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6 Laser Hair Removal Myths Busted And More
Have you ever calculated how much time you devote to hair removal? Hair removal on the legs, underarms, brows, and arms has become a daily, weekly, and monthly ritual, but it does not have to be. Hair removal is a time-consuming and thankless task because it keeps growing back. Shaving, waxing, and threading all have advantages, but what if you didn't have to choose any of these because the hair was permanently removed? This is where modern laser hair removal techniques come into play. The Diode laser is considered the "gold standard" in hair removal machines. This machine has a built-in cooling system and reduces the risk of hyperpigmentation. Laser Hair Removal vs Laser Hair Reduction Modern laser hair removal methods recognise that hair removal may not be completely permanent, and many clients will need to return for touch-up sessions from time to time. This is reflected in the fact that many clinics now refer to the procedure as hair reduction rather than hair removal. What Is Laser Hair Removal? Laser hair removal works by destroying the ability of the hair follicle to grow new hair. This means that hair removal will be reduced indefinitely. These hair follicles can regrow over time, possibly as a result of hormonal changes, so maintenance treatments may be required. Myths surrounding Laser Hair Removal Is laser hair removal only for hair? It can also treat other types of skin problems, such as vascular lesions, pigmented lesions, hemangioma, and nail fungus, to name a few. Is it painful to use laser hair removal? Not at all; the Diode laser that we use has a specialised cooling system to keep you comfortable and pain-free. Is hair removal only for women? Certainly not! We can help you get the best skin you can, whether you're male, female, trans, young, or old! Women are often the most frequent users of LHR, but they are not the only ones. Laser hair removal is effective on all hair colours. No, this is not true; this treatment can only be used on dark hair. Other treatments are available for people with light hair, so make an appointment with your dermatologist to discuss your options. I don't have to shave before treatment. This is also false. For the majority of people, shaving the area prior to treatment is the best course of action. Waxing, threading, or epilation can all cause problems. I can get treatment if I have a tan. This is also false; treatment cannot be performed if you have a tan.
5 Ways To Tell Your Vitamin D Is Low and 5 Foods That Are High in Vitamin D
Several generations ago, it was common for parents to leave their naked infants in the sun every day for good health. Our modern minds are prone to exclaiming, "That's insane! Did they apply sunscreen first?” Although it may not be how we would do it today, these parents did help their children get enough vitamin D. Vitamin D deficiency is an epidemic in the United States, affecting as many as 90 percent of some adult populations. This is a serious public health issue that must be addressed. What Is the Function of Vitamin D? Vitamin D, which is actually a hormone, differs from other vitamins. Our body can produce the majority of what we require rather than relying on food. But It is not the same fo for vitamin D. Vitamin D is also known as the “sunshine vitamin” because it is produced by our bodies when sunlight is converted into chemicals that can be used by the body. When UVB rays strike our skin, a substance in our skin converts to D3, which then travels through our bloodstream to our kidneys and liver. Vitamin D is fat-soluble and is found in the body's fatty tissues as well as the liver. It is an important nutrient for overall health, and studies show that a lack of it can lead to brittle bones, breast cancer, colon cancer, autoimmune disorders, high blood pressure, and heart disease. What Is the Best Way to Get Vitamin D? Our body makes vitamin D primarily through exposure to sunlight, and with adequate exposure, we can produce adequate amounts. With the rise in skin cancer over the last few decades, however, many people now wear sunscreen, limiting the opportunity for the skin to do its incredible sunlight conversion. It is difficult to strike a balance between the need to get enough vitamin D and the need to protect our skin from damage. And, because it varies from person to person, there is no precise amount of sunlight that doctors can point to as the ideal amount for vitamin D production. Experts recommend 10-20 minutes of sun exposure per day in general, but this varies greatly depending on the individual and their location. People with dark skin produce less of the nutrient than those with light skin. Young people outnumber older people in terms of output. And those living north of Atlanta in the United States will find it nearly impossible to get enough UVB exposure during the winter, no matter how willing they are to forego sunscreen. 5 Vitamin D Deficiency Symptoms Blood tests ordered by your doctor are the only way to diagnose low vitamin D levels, but here are some warning signs to look out for and discuss with your doctor: 1. Infections and illnesses are common. Vitamin D receptors are found throughout our body, including on immune cells. One of vitamin D's primary functions is to assist our bodies in fighting infections. If you are prone to colds, flu, and respiratory infections, you may be deficient in this essential nutrient. 