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[June-2021]Braindump2go New DP-203 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q78-Q105)

QUESTION 78
You plan to implement an Azure Data Lake Gen2 storage account.
You need to ensure that the data lake will remain available if a data center fails in the primary Azure region.
The solution must minimize costs.
Which type of replication should you use for the storage account?

A.geo-redundant storage (GRS)
B.zone-redundant storage (ZRS)
C.locally-redundant storage (LRS)
D.geo-zone-redundant storage (GZRS)

Answer: A

QUESTION 79
You plan to ingest streaming social media data by using Azure Stream Analytics.
The data will be stored in files in Azure Data Lake Storage, and then consumed by using Azure Datiabricks and PolyBase in Azure Synapse Analytics.
You need to recommend a Stream Analytics data output format to ensure that the queries from Databricks and PolyBase against the files encounter the fewest possible errors.
The solution must ensure that the tiles can be queried quickly and that the data type information is retained.
What should you recommend?

A.Parquet
B.Avro
C.CSV
D.JSON

Answer: B

QUESTION 80
You have an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container that contains 100 TB of data.
You need to ensure that the data in the container is available for read workloads in a secondary region if an outage occurs in the primary region. The solution must minimize costs.
Which type of data redundancy should you use?

A.zone-redundant storage (ZRS)
B.read-access geo-redundant storage (RA-GRS)
C.locally-redundant storage (LRS)
D.geo-redundant storage (GRS)

Answer: C

QUESTION 81
You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL Pool1. Pool1 contains a partitioned fact table named dbo.Sales and a staging table named stg.Sales that has the matching table and partition definitions.
You need to overwrite the content of the first partition in dbo.Sales with the content of the same partition in stg.Sales. The solution must minimize load times.
What should you do?

A.Switch the first partition from dbo.Sales to stg.Sales.
B.Switch the first partition from stg.Sales to dbo. Sales.
C.Update dbo.Sales from stg.Sales.
D.Insert the data from stg.Sales into dbo.Sales.

Answer: D

QUESTION 82
You are designing a partition strategy for a fact table in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. The table has the following specifications:
- Contain sales data for 20,000 products.
- Use hash distribution on a column named ProduclID,
- Contain 2.4 billion records for the years 20l9 and 2020.
Which number of partition ranges provides optimal compression and performance of the clustered columnstore index?

A.40
B.240
C.400
D.2,400

Answer: B

QUESTION 83
You have an Azure Synapse Analytics serverless SQL pool named Pool1 and an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account named storage1. The AllowedBlobpublicAccess porperty is disabled for storage1.
You need to create an external data source that can be used by Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users to access storage1 from Pool1.
What should you create first?

A.an external resource pool
B.a remote service binding
C.database scoped credentials
D.an external library

Answer: C

QUESTION 84
You plan to implement an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container that will contain CSV files.
The size of the files will vary based on the number of events that occur per hour.
File sizes range from 4.KB to 5 GB.
You need to ensure that the files stored in the container are optimized for batch processing.
What should you do?

A.Compress the files.
B.Merge the files.
C.Convert the files to JSON
D.Convert the files to Avro.

Answer: D

QUESTION 85
You have an Azure Factory instance named DF1 that contains a pipeline named PL1.PL1 includes a tumbling window trigger.
You create five clones of PL1. You configure each clone pipeline to use a different data source. You need to ensure that the execution schedules of the clone pipeline match the execution schedule of PL1.
What should you do?

A.Add a new trigger to each cloned pipeline
B.Associate each cloned pipeline to an existing trigger.
C.Create a tumbling window trigger dependency for the trigger of PL1.
D.Modify the Concurrency setting of each pipeline.

Answer: B

QUESTION 86
You are planning a streaming data solution that will use Azure Databricks. The solution will stream sales transaction data from an online store. The solution has the following specifications:
- The output data will contain items purchased, quantity, line total sales amount, and line total tax amount.
- Line total sales amount and line total tax amount will be aggregated in Databricks.
- Sales transactions will never be updated. Instead, new rows will be added to adjust a sale.
You need to recommend an output mode for the dataset that will be processed by using Structured Streaming.
The solution must minimize duplicate data.
What should you recommend?

A.Append
B.Update
C.Complete

Answer: C

QUESTION 87
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that contains a table named Table1.
You have files that are ingested and loaded into an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container named container1.
You plan to insert data from the files into Table1 and azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container named container1.
You plan to insert data from the files into Table1 and transform the data. Each row of data in the files will produce one row in the serving layer of Table1.
You need to ensure that when the source data files are loaded to container1, the DateTime is stored as an additional column in Table1.
Solution: You use a dedicated SQL pool to create an external table that has a additional DateTime column.
Does this meet the goal?

A.Yes

Answer: A

QUESTION 88
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that contains a table named Table1.
You have files that are ingested and loaded into an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container named container1.
You plan to insert data from the files into Table1 and azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container named container1.
You plan to insert data from the files into Table1 and transform the data. Each row of data in the files will produce one row in the serving layer of Table1.
You need to ensure that when the source data files are loaded to container1, the DateTime is stored as an additional column in Table1.
Solution: In an Azure Synapse Analytics pipeline, you use a data flow that contains a Derived Column transformation.
Does this meet the goal?

A.Yes

Answer: B

QUESTION 89
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that contains a table named Table1.
You have files that are ingested and loaded into an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container named container1.
You plan to insert data from the files into Table1 and azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container named container1.
You plan to insert data from the files into Table1 and transform the data.
Each row of data in the files will produce one row in the serving layer of Table1.
You need to ensure that when the source data files are loaded to container1, the DateTime is stored as an additional column in Table1.
Solution: In an Azure Synapse Analytics pipeline, you use a Get Metadata activity that retrieves the DateTime of the files.
Does this meet the goal?

A.Yes

Answer: B

QUESTION 90
You have a C# application that process data from an Azure IoT hub and performs complex transformations.
You need to replace the application with a real-time solution. The solution must reuse as much code as possible from the existing application.

A.Azure Databricks
B.Azure Event Grid
C.Azure Stream Analytics
D.Azure Data Factory

Answer: C

QUESTION 91
You have several Azure Data Factory pipelines that contain a mix of the following types of activities.
* Wrangling data flow
* Notebook
* Copy
* jar
Which two Azure services should you use to debug the activities? Each correct answer presents part of the solution NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.Azure HDInsight
B.Azure Databricks
C.Azure Machine Learning
D.Azure Data Factory
E.Azure Synapse Analytics

Answer: CE

QUESTION 92
You use Azure Stream Analytics to receive Twitter data from Azure Event Hubs and to output the data to an Azure Blob storage account.
You need to output the count of tweets during the last five minutes every five minutes. Each tweet must only be counted once.
Which windowing function should you use?

A.a five-minute Session window
B.a five-minute Sliding window
C.a five-minute Tumbling window
D.a five-minute Hopping window that has one-minute hop

Answer: C

QUESTION 93
You have an Azure Stream Analytics query.
The query returns a result set that contains 10,000 distinct values for a column named clusterID.
You monitor the Stream Analytics job and discover high latency.
You need to reduce the latency.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.Add a pass-through query.
B.Add a temporal analytic function.
C.Scale out the query by using PARTITION BY.
D.Convert the query to a reference query.
E.Increase the number of streaming units.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 94
You are designing a solution that will copy Parquet files stored in an Azure Blob storage account to an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account.
The data will be loaded daily to the data lake and will use a folder structure of {Year}/{Month}/{Day}/.
You need to design a daily Azure Data Factory data load to minimize the data transfer between the two accounts.
Which two configurations should you include in the design? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.Delete the files in the destination before loading new data.
B.Filter by the last modified date of the source files.
C.Delete the source files after they are copied.
D.Specify a file naming pattern for the destination.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 95
A company purchases IoT devices to monitor manufacturing machinery.
The company uses an IoT appliance to communicate with the IoT devices.
The company must be able to monitor the devices in real-time.
You need to design the solution.
What should you recommend?

