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Get Top Preparation Tips from the Best Airforce Coaching
To join Air Force as an Airmen, a candidate has two options, Air Force X Group and Y Group. While taking a step for the preparation for Airmen, several queries come into the mind of a candidate. Through this post, we are trying to resolve all possible queries. Can I clear the Air Force X and Y group exam without joining coaching? A candidate can clear the institute exam institutes, but he will have to put a lot of effort into it. Good coaching institute carry lots of experience which can help you in clearing your exam easily. So, if you are also willing to join Air Force as an Airmen, we suggest you institute an exam join Air Force Coaching in Jaipur which can help you to clear your exam easily. How much time does it take to prepare for Air Force written exam? It totally depends on how well have you studied in class 11th and 12th and for the Y group in class 10th. If you have good command over it, you just need some guidance and you can clear it easily. But, if it is t the case just you need to focus on it, clarify the concept, and continue your preparation. What is the cut off marks for Air Force X and Y group? It keeps changing every year, depending on the number of candidates, the level of questions asked in the exam. Apart from the overall cut-off, candidates need to clear the individual cut-off for each subject. How much time it takes to come the results of written exam? Generally, 30 to 40 days’ time is taken by the Airmen Selection Board, but these days due to Covid and other reasons the time duration is not fixed. What about the second phase of the selection? As a candidate clears the written exam, he gets an email from the Airmen Selection Board about the Selection Centre and the date of reporting. On the reporting date three tests are conducted: Physical Fitness Test In this test, a 1.6 Km race is conducted with a time duration of 6 minutes and 30 secs. After that 10 Push Ups and 10 Sit Ups, tests are conducted. Those who successfully clear the first round only reach the second round. Adaptability Test-I This test involves objective-type questions in which 45 questions are asked. In these situations of different parameters are put forward before the candidates. The paper consists of 4 to 5 reasoning questions also. Adaptability Test-II This is the last test in which Group Discussion is organized. A Wing Commander ranked officer supervised the whole process. A sheet of paper is provided to each candidate in which the topic of some national of social importance is given. Candidates are required to read the topic, understand the grasp of it. After the paper is submitted to the Wing Commander, each candidate is asked to deliver on the topic after their self-introduction. After the last member of the group completes the process, the discussion on the topic starts and lasts for about 15 minutes. What about the medical process? After successful completion of the second phase, the candidates are provided the date of medical and venue. Candidates who successfully appear in the medical process are provided, Green Card. Those who have any issue regarding the medical process can apply for re-medical and clear it. What happens after the medical process? After the medical process, two lists come, the first is the PSL i.e., Provisional Select List and the Second is the Enrollment List. A candidate who comes under the Enrollment list receives the joining date and further documents required at the time of reporting at the training academy. Which is the best defence Academy in Jaipur There are many coaching academies in Jaipur or in India which provide guidance to clear Air Force X and Y Group exams. A candidate is advised to be rational while choosing one because a wrong choice can ruin his career. So, before you decide to join any coaching academy, check the parameters like availability of Physical Training Ground, Faculty Members, and Past selection record, etc.
[October-2021]New Braindump2go 300-430 PDF and VCE Dumps[Q151-Q154]
QUESTION 151 After receiving an alert about a rogue AP, a network engineer logs into Cisco Prime Infrastructure and looks at the floor map where the AP that detected the rogue is located. The map is synchronized with a mobility services engine that determines that the rogue device is actually inside the campus. The engineer determines that the rogue is a security threat and decides to stop if from broadcasting inside the enterprise wireless network. What is the fastest way to disable the rogue? A.Go to the location where the rogue device is indicated to be and disable the power. B.Create an SSID similar to the rogue to disable clients from connecting to it. C.Update the status of the rogue in Cisco Prime Infrastructure to contained. D.Classify the rogue as malicious in Cisco Prime Infrastructure. Answer: C QUESTION 152 Which customizable security report on Cisco Prime Infrastructure will show rogue APs detected since a point in time? A.Network Summary B.Rogue APs Events C.New Rogue APs D.Rogue APs Count Summary Answer: A QUESTION 153 An enterprise has recently deployed a voice and video solution available to all employees using AireOS controllers. The employees must use this service over their laptops, but users report poor service when connected to the wireless network. The programs that consume bandwidth must be identified and restricted. Which configuration on the WLAN aids in recognizing the traffic? A.NetFlow Monitor B.AVC Profile C.QoS Profile D.Application Visibility Answer: B QUESTION 154 A multitenant building contains known wireless networks in most of the suites. Rogues must be classified in the WLC. How are the competing wireless APs classified? A.adhoc B.friendly C.malicious D.unclassified Answer: A 2021 Latest Braindump2go 300-430 PDF and 300-430 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/16vzyRXoZZyqi0Y--JVJl_2HlEWTVkB2N?usp=sharing
Tips for NEET DM and NEXT Examinations
neet dm test series exams are preliminary examinations after MBBS. They allow students to enter for post-graduation in field of their choice based on merit. There are lakhs of students who appear in the examinations. Competition is great and now it is a standard online examination. Centres for neet dm are in all major cities like Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata, Jaipur, Ahmedabad and other major cities. Competition for leading institutions is great and getting a good score is important for getting branch of choice and college of choice. Good students ensure that they take all subjects seriously. It is purely a Standard MCQ Based examination in which students are tested on their ability to answer MCQS. It is getting tougher every year with standard increasing. The Basic Tips are: § To be regular in studies § Not to start preparation late § Consult standard Text books § Make Use of ward rounds § Do not Take Social media seriously § Make use of your Notes. Our Experts have a close look on subjects all along. We focus on High Yield Topics for Neet along with most frequently asked topics. These Topics are just to give you an idea. All Subjects are important. Main subjects need to be given bit more time but minor subjects also need due attention. Toppers from AIIMS, PGI, and neet dm test series usually read standard text, practice a lot of Mcq and make full use of online courses. This is very important for preparing for Real examinations.