2. Pain in the muscles and bones. Vitamin D is well known for its role in osteoporosis prevention because it aids calcium absorption. However, it also appears to have anti-inflammatory properties. If you suffer from chronic bone, back, or muscle pain, you may need to increase your D levels. 3. Fatigue on a regular basis. Adults can easily dismiss their constant tiredness as a result of getting older and busier. Even when patients look for the source of their chronic fatigue, vitamin D deficiency is frequently overlooked. However, studies show that extremely low levels of this nutrient cause chronic fatigue and tiredness. 4. Hair thinning. This is a symptom that many people immediately associate with stress. While stress can be a cause of hair loss, vitamin D deficiency should also be considered. Low levels have been linked to the autoimmune disorder alopecia areata, which causes severe hair loss all over the body. 5. Depression. There are vitamin D receptors in the part of the brain that influences the development of depression, so a lack of the nutrient may result in the disorder. Low levels of D have been linked to depression in studies conducted in Norway and Sweden. 5 Vitamin D Rich Foods Because most of us are unable or unwilling to spend enough unprotected time in the sun to produce vitamin D, we must rely on food sources. Here are five foods that will help you increase your levels: Fatty Fish Because vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin, it must be combined with fat to be utilised. Vitamin D is abundant in fish such as salmon, tuna, herring, and sardines. These fish are also high in protein and healthy fats. Lamb and Beef Liver Although many people do not consider organ meat to be a favourite food, it is extremely nutrient-dense and a great source of vitamin D. Beef liver, in addition to being high in D, is also high in iron, making it a nutritional powerhouse. Egg Yolk Eggs are well-known for being high in protein, but their yolks also contain a significant amount of vitamin D. Unfortunately, due to cholesterol concerns, egg yolks have spent a lot of undeserved time on the Western world's naughty list of foods. Fortunately, that era has passed, and we now recognise the incredible health and nutritional benefits of eggs. Fortified Foods Vitamin D is added to many foods, including cereals, oatmeal, milk, and orange juice. Although these items are not as effective as other food sources at delivering nutrients, they are useful in addressing deficiencies in the population, particularly among children. Shellfish Shrimp and oysters are both low-calorie vitamin D sources, making them ideal for a healthy diet. Oysters have the added benefit of being high in B12.
[2021-July-Version]New Braindump2go 350-201 PDF and 350-201 VCE Dumps(Q70-Q92)
QUESTION 70 The incident response team receives information about the abnormal behavior of a host. A malicious file is found being executed from an external USB flash drive. The team collects and documents all the necessary evidence from the computing resource. What is the next step? A.Conduct a risk assessment of systems and applications B.Isolate the infected host from the rest of the subnet C.Install malware prevention software on the host D.Analyze network traffic on the host's subnet Answer: B QUESTION 71 An organization had several cyberattacks over the last 6 months and has tasked an engineer with looking for patterns or trends that will help the organization anticipate future attacks and mitigate them. Which data analytic technique should the engineer use to accomplish this task? A.diagnostic B.qualitative C.predictive D.statistical Answer: C QUESTION 72 A malware outbreak is detected by the SIEM and is confirmed as a true positive. The incident response team follows the playbook to mitigate the threat. What is the first action for the incident response team? A.Assess the network for unexpected behavior B.Isolate critical hosts from the network C.Patch detected vulnerabilities from critical hosts D.Perform analysis based on the established risk factors Answer: B QUESTION 73 Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report? A.Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified B.Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified C.Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified D.Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected Answer: B QUESTION 74 An organization is using a PKI management server and a SOAR platform to manage the certificate lifecycle. The SOAR platform queries a certificate management tool to check all endpoints for SSL certificates that have either expired or are nearing expiration. Engineers are struggling to manage problematic certificates outside of PKI management since deploying certificates and tracking them requires searching server owners manually. Which action will improve workflow automation? A.Implement a new workflow within SOAR to create tickets in the incident response system, assign problematic certificate update requests to server owners, and register change requests. B.Integrate a PKI solution within SOAR to create certificates within the SOAR engines to track, update, and monitor problematic certificates. C.Implement a new workflow for SOAR to fetch a report of assets that are outside of the PKI zone, sort assets by certification management leads and automate alerts that updates are needed. D.Integrate a SOAR solution with Active Directory to pull server owner details from the AD and send an automated email for problematic certificates requesting updates. Answer: C QUESTION 75 Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is being used? A.JSON B.HTML C.XML D.CSV Answer: B QUESTION 76 The incident response team was notified of detected malware. The team identified the infected hosts, removed the malware, restored the functionality and data of infected systems, and planned a company meeting to improve the incident handling capability. Which step was missed according to the NIST incident handling guide? A.Contain the malware B.Install IPS software C.Determine the escalation path D.Perform vulnerability assessment Answer: D QUESTION 77 An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC) trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a breach. Which indicator generated this IOC event? A.ExecutedMalware.ioc B.Crossrider.ioc C.ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc D.W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc Answer: D QUESTION 78 Refer to the exhibit. Which command was executed in PowerShell to generate this log? A.Get-EventLog -LogName* B.Get-EventLog -List C.Get-WinEvent -ListLog* -ComputerName localhost D.Get-WinEvent -ListLog* Answer: A QUESTION 79 Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Rapid Threat Containment using Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) and ISE detects the threat of malware-infected 802.1x authenticated endpoints and places that endpoint into a Quarantine VLAN using Adaptive Network Control policy. Which telemetry feeds were correlated with SMC to identify the malware? A.NetFlow and event data B.event data and syslog data C.SNMP and syslog data D.NetFlow and SNMP Answer: B QUESTION 80 A security architect is working in a processing center and must implement a DLP solution to detect and prevent any type of copy and paste attempts of sensitive data within unapproved applications and removable devices. Which technical architecture must be used? A.DLP for data in motion B.DLP for removable data C.DLP for data in use D.DLP for data at rest Answer: C QUESTION 81 A security analyst receives an escalation regarding an unidentified connection on the Accounting A1 server within a monitored zone. The analyst pulls the logs and discovers that a Powershell process and a WMI tool process were started on the server after the connection was established and that a PE format file was created in the system directory. What is the next step the analyst should take? A.Isolate the server and perform forensic analysis of the file to determine the type and vector of a possible attack B.Identify the server owner through the CMDB and contact the owner to determine if these were planned and identifiable activities C.Review the server backup and identify server content and data criticality to assess the intrusion risk D.Perform behavioral analysis of the processes on an isolated workstation and perform cleaning procedures if the file is malicious Answer: C QUESTION 82 A security expert is investigating a breach that resulted in a $32 million loss from customer accounts. Hackers were able to steal API keys and two-factor codes due to a vulnerability that was introduced in a new code a few weeks before the attack. Which step was missed that would have prevented this breach? A.use of the Nmap tool to identify the vulnerability when the new code was deployed B.implementation of a firewall and intrusion detection system C.implementation of an endpoint protection system D.use of SecDevOps to detect the vulnerability during development Answer: D QUESTION 83 An API developer is improving an application code to prevent DDoS attacks. The solution needs to accommodate instances of a large number of API requests coming for legitimate purposes from trustworthy services. Which solution should be implemented? A.Restrict the number of requests based on a calculation of daily averages. If the limit is exceeded, temporarily block access from the IP address and return a 402 HTTP error code. B.Implement REST API Security Essentials solution to automatically mitigate limit exhaustion. If the limit is exceeded, temporarily block access from the service and return a 409 HTTP error code. C.Increase a limit of replies in a given interval for each API. If the limit is exceeded, block access from the API key permanently and return a 450 HTTP error code. D.Apply a limit to the number of requests in a given time interval for each API. If the rate is exceeded, block access from the API key temporarily and return a 429 HTTP error code. Answer: D QUESTION 84 Refer to the exhibit. IDS is producing an increased amount of false positive events about brute force attempts on the organization's mail server. How should the Snort rule be modified to improve performance? A.Block list of internal IPs from the rule B.Change the rule content match to case sensitive C.Set the rule to track