A.Azure Stream Analytics cloud job using Azure PowerShell
B.Azure Analysis Services using Azure Portal
C.Azure Data Factory instance using Azure Portal
D.Azure Analysis Services using Azure PowerShell

Answer: A

QUESTION 96
You are designing a statistical analysis solution that will use custom proprietary1 Python functions on near real-time data from Azure Event Hubs.
You need to recommend which Azure service to use to perform the statistical analysis. The solution must minimize latency.
What should you recommend?

A.Azure Stream Analytics
B.Azure SQL Database
C.Azure Databricks
D.Azure Synapse Analytics

Answer: A

QUESTION 97
You are designing an Azure Databricks interactive cluster. The cluster will be used infrequently and will be configured for auto-termination.
You need to ensure that the cluster configuration is retained indefinitely after the cluster is terminated. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you do?

A.Clone the cluster after it is terminated.
B.Terminate the cluster manually when processing completes.
C.Create an Azure runbook that starts the cluster every 90 days.
D.Pin the cluster.

Answer: D

QUESTION 98
You have an Azure Synapse Analytics job that uses Scala.
You need to view the status of the job.
What should you do?

A.From Azure Monitor, run a Kusto query against the AzureDiagnostics table.
B.From Azure Monitor, run a Kusto query against the SparkLogying1 Event.CL table.
C.From Synapse Studio, select the workspace. From Monitor, select Apache Sparks applications.
D.From Synapse Studio, select the workspace. From Monitor, select SQL requests.

Answer: C

QUESTION 99
You configure monitoring for a Microsoft Azure SQL Data Warehouse implementation. The implementation uses PolyBase to load data from comma-separated value (CSV) files stored in Azure Data Lake Gen 2 using an external table.
Files with an invalid schema cause errors to occur.
You need to monitor for an invalid schema error.
For which error should you monitor?

A.EXTERNAL TABLE access failed due to internal error: 'Java exception raised on call to HdfsBridge_Connect: Error
[com.microsoft.polybase.client.KerberosSecureLogin] occurred while accessing external files.'
B.EXTERNAL TABLE access failed due to internal error: 'Java exception raised on call to HdfsBridge_Connect: Error [No FileSystem for scheme: wasbs] occurred while accessing external file.'
C.Cannot execute the query "Remote Query" against OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI11": for linked server "(null)", Query aborted-the maximum reject threshold (o rows) was reached while regarding from an external source: 1 rows rejected out of total 1 rows processed.
D.EXTERNAL TABLE access failed due to internal error: 'Java exception raised on call to HdfsBridge_Connect: Error [Unable to instantiate LoginClass] occurred while accessing external files.'

Answer: C

QUESTION 100
You use Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2.
You need to ensure that workloads can use filter predicates and column projections to filter data at the time the data is read from disk.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.Reregister the Microsoft Data Lake Store resource provider.
B.Reregister the Azure Storage resource provider.
C.Create a storage policy that is scoped to a container.
D.Register the query acceleration feature.
E.Create a storage policy that is scoped to a container prefix filter.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 101
You have an enterprise data warehouse in Azure Synapse Analytics named DW1 on a server named Server1.
You need to verify whether the size of the transaction log file for each distribution of DW1 is smaller than 160 GB.
What should you do?

A.On the master database, execute a query against the sys.dm_pdw_nodes_os_performance_counters dynamic management view.
B.From Azure Monitor in the Azure portal, execute a query against the logs of DW1.
C.On DW1, execute a query against the sys.database_files dynamic management view.
D.Execute a query against the logs of DW1 by using the Get-AzOperationalInsightSearchResult PowerShell cmdlet.

Answer: A

QUESTION 102
You have a SQL pool in Azure Synapse.
A user reports that queries against the pool take longer than expected to complete.
You need to add monitoring to the underlying storage to help diagnose the issue.
Which two metrics should you monitor? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.Cache used percentage
B.DWU Limit
C.Snapshot Storage Size
D.Active queries
E.Cache hit percentage

Answer: AE

QUESTION 103
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Storage account that contains 100 GB of files. The files contain text and numerical values. 75% of the rows contain description data that has an average length of 1.1 MB.
You plan to copy the data from the storage account to an Azure SQL data warehouse.
You need to prepare the files to ensure that the data copies quickly.
Solution: You modify the files to ensure that each row is more than 1 MB.
Does this meet the goal?

A.Yes

Answer: B

QUESTION 104
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Storage account that contains 100 GB of files. The files contain text and numerical values. 75% of the rows contain description data that has an average length of 1.1 MB.
You plan to copy the data from the storage account to an Azure SQL data warehouse.
You need to prepare the files to ensure that the data copies quickly.
Solution: You modify the files to ensure that each row is less than 1 MB.
Does this meet the goal?

A.Yes

Answer: A

QUESTION 105
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Storage account that contains 100 GB of files. The files contain text and numerical values. 75% of the rows contain description data that has an average length of 1.1 MB.
You plan to copy the data from the storage account to an enterprise data warehouse in Azure Synapse Analytics.
You need to prepare the files to ensure that the data copies quickly.
Solution: You convert the files to compressed delimited text files.
Does this meet the goal?

