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[June-2021]Braindump2go New 300-730 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q86-Q113)

QUESTION 86
Which two NHRP functions are specific to DMVPN Phase 3 implementation? (Choose two.)

A.registration reply
B.redirect
C.resolution reply
D.registration request
E.resolution request

Answer: BC

QUESTION 88
Which two features are valid backup options for an IOS FlexVPN client? (Choose two.)

A.HSRP stateless failover
B.DNS-based hub resolution
C.reactivate primary peer
D.tunnel pivot
E.need distractor

Answer: BC

QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN is used?

A.GETVPN
B.clientless SSL VPN
C.Cisco Easy VPN
D.Cisco AnyConnect SSL VPN

Answer: C

QUESTION 91
Which Cisco AnyConnect component ensures that devices in a specific internal subnet are only accessible using port 443?

A.routing
B.WebACL
C.split tunnel
D.VPN filter

Answer: D

QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit. Upon setting up a tunnel between two sites, users are complaining that connections to applications over the VPN are not working consistently. The output of show crypto ipsec sa was collected on one of the VPN devices. Based on this output, what should be done to fix this issue?

A.Lower the tunnel MTU.
B.Enable perfect forward secrecy.
C.Specify the application networks in the remote identity.
D.Make an adjustment to IPSec replay window.

Answer: A

QUESTION 93
After a user configures a connection profile with a bookmark list and tests the clientless SSLVPN connection, all of the bookmarks are grayed out. What must be done to correct this behavior?

A.Apply the bookmark to the correct group policy.
B.Specify the correct port for the web server under the bookmark.
C.Configure a DNS server on the Cisco ASA and verify it has a record for the web server.
D.Verify HTTP/HTTPS connectivity between the Cisco ASA and the web server.

Answer: C

QUESTION 94
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN is being configured, based on the partial configuration snippet?

A.GET VPN with COOP key server
B.GET VPN with dual group member
C.FlexVPN load balancer
D.FlexVPN backup gateway

Answer: A

QUESTION 95
An administrator is designing a VPN with a partner's non-Cisco VPN solution. The partner's VPN device will negotiate an IKEv2 tunnel that will only encrypt subnets 192.168.0.0/24 going to 10.0.0.0/24. Which technology must be used to meet these requirements?

A.VTI
B.crypto map
C.GETVPN
D.DMVPN

Answer: B

QUESTION 96
A company's remote locations connect to the data centers via MPLS. A new request requires that unicast and multicast traffic that exits in the remote locations be encrypted. Which non-tunneled technology should be used to satisfy this requirement?

A.SSL
B.FlexVPN
C.DMVPN
D.GETVPN

Answer: D

QUESTION 97
While troubleshooting, an engineer finds that the show crypto isakmp sa command indicates that the last state of the tunnel is MM_KEY_EXCH. What is the next step that should be taken to resolve this issue?

A.Verify that the ISAKMP proposals match.
B.Ensure that UDP 500 is not being blocked between the devices.
C.Correct the peer's IP address on the crypto map.
D.Confirm that the pre-shared keys match on both devices.

Answer: C

QUESTION 98
Which VPN technology must be used to ensure that routers are able to dynamically form connections with each other rather than sending traffic through a hub and be able to advertise routes without the use of a dynamic routing protocol?

A.FlexVPN
B.DMVPN Phase 3
C.DMVPN Phase 2
D.GETVPN

Answer: B

QUESTION 99
An administrator is setting up AnyConnect for the first time for a few users. Currently, the router does not have access to a RADIUS server. Which AnyConnect protocol must be used to allow users to authenticate?

A.EAP-GTC
B.EAP-MSCHAPv2
C.EAP-MD5
D.EAP-AnyConnect

Answer: D

QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit. DMVPN spoke-to-spoke traffic works, but it passes through the hub, and never sends direct spoke-to-spoke traffic. Based on the tunnel interface configuration shown, what must be configured on the hub to solve the issue?

A.Enable NHRP redirect.
B.Enable split horizon.
C.Enable IP redirects.
D.Enable NHRP shortcut.

Answer: D

QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions should be drawn from the DMVPN phase 2 configuration? (Choose two.)

