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[2021-July-Version]New Braindump2go PL-400 PDF and PL-400 VCE Dumps(Q154-Q175)

QUESTION 154
A company plans to create an order processing app. When orders are created, the app will perform complex business logic and integrate with several external systems.
Orders that have a large number of line items may take up to six minutes to complete. Processing for each order must be completed in one operation to avoid leaving records in an incomplete state.
You need to recommend a solution for the company.
What should you recommend?

A.an asynchronous workflow that uses a custom workflow activity
B.a real-time workflow that uses a custom action
C.a webhook that connects to an Azure Function
D.an asynchronous plug-in

Answer: B
Explanation:
Real-time Workflows roll back all changes if it fails. As the Workflow is going through the process itself, if it fails, it will roll back all of the prior steps taken.
Incorrect Answers:
A: With Background Workflows, actions will not roll back if it fails. All changes are up-to-date until the failure occurs. The workflow will stop at this point due to the failure.

QUESTION 155
You are implementing custom business logic in a Power Apps portal.
You need to use Liquid templates to display dynamic content.
To which three entities can you include Liquid code? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.Content snippet
B.Web page
C.Web template
D.Page template
E.Portal settings

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
Liquid is an open-source template language integrated into portals. It can be used to add dynamic content to pages, and to create a wide variety of custom templates. Using Liquid, you can:
Add dynamic content directly to the Copy field of a webpage or the content of a content snippet.
Store source content by using web templates, entirely through configuration within Power Apps, for use throughout the Power Apps portals content management system.
Render a website header and primary navigation bar, entirely through configuration within Power Apps.
Note: page is one of the available liquid objects.

QUESTION 156
An organization uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to add a custom button to the app ribbon.
You need to ensure that the button displays only when conditions specified by business rules are met.
Which two code segments can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.gridContext.refresh();
B.formContext.ui.refreshRibbon(refreshAll);
C.formContext.data.refresh(save).then(successCallback, errorCallback);
D.formContext.ui.refreshRibbon();
E.formContext.getControl(arg).refresh();

Answer: BD
Explanation:
B: formContext.ui.refreshRibbon(refreshAll);
Causes the ribbon to re-evaluate data that controls what is displayed in it.
Indicates whether all the ribbon command bars on the current page are refreshed. If you specify false, only the page-level ribbon command bar is refreshed. If you do not specify this parameter, by default false is passed.
Remarks: This function is typicaly used when a ribbon (RibbonDiffXml) depends on a value in the form.
After your code changes a value that is used by a rule, use this method to force the ribbon to re-evaluate the data in the form so that the rule can be applied.
D: If role is there - just refresh the ribbon to see the button if (isButtonEnabled) {
formContext.ui.refreshRibbon();
}
},

QUESTION 157
A create a model-driven app. You run Solution checker. The tool displays the following error:
Solution checker fails to export solutions with model-driven app components.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you do?

A.Manually export the solution before running Solution checker
B.Assign the Environment Maker security role to the Power Apps Checker application user
C.Assign the System Administrator security role to your user ID
D.Disable the Power Apps Checker application user
E.Assign the Environment Maker security role to your user ID

Answer: B
Explanation:
To resolve this issue, grant the Environment Maker security role to the Power Apps Checker application user.
Note: Solution checker fails to export solutions with model-driven app components If a solution contains a model-driven app, Solution Checker might fail to export the solution for analysis.
This error is caused by role-based security for sharing of apps. If the Power Apps Checker application user does not have appropriate access to model-driven apps, any solutions containing them will fail to export with solution checker.

QUESTION 158
The communication department for a company plans to add a publicly accessible survey page to the company's public website.
You must add the new survey page to the company's public website and capture data from the page to a Common Data Service environment.
Explicit user credentials must not be required to write survey data to Common Data Service.
You need to implement authentication.
Which authentication mechanism should you implement?

B.X.509 certificate
C.OAuth 2.0
D.Claims-based

Answer: C
Explanation:
OAuth is the preferred means to authenticate because it provides access to both the OData RESTful web services (Web API and OData global Discovery service) as well as to the SOAP web services (Organization service and Discovery service).
OAuth is also required to support:
- Azure Active Directory configurations for conditional access, such as Two-factor Authentication (2FA)
- Use of client secrets to enable server-to-server authentication scenarios.
- Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) to connect a Single-page Application (SPA)
Incorrect Answers:
A: Using Microsoft 365 authentication does not require that your register your applications as OAuth does.
You must simply provide a User Principal Name (UPN) and password for a valid user.

QUESTION 159
You are deploying a Power Apps app that uses the custom connector for ServiceNow.
The app loads very slowly for some users. You determine that all records from ServiceNow are being retrieved for every user.
The app must load only incidents that are assigned to each user.
You need to limit the number of records that the connector returns.
What should you do?