A.Yes

Answer: A

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Đã đến lúc trải nghiệm thế hệ cộng tác video di động, an toàn, thông minh tiếp theo với Camera hội nghị Jabra PanaCast 20. Bạn đã sẵn sàng cho cuộc họp hội nghị cá nhân với Jabra Panacast 20 của mình chưa? Camera hội nghị Jabra Panacast 20 Với một phương thức giao tiếp mới, hội nghị truyền hình đã tự đổi mới và giờ đây, video kết hợp là cần thiết:  Panacast 20 là một camera được thiết kế nhỏ gọn có thể mang đi khắp mọi nơi mà không ảnh hưởng về chất lượng hình ảnh và âm thanh. Jabra Panacast 20 thiết bị hội nghị truyền hình cá nhân cao cấp này sử dụng công nghệ tiên tiến để mang lại trải nghiệm thông minh, mạnh mẽ và hoàn toàn độc đáo - Camera 4K USB với Mic tích hợp - Chất lượng video 4K Ultra HD với xử lý hình ảnh tiên tiến - Thu phóng thông minh giúp lấy nét liên tục trên loa - Trường nhìn dọc và ngang: 54 ° / 180 ° - Trường nhìn xoay chéo 90 ° - Tự động điều chỉnh ánh sáng và chức năng Picture-in-Picture - Màn trập tích hợp để đảm bảo sự riêng tư của bạn - Kích thước nhỏ gọn, dễ dàng mang theo và cắm vào - Được tối ưu hóa cho Microsoft Teams và Zoom Jabra Panacast 20 là một thiết bị hội nghị USB với độ phân giải 4K, nó được thiết kế sử dụng cho mục đích cá nhân. Trường nhìn rộng 120 ° của nó không bị thiếu bất kỳ thứ gì và tính năng thu phóng thông minh (tự động định khung hình) thu hút người nói trong suốt bài thuyết trình. Chức năng Picture-to-Picture cũng rất thiết thực và cho phép bạn kết hợp luồng video thứ hai: lý tưởng cho các bài thuyết trình của bạn. Jabra PanaCast 20 là thiết bị hội nghị truyền hình chất lượng cao sử dụng công nghệ AI tiên tiến để mang đến cộng tác video di động, an toàn và thông minh tiếp theo. Máy ảnh PanaCast 20 plug-and-play mang đến trải nghiệm hội nghị truyền hình cá nhân, được sáng tạo lại hoàn toàn cho thế giới kết hợp ngày nay. Thiết bị hội nghị Jabra PanaCast 20 ghi hình vào bất kỳ màn hình nào và sử dụng bộ vi xử lý tiên tiến, AI tích hợp mạnh mẽ và camera 13 megapixel cao cấp, mang đến hình ảnh Ultra-HD 4K trong thời gian thực, sắc nét và rõ ràng như pha lê, hầu như không có độ trễ. Tính năng của Camera hội nghị Jabra Panacast 20 - Một webcam hiện đại và thông minh     + PanaCast 20 được Jabra giới thiệu là giải pháp giao tiếp tất cả trong một dành riêng cho không gian làm việc nhỏ như văn phòng cá nhân. Được thiết kế để tái tạo và hiện đại hóa hội nghị truyền hình, webcam thông minh này sẽ cho phép bạn tham gia vào các cuộc họp ảo với chất lượng nghe nhìn ngoạn mục và sẽ đảm bảo sự thành công của các cuộc họp của bạn. - Chức năng Picture-in-Picture để tác động đến bản trình bày của bạn     + Để tiếp thêm sinh lực cho các cuộc họp của bạn, Jabra PanaCast 20 kết hợp chức năng Hình ảnh trong Hình để cho phép bạn kết hợp luồng video thứ hai trong các cuộc họp ảo của mình, một chế độ lý tưởng khi bạn đang trình bày. Chế độ này hoạt động với bất kỳ nền tảng UC nào. - Camera độ phân giải Full HD với chức năng quay cận cảnh và toàn cảnh 4K     + Jabra cung cấp giải pháp hội nghị truyền hình với các tính năng thông minh sẽ mang đến cho bạn những cuộc trao đổi nghe nhìn ngoạn mục. Webcam này được trang bị camera độ phân giải Full HD với độ phân giải 4K toàn cảnh nên chất lượng hình ảnh không gì sánh bằng: sắc nét và trong như pha lê, hầu như không có độ trễ hay độ trễ. Trường nhìn 90 ° của nó mang đến cơ hội chụp cận cảnh nhờ tính năng Thu phóng thông minh trực quan do AI điều khiển, vì vậy bạn luôn là trung tâm của sự chú ý và nó sẽ tự động theo dõi chuyển động của bạn. Làm thế nào để cài đặt thiết bị hội nghị Jabra PanaCast 20 của bạn? - Bạn không cần phải là chuyên gia CNTT để cài đặt giải pháp Plug & Play này. Chỉ cần kết nối Jabra PanaCast 20 của bạn qua USB với máy tính của bạn để bắt đầu hội nghị truyền hình ngay lập tức. Nếu bạn quyết định thêm tai nghe hoặc loa ngoài để hoàn thiện giải pháp của mình, tất cả những gì bạn cần làm là kết nối nó với máy tính của mình thông qua kết nối được chỉ định cho nó: USB hoặc Bluetooth. Tôi có thể sử dụng phụ kiện với Jabra PanaCast 20 không? - Rất dễ dàng ghép nối PanaCast 20 với Jabra Speak 750 nếu bạn đang ở văn phòng nhưng nếu bạn là người làm việc linh hoạt, bạn có thể sử dụng nó với Jabra Evolve 2 65. Cả hai thiết bị đều không dây với kết nối Bluetooth và được Microsoft Teams chứng nhận . Camera hội nghị Jabra Panacast 20 mang đến sự kết hợp tuyệt vời giữa hình ảnh chất lượng cao và cộng tác video an toàn, bất kể bạn đang tổ chức các cuộc trò chuyện của mình từ đâu luôn đảm bảo bạn có được trải nghiệm đầy đủ. Xem Thêm:  Jabra Panacast ............. Thông tin chi tiết xin liên hệ Công ty CP Liên Kết Công Nghệ Toàn Cầu - GTC Địa chỉ: Tầng 7, Số 49 trung Kính, Cầu Giấy, Hà Nội. Điện thoại: 024.777.99.777 E-mail:contact@gtctelecom.vn Website: https://gtctelecom.vn
Lasers Vs Chemical Peels - What's Best For Your Skin?
Scarring from acne? Fine lines and wrinkles? Pigmentation and sun spots? Is any of this ringing a bell? They do happen, regrettably, and when they do, we panic. We've looked everywhere, from skincare products that claim to remove age spots to lengthy Google searches, expecting to find the 'magic' treatment that can eradicate the skin's textural imperfections and beyond. Fortunately, there are alternatives. Chemical peels and laser treatments, two skin resurfacing techniques that remove damaged skin to encourage skin regeneration, are used. What is the final outcome? Smoother and more rejuvenated skin. Combating skin problems has never been easier, but if you're new to the world of skin resurfacing, it might be intimidating. What Is the Difference Between Chemical Peels and Laser Treatments? Skin resurfacing techniques such as chemical peels and laser treatments remove old skin to promote the formation of new skin. Both procedures are frequently used to treat acne scars and hyperpigmentation, fine lines and wrinkles, and sun exposure issues such as pigmentation spots. Chemical peels and laser treatments are distinguished by the procedure itself. The first, as the name implies, employs chemical treatments to remove damaged skin, whilst the second employs lasers. Chemical peels use different amounts of acid solutions to treat the skin's outer layer. There are three types of peels: superficial, medium, and deep. Superficial chemical peels (for example, VI Peel and lactic acid peels) are delicate and exfoliate the skin lightly with weak acids. Medium chemical peels (for example, glycolic acid peels and TCA peels) are more invasive and penetrate the middle and outer layers of the skin. Deep chemical peels (e.g., phenol acid peels) are the most potent, employing strong acids to penetrate as well as remove damaged skin cells. Laser resurfacing treatments use light beams to penetrate the skin, eliminating one column at a time. Although laser removal is more exact, it is often more expensive than chemical peels. There are two types of lasers: ablative and non-ablative. Ablative lasers (such as CO2 and erbium) offer the best effects by vaporizing the skin. Non-ablative lasers (for example, Fraxel) are less intrusive to the skin because they heat it rather than destroying it. Because non-ablative lasers are less strong than ablative lasers, numerous sessions may be required to achieve the optimum results. While chemical peels and laser treatments are distinct in their advantages and the concerns they address, there is some overlap in the issues they address. A strong TCA (trichloroacetic acid) chemical peel, for example, can give resurfacing comparable to that of a resurfacing laser, or both peels and lasers can be utilized to treat acne and acne scars. In terms of skin tone, the two surgeries are also dissimilar. Chemical peels assist those with darker skin tones the most because they are an excellent pigmentation treatment. People with dark skin tones are more prone to hyperpigmentation concerns such as post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation due to an overabundance of melanin in their skin (PIH). Acid solutions are used in chemical peels to encourage collagen formation, and antioxidants are used to further penetrate and treat pigmentation in darker skin. What Are the Most Common Chemical Peel Types? Vi Peel The VI Peel is a painless, mild peel that is appropriate for all skin types and tones. It is made up of trichloroacetic acid, Retin-A, salicylic acid, phenol, and vitamin C and is widely used to treat hyperpigmentation and repair UV damage. Lactic peel A lactic peel is made from milk and is ideal for dry or sensitive skin. It balances the pH of the skin and exfoliates gently by dissolving dead skin cells. Glycolic peel Glycolic acid, which is used in glycolic peels, stimulates the synthesis of new collagen and elastin by targeting the skin's outer layer. It is frequently used to treat acne, acne scars, and to tighten pores. TCA peel A TCA peel, which is more harsh than a glycolic peel, contains trichloroacetic acid. It is commonly used to lighten skin pigmentation and smooth wrinkles. Phenol peel To address severe wrinkles and discolouration, a phenol peel penetrates the skin thoroughly. When compared to gentler peels, it typically necessitates a lengthy recovery period and may be unpleasant. What Are the Most Frequently Used Laser Treatments? Fraxel Laser Treatment The Fraxel Laser Treatment uses FDA-approved fractional laser technology to revitalize skin. This laser is best effective on acne scars and tiny wrinkles that are mild to moderate in severity. CO2 Laser Treatment The CO2 Laser Treatment uses pixelated carbon dioxide lasers to treat more severe skin issues like deep wrinkles and acne scars. In general, this laser is unsuccessful for treating skin redness. Erbium Laser The Erbium laser is a less invasive and gentler laser treatment than the CO2 laser. The laser increases collagen formation by