Cost-Effective Fee Structure Of Kharkiv National Medical University
Kharkiv National Medical University was established in 1805 and situated in Kharkiv, Ukraine. It is one of the topmost universities in the country which offers world-class education to the students. The university has professionally trained teaching staff that give proper guidance to the students. It is the university that is recognised by MCI/ National Medical Commission. The university offers the course in different fields which include dental, nursing, medical, therapy, surgery, oncology, urology, psychiatry, ophthalmology, obstetrics, gynaecology and many more. It is one of the largest universities which is spread in acres of area. It has 65 departments with two research centres for practical training. Kharkiv National Medical University facilitates the students with an internship to the eminent hospital under the guidance of trained doctors. Kharkiv National Medical University provides the students with many amenities like a research lab, library, hostel, mess, and many more. The university offers direct admission without any donation fee but students must qualify for the NEET exam before admission. The university has eligibility criteria that are mandatory for each student to qualify. The criteria have an age limit and academic qualification of the appearing candidate. Kharkiv National Medical University Fee Structure The university has an affordable fee structure in the country. Kharkiv National Medical University fee structure has been discussed below: Kharkiv National Medical University has one of the largest infrastructures with the biggest hostel in the country. It has separate accommodation for boys and girls. The university provides a healthy and hygienic meal to the students at the mess. They offer many other facilities to the students like internet, television, gym, stores, security and other facilities to the students. It has a fully furnished room with the option of an air conditioner for the students.
Cost-Effective Fee Structure Of Lviv National Medical University
Lviv National Medical University was established in 1784 and it is popularly known as Danylo Halytsky Lviv National Medical University. The university was recognised by NMC, WHO, and other medical institutes. Students from all over the world come to study MBBS in Ukraine as it offers the best quality of education at an affordable fee structure. It has more than 200 years of legacy where numerous students want to get admission at the prestigious university. The university has a world-class infrastructure that is equipped with advanced technology to train the students. It has well-qualified faculty members which give proper guidance in each field. Lviv National Medical University is one of the prestigious universities which comes under the top 50 universities of MBBS in Ukraine. The university has the 31st rank in the country according to 4ICU university. Lviv National Medical University Highlights 2021 Lviv National Medical University Fee Structure The university offers a budget-friendly fee structure which is comparatively low from any other university in the country. Lviv National Medical University fee has been discussed below: The university offers courses in general medicine, dentistry, pharmacy, and preparatory courses offered to the students. Lviv National Medical University has an easy admission procedure where students get admission based on intermediate but for Indian students, it is compulsory to qualify for the NEET exam before the admission procedure. The university has the best accommodation which has a fully furnished room with all the amenities provided to the students. It has medical, security, pool, sports, gym, and many other facilities offered to students.