A.Next-hop-self is required.
B.EIGRP neighbor adjacency will fail.
C.EIGRP is used as the dynamic routing protocol.
D.EIGRP route redistribution is not allowed.
E.Spoke-to-spoke communication is allowed.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 103
Refer to the exhibit. The VPN tunnel between the FlexVPN spoke and FlexVPN hub 192.168.0.12 is failing.
What should be done to correct this issue?


A.Add the address 192.168.0.12 255.255.255.255 command to the keyring configuration.
B.Add the match fvrf any command to the IKEv2 policy.
C.Add the aaa authorization group psk list Flex_AAA Flex_Auth command to the IKEv2 profile configuration.
D.Add the tunnel mode gre ip command to the tunnel configuration.

Answer: C

QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit. An IKEv2 site-to-site tunnel between an ASA and a remote peer is not building successfully. What will fix the problem based on the debug output?

A.Ensure crypto IPsec policy matches on both VPN devices.
B.Install the correct certificate to validate the peer.
C.Correct crypto access list on both VPN devices.
D.Specify the peer IP address in the tunnel group name.

Answer: A

QUESTION 105
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is reconfiguring clientless SSLVPN during a maintenance window, and after testing the new configuration, is unable to establish the connection. What must be done to remediate this problem?

A.Enable client services on the outside interface.
B.Enable clientless protocol under the group policy.
C.Enable DTLS under the group policy.
D.Enable auto sign-on for the user's IP address.

Answer: B

QUESTION 106
What are two purposes of the key server in Cisco IOS GETVPN? (Choose two.)

A.to download encryption keys
B.to maintain encryption policies
C.to distribute routing information
D.to encrypt data traffic
E.to authenticate group members

Answer: BE

QUESTION 107
An engineer notices that while an employee is connected remotely, all traffic is being routed to the corporate network. Which split-tunnel policy allows a remote client to use their local provider for Internet access when working from home?

A.tunnelall
B.excludeall
C.tunnelspecified
D.excludespecified

Answer: C

QUESTION 108
In order to enable FlexVPN to use a AAA attribute list, which two tasks must be performed? (Choose two.)

A.Define the RADIUS server.
B.Verify that clients are using the correct authorization policy.
C.Define the AAA server.
D.Assign the list to an authorization policy.
E.Set the maximum segment size.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 109
Which technology and VPN component allows a VPN headend to dynamically learn post NAT IP addresses of remote routers at different sites?

A.DMVPN with ISAKMP
B.GETVPN with ISAKMP
C.DMVPN with NHRP
D.GETVPN with NHRP

Answer: C

QUESTION 110
An engineer must configure remote desktop connectivity for offsite admins via clientless SSL VPN, configured on a Cisco ASA to Windows Vista workstations. Which two configurations provide the requested access? (Choose two.)

A.Telnet bookmark via the Telnet plugin
B.RDP2 bookmark via the RDP2 plugin
C.VNC bookmark via the VNC plugin
D.Citrix bookmark via the ICA plugin
E.SSH bookmark via the SSH plugin

Answer: BE

QUESTION 111
A network engineer must design a clientless VPN solution for a company. VPN users must be able to access several internal web servers. When reachability to those web servers was tested, it was found that one website is not being rewritten correctly by the ASA. What is a potential solution for this issue while still allowing it to be a clientless VPN setup?

A.Set up a smart tunnel with the IP address of the web server.
B.Set up a NAT rule that translates the ASA public address to the web server private address on port 80.
C.Set up Cisco AnyConnect with a split tunnel that has the IP address of the web server.
D.Set up a WebACL to permit the IP address of the web server.

Answer: A

QUESTION 112
Which two types of SSO functionality are available on the Cisco ASA without any external SSO servers? (Choose two.)

A.SAML
B.NTLM
C.Kerberos
D.OAuth 2.0
E.HTTP Basic

Answer: BE

QUESTION 113
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN implementation is displayed?