penetrating the epidermis (the outer skin layer). It's commonly used to remove wrinkles, fine lines, and age spots. Which Of These Is the Best Skin Care Treatment? It all boils down to your skin type and concerns, in a nutshell. It can be difficult to determine the best course of action, therefore it is always advisable to visit with a dermatologist to discuss your concerns and treatment choices. Not all chemical peels and laser procedures are suited for people with darker skin tones. Are you unsure about your situation? When in doubt, always consult a dermatologist. THE MOST EFFECTIVE ACNE SCAR TREATMENT A chemical peel used to treat hyperpigmentation. Textural changes, such as atrophic or indented scars, respond better to laser skin treatments. A TCA chemical peel, on the other hand, can help with acne scars. Combination methods, which include laser, peels, subcision, and/or dermal fillers, are widely used. WHAT SHOULD I EXPECT IF THIS IS MY FIRST CHEMICAL PEEL/LASER TREATMENT? With chemical peels, expect some redness and peeling following, depending on the type of peel. Not every peel results in apparent peeling. Post-laser skin side effects may include redness, peeling, swelling, and bruising, depending on the laser used. If you use topical treatments, you should discontinue them a few days before the procedure. You may be advised to stop using retinoids, hydroxy acids, benzoyl peroxide, or other harsh, drying, and potentially irritating substances depending on the peel and laser. As a preventative step, patients with a history of cold sores may be given antiviral drugs. WILL A CHEMICAL PEEL OR A LASER TREATMENT BE APPROPRIATE FOR MY SKIN? If you have any of the following conditions, you should avoid chemical peels and laser treatments: - Active infections in the treatment regions - Will be exposed to sunlight after treatment - Have a history of keloids or hypertrophic scars. - A lack of enough post-treatment recuperation time. - Have a darker skin tone (this applies to certain types of chemical peels and laser resurfacing treatments). Whether you choose a chemical peel or a laser treatment, there is a resurfacing skin option for you!
[September-2021]Braindump2go New MS-101 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q336-Q347)
QUESTION 336 You plan to use Azure Sentinel and Microsoft Cloud App Security. You need to connect Cloud App Security to Azure Sentinel. What should you do in the Cloud App Security admin center? A.From Automatic log upload, add a log collector. B.From Automatic log upload, add a data source. C.From Connected apps, add an app connector. D.From Security extension, add a SIEM agent. Answer: D QUESTION 337 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You need to evaluate the tenant based on the standard industry regulations require that the tenant comply with the ISO 27001 standard. What should you do? A.From Policy in the Azure portal, select Compliance, and then assign a pokey B.From Compliance Manager, create an assessment C.From the Microsoft J6i compliance center, create an audit retention pokey. D.From the Microsoft 365 admin center enable the Productivity Score. Answer: B QUESTION 338 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that has sensitivity label support enabled for Microsoft and SharePoint Online. You need to enable unified labeling for Microsoft 365 groups. Which cmdlet should you run? A.set-unifiedGroup B.Set-Labelpolicy C.Execute-AzureAdLebelSync D.Add-UnifiedGroupLinks Answer: B QUESTION 339 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You configure sensitivity labels. Users report that the Sensitivity button is unavailability in Microsoft Word for the web. The sensitivity button is available in Word for Microsoft 365. You need to ensure that the users can apply the sensitivity labels when they use Word for the web. What should you do? A.Copy policies from Azure information Protection to the Microsoft 365 Compliance center B.Publish the sensitivity labels. C.Create an auto-labeling policy D.Enable sensitivity labels for files in Microsoft SharePoint Online and OneDrive. Answer: B QUESTION 340 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You plan to deploy a monitoring solution that meets the following requirements: - Captures Microsoft Teams channel messages that contain threatening or violent language. - Alerts a reviewer when a threatening or violent message is identified. What should you include in the solution? A.Data Subject Requests (DSRs) B.Insider risk management policies C.Communication compliance policies D.Audit log retention policies Answer: C QUESTION 341 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. you implement sensitivity Doris for your company. You need to automatically protect email messages that contain the word Confidential m the subject line. What should you create? A.a sharing policy from the Exchange admin center B.a mall flow rule from the Exchange admin center C.a message Dace from the Microsoft 365 security center D.a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Microsoft 365 compliance center Answer: B QUESTION 342 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains two groups named Group1 and Group2. You need to prevent the members or Group1 from communicating with the members of Group2 by using Microsoft Teams. The solution must comply with regulatory requirements and must not affect other user in the tenant. What should you use? A.information barriers B.communication compliance policies C.moderated distribution groups D.administrator units in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Answer: A QUESTION 343 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains devices registered for mobile device management. The devices are configured as shown in the following table. You plan to enable VPN access for the devices. What is the minimum number of configuration policies required? A.3 B.5 C.4 D.1 Answer: D QUESTION 344 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains 500 Windows 10 devices. The devices are enrolled in Microsoft intune. You plan to use Endpoint analytics to identify hardware issues. You need to enable Window health monitoring on the devices to support Endpoint analytics What should you do? A.Configure the Endpoint analytics baseline regression threshold. B.Create a configuration profile. C.Create a Windows 10 Security Baseline profile D.Create a compliance policy. Answer: B QUESTION 345 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You plan to implement Endpoint Protection device configuration profiles. Which platform can you manage by using the profile? A.Android B.CentOS Linux C.iOS D.Window 10 Answer: C QUESTION 346 You purchase a new computer that has Windows 10, version 2004 preinstalled. You need to ensure that the computer is up-to-date. The solution must minimize the number of updates installed. What should you do on the computer? A.Install all the feature updates released since version 2004 and all the quality updates released since version 2004 only. B.install the West feature update and the latest quality update only. C.install all the feature updates released since version 2004 and the latest quality update only. D.install the latest feature update and all the quality updates released since version 2004. Answer: B QUESTION 347 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 ES tenant. You have the alerts shown in the following exhibit. Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go MS-101 PDF and MS-101 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1KVZ6uvgke0CyiKN6s3PCc3F5LsZZYt7A?usp=sharing
[September-2021]Braindump2go New 200-201 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q172-Q191)
QUESTION 172 The SOC team has confirmed a potential indicator of compromise on an endpoint. The team has narrowed the executable file's type to a new trojan family. According to the NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide, what is the next step in handling this event? A.Isolate the infected endpoint from the network. B.Perform forensics analysis on the infected endpoint. C.Collect public information on the malware behavior. D.Prioritize incident handling based on the impact. Answer: C QUESTION 173 Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications? A.sandbox B.application allow list C.application block list D.host-based firewall Answer: A QUESTION 174 An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department's servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation? A.Recovery B.Detection C.Eradication D.Analysis Answer: B QUESTION 175 Which data type is necessary to get information about source/destination ports? A.statistical data B.session data C.connectivity data D.alert data Answer: C QUESTION 176 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of attack is being executed? A.SQL injection B.cross-site scripting C.cross-site request forgery D.command injection Answer: A QUESTION 177 Which attack represents the evasion technique of resource exhaustion? A.SQL injection B.man-in-the-middle C.bluesnarfing D.denial-of-service Answer: D QUESTION 178 A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs? A.event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name B.protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port C.event name, log source, time, source IP, and username D.protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name Answer: B QUESTION 179 Which event is a vishing attack? A.obtaining disposed documents from an organization B.using a vulnerability scanner on a corporate network C.setting up a rogue access point near a public hotspot D.impersonating a tech support agent during a phone call Answer: D QUESTION 180 What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying protocol 41 ? A.additional PPTP traffic