[October-2021]New Braindump2go PL-600 PDF and VCE Dumps[Q801-Q810]
QUESTION 84 Hotspot Question A company reports the following issues with an existing data management system. - Users cannot search for specific records by using a user-friendly ID or record identifier. - Users occasionally enter data into fields that is not required. - The record form displays all fields. Many of the fields are not used. You need to ensure that the Power Platform solution will ensure data quality can be properly maintained. Which component should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: Explanation: Box 1: Autonumber column Autonumber columns are columns that automatically generate alphanumeric strings whenever they are created. Box 2: Business rule By combining conditions and actions, you can do any of the following with business rules: Enable or disable columns Set column values Clear column values Set column requirement levels Show or hide columns Validate data and show error messages Create business recommendations based on business intelligence. QUESTION 85 Drag and Drop Question A new customer asks you to design a solution for a Power Apps app that uses Microsoft Dataverse. The customer wants to keep the service process simple and save on both licensing and development time. You need to recommend solutions for the customer. What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets. Each source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: Explanation: Box 1: Model-drive app Integration with Microsoft Outlook requires a Model-driven app. Box 2: Dynamics 365 Customer Service Schedule anything in Dynamics 365 using Universal Resource Scheduling. You can enable scheduling for any entity in Dynamics 365 Sales, Field Service, Customer Service, and Project Service Automation, including custom entities. Box 3: Canvas app QUESTION 86 Drag and Drop Question You are reviewing a list of business requirements submitted by a plumbing company. The company has the following requirements: - Send articles to technicians to allow technicians to help customers resolve issues. - Track work progress and inspections at customer sites. - Schedule technicians for service appointments. You need to recommend solutions to meet the customer’s requirements. What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate solutions to the correct business requirements. Each solution may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: Explanation: Box 1: Dynamics 365 Customer Insights Dynamics 365 Customer Insights is a part of Microsoft's customer data platform (CDP) that helps deliver personalized customer experiences. The platform's capabilities provide insights into who your customers are and how they engage with your platform. Unify customer data across multiple sources to get a single view of customers. Box 2: Dynamics 365 Field Service Dynamics 365 Field Service helps to: Organize and track resolution of customer issues Keep customers updated with the status of their service call and when it's resolved Note: The Dynamics 365 Field Service business application helps organizations deliver onsite service to customer locations. The application combines workflow automation, scheduling algorithms, and mobility to set up mobile workers for success when they're onsite with customers fixing issues. The Field Service application enables you to: Improve first-time fix rate Complete more service calls per technician per week Manage follow-up work and take advantage of upsell and cross sell opportunities Reduce travel time, mileage, and vehicle wear and tear Organize and track resolution of customer issues Communicate an accurate arrival time to customers Provide accurate account and equipment history to the field technician Keep customers updated with the status of their service call and when it's resolved Schedule onsite visits when it's convenient for the customer Avoid equipment downtime through preventative maintenance Box 3: Dynamics 365 Field Service Dynamics 365 Field Service: Schedule onsite visits when it's convenient for the customer. Incorrect Answers: Dynamic 365 Customer Voice empowers your organization to quickly collect and understand omnichannel feedback at scale to build better customer experiences. QUESTION 87 You are designing a Power Platform solution for a company. The company issues each employee a tablet device. The company wants to simply the opportunity management processes and automate when possible. The company identifies the following requirements: - Users must have a visual guide to know which data to enter in each step of the opportunity management process. - The system must automatically assign the opportunity to a manager for approval once all data is entered. - The system must notify an assignee each time an opportunity is assigned to them by using push notifications. - When a user selects a push notification, the associated opportunity must display. You need to recommend the Power Platform components that will meet their requirements. Which three Power Platform components should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.Business process flows B.Power Apps mobile apps C.Power Virtual Agents chatbots D.Power Automate desktop flows E.Power Automate cloud flows Answer: ABE Explanation: A: Use business process flows to define a set of steps for people to follow to take them to a desired outcome. These steps provide a visual indicator that tells people where they are in the business process. B: Push notifications are used in Power Apps mobile to engage app users and help them prioritize key tasks. In Power Apps, you can create notifications for Power Apps mobile by using the Power Apps Notification connector. You can send notifications to any app that you create in Power Apps. E: Create a cloud flow when you want your automation to be triggered either automatically, instantly, or via a schedule. Automated flows: Create an automation that is triggered by an event such as arrival of an email from a specific person, or a mention of your company in social media. QUESTION 88 A company is struggling to gather insights from won and lost opportunities. Users must be able to access the company’s solution from mobile and desktop devices. The solution must meet the following requirements: - Track opportunities and reasons for the win or loss of opportunities in the context of other related data. - Display data to users as charts and tables and provide drill-through capabilities. You need to recommend a Power Platform tool to help the client visualize the data. Which two technologies should you recommend? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.Power BI B.Power Automate C.Power Virtual Agents D.Power Apps Answer: AD Explanation: A: Power BI is a business analytics service by Microsoft. It aims to provide interactive visualizations and business intelligence capabilities with an interface simple enough for end users to create their own reports and dashboards. It is part of the Microsoft Power Platform. D: Power BI Apps are an easy way for designers to share different types of content at one time. App designers create the dashboards and reports and bundle them together into an app. The designers then share or publish the app to a location where you, the business user, can access it. Because related dashboards and reports are bundled together, it's easier for you to find and install in both the Power BI service (https://powerbi.com) and on your mobile device. After you install an app, you don't have to remember the names of a lot of different dashboards or reports because they're all together in one app, in your browser or on your mobile device. QUESTION 89 A company wants to add an interactive checklist to a Power Platform solution to ensure that salespeople are following the same steps when qualifying leads. You need to recommend a solution that will incorporate this checklist. What should you recommend? A.Microsoft Customer Voice B.Business Process Modeler task guide C.Dashboards D.Business Process Flow Answer: D QUESTION 90 Hotspot Question A company plans to transition from an existing proprietary solution to a Power Platform solution. The company is consolidating data from several sources. The company reports the following data quality issues with the existing solution: - Users often encounter a character limit when entering data. - The database includes multiple instances of duplicate records. You need to recommend solutions to ensure that the data quality issues are not present in the Power Platform solution. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: Explanation: Box 1: Define the data type and format for each column Increase the data type size of the column. Box 2: Define and implement duplicate detection rules QUESTION 91 Hotspot Question A company is creating a Power Platform solution to manage employees. The company has the following requirements: - Allow only the human resource manager to change an employee’s employment status when an employee is dismissed. - Allow only approved device types to access the solution and company data. You need to recommend a solution that meets the requirements. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: Explanation: Box 1: Field security profile Record-level permissions are granted at the entity level, but you may have certain fields associated with an entity that contain data that is more sensitive than the other fields. For these situations, you use field-level security to control access to specific fields. Field-level security is available for the default fields on most out-of-box entities, custom fields, and custom fields on custom entities. Field-level security is managed by the security profiles. Box 2: Compliancy policy Compliance policy settings – Tenant-wide settings that are like a built-in compliance policy that every device receives. Compliance policy settings set a baseline for how compliance policy works in your Intune environment, including whether devices that haven’t received any device compliance policies are compliant or noncompliant. Note: Mobile device management (MDM) solutions like Intune can help protect organizational data by requiring users and devices to meet some requirements. In Intune, this feature is called compliance policies. Compliance policies in Intune: Define the rules and settings that users and devices must meet to be compliant. Include actions that apply to devices that are noncompliant. Actions for noncompliance can alert users to the conditions of noncompliance and safeguard data on noncompliant devices. Can be combined with Conditional Access, which can then block users and devices that don't meet the rules. 2021 Latest Braindump2go PL-600 PDF and PL-600 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1W-dnvz8z93HIhwg4OMuv40Eld2uOX9m-?usp=sharing
How do I recover my Yahoo email account?