A.Apply a Lifecycle Services asset scope
B.Apply a business process flow
C.Apply the Azure APIM parameter
D.Apply a connector policy template

Answer: D
Explanation:
You can configure policy templates for custom connectors. Policies allow you to modify the behavior of a custom connector at runtime. You can use policies to perform data conversion, route requests, set parameter values, and more. You can configure policies directly in the custom connector API properties file before import, or you can do it from the maker portal in the custom connector designer by applying policy templates.
Note: ServiceNow Action: GetRecords
Summary: List Records
Description: Gets records of a certain ServiceNow object type like 'Incidents' Syntax:ServiceNow.GetRecords (string tableType, [advanced][Optional]boolean sysparm_display_value,
[advanced][Optional]boolean sysparm_exclude_reference_link, [advanced][Optional]string sysparm_query, [advanced][Optional]integer sysparm_limit, [advanced][Optional]integer sysparm_offset)

QUESTION 160
A company is developing multiple plug-ins.
One of the plug-ins keeps failing.
You need to debug the plug-in.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.Highlight the plug-in step and select Debug in the Plug-in Registration tool
B.Copy the .pdb file into the server/bin/assembly folder
C.Select Start Profiling in the Plug-in Registration tool
D.Attach the debugger to the w3wp.exe process
E.Install the plug-in profiler

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
Step 1: Install plug-in profiler
Because the plug-in executes on a remote server, you cannot attach a debugger to the process. The plug- in profiler captures a profile of an executing plug-in and allows you to re-play the execution of the plug-in using Visual Studio on your local computer.
Step 2: Start profiling
1. In the Plug-in Registration tool, select the (Step) BasicPlugin.FollowupPlugin: Create of account step, and click Start Profiling.
2. In the Profiler Settings dialog accept the default settings and click OK to close the dialog.
Step 3: Debug your plug-in

QUESTION 161
Hotspot Question
A client is deploying Dynamics 365 Finance without any third-party add-ons.
You need to select the appropriate solutions for the client.
What should you select? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Out-of-the-box
Box: 2: Workflow

QUESTION 162
Drag and Drop Question
A company uses Microsoft 365. You are developing a model-driven app.
The app must meet the following requirements:
- Use SharePoint Online for document storage.
- Send emails by using Exchange Online.
You need to configure integrations.
What should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration options to the correct requirements. Each configuration option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Server-side syncrhonization
Configure default email processing and synchronization: set server-side synchronization to be the default configuration method for newly created users.
Box 2: Server-side integration.
If your organization is already using document management with Microsoft Dynamics CRM List Component, you must switch to server-based SharePoint integration. If your organization has not deployed document management, when a System Administrator logs in an alert message will be displayed to enable server-based SharePoint integration.

QUESTION 163
Hotspot Question
You work for a not-for-profit agency that manages business processes by using Power Platform custom entities.
Volunteer registration and onboarding are manual processes that include multiple related entities.
You need to implement a portal solution that replaces the manual processes.
Which modules should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Customer self-service portal
Customer self-service portal: A customer self-service portal enables customers to access self-service knowledge, support resources, view the progress of their cases, and provide feedback.
Incorrect Answers:
Community portal: A community portal leverages peer-to-peer interactions between customers and experts to organically grow the catalog of available knowledge from knowledge base articles, forums, and blogs as well as providing feedback through comments and ratings. Starter portal: If you select an environment that contains Microsoft Dataverse, you can create a Dataverse starter portal. The Dataverse starter portal comes with the sample data for you to quickly get started. It also has the following built-in sample pages:
Default studio template
Page with title
Page with child links
Box 2: Entity form metadata
The Advanced Form Metadata contains additional behavior modification logic to augment or override the functionality of form fields that is otherwise not possible with native basic form editing capabilities.

QUESTION 164
Hotspot Question
An organization uses Common Data Service.
The organization's IT helpdesk requires a single-page web application to monitor and manage Data Export Service. The app must access Data Export Service securely. The app must also permit helpdesk users to perform a limited set of functions.
You need to create a single-page app.
Which options should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Register the app in Azure Active Directory
Box 2: Use FetchXML queries
The failure entries can be retrieved through the Get the failure details for a given Profile request. The response returns a URI to an Azure blob that contains the failure information. Each line has the following comma-separated fields (newlines added for clarity):
Entity: <entity-name>,
RecordId: <"N/A" | guid>,
NotificationTime: <datetime>,
ChangeType: <sync-type>,
FailureReason: <description>
Note: FetchXML is a proprietary XML based query language of Microsoft Dataverse used to query data using either the Web API or the Organization service. It's based on a schema that describes the capabilities of the language. The FetchXML language supports similar query capabilities as query expressions.
Incorrect Answers:
The Data Export Service exposes a REST-based API that is divided into two groups: a set of Metadata operations for exploring Dataverse organizational structure, relationships, and connection information; and a set of Profiles operations for configuring and managing each data replication.
Box 3: Enable Change Tracking
The entities that will be added to the Export Profile must be enabled with change tracking.
Box 4: /crm/exporter/{id}/activatedata
profiles/{id}/activatedata
Activate profile for data replication only.
Note: profiles/{id}/activate
Activate a profile, which starts replication of both the associated table definitions and data.
Box 5: Use Profile operations
These failure entries can be retrieved through the Get the failure details for a given Profile request.