due to Windows clients B.unauthorized peer-to-peer traffic C.deployment of a GRE network on top of an existing Layer 3 network D.attempts to tunnel IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network Answer: D QUESTION 181 What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive? A.True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them. B.True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless. C.False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately. D.False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged. Answer: C QUESTION 182 An organization's security team has detected network spikes coming from the internal network. An investigation has concluded that the spike in traffic was from intensive network scanning How should the analyst collect the traffic to isolate the suspicious host? A.by most active source IP B.by most used ports C.based on the protocols used D.based on the most used applications Answer: C QUESTION 183 What is an incident response plan? A.an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of operations B.an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and continuous improvements C.an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration ot operational services D.an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations Answer: C QUESTION 184 An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two servers where the remote server is unable to establish a successful session. Initial checks show that the remote server is not receiving an SYN-ACK while establishing a session by sending the first SYN. What is causing this issue? A.incorrect TCP handshake B.incorrect UDP handshake C.incorrect OSI configuration D.incorrect snaplen configuration Answer: A QUESTION 185 A security incident occurred with the potential of impacting business services. Who performs the attack? A.malware author B.threat actor C.bug bounty hunter D.direct competitor Answer: A QUESTION 186 Refer to the exhibit. An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized? A.indirect B.circumstantial C.corroborative D.best Answer: D QUESTION 187 W[^t is vulnerability management? A.A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points. B.A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats. C.A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses. D.A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications Answer: C QUESTION 188 A user received an email attachment named "Hr405-report2609-empl094.exe" but did not run it. Which category of the cyber kill chain should be assigned to this type of event? A.installation B.reconnaissance C.weaponization D.delivery Answer: A QUESTION 189 An engineer needs to configure network systems to detect command and control communications by decrypting ingress and egress perimeter traffic and allowing network security devices to detect malicious outbound communications. Which technology should be used to accomplish the task? A.digital certificates B.static IP addresses C.signatures D.cipher suite Answer: D QUESTION 190 What is a difference between data obtained from Tap and SPAN ports? A.Tap mirrors existing traffic from specified ports, while SPAN presents more structured data for deeper analysis. B.SPAN passively splits traffic between a network device and the network without altering it, while Tap alters response times. C.SPAN improves the detection of media errors, while Tap provides direct access to traffic with lowered data visibility. D.Tap sends traffic from physical layers to the monitoring device, while SPAN provides a copy of network traffic from switch to destination Answer: A QUESTION 191 Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number? A.availability B.confidentiality C.scope D.integrity Answer: D 2021 Latest Braindump2go 200-201 PDF and 200-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1fTPALtM-eluHFw8sUjNGF7Y-ofOP3s-M?usp=sharing
What COVID-19 Impacted on Cleaning Robot in Semiconductors & Electronics Industry ?
Impact of COVID-19 on Cleaning Robot in Semiconductors & Electronics Industry ANALYSIS ON IMPACT OF COVID-19 ON THE MARKET The pandemic started with its epicenter in China in 2019 and has been continuously spreading by then to all over the world, so far 216 countries and territories have been affected with Covid-19, the U.S. being on the top with cases reaching about 4.38 million, followed by Brazil, India and then by many European countries such as Russia, Spain, Italy, and others. The COVID-19 cases reaching to the big named countries with strong dominance in the global market which has adversely affected the economy globally. The spread of the coronavirus has led to the global recession, many companies are being bound to take stringent actions of laying off their employees, small businesses are being shut, and manufacturing facilities are being put on hold. There has been a disruption in the supply chain of many industries due to restrictions in logistics and the closing of manufacturing facilities. In addition, the slowdown in the economy has lowered the spending capability of individuals and people are saving money for emergencies. However, now almost in every country, the factories are started to reopen by taking some prevention such as 20% -50% employees on the field, social distancing, extreme hygiene measures, and others to support the economy. It is supporting the economy and helping to lower the recession rate at a certain level. COVID-19 highly impacted the personal and domestic cleaning robots market due to the recession gripping the world and a decline in disposable income, the demand for personal and domestic robots declined. Also, the behavior of the individuals has certainly changed in the pandemic, people are now more concerned about their health and spending for future use due to incurred losses which lead to a decrease in the sale of cleaning robots. However, cleaning robots have a huge demand in the healthcare sector. During the time of social distancing, hospitals are demanding mobile robots integrated with UV-C light disinfection equipment to sanitize the wards and rooms to minimize any physical contact. For instance, In June 2020, According to the founder and chairman of Milagrow Robots, there has been a huge surge in demand for floor and window cleaning robots. The total sale is expected to be 300,000 to 400,000 cleaning robots in 2020 when compared to 10,000 cleaning robots in 2019. STEPS TAKEN BY MANUFACTURERS DURING COVID-19 SITUATION As the COVID-19 crisis continues to expand, makers would possibly face challenges on varied fronts. Producing firms would be searching for immediate measures to stay their workforces safe and their businesses solvent. Makers would conjointly have to be compelled to look on the far side of their economic viability. Because the COVID-19 pandemic intensifies, makers would possibly face continued downward pressure on demand, production, and revenues. They would continuously face cash-flow liquidity challenges and difficulties in managing debt obligations. In December 2020, LG Electronics announced the launch of the autonomous robot with disinfecting UV light for various B2B applications. This robot uses ultraviolet (UV-C) light to disinfect high-touch, high-traffic areas and is designed for hospitality, education, corporate, retail, restaurant, and transportation customers to reduce exposure to harmful bacteria and germs The pandemic may drive the enhancement of automation, digitalization, and artificial intelligence (AI) in almost all sectors. In a situation like social distancing automation and robotics could reduce dependence on human labor and increase productivity, preventing the chances of losses. The pandemic has boosted the growth of healthcare industries. As people need to maintain physical distancing, manufacturers can gain the advantage of this norm to address the mass public in hospitals and crowded places. Manufacturers were engaged in product development with advanced technologies, partnerships, and collaborations to gain a competitive advantage in the market. For instance, In January 2021, SAMSUNG announced the launch of new AI-powered robotic vacuum and laundry products. The new JetBot 90 AI+ features smart technologies that optimize the cleaning route and respond to its environment. The JetBot 90 AI+ is the world’s first smart robotic vacuum that helps to automate home cleaning in these Covid times IMPACT ON DEMAND The behavior of the individuals has certainly changed in the pandemic, people are now more concerned about their health. The government is also working on research and development to develop a vaccine and avoid any further pandemic as such. The government is using augmented and virtual reality for the known disasters which can help in reducing the effects of the disaster. The pandemic has boosted the digital transformation of industries, companies are focusing more on a digital platform to interact with their clients and customers. The pandemic has brought a huge demand for cleaning robots to ensure safety as COVID-19 has put cleaning and disinfection front and center in facility maintenance and at other places. Huge adoption of technology, automation, and smart buildings is gradually increasing the scope of growth for the cleaning robot market. IMPACT ON SUPPLY CHAIN The pandemic has brought a huge impact on the supply chain of the cleaning robot market. The logistics and transportation of assets deteriorated a lot. The supply chain was adversely affected as the lockdown prevailed in many regions globally, the government has limited the workers. Companies are making their operations work according to the government regulations by making limited workers work in different shifts. The supply chain is experiencing disruption in Chinese parts exports, large-scale manufacturing interruptions across Europe, and the closure of assembly plants in the U.S. The manufacturers were facing a shortage of raw material, shifting of production to other countries, liquidity crunch to delays in availability of models, and deferred launches. However, now there is an improvement in the supply chain as most of the facilities and travel restrictions have opened and working in most optimum capacity. CONCLUSION As the Covid-19 prevails the cleaning robot market has witnessed a gradual increase in the demand for cleaning robots and services. Most of the manufacturing facilities were closed bringing down the production of cleaning robots which leads to disruption in the supply chain. However, as the markets are getting digitally transformed and people are being more reliable on digital sources the market seems to be growing. Organizations operating under this market were building up new strategies to maintain all the safety measures at facilities and focusing on technological up-gradation to boost the growth of the market. Even after the pandemic automation of industries will continue to increase which acts as a major driver for the market. Growing demand from the healthcare, media & entertainment, and retail sector will act as a major boosting factor for the growth of the market in this pandemic.