Yahoo email comes in the list of most prominent Email services. With so many services provided by the Yahoo mail service, it is evident that sometimes there are security considerations In this situation, users change their passwords or reset them to avoid cyber breaches. We consider the answer of “How do I recover my Yahoo email account?” But what to do when the account gets hacked? Look out the methods to recover the Yahoo mail account: If you are facing a question related to yahoo, then you should go through the pointers provided below? These are generally three: 1. Alternative Email address.’ 2. Through the help of recovery hone number. 3. Via security questions. Steps to recover the Yahoo email account: 1. After getting out the Modesto recover the account, let us see the procedure to recover the account. Go through the pointers carefully: 2. For proceeding in this procedure, customers are required to visit the sign-in page of Yahoo. 3. After getting to the official page of Yahoo, enter your username and click on the “Continue” option. 4. Now select the option of “Forgot Password”. 5. You get automatically redirected to the yahoo password recovery page. 6. As we see, the recovery options in the details mentioned above uses are also provided with three. 7. They should have previously linked the account with the phone number or email to get the verification code. 8. If the two options are not working, then go for the security questions. These questions are generally related to the information provided at the time of the account creation. 9. Follow the on-screen instructions After reading out the detailed guidelines, if you have doubts, then go through the “Yahoo customer service”. You will get professionalized assistance. Live representatives remain round the clock active to solve customer issues.
NEET SS Gynecological Oncology. Latest Tips for Preparation
NEET SS Gynecological Oncology has emerged as a branch which is demanding and the number of seats is now being increased in different institutions throughout the country. With new policies and changes now the neet ss test series are conducted by NBE. Gynecological Oncology is an upcoming branch and new centres and Medical Colleges in India are offering this branch now after clearance of Mch exams. Most Mch Aspirants want to know what is asked in these Superspeciality examinations and how to study and what to study. The approach to study for this branch needs to be standard, simple, time is friendly and most effective. Details of Examination  Exam: NEET Mch  Conducted by : NBE  Level: Pg Superspeciality  Duration: 3 years  Probable Upcoming Dates: November  Question Type : MCQs  Exam : Single Day Online Examination Lots of Modifications done by NBE What Concepts are checked in NEET Mch Gynecological Oncology? Taking a case of a 35 year old housewife with vaginal bleeding A 40 year-old housewife was worried because she started to have vaginal discharge and unscheduled vaginal bleeding. She sought medical advice and the doctor asked for Pap smear. The cytology report included mild dysplasia (CIN I), with HPV infection, and squamous metaplasia. The doctor recommended follow up of the patient. Two years later she started to complain of dyspareunia, and postcoital bleeding, and dysuria. She went to a gynecologist who did vaginal examination and saw a large fungating, partly ulcerated mass in the cervix. The base of the mass was indurated and attached to the surrounding structures. The doctor asked for immediate surgery to assess the grade and stage of the tumor. The students should be able to: • Know pathologic terms as metaplasia, dysplasia, and neoplasia, Carcinoma-in-situ (CIN) • Know the pathogenesis of squamous dysplasia. • Know the sequence of events from progression of dysplasia caused by HPV to Carcinoma-in-Situ and Invasive Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the cervix. • Know viral oncogenesis and identify role of HPV in development of Cancer cervix. (Asked in Neet Mch Gynecological Oncology) • Know different methods of lab diagnosis of cancer particularly those which are used for the early diagnosis of cancer of the cervix. • Know the gross and microscopic criteria of malignant neoplasm. • Know grading and staging of tumors. (Asked in Neet Mch Gynecological Oncology) • Know the importance of early diagnosis of cancer • Know the methods of spread of malignant tumors. • Know the investigations needed for proper assessment of this condition • Know the risk factors of cancer cervix as an example of malignant tumors. (Asked in Neet Mch Gynecological Oncology) • Know Role of heredity in development of cancer cervix • Know of community in prevention and early diagnosis of cancer; mention the methods of prevention of carcinoma of the cervix. Management of Cancer Cervix: General Principles to be followed  All stages (I-IV) are radiosensitive.  Stages of cancer cervix that are operable (radical/Wertheim’s hysterectomy) are 1A1, 1A2, IB and IIA.  