the source IP D.Tune the count and seconds threshold of the rule Answer: B QUESTION 85 Where do threat intelligence tools search for data to identify potential malicious IP addresses, domain names, and URLs? A.customer data B.internal database C.internal cloud D.Internet Answer: D QUESTION 86 An engineer wants to review the packet overviews of SNORT alerts. When printing the SNORT alerts, all the packet headers are included, and the file is too large to utilize. Which action is needed to correct this problem? A.Modify the alert rule to "output alert_syslog: output log" B.Modify the output module rule to "output alert_quick: output filename" C.Modify the alert rule to "output alert_syslog: output header" D.Modify the output module rule to "output alert_fast: output filename" Answer: A QUESTION 87 A company's web server availability was breached by a DDoS attack and was offline for 3 hours because it was not deemed a critical asset in the incident response playbook. Leadership has requested a risk assessment of the asset. An analyst conducted the risk assessment using the threat sources, events, and vulnerabilities. Which additional element is needed to calculate the risk? A.assessment scope B.event severity and likelihood C.incident response playbook D.risk model framework Answer: D QUESTION 88 An employee who often travels abroad logs in from a first-seen country during non-working hours. The SIEM tool generates an alert that the user is forwarding an increased amount of emails to an external mail domain and then logs out. The investigation concludes that the external domain belongs to a competitor. Which two behaviors triggered UEBA? (Choose two.) A.domain belongs to a competitor B.log in during non-working hours C.email forwarding to an external domain D.log in from a first-seen country E.increased number of sent mails Answer: AB QUESTION 89 How is a SIEM tool used? A.To collect security data from authentication failures and cyber attacks and forward it for analysis B.To search and compare security data against acceptance standards and generate reports for analysis C.To compare security alerts against configured scenarios and trigger system responses D.To collect and analyze security data from network devices and servers and produce alerts Answer: D QUESTION 90 Refer to the exhibit. What is the threat in this Wireshark traffic capture? A.A high rate of SYN packets being sent from multiple sources toward a single destination IP B.A flood of ACK packets coming from a single source IP to multiple destination IPs C.A high rate of SYN packets being sent from a single source IP toward multiple destination IPs D.A flood of SYN packets coming from a single source IP to a single destination IP Answer: D QUESTION 91 An engineer is moving data from NAS servers in different departments to a combined storage database so that the data can be accessed and analyzed by the organization on-demand. Which data management process is being used? A.data clustering B.data regression C.data ingestion D.data obfuscation Answer: A QUESTION 92 What is a benefit of key risk indicators? 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Insomnia- Symptoms, Causes, Treatment
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8 Most Common Questions About Getting a Butt Lift
Is a butt lift something you've been thinking about? If you answered yes, you most likely have a lot of questions about the procedure. What are the advantages? How long does it take to recover? How much time will it take? We're here to answer those questions, but one thing is certain: coming in for a consultation is the best way to get your questions answered. What exactly is a Butt Lift? A butt lift also referred to as a Brazilian Butt Lift is a cosmetic procedure that improves the shape and size of your butt. How Does It Work? A butt lift involves transferring excess fat from one area of the body such as the thighs and waist to the butt. Getting rid of excess fat from the waist and other areas helps to draw attention to the buttocks. Why Do Women Opt for a Butt lift? Women get butt lifts for a variety of reasons. Let's take a look at just a few of the many benefits: Shape and size have been improved. Look better without your clothes on. Look better in your clothes. increased self-assurance Look better in photos. How Long Does It take To Complete The Procedure? A butt lift typically takes several hours, but this is determined on a case-by-case basis because no procedure is one-size-fits-all. When Can I Expect to See Results? Some of the outcomes will be immediate. When you look in the mirror, you'll notice a significant improvement. And the appearance of your body will continue to improve as you heal. When Can I Resume My Regular Exercise Routine? It will take some time for your body to heal completely. Your cosmetic surgeon will be able to tell you when you will be able to resume your normal activities and any exercise. How Long Do the Outcomes Last? The outcomes of a butt lift are intended to be long-lasting. Having said that, maintaining a healthy lifestyle is encouraged for maximum longevity. Who is an Ideal Candidate for a Butt lift? If you're unhappy with the appearance of your behind or simply want to make a few changes, you could be a good candidate for the procedure.