Different Types of Software Development You Must Know About
Software development has been in high demand for a long time, and it shows no signs of slowing down soon. Its capacity to represent organizations and companies in a competitive job market is the basis for this. Indeed, due to job demand, wage expectations, and career reviews, it was recently named the top job in the United States. By 2026, the Bureau of Labor Statistics predicts a 30% increase in employment in the software development profession. The software solutions can change how your business operates, functions, and take the revenues to the next level. There are different types of software development in the market. And you probably must have a product or products in mind to create if you're looking to engage a software development company, such as a program, an app, or a website. Of different types of software development, before you start searching, you need to figure out what you're seeking in addition to what you're building. Software development comes in a variety of forms. Let’s have a glance at some of the many kinds present. Some of them overlie and can be seen in a single frame while the others need a unique skill-set. You can contact best software development company for software and mobile application development. 1. Web-Development The process of creating online applications is known as web development. These apps are accessed using a web browser on a variety of devices. A mobile app, on the other hand, operates on a phone or tablet and does not require an internet connection to function. Web development is a broad word that encompasses both front-end and back-end work. Certified Full-stack web developers are also available. For web development, you should know Javascript, Django, HTML, C/C++, ASP, PHP, Ruby on Rails, Python, etc. 2. Mobile Development A mobile developer, as the name suggests, creates programs that run natively on mobile devices such as smartphones, tablets, and even smartwatches. Typically, these individuals will focus on either iOS or Android development, but not both. Mobile development's adaptability allows you to play everything from Candy Crush to console-quality games in the palm of your hand. There are applications for pretty much everything, from the mundane (finding a restaurant for lunch or reading the news) to the bizarre (reminding you to drink water throughout the day or morphing). Prakash Software Solutions Pvt Ltd is leading mobile app development company in india. You can contact for your business or e-commerce based ios and android applications. All you need to know is Android, HTML5, Swift (for iOS), Objective C, Java, C# 3. Frontend Development Frontend developers are responsible for the part of the product that the user interacts with. They're mostly interested in the user interface (UI). They might design the layout, visual characteristics, and interactive parts of a website or app, for example. Their function, however, is not the same as that of a user interface (UI) or user experience (UX) designer. They also address issues and ensure that the UI works on a variety of platforms. Frontend developers must be skilled programmers who collaborate closely with backend developers to guarantee that the two parts of the product work together. Hope you liked our post on types of software development here. Stay tuned with us for more interesting topics like this.
[September-2021]Braindump2go New 312-50v11 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q946-Q976)
QUESTION 946 Geena, a cloud architect, uses a master component in the Kubernetes cluster architecture that scans newly generated pods and allocates a node to them. This component can also assign nodes based on factors such as the overall resource requirement, data locality, software/hardware/policy restrictions, and internal workload interventions. Which of the following master components is explained in the above scenario? A.Kube-controller-manager B.Kube-scheduler C.Kube-apiserver D.Etcd cluster Answer: B QUESTION 947 _________ is a type of phishing that targets high-profile executives such as CEOs, CFOs, politicians, and celebrities who have access to confidential and highly valuable information. A.Spear phishing B.Whaling C.Vishing D.Phishing Answer: B QUESTION 948 Peter, a system administrator working at a reputed IT firm, decided to work from his home and login remotely. Later, he anticipated that the remote connection could be exposed to session hijacking. To curb this possibility, he implemented a technique that creates a safe and encrypted tunnel over a public network to securely send and receive sensitive information and prevent hackers from decrypting the data flow between the endpoints. What is the technique followed by Peter to send files securely through a remote connection? A.DMZ B.SMB signing C.VPN D.Switch network Answer: C QUESTION 949 An attacker can employ many methods to perform social engineering against unsuspecting employees, including scareware. What is the best example of a scareware attack? A.A pop-up appears to a user stating, "You have won a free cruise! Click here to claim your prize!" B.A banner appears to a user stating, "Your account has been locked. Click here to reset your password and unlock your account." C.A banner appears to a user stating, "Your Amazon order has been delayed. Click here to find out your new delivery date." D.A pop-up appears to a user stating, "Your computer may have been infected with spyware. Click here to install an anti-spyware tool to resolve this issue." Answer: D QUESTION 950 Bill has been hired as a penetration tester and cyber security auditor for a major credit card company. Which information security standard is most applicable to his role? A.FISMA B.HITECH C.PCI-DSS D.Sarbanes-OxleyAct Answer: C QUESTION 951 Tony wants to integrate a 128-bit symmetric block cipher with key sizes of 128,192, or 256 bits into a software program, which involves 32 rounds of computational operations that include substitution and permutation operations on four 32-bit word blocks using 8-variable S-boxes with 4-bit entry and 4-bit exit. Which of the following algorithms includes all the above features and can be integrated by Tony into the software program? A.TEA B.CAST-128 C.RC5 D.serpent Answer: D QUESTION 952 Morris, an attacker, wanted to check whether the target AP is in a locked state. He attempted using different utilities to identify WPS-enabled APs in the target wireless network. Ultimately, he succeeded with one special command-line utility. Which of the following command-line utilities allowed Morris to discover the WPS-enabled APs? A.wash B.ntptrace C.macof D.net View Answer: A QUESTION 953 What type of virus is most likely to remain undetected by antivirus software? A.Cavity virus B.Stealth virus C.File-extension virus D.Macro virus Answer: B QUESTION 954 Ben purchased a new smartphone and received some updates on it through the OTA method. He received two messages: one with a PIN from the network operator and another asking him to enter the PIN received from the operator. As soon as he entered the PIN, the smartphone started functioning in an abnormal manner. What is the type of attack performed on Ben in the above scenario? A.Advanced SMS phishing B.Bypass SSL pinning C.Phishing D.Tap 'n ghost attack Answer: A QUESTION 955 Jack, a professional hacker, targets an organization and performs vulnerability scanning on the target web server to identify any possible weaknesses, vulnerabilities, and misconfigurations. In this process, Jack uses an automated tool that eases his work and performs vulnerability scanning to find hosts, services, and other vulnerabilities in the target server. Which of the following tools is used by Jack to perform vulnerability scanning? A.Infoga B.WebCopier Pro C.Netsparker D.NCollector Studio Answer: C QUESTION 956 Stephen, an attacker, targeted the industrial control systems of an organization. He generated a fraudulent email with a malicious attachment and sent it to employees of the target organization. An employee who manages the sales software of the operational plant opened the fraudulent email and clicked on the malicious attachment. This resulted in the malicious attachment being downloaded and malware being injected into the sales software maintained in the victim's system. Further, the malware propagated itself to other networked systems, finally damaging the industrial automation components. What is the attack technique used by Stephen to damage the industrial systems? A.Spear-phishing attack B.SMishing attack C.Reconnaissance attack D.HMI-based attack Answer: A QUESTION 957 Shiela is an information security analyst working at HiTech Security Solutions. She is performing service version discovery using Nmap to obtain information about the running services and their versions on a target system. Which of the following Nmap options must she use to perform service version discovery on the target host? A.