QUESTION 165
Hotspot Question
A company has a Common Data Service (CDS) environment.
The following conditions must apply when accounts are reassigned:
- Ownership for completed tasks that are associated with the account must not change.
- Outstanding tasks must be reassigned to the new owner of the account.
You need to configure the relationship to meet the requirements.
Which settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Referential, Restrict Delete
Restrict: Prevent the Referenced table record from being deleted when referencing tables exist.
Box 2: Cascade User Owned
Cascade User Owned: perform the action on all referencing table records owned by the same user as the referenced table record.

QUESTION 166
Drag and Drop Question
A company has Common Data Service (CDS) environments for development, test, and production.
You have a model-driven app that consists of two solutions. The solutions include settings and reference data. You plan to move the solutions, app settings, and reference data from a development environment to a production environment.
You export each solution from the development environment as a zip file.
You run the Configuration Manager to export the settings and reference data as zip files.
You need to prepare the app and its settings for deployment.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Answer:
Explanation:
Step 1: Add your files to the project
In the Solutions Explorer pane, add your solutions and files under the PkgFolder folder. For each file that you add under the PkgFolder folder, in the Properties pane, set the Copy to Output Directory value to Copy Always. This ensures that your file is available in the generated package.
Step 2: Define the solution and data files in ImportConfig.xml Define the package configuration by adding information about your package in the ImportConfig.xml file available in the PkgFolder.
Step 3: Build the package
Step: Run the Package Deployer tool
After you create a package, you can deploy it on the Dataverse instance by using either the Package Deployer tool or Windows PowerShell.

QUESTION 167
Drag and Drop Question
A company is creating a new system based on Common Data Service.
You need to select the features that meet the company's requirements.
Which options should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate options to the correct requirements. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:

QUESTION 168
Hotspot Question
A school district wants to standardize student information and student performance records. Students in the district are assigned to a specific school. Students are evaluated using class records.
When students move between schools in the middle of a school year, the student's current class history must be available to the administrators at the new school.
You need to configure Microsoft Dataverse tables to connect the class history records to their respective class records.
How should you configure the table? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Team
'the student's current class history must be available to the administrators at the new school.'
Box 2: Many-to-one
Box 3: Parental
The N:1 (many-to-one) relationship type exists in the user interface because the designer shows you a view grouped by tables. 1:N relationships actually exist between tables and refer to each table as either a Primary/Current table or Related table. The related table, sometimes called the child table, has a lookup column that allows storing a reference to a row from the primary table, sometimes called the parent table. A N:1 relationship is just a 1:N relationship viewed from the related table.

QUESTION 169
Hotspot Question
You are a Power Apps app maker with administrative rights to Microsoft 365.
You create a canvas app that will be used by employees at your company. You plan to allow users to embed the app in Microsoft Teams. During testing, the following issues are reported:
- The app runs slowly when it runs in Microsoft Teams.
- Test users cannot add the personal app within Microsoft Teams.
You need to resolve the issues.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Change settings in app to preload app
You can optionally preload your app within Teams to increase performance.
Box 2: Change the permission for the custom app in Teams As an admin, you can use app permission policies to control what apps are available to Microsoft Teams users in your organization. You can allow or block all apps or specific apps published by Microsoft, third- parties, and your organization. When you block an app, users who have the policy are unable to install it from the Teams app store.
You manage app permission policies in the Microsoft Teams admin center. You can use the global (Org- wide default) policy or create and assign custom policies. Users in your organization will automatically get the global policy unless you create and assign a custom policy. After you edit or assign a policy, it can take a few hours for changes to take effect.

QUESTION 170
Drag and Drop Question
You are developing a Power Platform solution.
You must add a custom control slider to a specific step in a business process flow.
You need to add the custom control.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:
Explanation:
Here are the steps you must follow to add custom controls to a business process flow:
Step 1: Configure custom controls on a related entity.
Step 2: Generate and exporting the business process flow form.
Step 3: Copy custom control configurations to the FormXML for the business process flow.
Step 4: Import customizations into the Microsoft Dataverse environment.
Note:
1. Configure custom controls on a related table form.
2. Generate and exporting the business process flow form.
3. Copy custom control configurations to the business process flow form from the related table form.
4. Import the customizations back into Microsoft Dataverse.

QUESTION 171
Hotspot Question
A company is creating a new system based on Dynamics 365 Sales.
The company has the following requirements for their claim process:
- Approval process must be the same for all claim applications.
- Claim applications must go through approvers at each stage.
- Fields must be shown or hidden, based on the requirements in the approval process.
You need to design the data model for the claim process using out-of-the-box components whenever possible.
Which features should you implement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Workflow
You configure the approval processes in a workflow.
Box 2: Business process flow
By integrating your approvals feature with Power Automate, you can implement features such as these:
- Automatically generate and send request-for-approval emails to approvers.
- Include active approve and reject buttons in request-for-approval emails.
- Easy customization of the approval steps, using a framework that most administrators will be able to understand and adjust for themselves.
Box 3: JavaScript
In Dynamics 365, you can hide and show fields using JavaScript. This is useful if you have business logic that determines if fields are displayed or not to the user.