Stages IIB-IV are not operable and have to be treated with radiotherapy only. (Asked in Neet Mch Gynecological Oncology) • In squamous cell cancers, before giving radiotherapy, a chemotherapeutic agent is given to increase the sensitivity of the cells to radiation called as radiosensitiser. In Cancer Cervix Cisplatin is used as a radiosensitiser. (Asked in Neet Mch Gynecological Oncology)  Use of Cisplatin has resulted in reduction in local recurrence and distant metastasis. Latest Questions asked on Oncological aspects of  Dermoid cyst  Liposarcoma  Krukenbergs tumor  Gynandroblastoma  Lichen planus  Lichen sclerosus  Vulval carcinoma  Leukoplakia  H. mole Importance of Markers such as  Alpha fetoprotein  Lactate dehydrogenase  Human chorionic gonadotropin  Placental alkaline phosphatase  CEA Levels  CA 125  Alkaline phosphate  Lactate dehydrogenase Intervention and use of Modalities in Gynecological Oncology like  Ultrasound  TVS  Urinalysis  Pap Smear  Bone Scans  PET Scan  Peritoneal biopsies  New Tumour Markers  MRI  Intravenous pyelogram(IVP)  Cystourethrogram  Urethrocystoscopy  Hysteriosalpingogram A thorough knowledge of facts pertaining to Gynecological oncology as mentioned below should be known:  Presentations of tumours  Risk Factors  Management Plans  Cost effective managements  Drugs used and their doses and side effects  Follow up of Oncological cases Students preparing for this branch cannot underestimate the number of Questions asked by Examiners about the commonly used drugs, latest investigations, treatment modalities, immune markers, tumour markers, genetics and syndromes in Gynecological Oncology. Our Gynecological Oncology Experts keep an eye on Developments around the NEET SS test series Examinations. Most students take our Gynecological Oncology Packages and are benefitted by our Gynecological Oncology online tests which provide them practice in real time, reassurance and confidence for actual exam scenarios.
DM Medicine and Clinical Pharmacology
DM Medicine is getting Competitive. NBE has upgraded the Examination standard Pediatrics is gaining Scope. From past few years there has been a change from written examination to CBT exam. The Dm exams are now conducted as an online MCQ Based exam. This is for all branches.  Lots of questions in DM General Medicine, Cardiology, endocrinology, gastroenterology, rheumatology, gastroenterology, pediatric oncology, pediatric neurology, pediatric nephrology, oncology and pediatric cardiology are based on drugs.  Knowledge about clinical pharmacology is important for NEET SS Examinations. A Dm Aspirant for any super specialization should have proper knowledge of drugs.  What is important to know for A Dm Aspirant as examples?  Drugs causing   Hyperkalemia Drugs causing   Gynecomastia(Question asked in NEET DM ) Drugs causing   Acute Renal Failure Drugs causing   Kidney Stones(Question asked in NEET DM ) Drugs causing Seizures   Drugs causing  Porphyrias Drugs causing  Hepatotoxicity  Drugs causing  Pulmonary Fibrosis(Question asked in NEET DM ) Drugs causing   Cardiomyopathies (Question asked in NEET DM ) In Addition Classification of Drugs is important. Which Drug Belongs to which Class? Beta -Lactam antibiotics Daptomycin Glycopeptide antibiotics(Question asked in NEET DM ) Ketolides Polymyxins(Question asked in NEET DM ) Quinolones Streptogramins(Question asked in NEET DM ) In Medical Oncology One should have knowledge of?  Antimetabolites Pyrimidine analogs: 5-FU, cytarabine, gemcitabine Purine analogs: 6-MP, 6-thiogunanine, pentostatin, cladribine Folic acid analogs: Methotrexate, pemetrexed Antitumor antibiotics: Anthracyclines (daunorubicin, doxorubicin, epirubicin, idarubicin, mitoxantrone), dactinomycin, mitomycin-C (Question asked in NEET DM ) Enzymes: L-asparaginase In Endocrinology important drugs to know about are: Antiestrogens: SERMs (tamoxifen, doloxifen)  Aromatase inhibitors (aminoglutethirnide, formestane, exeme anastrozole, vorozole, letrozole) (Question asked in NEET DM ) Progestins: Medroxyprogesterone acetate Estrogens: Diethyistilbesterol, ethinyl estradiol Androgens: Testosterone Antiandrogens: Flutamide GnRH analogs: Leuprolide, goserelin, nafarelin, busurelin, histerelin (Question asked in NEET DM ) GnRH antagonist: Cetorelix, ganirelix, (Question asked in NEET DM ) Drugs which are Beneficial Do you have an idea of Drugs most Important of Frequently used in Conditions such as?  Brugia malayi (filariasis); tropical eosinophilia; Loa ba (loiasis) Capilbania philippinensis (intestinal capillariasis) Clonorchis sinensis (liver fluke); Opisthonchis species (Question asked in NEET DM ) Dracunculus medinensis (guinea worm)  Flukes (trematodes) Onchocerca volvulus (onchocerciasis) (Question asked in NEET DM ) Schistosoma hoematobium (bilharziasis)  Schistosoma joponicum Schistosoma mansoni Wucherenia bancrofti (filariasis) (Question asked in NEET DM ) Latest Information and Indications of Use of :  Ceftriaxone Agbagovomab(Question asked in NEET DM ) Cetuximab Naclozomab (Question asked in NEET DM ) Edrocolomab  Ustekinumab (Question asked in NEET DM ) Stamulumab  Palivizuimab (Question asked in NEET DM ) Leflunomide (Question asked in NEET DM ) Pentazocine Vincristine Azathioprine Cefuroxime Etanercept (Question asked in NEET DM ) Glibenclamide Vinblastine Bleomycin (Question asked in NEET DM ) Exanetide Infliximab (Question asked in NEET DM ) Pyrimethamine 5-FU Abatacept Cephaloridine (Question asked in NEET DM ) Repaglinide Types of questions  Asked in NEET DM  A 44 -year-old man from a sub urban Area  arrives in Medical OPD. He has poor dental hygiene. He is advised to undergo dental extraction of a molar tooth. He has a history of rheumatic heart disease and has a prosthetic aortic valve. He is allergic to penicillin. Which of the following is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of endocarditis in the above patient?  