A.IKEv1 cluster
B.IKEv2 backup gateway
C.IKEv2 load balancer
D.IKEv2 reconnect

Answer: C

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QUESTION 654 A company is building a web-based application running on Amazon EC2 instances in multiple Availability Zones. The web application will provide access to a repository of text documents totaling about 900 TB in size. The company anticipates that the web application will experience periods of high demand. A solutions architect must ensure that the storage component for the text documents can scale to meet the demand of the application at all times. The company is concerned about the overall cost of the solution. Which storage solution meets these requirements MOST cost-effectively? A.Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) B.Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) C.Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES) D.Amazon S3 Answer: C QUESTION 655 A company has an application that uses overnight digital images of products on store shelves to analyze inventory data. 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Grant permissions to the Sales account to access the S3 buckets of the Logistics account. Answer: C QUESTION 661 A company is using Amazon Redshift for analytics and to generate customer reports. The company recently acquired 50 TB of additional customer demographic data. The data is stored in .csv files in Amazon S3. The company needs a solution that joins the data and visualizes the results with the least possible cost and effort. What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements? A.Use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to query the data in Amazon S3 directly and join that data with the existing data in Amazon Redshift. Use Amazon QuickSight to build the visualizations. B.Use Amazon Athena to query the data in Amazon S3. Use Amazon QuickSight to join the data from Athena with the existing data in Amazon Redshift and to build the visualizations. C.Increase the size of the Amazon Redshift cluster, and load the data from Amazon S3. 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Configure an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that invokes an AWS Lambda function upon receipt of resource events. Configure the Lambda function to copy the snapshot to us-west-2 and restore the snapshot in us-west- 2 when failure is detected. C.Create an AWS CloudFormation script to create another Aurora MySQL DB cluster in us-west-2 in case of failure. Configure an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that invokes an AWS Lambda function upon receipt of resource events. Configure the Lambda function to deploy the AWS CloudFormation stack in us-west-2 when failure is detected. D.Recreate the database as an Aurora global database with the primary DB cluster in us-east-1 and a secondary DB cluster in us-west-2. Configure an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that invokes an AWS Lambda function upon receipt of resource events. Configure the Lambda function to promote the DB cluster in us-west-2 when failure is detected. 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The web application will perform primarily read queries against the database. What should the solutions architect do to ensure that the website can scale with increasing traffic? (Choose two.) A.Enable auto scaling on the ALB to scale the load balancer horizontally. B.Configure Aurora Auto Scaling to adjust the number of Aurora Replicas in the Aurora cluster dynamically. C.Enable cross-zone load balancing on the ALB to distribute the load evenly across containers in all Availability Zones. D.Configure an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) cluster in each Availability Zone to distribute the load across multiple Availability Zones. E.Configure Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) Service Auto Scaling with a target tracking scaling policy that is based on CPU utilization. Answer: BE QUESTION 665 A company captures ordered clickstream data from multiple websites and uses batch processing to analyze the data. 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The company wants to ensure that the data is not accessible to the IT staff and that only authorized personnel can view the data. What should a solutions architect do to secure the data? A.Use client-side encryption with an Amazon RDS managed key. B.Use client-side encryption with an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) customer managed key. C.Use Amazon RDS encryption with an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) default encryption key. D.Use Amazon RDS encryption with an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) customer managed key. Answer: C QUESTION 667 A company with a single AWS account runs its internet-facing containerized web application on an Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) cluster. The EKS cluster is placed in a private subnet of a VPC. System administrators access the EKS cluster through a bastion host on a public subnet. A new corporate security policy requires the company to avoid the use of bastion hosts. The company also must not allow internet connectivity to the EKS cluster. Which solution meets these requirements MOST cost-effectively? A.Set up an AWS Direct Connect connection. B.Create a transit gateway. C.Establish a VPN connection. D.Use AWS Storage Gateway. Answer: B QUESTION 668 A company has deployed a multiplayer game for mobile devices. The game requires live location tracking of players based on latitude and longitude. The data store for the game must support rapid updates and retrieval of locations. The game uses an Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance with read replicas to store the location data. During peak usage periods, the database is unable to maintain the performance that is needed for reading and writing updates. The game's user base is increasing rapidly. What should a solutions architect do to improve the performance of the data tier? A.Take a snapshot of the existing DB instance. Restore the snapshot with Multi-AZ enabled. 