-SN B.-SX C.-sV D.-SF Answer: C QUESTION 958 Kate dropped her phone and subsequently encountered an issue with the phone's internal speaker. Thus, she is using the phone's loudspeaker for phone calls and other activities. Bob, an attacker, takes advantage of this vulnerability and secretly exploits the hardware of Kate's phone so that he can monitor the loudspeaker's output from data sources such as voice assistants, multimedia messages, and audio files by using a malicious app to breach speech privacy. What is the type of attack Bob performed on Kate in the above scenario? A.Man-in-the-disk attack B.aLTEr attack C.SIM card attack D.ASpearphone attack Answer: B QUESTION 959 Jude, a pen tester, examined a network from a hacker's perspective to identify exploits and vulnerabilities accessible to the outside world by using devices such as firewalls, routers, and servers. In this process, he also estimated the threat of network security attacks and determined the level of security of the corporate network. What is the type of vulnerability assessment that Jude performed on the organization? A.External assessment B.Passive assessment C.A Host-based assessment D.Application assessment Answer: C QUESTION 960 Roma is a member of a security team. She was tasked with protecting the internal network of an organization from imminent threats. To accomplish this task, Roma fed threat intelligence into the security devices in a digital format to block and identify inbound and outbound malicious traffic entering the organization's network. Which type of threat intelligence is used by Roma to secure the internal network? A.Technical threat intelligence B.Operational threat intelligence C.Tactical threat intelligence D.Strategic threat intelligence Answer: B QUESTION 961 Becky has been hired by a client from Dubai to perform a penetration test against one of their remote offices. Working from her location in Columbus, Ohio, Becky runs her usual reconnaissance scans to obtain basic information about their network. When analyzing the results of her Whois search, Becky notices that the IP was allocated to a location in Le Havre, France. Which regional Internet registry should Becky go to for detailed information? A.ARIN B.APNIC C.RIPE D.LACNIC Answer: C QUESTION 962 Joel, a professional hacker, targeted a company and identified the types of websites frequently visited by its employees. Using this information, he searched for possible loopholes in these websites and injected a malicious script that can redirect users from the web page and download malware onto a victim's machine. Joel waits for the victim to access the infected web application so as to compromise the victim's machine. Which of the following techniques is used by Joel in the above scenario? A.DNS rebinding attack B.Clickjacking attack C.MarioNet attack D.Watering hole attack Answer: B QUESTION 963 Juliet, a security researcher in an organization, was tasked with checking for the authenticity of images to be used in the organization's magazines. She used these images as a search query and tracked the original source and details of the images, which included photographs, profile pictures, and memes. Which of the following footprinting techniques did Rachel use to finish her task? A.Reverse image search B.Meta search engines C.Advanced image search D.Google advanced search Answer: C QUESTION 964 A security analyst uses Zenmap to perform an ICMP timestamp ping scan to acquire information related to the current time from the target host machine. Which of the following Zenmap options must the analyst use to perform the ICMP timestamp ping scan? A.-PY B.-PU C.-PP D.-Pn Answer: C QUESTION 965 Elante company has recently hired James as a penetration tester. He was tasked with performing enumeration on an organization's network. In the process of enumeration, James discovered a service that is accessible to external sources. This service runs directly on port 21. What is the service enumerated byjames in the above scenario? A.Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) B.File Transfer Protocol (FTP) C.Network File System (NFS) D.Remote procedure call (RPC) Answer: B QUESTION 966 Given below are different steps involved in the vulnerability-management life cycle. 1) Remediation 2) Identify assets and create a baseline 3) Verification 4) Monitor 5) Vulnerability scan 6) Risk assessment Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in vulnerability management. A.2-->5-->6-->1-->3-->4 B.2-->1-->5-->6-->4-->3 C.2-->4-->5-->3-->6--> 1 D.1-->2-->3-->4-->5-->6 Answer: A QUESTION 967 Tony is a penetration tester tasked with performing a penetration test. After gaining initial access to a target system, he finds a list of hashed passwords. Which of the following tools would not be useful for cracking the hashed passwords? A.John the Ripper B.Hashcat C.netcat D.THC-Hydra Answer: A QUESTION 968 Which Nmap switch helps evade IDS or firewalls? A.-n/-R B.-0N/-0X/-0G C.-T D.-D Answer: D QUESTION 969 Harper, a software engineer, is developing an email application. To ensure the confidentiality of email messages. Harper uses a symmetric-key block cipher having a classical 12- or 16-round Feistel network with a block size of 64 bits for encryption, which includes large 8 x 32-bit S-boxes (S1, S2, S3, S4) based on bent functions, modular addition and subtraction, key-dependent rotation, and XOR operations. This cipher also uses a masking key(Km1)and a rotation key (Kr1) for performing its functions. What is the algorithm employed by Harper to secure the email messages? A.CAST-128 B.AES C.GOST block cipher D.DES Answer: C QUESTION 970 Which of the following Google advanced search operators helps an attacker in gathering information about websites that are similar to a specified target URL? A.[inurl:] B.[related:] C.[info:] D.[site:] Answer: D QUESTION 971 The security team of Debry Inc. decided to upgrade Wi-Fi security to thwart attacks such as dictionary attacks and key recovery attacks. For this purpose, the security team started implementing cutting-edge technology that uses a modern key establishment protocol called the simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE), also known as dragonfly key exchange, which replaces the PSK concept. What is the Wi-Fi encryption technology implemented by Debry Inc.? A.WEP B.WPA C.WPA2 D.WPA3 Answer: C QUESTION 972 Stella, a professional hacker, performs an attack on web services by exploiting a vulnerability that provides additional routing information in the SOAP header to support asynchronous communication. This further allows the transmission of web-service requests and response messages using different TCP connections. Which of the following attack techniques is used by Stella to compromise the web services? A.XML injection B.WS-Address spoofing C.SOAPAction spoofing D.Web services parsing attacks Answer: B QUESTION 973 James is working as an ethical hacker at Technix Solutions. The management ordered James to discover how vulnerable its network is towards footprinting attacks. James took the help of an open- source framework for performing automated reconnaissance activities. This framework helped James in gathering information using free tools and resources. What is the framework used by James to conduct footprinting and reconnaissance activities? A.WebSploit Framework B.Browser Exploitation Framework C.OSINT framework D.SpeedPhish Framework Answer: C QUESTION 974 Thomas, a cloud security professional, is performing security assessment on cloud services to identify any loopholes. He detects a vulnerability in a bare-metal cloud server that can enable hackers to implant malicious backdoors in its firmware. He also identified that an installed backdoor can persist even if the server is reallocated to new clients or businesses that use it as an laaS. What is the type of cloud attack that can be performed by exploiting the vulnerability discussed in the above scenario? A.Man-in-the-cloud (MITC) attack B.Cloud cryptojacking C.Cloudborne attack D.Metadata spoofing attack Answer: C QUESTION 975 Which among the following is the best example of the third step (delivery) in the cyber kill chain? A.An intruder sends a malicious attachment via email to a target. B.An intruder creates malware to be used as a malicious attachment to an email. C.An intruder's malware is triggered when a target opens a malicious email attachment. D.An intruder's malware is installed on a target's machine. Answer: C QUESTION 976 Dayn, an attacker, wanted to detect if any honeypots are installed in a target network. For this purpose, he used a time-based TCP fingerprinting method to validate the response to a normal computer and the response of a honeypot to a manual SYN request. Which of the following techniques is employed by Dayn to detect honeypots? A.Detecting honeypots running on VMware B.Detecting the presence of Honeyd honeypots C.A Detecting the presence of Snort_inline honeypots D.Detecting the presence of Sebek-based honeypots Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go 312-50v11 PDF and 312-50v11 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/13uhEZnrNlkAP8a1O5NNI-yHndoWuz7Cj?usp=sharing
[September-2021]Braindump2go New PCNSE PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q360-Q384)