Ampicillin  Ampicillin and gentamicin  Quinolones Clindamycin  Drug of choice for prinzmetal’s angina is: A. Propanolol B. Nitrates C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil A   55 year old  male collapses. He develops sustained ventricular tachycardia and requires cardioversion. He is started on an anti arrhythmic agent. Two weeks later, he is finally extubated and the rest of his hospital stay is unremarkable. Three months later he returns with dyspnea on exertion and chest-x ray reveals bilateral lung fibrosis. All cultures are negative and a lung biopsy reveals lipoid pneumonitis. Which of the following is the most likely drug responsible for this patient’s condition?  A. Procainamide  B. Amiodarone  C. Lidocaine  D. Quinine  Which drug cause optic neuritis: A. INH B. Ethabutol C. Rifampicin D. Pyrazinamid Drug causing Parkinsonism is: A. Barbiturate B. Phenothiazine C. Thiazide D. Sulphonamide One of the following is not a disease modifying drug in rheumatoid  arthritis: A. Auronaufin B. D-penicillamine C. Chloroquine D. Indomethacin All drugs cause interstitial lung disease except: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Sulfonamides C. Busulphan D. Alpha methyl dopa It is very important for DM aspirants to know Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, uses, side effects and dosages of Drugs used. This forms a big Chunk of Questions for DM examinations in addition to Clinical Questions, Problem based Questions and Reason Assertion based questions. Our Experts emphasize the need for being updated with attest for NEET DM exams. Check Questions Paper for - Neet dm test series, neet dm preparation, neet dm exam preparation, neet dm mock test, neet mch mock test
[October-2021]New Braindump2go CAS-003 PDF and VCE Dumps[Q801-Q810]
QUESTION 801 Over the last 90 days, many storage services has been exposed in the cloud services environments, and the security team does not have the ability to see is creating these instance. Shadow IT is creating data services and instances faster than the small security team can keep up with them. The Chief information security Officer (CIASO) has asked the security officer (CISO) has asked the security lead architect to architect to recommend solutions to this problem. Which of the following BEST addresses the problem best address the problem with the least amount of administrative effort? A.Compile a list of firewall requests and compare than against interesting cloud services. B.Implement a CASB solution and track cloud service use cases for greater visibility. C.Implement a user-behavior system to associate user events and cloud service creation events. D.Capture all log and feed then to a SIEM and then for cloud service events Answer: C QUESTION 802 An analyst execute a vulnerability scan against an internet-facing DNS server and receives the following report: - Vulnerabilities in Kernel-Mode Driver Could Allow Elevation of Privilege - SSL Medium Strength Cipher Suites Supported - Vulnerability in DNS Resolution Could Allow Remote Code Execution - SMB Host SIDs allows Local User Enumeration Which of the following tools should the analyst use FIRST to validate the most critical vulnerability? A.Password cracker B.Port scanner C.Account enumerator D.Exploitation framework Answer: A QUESTION 803 The Chief information Officer (CIO) wants to establish a non-banding agreement with a third party that outlines the objectives of the mutual arrangement dealing with data transfers between both organizations before establishing a format partnership. Which of the follow would MOST likely be used? A.MOU B.OLA C.NDA D.SLA Answer: A QUESTION 804 A security analyst is trying to identify the source of a recent data loss incident. The analyst has reviewed all the for the time surrounding the identified all the assets on the network at the time of the data loss. The analyst suspects the key to finding the source was obfuscated in an application. Which of the following tools should the analyst use NEXT? A.Software Decomplier B.Network enurrerator C.Log reduction and analysis tool D.Static code analysis Answer: D QUESTION 805 Which of the following controls primarily detects abuse of privilege but does not prevent it? A.Off-boarding B.Separation of duties C.Least privilege D.Job rotation Answer: A QUESTION 806 A company provides guest WiFi access to the internet and physically separates the guest network from the company's internal WIFI. Due to a recent incident in which an attacker gained access to the compay's intend WIFI, the company plans to configure WPA2 Enterprise in an EAP- TLS configuration. Which of the following must be installed on authorized hosts for this new configuration to work properly? A.Active Directory OPOs B.PKI certificates C.Host-based firewall D.NAC persistent agent Answer: B QUESTION 807 The goal of a Chief information Security Officer (CISO) providing up-to-date metrics to a bank's risk committee is to ensure: A.Budgeting for cybersecurity increases year over year. B.The committee knows how much work is being done. C.Business units are responsible for their own