QUESTION 172
Hotspot Question
You are examining code written by another developer that is not functioning correctly. There are no other JavaScript or business rules in use on the form.
This code is properly registered to the OnChange event of the telephone1 field on an account entity form. The main operation is to update the primary contact's phone number when the account phone number changes. The primary contact field is a lookup. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Yes
getFormTyp gets the form type for the record.
Form type 2 is Update.
Note: Syntax: formContext.ui.getFormType();
Return Value
Type: Number
Description: Form type. Returns one of the following values
RETURN VALUE
Value Form type
0 Undefined
1 Create
2 Update
3 Read Only
4 Disabled
6 Bulk Edit
Box 2: Yes
Xrm.WebApi.updateRecord Return Value: On success, returns a promise object containing the values specified earlier in the description of the successCallback parameter.
Note:
Syntax: Xrm.WebApi.updateRecord(entityLogicalName, id, data).then(successCallback, errorCallback); Where errorCallback: A function to call when the operation fails. An object with the following properties will be passed:
errorCode: Number. The error code.
message: String. An error message describing the issue.
Box 3: No
It will displayed even if the update fails.

QUESTION 173
Hotspot Question
You develop the following JavaScript code for a web resource that will be used in a model-driven app.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Yes
Problem patterns: Web-use-async
There are multiple ways to interact with the server or request resources. Common approaches that allow for synchronous communications include the following (These scenarios should be avoided.):
Usage of the XMLHttpRequest object passing in false for the value of the async parameter for the open function call
var requestXhr = new XMLHttpRequest();
// Explicitly setting the async parameter to false or supplying a variable with a value of false will force this as a synchronous call.
requestXhr.open('GET', '/test/test.txt', false);
Box 2: No
=== - Strict Equality Comparison is already used in the code.
Box 3: No
No debugger statement in the code, so web-remove-debug-script (avoid including debug script in non-development environments) does not apply.

QUESTION 174
Hotspot Question
You create an alternate key named AlternateKey1 on the Account entity. The definition for AlternateKey1 is shown in the following exhibit:
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: The combination of Account Number and Account Name must be unique With alternate keys you can now define a column in a Dataverse table to correspond to a unique identifier or unique combination of columns.
Box 2: Delete AlternateKey1 and re-create it with all three fields

QUESTION 175
Hotspot Question
A delivery service uses a canvas app to track and deliver packages. The app uses SQL Server as a data store. The database includes the following tables:
The app includes the following code to save all required information. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:
The ClearCollect function deletes all the records from a collection.
Syntax: ClearCollect( Collection, Item, ... )
Collection ?Required. The collection that you want to clear and then add data to. Item(s) - Required. One or more records or tables to add to the data source.
Box 1: Yes
The Patch function in Power Apps modifies or creates one or more records in a data source, or merges records outside of a data source.
Use Patch with the Defaults function to create records.
Box 2: No
The return value of Patch is the record that you modified or created. If you created a record, the return value may include properties that the data source generated automatically. However, the return value doesn't provide a value for fields of a related table.
For example, you use Set(MyAccount, Patch(Accounts, First(Account), 'Account Name': "Example name"); and then MyAccount.'Primary Contact'.'Full Name'. You can't yield a full name in this case. Instead, to access the fields of a related table, use a separate lookup such as:
LookUp(Accounts, Account = MyAccount.Account).'Primary Contact'.'Full Name
Box 3: Yes
Box 4: Yes
Merge records outside of a data source.
Specify two or more records that you want to merge. Records are processed in the order from the beginning of the argument list to the end, with later property values overriding earlier ones.
Patch returns the merged record and doesn't modify its arguments or records in any data sources.