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B.Create a new DMS instance that has a larger instance size. C.Turn off logging on the target DB instance until the initial load is complete. D.Restart the DMS task on a new DMS instance with transfer acceleration enabled. E.Change the storage type on the target DB instance to Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) General Purpose SSD (gp2). Answer: CD 2021 Latest Braindump2go SAA-C02 PDF and SAA-C02 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1_5IK3H_eM74C6AKwU7sKaLn1rrn8xTfm?usp=sharing
Lip Anti-Aging 101 - Secrets to a Youthful Pout
Lips are frequently left out of anti-aging discussions. Volume loss and wrinkles around the mouth, are some of the first signs of ageing. Our lips undergo a number of significant changes as they age. Most lips lose volume and definition over time. But smokers, those with lighter skin, and those who spend a lot of time in the sun are more likely to have lines and wrinkles. Lines can also be exacerbated by those who purse their lips when speaking. So, if your current lip care routine consists of swiping lip balm on chapped lips, there's definitely more you can do to to make your lips look fresh and youthful.  Lip Anti-Aging Serums and Balms The newer lip balms deliver anti-aging ingredients and hydration right where you need it. Look for one that includes a retinol derivative, a potent ingredient known for increasing collagen production and fading dark spots. The issue is that retinol can be irritating when applied directly to the lips, so make sure to moisturise thoroughly afterwards. Ceramides, hyaluronic acid, peptides, antioxidants, and intense hydrators like coconut oil are other ingredients to look for to make lips appear fuller. Within a few days, your lips will gradually plump up. Lip balms containing alpha hydroxy acids (AHAs), which chemically exfoliate the top layer of skin to reveal a smoother, softer pout.  The simplest anti-aging lip hack, however, is to remember that the skin around your mouth should be treated in the same manner as the rest of your skin. Apply a nightly serum there as well if you're applying it elsewhere. If you're going to smear sunscreen on your lips, use a chapstick or lipstick with an SPF of at least 30. To prevent damage from daily UV light, the skin around the mouth should be protected every morning with sunscreen and topical antioxidants, just as it would be in other areas. In the evening, use retinol, growth factors, and peptides to repair your skin.  Peels and Lasers  A quick laser zap or a chemical peel can help treat fine lines and pigmentation around the lips that do not seem to improve with topical treatments. The lines form because the muscles around the mouth constrict, folding the overlying skin. Lasers and peels can be used in the office to improve skin tone and texture while also reducing the appearance of lines. Skin lightening ingredients such as kojic acid or hydroquinone derivatives are also excellent choices for lip lightening as well. Microneedling causes micro-injuries to the skin around the lips, stimulating collagen and elastic production. There is less downtime than with a laser or peel, and it is not melanin or pigment sensitive.  Lip Injectables Not all lip fillers are performed with the goal of creating Kylie Jenner lips. The lip's border, known as the "white roll," loses definition with age. Because you lost structure at the border, it is common for lipstick to bleed from the red part of your lip onto your skin. To restore volume and structure around the mouth, a filler is recommended. Over-treating the lip border can result in duck lips, but subtle treatments can help to distinguish the lip from the skin around the mouth.  Injections of hyaluronic acid dermal fillers, such as Restylane, Juvederm, or the more subtle Volbella, can make the lips more defined and thus younger-looking without significantly changing their size. If you're more concerned about wrinkles and lines around your mouth, a few drops of Botox can also help soften and relax the muscles around your mouth. There is one small catch: you won't be able to purse your lips as much, and you may be unable to drink from a straw for a few months. If you can't give up your daily iced coffee, peels or lasers with your dermatologist may be a better wrinkle-fighting option for you. Source: Lip Anti-Aging 101 - Secrets to a Youthful Pout
[June-2021]Braindump2go New MS-101 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q272-Q291)