[2021-July-Version]New Braindump2go AI-102 PDF and AI-102 VCE Dumps(Q70-Q92)
QUESTION 65 Case Study - Wide World Importers Overview Existing Environment A company named Wide World Importers is developing an e-commerce platform. You are working with a solutions architect to design and implement the features of the e-commerce platform. The platform will use microservices and a serverless environment built on Azure. Wide World Importers has a customer base that includes English, Spanish, and Portuguese speakers. Applications Wide World Importers has an App Service plan that contains the web apps shown in the following table. Azure Resources You have the following resources: An Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant - The tenant supports internal authentication. - All employees belong to a group named AllUsers. - Senior managers belong to a group named LeadershipTeam. An Azure Functions resource - A function app posts to Azure Event Grid when stock levels of a product change between OK, Low Stock, and Out of Stock. The function app uses the Azure Cosmos DB change feed. An Azure Cosmos DB account - The account uses the Core (SQL) API. - The account stores data for the Product Management app and the Inventory Tracking app. An Azure Storage account - The account contains blob containers for assets related to products. - The assets include images, videos, and PDFs. An Azure Cognitive Services resource named wwics A Video Indexer resource named wwivi Requirements Business Goals Wide World Importers wants to leverage AI technologies to differentiate itself from its competitors. Planned Changes Wide World Importers plans to start the following projects: A product creation project: Help employees create accessible and multilingual product entries, while expediting product entry creation. A smart e-commerce project: Implement an Azure Cognitive Search solution to display products for customers to browse. A shopping on-the-go project: Build a chatbot that can be integrated into smart speakers to support customers. Business Requirements Wide World Importers identifies the following business requirements for all the projects: Provide a multilingual customer experience that supports English, Spanish, and Portuguese. Whenever possible, scale based on transaction volumes to ensure consistent performance. Minimize costs. Governance and Security Requirements Wide World Importers identifies the following governance and security requirements: Data storage and processing must occur in datacenters located in the United States. Azure Cognitive Services must be inaccessible directly from the internet. Accessibility Requirements Wide World Importers identifies the following accessibility requirements: All images must have relevant alt text. All videos must have transcripts that are associated to the video and included in product descriptions. Product descriptions, transcripts, and all text must be available in English, Spanish, and Portuguese. Product Creation Requirements Wide World Importers identifies the following requirements for improving the Product Management app: Minimize how long it takes for employees to create products and add assets. Remove the need for manual translations. Smart E-Commerce Requirements Wide World Importers identifies the following requirements for the smart e-commerce project: Ensure that the Cognitive Search solution meets a Service Level Agreement (SLA) of 99.9% availability for searches and index writes. Provide users with the ability to search insight gained from the images, manuals, and videos associated with the products. Support autocompletion and autosuggestion based on all product name variants. Store all raw insight data that was generated, so the data can be processed later. Update the stock level field in the product index immediately upon changes. Update the product index hourly. Shopping On-the-Go Requirements Wide World Importers identifies the following requirements for the shopping on-the-go chatbot: Answer common questions. Support interactions in English, Spanish, and Portuguese. Replace an existing FAQ process so that all Q&A is managed from a central location. Provide all employees with the ability to edit Q&As. Only senior managers must be able to publish updates. Support purchases by providing information about relevant products to customers. Product displays must include images and warnings when stock levels are low or out of stock. Product JSON Sample You have the following JSON sample for a product. Hotspot Question You need to develop code to upload images for the product creation project. The solution must meet the accessibility requirements. How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 66 A customer uses Azure Cognitive Search. The customer plans to enable a server-side encryption and use customer-managed keys (CMK) stored in Azure. What are three implications of the planned change? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.The index size will increase. B.Query times will increase. C.A self-signed X.509 certificate is required. D.The index size will decrease. E.Query times will decrease. F.Azure Key Vault is required. Answer: ABE QUESTION 67 You are developing a new sales system that will process the video and text from a public-facing website. You plan to notify users that their data has been processed by the sales system. Which responsible AI principle does this help meet? A.transparency B.fairness C.inclusiveness D.reliability and safety Answer: D QUESTION 68 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You create a web app named app1 that runs on an Azure virtual machine named vm1. Vm1 is on an Azure virtual network named vnet1. You plan to create a new Azure Cognitive Search service named service1. You need to ensure that app1 can connect directly to service1 without routing traffic over the public internet. Solution: You deploy service1 and a public endpoint to a new virtual network, and you configure Azure Private Link. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 69 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You create a web app named app1 that runs on an Azure virtual machine named vm1. Vm1 is on an Azure virtual network named vnet1. You plan to create a new Azure Cognitive Search service named service1. You need to ensure that app1 can connect directly to service1 without routing traffic over the public internet. Solution: You deploy service1 and a public endpoint, and you configure an IP firewall rule. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 70 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You create a web app named app1 that runs on an Azure virtual machine named vm1. Vm1 is on an Azure virtual network named vnet1. You plan to create a new Azure Cognitive Search service named service1. You need to ensure that app1 can connect directly to service1 without routing traffic over the public internet. Solution: You deploy service1 and a public endpoint, and you configure a network security group (NSG) for vnet1. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 71 You plan to perform predictive maintenance. You collect IoT sensor data from 100 industrial machines for a year. Each machine has 50 different sensors that generate data at one-minute intervals. In total, you have 5,000 time series datasets. You need to identify unusual values in each time series to help predict machinery failures. Which Azure Cognitive Services service should you use? A.Anomaly Detector B.Cognitive Search C.Form Recognizer D.Custom Vision Answer: A QUESTION 72 You plan to provision a QnA Maker service in a new resource group named RG1. In RG1, you create an App Service plan named AP1. Which two Azure resources are automatically created in RG1 when you provision the QnA Maker service? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.Language Understanding B.Azure SQL Database C.Azure Storage D.Azure Cognitive Search E.Azure App Service Answer: DE QUESTION 73 You are building a language model by using a Language Understanding service. You create a new Language Understanding resource. You need to add more contributors. What should you use? A.a conditional access policy in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) B.the Access control (IAM) page for the authoring resources in the Azure portal C.the Access control (IAM) page for the prediction resources in the Azure portal Answer: B QUESTION 74 You are building a Language Understanding model for an e-commerce chatbot. Users can speak or type their billing address when prompted by the chatbot. You need to construct an entity to capture billing addresses. Which entity type should you use? A.machine learned B.Regex C.list D.Pattern.any Answer: B QUESTION 75 You are building an Azure Weblob that will create knowledge bases from an array of URLs. You instantiate a QnAMakerClient object that has the relevant API keys and assign the object to a variable named client. You need to develop a method to create the knowledge bases. Which two actions should you include in the method? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.Create a list of FileDTO objects that represents data from the WebJob. B.Call the client.Knowledgebase.CreateAsync method. C.Create a list of QnADTO objects that represents data from the WebJob. D.Create a CreateKbDTO object. Answer: AC QUESTION 76 You are building a natural language model. You need to enable active learning. What should you do? A.Add show-all-intents=true to the prediction endpoint query. B.Enable speech priming. C.Add log=true to the prediction endpoint query. D.Enable sentiment analysis. Answer: C QUESTION 77 You are developing a solution to generate a word cloud based on the reviews of a company's products. Which Text Analytics REST API endpoint should you use? A.keyPhrases B.sentiment C.languages D.entities/recognition/general Answer: A QUESTION 78 You build a bot by using the Microsoft Bot Framework SDK and the Azure Bot Service. You plan to deploy the bot to Azure. You register the bot by using the Bot Channels Registration service. Which two values are required to complete the deployment? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.botId B.tenantId C.appId D.objectId E.appSecret Answer: CE 2021 Latest Braindump2go AI-102 PDF and AI-102 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/18gJDmD2PG7dBo0pUceatDhmNgmk6fu0n?usp=sharing
Comparison of straight and corner sofas: which ones are better?