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Scarring from acne? Fine lines and wrinkles? Pigmentation and sun spots? Is any of this ringing a bell? They do happen, regrettably, and when they do, we panic. We've looked everywhere, from skincare products that claim to remove age spots to lengthy Google searches, expecting to find the 'magic' treatment that can eradicate the skin's textural imperfections and beyond. Fortunately, there are alternatives. Chemical peels and laser treatments, two skin resurfacing techniques that remove damaged skin to encourage skin regeneration, are used. What is the final outcome? Smoother and more rejuvenated skin. Combating skin problems has never been easier, but if you're new to the world of skin resurfacing, it might be intimidating. What Is the Difference Between Chemical Peels and Laser Treatments? Skin resurfacing techniques such as chemical peels and laser treatments remove old skin to promote the formation of new skin. Both procedures are frequently used to treat acne scars and hyperpigmentation, fine lines and wrinkles, and sun exposure issues such as pigmentation spots. Chemical peels and laser treatments are distinguished by the procedure itself. The first, as the name implies, employs chemical treatments to remove damaged skin, whilst the second employs lasers. Chemical peels use different amounts of acid solutions to treat the skin's outer layer. There are three types of peels: superficial, medium, and deep. Superficial chemical peels (for example, VI Peel and lactic acid peels) are delicate and exfoliate the skin lightly with weak acids. Medium chemical peels (for example, glycolic acid peels and TCA peels) are more invasive and penetrate the middle and outer layers of the skin. Deep chemical peels (e.g., phenol acid peels) are the most potent, employing strong acids to penetrate as well as remove damaged skin cells. Laser resurfacing treatments use light beams to penetrate the skin, eliminating one column at a time. Although laser removal is more exact, it is often more expensive than chemical peels. There are two types of lasers: ablative and non-ablative. Ablative lasers (such as CO2 and erbium) offer the best effects by vaporizing the skin. Non-ablative lasers (for example, Fraxel) are less intrusive to the skin because they heat it rather than destroying it. Because non-ablative lasers are less strong than ablative lasers, numerous sessions may be required to achieve the optimum results. While chemical peels and laser treatments are distinct in their advantages and the concerns they address, there is some overlap in the issues they address. A strong TCA (trichloroacetic acid) chemical peel, for example, can give resurfacing comparable to that of a resurfacing laser, or both peels and lasers can be utilized to treat acne and acne scars. In terms of skin tone, the two surgeries are also dissimilar. Chemical peels assist those with darker skin tones the most because they are an excellent pigmentation treatment. People with dark skin tones are more prone to hyperpigmentation concerns such as post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation due to an overabundance of melanin in their skin (PIH). Acid solutions are used in chemical peels to encourage collagen formation, and antioxidants are used to further penetrate and treat pigmentation in darker skin. What Are the Most Common Chemical Peel Types? Vi Peel The VI Peel is a painless, mild peel that is appropriate for all skin types and tones. It is made up of trichloroacetic acid, Retin-A, salicylic acid, phenol, and vitamin C and is widely used to treat hyperpigmentation and repair UV damage. Lactic peel A lactic peel is made from milk and is ideal for dry or sensitive skin. It balances the pH of the skin and exfoliates gently by dissolving dead skin cells. Glycolic peel Glycolic acid, which is used in glycolic peels, stimulates the synthesis of new collagen and elastin by targeting the skin's outer layer. It is frequently used to treat acne, acne scars, and to tighten pores. TCA peel A TCA peel, which is more harsh than a glycolic peel, contains trichloroacetic acid. It is commonly used to lighten skin pigmentation and smooth wrinkles. Phenol peel To address severe wrinkles and discolouration, a phenol peel penetrates the skin thoroughly. When compared to gentler peels, it typically necessitates a lengthy recovery period and may be unpleasant. What Are the Most Frequently Used Laser Treatments? Fraxel Laser Treatment The Fraxel Laser Treatment uses FDA-approved fractional laser technology to revitalize skin. This laser is best effective on acne scars and tiny wrinkles that are mild to moderate in severity. CO2 Laser Treatment The CO2 Laser Treatment uses pixelated carbon dioxide lasers to treat more severe skin issues like deep wrinkles and acne scars. In general, this laser is unsuccessful for treating skin redness. Erbium Laser The Erbium laser is a less invasive and gentler laser treatment than the CO2 laser. The laser increases collagen formation by penetrating the epidermis (the outer skin layer). It's commonly used to remove wrinkles, fine lines, and age spots. Which Of These Is the Best Skin Care Treatment? It all boils down to your skin type and concerns, in a nutshell. It can be difficult to determine the best course of action, therefore it is always advisable to visit with a dermatologist to discuss your concerns and treatment choices. Not all chemical peels and laser procedures are suited for people with darker skin tones. Are you unsure about your situation? When in doubt, always consult a dermatologist. THE MOST EFFECTIVE ACNE SCAR TREATMENT A chemical peel used to treat hyperpigmentation. Textural changes, such as atrophic or indented scars, respond better to laser skin treatments. A TCA chemical peel, on the other hand, can help with acne scars. Combination methods, which include laser, peels, subcision, and/or dermal fillers, are widely used. WHAT SHOULD I EXPECT IF THIS IS MY FIRST CHEMICAL PEEL/LASER TREATMENT? With chemical peels, expect some redness and peeling following, depending on the type of peel. Not every peel results in apparent peeling. Post-laser skin side effects may include redness, peeling, swelling, and bruising, depending on the laser used. If you use topical treatments, you should discontinue them a few days before the procedure. You may be advised to stop using retinoids, hydroxy acids, benzoyl peroxide, or other harsh, drying, and potentially irritating substances depending on the peel and laser. As a preventative step, patients with a history of cold sores may be given antiviral drugs. WILL A CHEMICAL PEEL OR A LASER TREATMENT BE APPROPRIATE FOR MY SKIN? If you have any of the following conditions, you should avoid chemical peels and laser treatments: - Active infections in the treatment regions - Will be exposed to sunlight after treatment - Have a history of keloids or hypertrophic scars. - A lack of enough post-treatment recuperation time. - Have a darker skin tone (this applies to certain types of chemical peels and laser resurfacing treatments). Whether you choose a chemical peel or a laser treatment, there is a resurfacing skin option for you!