QUESTION 272 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. You plan to deploy 100 new Windows 10 devices. You need to identify the appropriate version of Windows 10 for the new devices. The version must meet the following requirements: - Be serviced for a minimum of 24 months. - Support Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V). Which version should you identify? A.Windows 10 Pro, version 1909 B.Windows 10 Pro, version 2004 C.Windows 10 Enterprise, version 1909 D.Windows 10 Enterprise, version 2004 Answer: D QUESTION 273 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains four devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune as shown in the following table. You plan to deploy Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise by using Microsoft Endpoint Manager. To which devices can you deploy Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise? A.Device1 only B.Device1 and Device3 only C.Device2 and Device4 only D.Device1, Device2, and Device3 only E.Device1, Device2, Device3, and Device4 Answer: B QUESTION 274 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains the devices shown in the following table. You plan to review device startup performance issues by using Endpoint analytics. Which devices can you monitor by using Endpoint analytics? A.Device1 only B.Device1 and Device2 only C.Device1, Device2, and Device3 only D.Device1, Device2, and Device4 only E.Device1, Device2, Device3, and Device4 Answer: A QUESTION 275 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains 100 Windows 10 devices. You plan to deploy a Windows 10 Security Baseline profile that will protect secrets stored in memory. What should you configure in the profile? A.Microsoft Defender Credential Guard B.BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) C.Microsoft Defender D.Microsoft Defender Exploit Guard Answer: A QUESTION 276 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer that runs Windows 10. You need to verify which version of Windows 10 is installed. Solution: From Device Manager, you view the computer properties. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 277 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer that runs Windows 10. You need to verify which version of Windows 10 is installed. Solution: At a command prompt, you run the winver.exe command. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 278 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer that runs Windows 10. You need to verify which version of Windows 10 is installed. Solution: From the Settings app, you select Update & Security to view the update history. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 279 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You plan to manage incidents in the tenant by using the Microsoft 365 security center. Which Microsoft service source will appear on the Incidents page of the Microsoft 365 security center? A.Microsoft Cloud App Security B.Azure Sentinel C.Azure Web Application Firewall D.Azure Defender Answer: A QUESTION 280 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You plan to manage incidents in the tenant by using the Microsoft 365 security center. Which Microsoft service source will appear on the Incidents page of the Microsoft 365 security center? A.Azure Sentinel B.Azure Information Protection C.Azure Security Center D.Microsoft Defender for Identity Answer: D QUESTION 281 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. All users have Mac computers. All the computers are enrolled in Microsoft Endpoint Manager and onboarded to Microsoft Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Microsoft Defender ATP). You need to configure Microsoft Defender ATP on the computers. What should you create from the Endpoint Management admin center? A.a Microsoft Defender ATP baseline profile B.a device configuration profile C.an update policy for iOS D.a mobile device management (MDM) security baseline profile Answer: B QUESTION 282 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You need to be notified when emails with attachments that contain sensitive personal data are sent to external recipients. Which two policies can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.a data loss prevention (DLP) policy B.a sensitivity label policy C.a Microsoft Cloud App Security file policy D.a communication compliance policy E.a retention label policy Answer: AD QUESTION 283 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You create an auto-labeling policy to encrypt emails that contain a sensitive info type. You specify the locations where the policy will be applied. You need to deploy the policy. What should you do first? A.Review the sensitive information in Activity explorer B.Turn on the policy C.Run the policy in simulation mode D.Configure Azure Information Protection analytics Answer: C QUESTION 284 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant and a LinkedIn company page. You plan to archive data from the LinkedIn page to Microsoft 365 by using the LinkedIn connector. Where can you store data from the LinkedIn connector? A.a Microsoft OneDrive for Business folder B.a Microsoft SharePoint Online document library C.a Microsoft 365 mailbox D.Azure Files Answer: C QUESTION 285 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains two users named User1 and User2 and the groups shown in the following table. You have a Microsoft Intune enrollment policy that has the following settings: MDM user scope: Some - Groups: Group1 MAM user scope: Some - Groups: Group2 You purchase the devices shown in the following table. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 286 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune. The devices are configured as shown in the following table. You plan to perform the following device management tasks in Microsoft Endpoint Manager: - Deploy a VPN connection by using a VPN device configuration profile. - Configure security settings by using an Endpoint Protection device configuration profile. You need to identify which devices will support the management tasks. What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 287 Drag and Drop Question You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains 500 Android devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune. You need to use Microsoft Endpoint Manager to deploy a managed Google Play app to the devices. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Answer: QUESTION 288 Drag and Drop Question Your company has a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. Users access resources in the tenant by using both personal and company-owned Android devices. Company policies requires that the devices have a threat level of medium or lower to access Microsoft Exchange Online mailboxes. You need to recommend a solution to identify the threat level of the devices and to control access of the devices to the resources. What should you include in the solution for each device type? To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct devices. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 289 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains five devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune as shown in the following table. All the devices have an app named App1 installed. You need to prevent users from copying data from App1 and pasting the data into other apps. Which policy should you create in Microsoft Endpoint Manager, and what is the minimum number of required policies? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 290 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains 500 Windows 10 devices and a Windows 10 compliance policy. You deploy a third-party antivirus solution to the devices. You need to ensure that the devices are marked as compliant. Which three settings should you modify in the compliance policy? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 291 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Site1. Site1 contains the files shown in the following table. You create a sensitivity label named Sensitivity1 and an auto-label policy that has the following configurations: - Name: AutoLabel1 - Label to auto-apply: Sensitivity1 - Rules for SharePoint Online sites: Rule1-SPO - Choose locations where you want to apply the label: Site1 - Rule1-SPO is configured as shown in the following exhibit. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go MS-101 PDF and MS-101 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1KVZ6uvgke0CyiKN6s3PCc3F5LsZZYt7A?usp=sharing
[June-2021]Braindump2go New SK0-004 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q850-Q875)
QUESTION 850 A server technician is setting up replication for a database server. The technician is designing a server that is fully redundant and highly available. Which of the following replication strategies should be used? A.Mirroring B.Log shipping C.Disk-to-disk D.Server-to-server Answer: A QUESTION 851 A file server on the network stores sensitive data for multiple departments in the company. A systems administrator has been instructed to ensure only data stored by the accounting department is encrypted. Which of the following solutions should the systems administrator implement to encrypt this data in the MOST efficient manner? A.Disk-level encryption B.File-level encryption C.Data transfer encryption D.User-initiated encryption Answer: B QUESTION 852 A virtual desktop user is in the process of saving a file when the UPS connected to the VM host server fails and the server powers off. After replacing the failed UPS, the user reports that the file did not save recent changes. Which of the following storage issues MOST likely caused this? A.Cache battery failure B.Improper disk partition C.Insufficient space D.Storage array rebuild Answer: A QUESTION 853 A server technician is replacing hard disk drives in a server. The server currently has 136GB SAS drives configured with a RAID 0 solution and is using approximately 90GB of its maximum storage capacity. Given this scenario, management would like the technician to replace the hard drives, utilize a "mirroring" RAID configuration, and support 20% growth in space annually for the next five years. Which of the following statements BEST supports these goals? A.Procure two 250GB SAS drives and configure RAID 1. B.Procure two 250GB SATA drives and configure RAID 1. C.Procure two 500GB SAS drives and configure RAID 0. D.Procure two 500GB SATA drives and configure RAID 0. Answer: A QUESTION 854 Corporate policy requires data replication to continue even if the servers, which are being protected, crash. Which of the following replication methods fulfills this requirement? A.Storage array replication B.VM replication C.Email server database replication D.Database log shipping Answer: A QUESTION 855 An administrator is attempting to install a 64-bit OS on a VM that is hosted by a server known to have 64- bit CPUs. However, the new VM will not boot properly. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A.The server is not a Type 1 hypervisor. B.The server is not a Type 2 hypervisor. C.The server does not have AMD-V or Intel VT switched on. D.The server does not have hybrid server capability turned on. Answer: C QUESTION 856 A server technician is attempting to find a server in the datacenter and only has the server's name. The technician does not have access to log in to the server and does not know where the server is located. Which of the following items would be MOST useful to inventory to aid in future server identification? (Choose two.) A.Server make B.Server model C.Server IP address D.Server serial number E.Server asset tag Answer: DE QUESTION 857 An administrator receives an alert of a failed hardware component in a virtualization host running critical services. Which of the following should the administrator perform BEFORE replacing the failed component? A.Migrate all VMs to another host before replacing the failed component. B.Shut down all VMs on the host before replacing the failed component. C.Reboot all VMs on the host before replacing the failed component. D.Suspend all VMs on the host before replacing the failed component. Answer: B QUESTION 858 A server technician is reviewing a list of WWNs within a SAN storage array before provisioning additional LUNs to VMs. The purpose is to ensure only specific HBAs will have access to a particular LUN. Which of the following BEST describes the technician's purpose? A.Direct access bridging B.LUN zoning C.LUN masking D.NIC teaming Answer: C QUESTION 859 One of the servers in the datacenter shuts down multiple times a day. The technician has to physically go to the server and boot it up by pressing the power button. Which of the following are MOST likely causing the problem? (Choose two.) A.Overheating B.Processor failure C.I/O failure D.Power supply failure E.Incorrect boot sequence Answer: AD QUESTION 860 An administrator is planning for the deployment of a new database. The database will be 100GB at inception and is expected to grow by 50% every year. Management wants the administrator to plan for the database to be in service for a maximum of five years. Which of the following is the MINIMUM amount of disk space that will meet these requirements? A.400GB B.600GB C.800GB D.1TB Answer: C QUESTION 861 A technician is troubleshooting an issue with communication to another server at a remote location. Which of the following tools should the technician use to help troubleshoot the traffic to and from the server? A.Net use B.Nslookup C.Port scanner D.Sniffer Answer: A QUESTION 862 Users at a remote site have reported that a regularly used server is inaccessible. The systems administrator knows users at another site also use the same server, so the administrator contacts them to see if the same issue is occurring. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is this an example of? A.Establish a plan to resolve the issue. B.Establish a theory of probable cause. C.Establish the scope of the issue. D.Test the theory of probable cause. Answer: C QUESTION 863 A server administrator is selecting hardware for a new backup server. Disk capacity is the most important requirement for the server. Which of the following drive interface types BEST meets this need? A.USB B.SATA C.SCSI D.FC Answer: B QUESTION 864 An administrator is sizing the CPU requirements of a new application. The application requires 12 guest VMs to run concurrently on the host. If each guest requires 500MHz of CPU and the server has two sockets, which of the following CPUs will ensure there are sufficient host CPU resources for this application? A.1.6GHz CPU B.2.0GHz CPU C.2.5GHz CPU D.3.2GHz CPU Answer: D QUESTION 865 An administrator is adding NAS-based storage to a server. Which of the following strategies will allow users to see BEST performance with this new NAS storage? A.Connect server to NAS storage using two redundant HBAs. B.Connect server to NAS storage using two redundant SCSI controllers. C.Connect server to NAS storage using two teamed 1 Gb NICs. D.Connect server to NAS storage using two redundant fabric switches. Answer: C QUESTION 866 A server administrator is installing a 64-bit OS on a server hardware and receives the following error message: Processor architecture not supported. Which of the following architectures is causing this error? A.ARM B.x64 C.x86 D.SPARC E.Alpha Answer: C QUESTION 867 Users at a company cannot log into a server. An administrator reboots the server with liveCD and executes a df –h command. The following is returned: Which of the following should be done NEXT? A.Reformat the boot partition. B.Compress or delete log files. C.Reconfigure the server with a larger primary partition. D.Ask users to clean out their home directories from another server. Answer: B QUESTION 868 An administrator is wiring some Cat 5 cable into a serial cable. Which of the following wiring types should the administrator use? A.Rollover B.Crossover C.EIA 568A on both ends D.Straight-through Answer: A QUESTION 869 A server technician installs a new CPU and heat sink in a server and reconnects all of the cables. After powering on the server, the technician discovers the server is now overheating. The technician ensures the fans in the server are all operating properly. Which of the following power and cooling components is the next MOST likely cause of the temperature issues? A.The server is missing a fan shroud. B.The power supply voltage is incorrect. C.The thermal dissipation of the heat sink is insufficient. D.The power consumption of the CPU is too high. Answer: A QUESTION 870 A technician created a job on a backup server to back up the new email server. After a few days, the technician notices the email server logs are not cleaning up after the backups are completed. Which of the following actions can the technician take to