​Manufacturers usually offer sofas with straight and angled configurations. Many people may find their design quite understandable: straight models are stretched out in a straight line, and the second ones are placed in the corner of the room. But both varieties have many types, and it is difficult to choose the most suitable one. When thinking about whether to buy a straight or corner sofa, you need to consider its features, advantages and disadvantages. Direct models A straight sofa is stretched out in a line. Their main factor is the depth of the seat, which depends on whether there is a cot forming a sleeping place. In accordance with this, they can be equipped with a built-in folding bed (sofa bed) or without it. Models with clamshells often perform the function of a bed. When choosing such a product, you need to first determine its location, because when unfolded, it takes up quite a lot of space. This type of sofa is easy to turn into a comfortable bed, so there is no need to buy a regular bed. If it is to be used as a permanent sleeping place, it must have reliable sliding mechanisms. Furniture without a built-in clamshell is a compact solution compared to folding sofas. They are raised off the floor on their legs. The back of such a sofa is removed from its edge by almost 60 cm, which is on average equal to the length of the hip. These sofas are appropriate in the home living room and in offices. Also, straight models can be divided into two types, depending on where the sleeping area is located relative to the backrest: with a longitudinal berth; the sleeping place is perpendicular. Usually, the second option is characterized by a shorter length than the first. Sofas with a longitudinal sleeping area are made without cross seams. Interesting: How to Clean Velvet Sofa Methods? Corner services Sofas with a corner configuration in size can be compact, designed for three people, and for spacious rooms. The first type of corner sofas has a triple seat in the shape of the letter "G", and its protrusion is formed by an elongated couch. If such a small corner version is used for sleeping, then it must be equipped with a "dolphin" mechanism (all the pillows on the seat are involved in the transformation of the product into a sleeping place). Corner sofas for large spaces are full-fledged seating complexes made from parts of a modular system. You can find models for seats 3+3, 3+4 and more. Some sofas have such significant dimensions that their seats are curved twice, for example, in the shape of the letters P and S. They can have transformation functions and a sleeping place. These products are perfect for compact apartments, studio apartments, where you need to properly use the space. The corner of sofas of this type is formed using the "canape" design (standard or reduced version), as well as by means of a pedestal and attaching a chair module. Corner types can have identical sides or different lengths. U-shaped models are also available. Due to their practicality, modular corner sofas are the most popular. They are divided into two types: assembled from independent parts; with a strong connection of elements. Angular models that are rigidly connected will not be able to change frequently. If necessary, such a piece of furniture is disassembled and assembled in a different way, changing the location of the short and long parts. Sofas from independent sections allow you to change their design, type of placement and functional features more than once a day because their blocks are not connected to each other. But when choosing such a solution, you need to remember about its features: A sofa made from unrelated parts will cost more since it requires a lot of upholstery material, which determines the cost of the product.; Options with independent elements are usually chosen for large rooms, but they are not suitable for miniature rooms. In a room with a small area, it will be inconvenient to move modules, which will take up useful meters. Choosing a corner sofa Furniture design is very important, but you need to keep in mind its practical features. The fewer elements it contains in its frame, the better and more reliable it is in operation. It is desirable that the frame is made of beech, walnut or ash. Softwood products are more affordable, but not as durable and durable. The upholstery can be chosen according to the owner's taste. But wear-resistant materials will be preferred, for example, flock, natural or artificial leather, chenille, jacquard. The role of the filler together with the springs is usually played by a layer of felt, foam rubber or batting. In the case of foam rubber, the density should be at least 35 units. What's better for the kitchen? Often there are sofas in the kitchens. When choosing this piece of furniture, you need to take into account the size of the room, the style of the kitchen and personal preferences. A kitchen sofa will make the room cosier, and if it is equipped with a sleeping place, the kitchen will gain more functionality. Sliding kitchen sofas can have an angular or straight design. Straight allows you to place a maximum of three people on the sofa, and after unfolding, it moves forward. This type of furniture requires a spacious kitchen. Corner sofas are appropriate in small kitchens. They are characterized by a larger number of seats and the ability to unfold. At the same time, it increases in width, creating a comfortable sleeping place. Corner kitchen models can be made of different materials, such as leather, velour, suede, or jacquard. If it is used in the kitchen as a sleeping place, then synthetic materials are preferred: velour, flock, chenille. When choosing between a corner sofa and a straight sofa, you should take into account the layout of the room, its area and future purpose. Straight and angular options with the possibility of transformation will be the best solution for small rooms, a living room combined with a bedroom or dining room.