[September-2021]Braindump2go New PCNSE PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q360-Q384)
QUESTION 360 A firewall is configured with SSL Forward Proxy decryption and has the following four enterprise certificate authorities (Cas): i. Enterprise-Trusted-CA; which is verified as Forward Trust Certificate (The CA is also installed in the trusted store of the end-user browser and system ) ii. Enterpnse-Untrusted-CA, which is verified as Forward Untrust Certificate iii. Enterprise-lntermediate-CA iv. Enterprise-Root-CA which is verified only as Trusted Root CA An end-user visits https //www example-website com/ with a server certificate Common Name (CN) www example-website com The firewall does the SSL Forward Proxy decryption for the website and the server certificate is not trusted by the firewall. The end-user's browser will show that the certificate for www example-website com was issued by which of the following? A.Enterprise-Untrusted-CA which is a self-signed CA B.Enterprise-Trusted-CA which is a self-signed CA C.Enterprise-lntermediate-CA which was. in turn, issued by Enterprise-Root-CA D.Enterprise-Root-CA which is a self-signed CA Answer: B QUESTION 361 An administrator plans to deploy 15 firewalls to act as GlobalProtect gateways around the world Panorama will manage the firewalls. The firewalls will provide access to mobile users and act as edge locations to on-premises Infrastructure. The administrator wants to scale the configuration out quickly and wants all of the firewalls to use the same template configuration. Which two solutions can the administrator use to scale this configuration? (Choose two.) A.variables B.template stacks C.collector groups D.virtual systems Answer: BC QUESTION 362 A traffic log might list an application as "not-applicable" for which two reasons? (Choose two ) A.0The firewall did not install the session B.The TCP connection terminated without identifying any application data C.The firewall dropped a TCP SYN packet D.There was not enough application data after the TCP connection was established Answer: AD QUESTION 363 An administrator is considering upgrading the Palo Alto Networks NGFW and central management Panorama version. What is considered best practice for this scenario? A.Perform the Panorama and firewall upgrades simultaneously B.Upgrade the firewall first wait at least 24 hours and then upgrade the Panorama version C.Upgrade Panorama to a version at or above the target firewall version D.Export the device state perform the update, and then import the device state Answer: A QUESTION 364 An administrator needs to implement an NGFW between their DMZ and Core network EIGRP Routing between the two environments is required. Which interface type would support this business requirement? A.Layer 3 interfaces but configuring EIGRP on the attached virtual router B.Virtual Wire interfaces to permit EIGRP routing to remain between the Core and DMZ C.Layer 3 or Aggregate Ethernet interfaces but configuring EIGRP on subinterfaces only D.Tunnel interfaces to terminate EIGRP routing on an IPsec tunnel (with the GlobalProtect License to support LSVPN and EIGRP protocols) Answer: D QUESTION 365 When you configure a Layer 3 interface what is one mandatory step? A.Configure Security profiles, which need to be attached to each Layer 3 interface B.Configure Interface Management profiles which need to be attached to each Layer 3 interface C.Configure virtual routers to route the traffic for each Layer 3 interface D.Configure service routes to route the traffic for each Layer 3 interface Answer: A QUESTION 366 An administrator has a PA-820 firewall with an active Threat Prevention subscription. The administrator is considering adding a WildFire subscription. How does adding the WildFire subscription improve the security posture of the organization1? A.Protection against unknown malware can be provided in near real-time B.WildFire and Threat Prevention combine to provide the utmost security posture for the firewall C.After 24 hours WildFire signatures are included in the antivirus update D.WildFire and Threat Prevention combine to minimize the attack surface Answer: D QUESTION 367 Which three statements accurately describe Decryption Mirror? (Choose three.) A.Decryption Mirror requires a tap interface on the firewall B.Decryption, storage, inspection and use of SSL traffic are regulated in certain countries C.Only management consent is required to use the Decryption Mirror feature D.You should consult with your corporate counsel before activating and using Decryption Mirror in a production environment E.Use of Decryption Mirror might enable malicious users with administrative access to the firewall to harvest sensitive information that is submitted via an encrypted channel Answer: ABC QUESTION 368 As a best practice, which URL category should you target first for SSL decryption? A.Online Storage and Backup B.High Risk C.Health and Medicine D.Financial Services Answer: A QUESTION 369 An administrator wants to enable zone protection Before doing so, what must the administrator consider? A.Activate a zone protection subscription. B.To increase bandwidth no more than one firewall interface should be connected to a zone C.Security policy rules do not prevent lateral movement of traffic between zones D.The zone protection profile will apply to all interfaces within that zone Answer: A QUESTION 370 What are two characteristic types that can be defined for a variable? (Choose two ) A.zone B.FQDN C.path group D.IP netmask Answer: BD QUESTION 371 What are three valid qualifiers for a Decryption Policy Rule match? (Choose three ) A.Destination Zone B.App-ID C.Custom URL Category D.User-ID E.Source Interface Answer: ADE QUESTION 372 Given the following configuration, which route is used for destination 10.10.0.4? A.Route 4 B.Route 3 C.Route 1 D.Route 3 Answer: A QUESTION 373 When an in-band data port is set up to provide access to required services, what is required for an interface that is assigned to service routes? A.The interface must be used for traffic to the required services B.You must enable DoS and zone protection C.You must set the interface to Layer 2 Layer 3. or virtual wire D.You must use a static IP address Answer: A QUESTION 374 What does SSL decryption require to establish a firewall as a trusted third party and to establish trust between a client and server to secure an SSL/TLS connection? A.link state B.stateful firewall connection C.certificates D.profiles Answer: C QUESTION 375 When setting up a security profile which three items can you use? (Choose three ) A.Wildfire analysis B.anti-ransom ware C.antivirus D.URL filtering E.decryption profile Answer: ACD QUESTION 376 A variable name must start with which symbol? A.