mitigation. D.The bank is aware of the status of cybersecurity risks Answer: A QUESTION 808 A cybersecurity engineer analyst a system for vulnerabilities. The tool created an OVAL. Results document as output. Which of the following would enable the engineer to interpret the results in a human readable form? (Select TWO.) A.Text editor B.OOXML editor C.Event Viewer D.XML style sheet E.SCAP tool F.Debugging utility Answer: AE QUESTION 809 A Chief information Security Officer (CISO) is developing corrective-action plans based on the following from a vulnerability scan of internal hosts: Which of the following MOST appropriate corrective action to document for this finding? A.The product owner should perform a business impact assessment regarding the ability to implement a WAF. B.The application developer should use a static code analysis tool to ensure any application code is not vulnerable to buffer overflows. C.The system administrator should evaluate dependencies and perform upgrade as necessary. D.The security operations center should develop a custom IDS rule to prevent attacks buffer overflows against this server. Answer: A QUESTION 810 The Chief information Security Officer (CISO) of a small locate bank has a compliance requirement that a third-party penetration test of the core banking application must be conducted annually. Which of the following services would fulfill the compliance requirement with the LOWEST resource usage? A.Black-box testing B.Gray-box testing C.Red-team hunting D.White-box testing E.Blue-learn exercises Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go CAS-003 PDF and CAS-003 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/11eVcvdRTGUBlESzBX9a6YlPUYiZ4xoHE?usp=sharing
Microsoft 365 Prüfung MS-100 Unterlagen und Materialien
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NEET DM Gastroenterology Exams
Gastroenterology is considered as a favorite, delicate and functionally complex Superspeciality branch. With advances in the field of medicine, especially gastroenterology and with growing competition, during the past two decades, we have come to realize that it is a highly sought Superspeciality branch. GIT disorders are acute as well as chronic conditions and cause considerable discomfort and much disability. The disability caused is physical, emotional and socioeconomic. There is a lot of Demand for DM Gastroenterologists and many NEET DM Aspirants opt for it. This means greater competition and greater preparation. What a DM Gastroenterologist should know to prepare for NEET DM Gastroenterology ü Know the basics of the normal histology, physiology, and biochemistry of the GIT system. (Anatomy of GIT, Physiology of GIT Secretions, Biochemical components of different secretions) ü Know the process and alterations leading to pathological conditions producing a set of clinical lesions and signs and symptoms of some of the GIT Diseases. (Example of Barretts Esophagus ) ü Have a sound knowledge and clear concept of common terminology related to GIT Lesions like GAVE, GIST Tumours, ZES, Schatzkis ring, Esophageal Webs, ü Able to arrive at diagnosis from history of a clinical Scenario given. These types of questions are frequently asked. ü Able to Diagnose a clinical scenario , and treatment options of such ü Have sufficient understanding of the common benign and malignant tumors of the GIT. Molecular mechanisms, genetic mutations, pathological subtypes, treatment modalities. ü Have sufficient cognizable knowledge of the pharmacology of drugs used as well as their doses and side effects of these drugs. Specific Objectives By the end of the Preparation for NEET DM student should be able to know about · Anatomy of GIT · Physiology of GIT · Explain the mechanism of the PATHOGENESIS of both common and rare disorders like Gastric ulcer, FAP, HNPCC, VIPomas, Phaeochromocytoma, ZES, and Carcinoids. · Explain the synthesis, secretion of GIT Secretions · Latest concept of GUT -associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) , apud System , GIST Tumours · Mechanism of immune-mediated Gut Damage and its consequences. · Know the etiology, pathogenesis, and clinical features of some common inflammatory, infectious, preneoplastic and neoplastic skin diseases with emphasis on the correlation between histopathologic changes and the clinical manifestations. · Identify, on visual aid material, by image based questions the clinical and microscopic features of such skin diseases. · Know the rationale of treatment based on these histopathologist and corresponding clinical conditions. · Know about the normal gut flora as well as diseases likely to be produced by these in immune deficiency. · Know the common microbiologic agents causing GIT infections and explain the pathogenesis of commonly involved microbes and viruses affecting the GUT. · Know the various types of systemic and topical pharmacologic agents used in treating skin disorders. · Know about the various types of drugs used for GIT conditions and explain the effects and side effects of these agents. · Use of different Investigations and tools for examination of GIT lesions. Example of What a NEET DM Aspirant should at least know about Oncogenesis pertaining to GIT · Know mechanism of dysplasia and conversion to carcinoma-in-situ. · Know differences in carcinoma-in-situ and