provisioned IOPS for storage. The solutions architect is using AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) to perform the data migration. The migration is taking longer than expected, and the company wants to speed up the process. The company's network team has ruled out bandwidth as a limiting factor. Which actions should the solutions architect take to speed up the migration? (Choose two.) A.Disable Multi-AZ on the target DB instance. B.Create a new DMS instance that has a larger instance size. C.Turn off logging on the target DB instance until the initial load is complete. D.Restart the DMS task on a new DMS instance with transfer acceleration enabled. E.Change the storage type on the target DB instance to Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) General Purpose SSD (gp2). Answer: CD 2021 Latest Braindump2go SAA-C02 PDF and SAA-C02 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1_5IK3H_eM74C6AKwU7sKaLn1rrn8xTfm?usp=sharing
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QUESTION 729 After installing an application on a smartphone, a user starts receiving pop-up ads for recently visited physical stores. The user also receives prompts to install other applications. Which of the following permissions should be revoked to disable the unwanted notifications? A.Account access B.Mobile data C.Location access D.Contacts access Answer: A QUESTION 730 A technician is helping a remote user who has a Windows issue. The user is working from a shared office space and is not on the corporate network. Which of the following remote access methods is MOST likely to be successful in this case? A.Telnet B.Remote desktop C.Third-party screen sharing D.Secure shell Answer: A QUESTION 731 A technician is working on a desktop computer that is not performing as expected. Program windows sometimes open and close without user intervention. Windows cannot check for OS updates, and some websites are not accessible. Which of the following tasks should the technician perform FIRST? A.Roll back recent driver updates. B.Replace the defective keyboard. C.Reset all the settings in the Internet Options. D.Unplug the Ethernet cable. Answer: A QUESTION 732 Which of the following application installation methods requires the use of a valid IP address? A.USB B.Network-based C.Script-based D.CD-ROM Answer: B QUESTION 733 A technician is updating a network switch at a location facility. The technician needs to ensure the data is not sent in plaintext over untrusted networks. Which of the following should the technician use? (Choose two.) A.SSH B.SCP C.TFTP D.FTP E.RDP F.VNC Answer: AB QUESTION 734 A user cannot print to a network printer. A technician runs the Windows 10 troubleshooting utility, but it does not find any errors. Which of the following printer settings should the technician check NEXT? A.Duplex B.Spooler C.Collate D.Resolution Answer: B QUESTION 735 A technician needs to make changes to a production system. Before doing so, which of the following should be completed in case the changes have unintended consequences beyond their original scope? A.Draft a complete scope of the changes. B.Formulate a back-out plan for the changes. C.Ensure all relevant end users are notified of the changes. D.Create a risk analysis involving the changes. Answer: D QUESTION 736 A technician needs to view hidden files. Which of the following Control Panel utilities would be used for this purpose? A.Credential Manager B.BitLocker C.System D.Folder Options Answer: D QUESTION 737 The IT department is assisting with an upgrade of the third-party software the payroll department uses to track time and create paychecks. When modifications were made three years ago, there were issues with the upgrade. Which of the following change management processes should the IT department use after scoping the change but before implementing the new version of the software? A.Risk analysis B.Managerial approvals C.Economic feasibility D.Software compatibility E.Backout plan Answer: A QUESTION 738 A user is unable to access certain files from a specific folder. Which of the following commands should a technician use to modify the file permissions for a specific file? A.chown B.ls C.grep D.cp Answer: A QUESTION 739 A user's login screen does not look normal when booting the computer. A technician states the computer was showing the company's workstation imaging system screen, but it has since been fixed. Which of the following did the technician update? A.Operating system B.Drivers C.Boot order D.BIOS firmware Answer: A QUESTION 740 A technician is running Windows on a company's Mac workstations without incurring an additional expense to the company. The Windows licenses were purchased in the past. Users are required to run both Windows and Mac operating systems on their machines, but never at the same time. Which of the following would be the BEST way to accomplish this? A.Perform a PXE boot on the workstations. B.Install virtualization software. C.Utilize Mission Control on the Mac workstations. D.Install Boot Camp on the workstations. Answer: B QUESTION 741 A user's smartphone takes longer to access websites than it did prior to a weeklong vacation. The user also observes the smartphone no longer says LTE in the corner of the screen, but it has significant improvements in speed when connected to a local hotspot. Which of the following is the cause of the symptoms the smartphone is experiencing? A.Network settings B.Weak signal C.Data limits D.Airplane mode Answer: B 2021 Latest Braindump2go 220-1002 PDF and 220-1002 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1L-08gjRWfMZvp3WyBb5sTwqtiKr6P3Qn?usp=sharing
HTTP, HTTPS, FTP
HTTP HTTP is a protocol which allows the fetching of resources, such as HTML documents. It isthe foundation of any data exchange on the Web and it is a client-server protocol, which means requests are initiated by the recipient, usually the Web browser. A complete document is reconstructed from the different sub-documents fetched, for instance text, layout description, images, videos, scripts, and more. HTTP is a client-server protocol: requests are sent by one entity, the user-agent (or a proxy on behalf of it). Most of the time the user-agent is a Web browser, but it can be anything, for example a robot that crawls the Web to populate and maintain a search engine index. Each individual request is sent to a server, which handles it and provides an answer, called theresponse. Between the client and the server there are numerous entities, collectively called proxies, which perform different operations and act as gateways or caches. HTTPS Hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is the secure version of HTTP, which is the primary protocol used to send data between a web browser and a website. HTTPS is encrypted in order to increase security of data transfer. This is particularly important when users transmit sensitive data, such as by logging into a bank account, email service, or health insurance provider. Any website, especially those that require login credentials, should use HTTPS. In modern web browsers such as Chrome, websites that do not use HTTPS are marked differently than those that are. Look for a green padlock in the URL bar to signify the webpage is secure. Web browsers take HTTPS seriously. FTP FTP stands forFile Transfer Protocol and, as the name implies, it is a way of transferring files between computers. It is also one of those wonderful computer terms that’s both a noun and a verb. Originally, FTP was developed to send and receive files in the old text-based computers and networks of the pre-graphical era of computers (before the mid-1980s). You use FTP to access a remote computer on the network to get or receive files, or to put or send files.