$ B.& C.! D.# Answer: A QUESTION 377 An administrator needs to troubleshoot a User-ID deployment. The administrator believes that there is an issue related to LDAP authentication. The administrator wants to create a packet capture on the management plane. Which CLI command should the administrator use to obtain the packet capture for validating the configuration? A.> ftp export mgmt-pcap from mgmt.pcap to <FTP host> B.> scp export mgmt-pcap from mgmt.pcap to {usernameQhost:path> C.> scp export pcap-mgmt from pcap.mgiat to (username@host:path) D.> scp export pcap from pcap to (usernameQhost:path) Answer: C QUESTION 378 What are two common reasons to use a "No Decrypt" action to exclude traffic from SSL decryption? (Choose two.) A.the website matches a category that is not allowed for most users B.the website matches a high-risk category C.the web server requires mutual authentication D.the website matches a sensitive category Answer: AD QUESTION 379 During SSL decryption which three factors affect resource consumption1? (Choose three ) A.TLS protocol version B.transaction size C.key exchange algorithm D.applications that use non-standard ports E.certificate issuer Answer: ABC QUESTION 380 An internal system is not functioning. The firewall administrator has determined that the incorrect egress interface is being used. After looking at the configuration, the administrator believes that the firewall is not using a static route. What are two reasons why the firewall might not use a static route"? (Choose two.) A.no install on the route B.duplicate static route C.path monitoring on the static route D.disabling of the static route Answer: C QUESTION 381 Before you upgrade a Palo Alto Networks NGFW what must you do? A.Make sure that the PAN-OS support contract is valid for at least another year B.Export a device state of the firewall C.Make sure that the firewall is running a version of antivirus software and a version of WildFire that support the licensed subscriptions. D.Make sure that the firewall is running a supported version of the app + threat update Answer: B QUESTION 382 Which User-ID mapping method should be used in a high-security environment where all IP address-to-user mappings should always be explicitly known? A.PAN-OS integrated User-ID agent B.LDAP Server Profile configuration C.GlobalProtect D.Windows-based User-ID agent Answer: A QUESTION 383 Given the following snippet of a WildFire submission log. did the end-user get access to the requested information and why or why not? A.Yes. because the action is set to "allow '' B.No because WildFire categorized a file with the verdict "malicious" C.Yes because the action is set to "alert" D.No because WildFire classified the seventy as "high." Answer: B QUESTION 384 An administrator needs to gather information about the CPU utilization on both the management plane and the data plane. Where does the administrator view the desired data? A.Monitor > Utilization B.Resources Widget on the Dashboard C.Support > Resources D.Application Command and Control Center Answer: A 2021 Latest Braindump2go PCNSE PDF and PCNSE VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1VvlcN8GDfslOVKt1Cj-E7yHyUNUyXuxc?usp=sharing
5 Reasons Why A Cyber Security Degree Is Worth It
Did you know a hacker attack happens every 39 seconds? And this means cyberterrorists and hackers have countless chances to exploit Organizations, individuals, and government institutions. Moreover, companies are prepared to pay a lot for cybersecurity specialists to defend their data from attacks. So, this makes getting a cybersecurity degree whether in school or online worth it. Here are more reasons you should go for it. There is high demand and short supply Cyber-attacks are more prevalent to individuals and companies in this digital era. However, the niche is not well exploited, and there is a deficit. According to experts, 82% of employers report a shortage of skilled cyber security experts. And about 71% of them know that the deficit causes damage to their organizations. Additionally, as per the cybersecurity workforce study, there is a worldwide shortage of 4.07 million cyber security experts. And to match the demand, the global workforce needs to grow by 145%. Return on Investment (ROI) When you think of the return on investment on a cyber security degree, it appears positive. The average cost is $6,826 at a public university or $28,890 at a private college outside the US. However, the current salaries for information security (InfoSec) are higher compared to other professions. For example, an InfoSec analyst earns an average of $98,350. However, the lowest earned by these experts is $56,750 and the highest $156,580. So, if you pursue the degree at an affordable university, a beginner's salary might offset your costs. Enviable Proficiency What if you enrolled for a cyber security degree online due to the demand? And you are excited about the salary. The question is, will these jobs still be there five years to come? Although a degree is no guarantee, there is a possibility. It is due to the rapid growth of this sector, and reports foretell it will continue. It predicted a 32% growth of InfoSec jobs by 2028. So, with the other sector's job growth expectations at 5%, the cyber security future looks brighter. You Gain Must Have Skills One primary reason to take a cyber security degree is the technical knowledge you acquire. In addition, most schools offer programs that cater to cyber operations. And this can enable you to hone skills used by workers daily. Some of these skills include: ● Data security – Helps you handle incidents that violate