Can Ayurveda Treat Urinary Tract Infection?
From those stomach aching intense exercises to adamantly following a specially curated diet plan, you might be going too hard on yourself to get that desired toned look or a glowing face. Indeed, a well-rounded diet and regular exercise can help you to achieve your desired waistline, but your health is still at stake. There's one more thing that we often brush aside is "maintaining good hygiene". Poor hygiene habits, such as skipping hand washing, teeth brushing, and showering can welcome some serious health conditions which can also affect other aspects of your life. The report says that more than 600 million people in India are forced to perform open defecation due to lack of access to toilets, making people more vulnerable to get exposed to several chronic illnesses through consuming contaminated water and food sources.  Talking about chronic health conditions, then urinary tract infection is the common health problem that occurs when you have poor hygiene, use of public toilets, and having certain health problems that can affect your immune system and increase your risk of having serious health ailments.  Let's take a closure look at urinary tract infection, its symptoms, and how you can prevent the progression of disease with Ayurvedic Treatment For UTI What is a Urinary Tract Infection? Urinary tract infection is also termed as kidney infection, which is the commonest health condition that occurs when a bacteria which is naturally present inside your large intestine travels from the anus to invade the territories of the urinary bladder and interferes with the functioning of the urinary system which consists- urethra, ureters, bladder, and two kidneys. Bacteria can enter your urine passageways through the tube that carries urine from your body; from there, it can easily multiply and travel to your kidneys. Urinary tract infection can equally occur in both males and females, but women are at higher risk than men because their urethra is shorter than men, which makes it easier for bacteria to enter the urethra.  How common is urinary tract infection? Urinary tract infection has become commonplace nowadays; around 50 to 60% of women are likely to experience UTI at some point in their life. Therefore, if you're constantly having a burning sensation while peeing, then it's advised to seek medical attention before it worsens with time. How Can We Detect Infection in The Early Stages? Urinary complications are often linked with chronic kidney problems, which usually take a certain period to develop visible symptoms. If you're feeling that you're having UTI, then you might experience some visible signs, which include the following- Severe muscle cramps Nausea and vomiting Loss of appetite Swelling in your ankles and feet Having trouble catching breath Insomnia Having frequent urges to pass urine Depression and anxiety Blood in urine Complications of urinary tract infection  Urinary tract infections are often harmless and rarely lead to complications. But if left untreated, it can welcome some serious health issues, which may include- Higher risk of recurrent infections, especially in women who experience uti more than two times in a year. Irreversible kidney disease can lead to a permanent loss of kidney functioning. Higher risk of delivering low birth weight or premature newborns during pregnancy. Urethral narrowing will occur in men Sepsis, a life-threatening complication, especially if the infection makes its way up to your kidneys. How can we prevent kidney infections?  Kidney infection majorly occurs when you use an infected toilet seat, this is why it's important to wipe your genitals and anus back and forth with a clean tissue to lower the risk of urinary tract infection. Here we've listed certain steps that you can practice to reduce your risk of developing infection-  Drink six to seven glasses of water Drink cranberry juice Always use a condom during the intercourse Urinate soon after intercourse Avoid feminine products if you feel irritation in your genital area Try Ayurvedic medication  Ayurvedic Treatment For UTI can effectively cure urinary complications due to infection occurring anywhere in your urinary system. The ayurvedic treatment uses the bio-cleansing procedure of Panchakarma that uses bio-cleansing procedures to flush out toxins, infection, and bacteria out of your body, making you vulnerable to having urinary complications to the following to a permanent loss of your kidneys' functioning. Ayurvedic Treatment For UTI is a complex of several Ayurvedic medicines which are derived from the juices of several herbs, leaves, and fruits that performs internal cleansing and detoxifies your body from chemical toxins, bacteria, and infection, which can cause swelling, scarring, or inflammation inside your kidneys and interferes with their functioning.