invasive carcinoma. · Know the importance of techniques used for the early detection of carcinoma of the different parts of GIT by screening methods. · Know about the clinical features as well as the gross and histological differentiating features of benign and malignant tumors. · Know about the nomenclature used in neoplasia, and give the classification according to histogenesis and behavior. · Know about the exact mechanisms by which malignant tumors spread through the body. · Know about the role of oncogenes as well as cancer-suppressor genes. · Know about the the hereditary and childhood cancers as well as acquired and hereditary preneoplastic conditions. · Know about the different types of laboratory diagnosis of tumors with emphasis on early diagnosis of cancers with techniques like exfoliative cytology, Tumour Markers, use of investigative techniques. · Know about the grading and staging of cancers. · Know about warning signs of cancer in each organ system, like dysphagia and weight loss in cancer of the esophagus, hoarseness of voice in laryngeal carcinoma, jaundice, and ascites in stomach cancer. · Know about the mode of inheritance of genetic disorders (autosomal dominant & recessive disorders and sex-linked disorders) related to GIT. Hot Topics for 2021 2022 for DM Gastroenterology · Achalasia · Acute gastritis · Alcoholic cirrhosis · Alcoholic fatty liver disease and alcoholic hepatitis · Alcoholic liver disease · Antacids, sucralfate (a surface-acting agent), H2-receptor blockers · Antireflux surgery (Nissen fundoplication) · Azotemia and electrolyte disturbances · Barium swallow and upper gastrointestinal (GI) series test · Barrett’s esophagus. · Barrett’s esophagus (premalignant epithelial changes associated with chronic reflux). · Blood in the stool · Chemotherapy · Choledocholithiasis · Chronic gastritis · Cimetidine, ranitidine · Dyspepsia · Elevated serum carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level · Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) · Endoscopy with biopsy · Esophageal dysmotility and gastric emptying disorders · Esophageal neoplasms · Gastric lymphoma · Gastritis · Heartburn · hematemesis · Hematemesis, melena, and abdominal pain. · Hepatotenal syndrome · Lye ingestion · Myotomy · Neoplasms of the esophagus and stomach · Odynophagia · Pancreatic carcinoma · Pancreatic digestive enzymes · Pancreatic stimulation tests · Peptic ulcers in the stomach or proximal duodenum. · Reflux esophagitis · Serum gastrin measurements a · Serum ƴ-glutamyltransferase, AST, ALT, and AP levels are elevated in fatty liver disease. · Signs and symptoms include weight loss, anorexia, fatigue, epigastric pain, early satiety, and vomiting. · Small bowel obstruction · Surgery and radiotherapy · Wright’s or methylene blue staining of stool Practice makes you perfect. Practice online Tests. Be wary of latest updates and keep yourself well informed. Online NEET DM Exams give a boost to students. Most students should take online Tests.
Know The Eligibility Criteria Of Vinnitsa National Medical University
Vinnitsa National Medical University was established in 1921 and situated in Vinnytsia, Ukraine. IN the year 1994 the university got its 4th accreditation and university certification. It is one of the renowned universities which offers the quality of education to the students. The university was recognised by MCI/ NMC, Ministry of Health of Ukraine and many other medical institutions.  The university has top-class medical faculty from 19 countries of the world who are professionally qualified. It has more than 60 international projects which are running under the university teachers. Vinnitsa National Medical University has world-class infrastructure which is equipped with advanced labs, 4 channels of the internet, and 26 computer classes for the students. It is one of the reputed universities which has international tie-ups with reputed medical universities.  Vinnitsa National Medical University has world-class ranking and it comes under the top medical universities in the country. It has 64th rank in the country according to 4ICU. The university offers an affordable fee structure which is USD 36200 for 6 years of program which includes tuition fee, hostel fee and other expenses. It offers working opportunities to the students with its internationally recognised degree. Vinnitsa National Medical University offers courses in general medicine, medical psychology, paediatrics, and dentistry. Eligibility Criteria Of Vinnitsa National Medical University Vinnitsa National Medical University is one of the prestigious institutes where students from all over the world come to study. The university offers direct admission to those students who qualify the eligibility criteria before appearing for admission is liable to get the MBBS admission in Vinnitsa National Medical University. The eligibility criteria have been discussed below: Age: The candidate needs to have a minimum age which is 17 years on the year of admission. Academic Qualification: The candidate needs to qualify 10+2 with 50% marks from the recognised board and for the reserved category it is 40% of marks.  Mandatory Subjects: The candidate needs to have Physics, Chemistry, and Biology in intermediate.  NEET Exam: The aspirant needs to qualify the NEET exam before admission.