QUESTION 360 A firewall is configured with SSL Forward Proxy decryption and has the following four enterprise certificate authorities (Cas): i. Enterprise-Trusted-CA; which is verified as Forward Trust Certificate (The CA is also installed in the trusted store of the end-user browser and system ) ii. Enterpnse-Untrusted-CA, which is verified as Forward Untrust Certificate iii. Enterprise-lntermediate-CA iv. Enterprise-Root-CA which is verified only as Trusted Root CA An end-user visits https //www example-website com/ with a server certificate Common Name (CN) www example-website com The firewall does the SSL Forward Proxy decryption for the website and the server certificate is not trusted by the firewall. The end-user's browser will show that the certificate for www example-website com was issued by which of the following? A.Enterprise-Untrusted-CA which is a self-signed CA B.Enterprise-Trusted-CA which is a self-signed CA C.Enterprise-lntermediate-CA which was. in turn, issued by Enterprise-Root-CA D.Enterprise-Root-CA which is a self-signed CA Answer: B QUESTION 361 An administrator plans to deploy 15 firewalls to act as GlobalProtect gateways around the world Panorama will manage the firewalls. The firewalls will provide access to mobile users and act as edge locations to on-premises Infrastructure. The administrator wants to scale the configuration out quickly and wants all of the firewalls to use the same template configuration. Which two solutions can the administrator use to scale this configuration? (Choose two.) A.variables B.template stacks C.collector groups D.virtual systems Answer: BC QUESTION 362 A traffic log might list an application as "not-applicable" for which two reasons? (Choose two ) A.0The firewall did not install the session B.The TCP connection terminated without identifying any application data C.The firewall dropped a TCP SYN packet D.There was not enough application data after the TCP connection was established Answer: AD QUESTION 363 An administrator is considering upgrading the Palo Alto Networks NGFW and central management Panorama version. What is considered best practice for this scenario? A.Perform the Panorama and firewall upgrades simultaneously B.Upgrade the firewall first wait at least 24 hours and then upgrade the Panorama version C.Upgrade Panorama to a version at or above the target firewall version D.Export the device state perform the update, and then import the device state Answer: A QUESTION 364 An administrator needs to implement an NGFW between their DMZ and Core network EIGRP Routing between the two environments is required. Which interface type would support this business requirement? A.Layer 3 interfaces but configuring EIGRP on the attached virtual router B.Virtual Wire interfaces to permit EIGRP routing to remain between the Core and DMZ C.Layer 3 or Aggregate Ethernet interfaces but configuring EIGRP on subinterfaces only D.Tunnel interfaces to terminate EIGRP routing on an IPsec tunnel (with the GlobalProtect License to support LSVPN and EIGRP protocols) Answer: D QUESTION 365 When you configure a Layer 3 interface what is one mandatory step? A.Configure Security profiles, which need to be attached to each Layer 3 interface B.Configure Interface Management profiles which need to be attached to each Layer 3 interface C.Configure virtual routers to route the traffic for each Layer 3 interface D.Configure service routes to route the traffic for each Layer 3 interface Answer: A QUESTION 366 An administrator has a PA-820 firewall with an active Threat Prevention subscription. The administrator is considering adding a WildFire subscription. How does adding the WildFire subscription improve the security posture of the organization1? A.Protection against unknown malware can be provided in near real-time B.WildFire and Threat Prevention combine to provide the utmost security posture for the firewall C.After 24 hours WildFire signatures are included in the antivirus update D.WildFire and Threat Prevention combine to minimize the attack surface Answer: D QUESTION 367 Which three statements accurately describe Decryption Mirror? (Choose three.) A.Decryption Mirror requires a tap interface on the firewall B.Decryption, storage, inspection and use of SSL traffic are regulated in certain countries C.Only management consent is required to use the Decryption Mirror feature D.You should consult with your corporate counsel before activating and using Decryption Mirror in a production environment E.Use of Decryption Mirror might enable malicious users with administrative access to the firewall to harvest sensitive information that is submitted via an encrypted channel Answer: ABC QUESTION 368 As a best practice, which URL category should you target first for SSL decryption? A.Online Storage and Backup B.High Risk C.Health and Medicine D.Financial Services Answer: A QUESTION 369 An administrator wants to enable zone protection Before doing so, what must the administrator consider? A.Activate a zone protection subscription. B.To increase bandwidth no more than one firewall interface should be connected to a zone C.Security policy rules do not prevent lateral movement of traffic between zones D.The zone protection profile will apply to all interfaces within that zone Answer: A QUESTION 370 What are two characteristic types that can be defined for a variable? (Choose two ) A.zone B.FQDN C.path group D.IP netmask Answer: BD QUESTION 371 What are three valid qualifiers for a Decryption Policy Rule match? (Choose three ) A.Destination Zone B.App-ID C.Custom URL Category D.User-ID E.Source Interface Answer: ADE QUESTION 372 Given the following configuration, which route is used for destination 10.10.0.4? A.Route 4 B.Route 3 C.Route 1 D.Route 3 Answer: A QUESTION 373 When an in-band data port is set up to provide access to required services, what is required for an interface that is assigned to service routes? A.The interface must be used for traffic to the required services B.You must enable DoS and zone protection C.You must set the interface to Layer 2 Layer 3. or virtual wire D.You must use a static IP address Answer: A QUESTION 374 What does SSL decryption require to establish a firewall as a trusted third party and to establish trust between a client and server to secure an SSL/TLS connection? A.link state B.stateful firewall connection C.certificates D.profiles Answer: C QUESTION 375 When setting up a security profile which three items can you use? (Choose three ) A.Wildfire analysis B.anti-ransom ware C.antivirus D.URL filtering E.decryption profile Answer: ACD QUESTION 376 A variable name must start with which symbol? A.$ B.& C.! D.# Answer: A QUESTION 377 An administrator needs to troubleshoot a User-ID deployment. The administrator believes that there is an issue related to LDAP authentication. The administrator wants to create a packet capture on the management plane. Which CLI command should the administrator use to obtain the packet capture for validating the configuration? A.> ftp export mgmt-pcap from mgmt.pcap to <FTP host> B.> scp export mgmt-pcap from mgmt.pcap to {usernameQhost:path> C.> scp export pcap-mgmt from pcap.mgiat to (username@host:path) D.> scp export pcap from pcap to (usernameQhost:path) Answer: C QUESTION 378 What are two common reasons to use a "No Decrypt" action to exclude traffic from SSL decryption? (Choose two.) A.the website matches a category that is not allowed for most users B.the website matches a high-risk category C.the web server requires mutual authentication D.the website matches a sensitive category Answer: AD QUESTION 379 During SSL decryption which three factors affect resource consumption1? (Choose three ) A.TLS protocol version B.transaction size C.key exchange algorithm D.applications that use non-standard ports E.certificate issuer Answer: ABC QUESTION 380 An internal system is not functioning. The firewall administrator has determined that the incorrect egress interface is being used. After looking at the configuration, the administrator believes that the firewall is not using a static route. What are two reasons why the firewall might not use a static route"? (Choose two.) A.no install on the route B.duplicate static route C.path monitoring on the static route D.disabling of the static route Answer: C QUESTION 381 Before you upgrade a Palo Alto Networks NGFW what must you do? A.Make sure that the PAN-OS support contract is valid for at least another year B.Export a device state of the firewall C.Make sure that the firewall is running a version of antivirus software and a version of WildFire that support the licensed subscriptions. D.Make sure that the firewall is running a supported version of the app + threat update Answer: B QUESTION 382 Which User-ID mapping method should be used in a high-security environment where all IP address-to-user mappings should always be explicitly known? A.PAN-OS integrated User-ID agent B.LDAP Server Profile configuration C.GlobalProtect D.Windows-based User-ID agent Answer: A QUESTION 383 Given the following snippet of a WildFire submission log. did the end-user get access to the requested information and why or why not? A.Yes. because the action is set to "allow '' B.No because WildFire categorized a file with the verdict "malicious" C.Yes because the action is set to "alert" D.No because WildFire classified the seventy as "high." Answer: B QUESTION 384 An administrator needs to gather information about the CPU utilization on both the management plane and the data plane. Where does the administrator view the desired data? A.Monitor > Utilization B.Resources Widget on the Dashboard C.Support > Resources D.Application Command and Control Center Answer: A 2021 Latest Braindump2go PCNSE PDF and PCNSE VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1VvlcN8GDfslOVKt1Cj-E7yHyUNUyXuxc?usp=sharing