correct this issue? A.Delete the logs before the backups. B.Acquire an application programming interface for backup software. C.Back up the server to a network location. D.Stop email services, and then perform a backup. Answer: B QUESTION 871 A server has a disk array controller with battery-backed cache. Which of the following will MOST likely happen if the server loses power? A.Information in cache will be written to disk once the server regains power, assuming the battery has a charge. B.All information in cache is lost, even if the battery has a change. C.The battery will supply power to the disk array in the event of a power failure, and cache will not be written to disk. D.Information in cache will be transferred to firmware, and no information will be lost. Answer: A QUESTION 872 A server administrator is assigning an internally routable IPv6 unique local address to servers in a datacenter. Which of the following network addresses should the administrator assign to a server? A.10.40.251.33 B.192.168.0.10 C.2901:4868:4800::8844 D.fd00:1348:4ef0:1ab9::1fd4 Answer: C QUESTION 873 The systems administrator received an alert that one of the servers went offline. The systems administrator logged on remotely to the machine using the IPMI connection and noticed the following message upon boot up: No logical volumes present. Press F1 to continue. Which of the following is the BEST step for the systems administrator to take to resolve the issue? A.Check the array controller to see if the disks are visible. B.Verify the array controller to determine if it is seen by the BIOS. C.Enter the BIOS and enable the disk. D.Resume the server reboot by pressing F1. Answer: D QUESTION 874 A system is having disk performance issues, and the administrator wants to upgrade the storage system. Which of the following would provide the fastest and MOST reliable storage? A.SSD with SAS B.SSD with SATA C.Magnetic with SAS D.Magnetic with SATA Answer: A QUESTION 875 A server administrator is gathering full datacenter inventory of all the server hardware to submit to the IT manager for next year's budget for a technology refresh project. Which of the following life-cycle management stages is this? A.Procurement B.Usage C.Disposal D.End-of-life Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go SK0-004 PDF and SK0-004 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/0B75b5xYLjSSNUnJPWUVGcEVLREk?usp=sharing
Irresistible Unisex Fashion Accessories
Gender-neutral accessories are playing a strong game these days. They are a current obsession for most people as they never go out of style. If we talk about the new generation, there are no conventional thoughts prevailing in society, and gender stereotypes have almost vanished in today’s youth. Not only the jewelry, but you can also witness unisex clothing brands and stores. Everyone is coming to the basics, and here comes the unisex fashion jewelry in action. They are super convenient too! The best jewelry items that you can buy, if you are looking for gender-neutral accessories, are listed below. 1. Earrings Gone are the days when earrings were just worn by women. Now men are defining a different style statement by wearing such classy pieces of earrings. Gender-neutral earrings are ruling the market now. Get these for yourself and wear them with pride and confidence. Your look will completely change within minutes. Try for yourself! 2. Rings Our hands help us achieve even the impossible. So why not give a treat to them when they already are the placeholders of such bold and beautiful things? Adorn your hands with some premium quality rings which are specially designed to be worn by any person on this planet. If you wish to get these for yourselves, please visit TrueGether, the best alternative to Shopify out there. 3. Bracelet The unisex bracelets are the result of immense sublime imagination. This makes them stand out from the crowd and eye-capturing. You can also get the same bracelet for your partner and you will be easily differentiated! Isn’t that so cool? The gender-neutral bracelets look so versatile and go well with most of your outfits. So, you can wear them without having second thoughts. 4. Pendants Elegance is not just a feminine trait; it can be macho too. Similar is the case of subtlety. Pendants come with dignified grace and elegance. Unisex pendants too have these qualities and enhance the person’s quality. Modern men and women are preferring these unisex pendants over the female-centric ones. This truly depicts progressive thinking in the modern age. So, get one for yourself and be a part of the change! 5. Necklaces Necklaces are of two types – ordinary necklaces and extraordinary necklaces. Ordinary ones will lose their grace over time and stop exciting the owner. But the extraordinary ones are those with forever charm and charisma. Unisex necklaces are extraordinary ones. Once you wear them, they will make you feel so much better about yourself. All these above-mentioned accessories are worth purchasing. Try them out and feel on top of the world! Being a no-fee platform, TrueGether provides the minimum prices that are possible for the products and the delivery speed will also suit your rush to learn for sure. Keep visiting the website regularly and grab the best products as per your needs. You can buy from your neighbor or a merchant from the other end of the globe. Also, you’ll get an opportunity to connect with the sellers of the products which would probably help you gain some experience.