security policies. ● Security risk assessment-To be an efficient expert; you need to know how to evaluate and control risk. ● Audit and security compliance-You need to be well versed in conducting a security audit to detect defects. Variety cyber jobs In this field, there are many niches. And this makes it easy to match a job with your passion and skill set. Here are some of the job titles: ● White hat hacker - this is an ethical hacker. These pros try to beat illegal hackers at their game. ● Security architect-security architects design and build secure systems. ● Digital forensic analyst -Cyber Criminals may leave a trail. The digital forensics experts track this evidence down. ● Security software developers-Develop tools to curb potential threats like viruses, other kinds of malware. ● Information security analysts - They take care of the company's computer networks. ● Cryptographers- they convert readable data into a masked code keeping it protected, intact, and secret. So, is a cyber security degree important? Yes. And with low supply to demand of these pros makes it a promising career. So, now you can choose your perfect major and pursue it.
[September-2021]Braindump2go New MS-101 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q336-Q347)
QUESTION 336 You plan to use Azure Sentinel and Microsoft Cloud App Security. You need to connect Cloud App Security to Azure Sentinel. What should you do in the Cloud App Security admin center? A.From Automatic log upload, add a log collector. B.From Automatic log upload, add a data source. C.From Connected apps, add an app connector. D.From Security extension, add a SIEM agent. Answer: D QUESTION 337 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You need to evaluate the tenant based on the standard industry regulations require that the tenant comply with the ISO 27001 standard. What should you do? A.From Policy in the Azure portal, select Compliance, and then assign a pokey B.From Compliance Manager, create an assessment C.From the Microsoft J6i compliance center, create an audit retention pokey. D.From the Microsoft 365 admin center enable the Productivity Score. Answer: B QUESTION 338 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that has sensitivity label support enabled for Microsoft and SharePoint Online. You need to enable unified labeling for Microsoft 365 groups. Which cmdlet should you run? A.set-unifiedGroup B.Set-Labelpolicy C.Execute-AzureAdLebelSync D.Add-UnifiedGroupLinks Answer: B QUESTION 339 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You configure sensitivity labels. Users report that the Sensitivity button is unavailability in Microsoft Word for the web. The sensitivity button is available in Word for Microsoft 365. You need to ensure that the users can apply the sensitivity labels when they use Word for the web. What should you do? A.Copy policies from Azure information Protection to the Microsoft 365 Compliance center B.Publish the sensitivity labels. C.Create an auto-labeling policy D.Enable sensitivity labels for files in Microsoft SharePoint Online and OneDrive. Answer: B QUESTION 340 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You plan to deploy a monitoring solution that meets the following requirements: - Captures Microsoft Teams channel messages that contain threatening or violent language. - Alerts a reviewer when a threatening or violent message is identified. What should you include in the solution? A.Data Subject Requests (DSRs) B.Insider risk management policies C.Communication compliance policies D.Audit log retention policies Answer: C QUESTION 341 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. you implement sensitivity Doris for your company. You need to automatically protect email messages that contain the word Confidential m the subject line. What should you create? A.a sharing policy from the Exchange admin center B.a mall flow rule from the Exchange admin center C.a message Dace from the Microsoft 365 security center D.a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Microsoft 365 compliance center Answer: B QUESTION 342 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains two groups named Group1 and Group2. You need to prevent the members or Group1 from communicating with the members of Group2 by using Microsoft Teams. The solution must comply with regulatory requirements and must not affect other user in the tenant. What should you use? A.information barriers B.communication compliance policies C.moderated distribution groups D.administrator units in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Answer: A QUESTION 343 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains devices registered for mobile device management. The devices are configured as shown in the following table. You plan to enable VPN access for the devices. What is the minimum number of configuration policies required? A.3 B.5 C.4 D.1 Answer: D QUESTION 344 You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains 500 Windows 10 devices. The devices are enrolled in Microsoft intune. You plan to use Endpoint analytics to identify hardware issues. You need to enable Window health monitoring on the devices to support Endpoint analytics What should you do? A.Configure the Endpoint analytics baseline regression threshold. B.Create a configuration profile. C.Create a Windows 10 Security Baseline profile D.Create a compliance policy. Answer: B QUESTION 345 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You plan to implement Endpoint Protection device configuration profiles. Which platform can you manage by using the profile? A.Android B.CentOS Linux C.iOS D.Window 10 Answer: C QUESTION 346 You purchase a new computer that has Windows 10, version 2004 preinstalled. You need to ensure that the computer is up-to-date. The solution must minimize the number of updates installed. What should you do on the computer? A.Install all the feature updates released since version 2004 and all the quality updates released since version 2004 only. B.install the West feature update and the latest quality update only. C.install all the feature updates released since version 2004 and the latest quality update only. D.install the latest feature update and all the quality updates released since version 2004. Answer: B QUESTION 347 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 365 ES tenant. You have the alerts shown in the following exhibit. Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: 2021 Latest Braindump2go MS-101 PDF and MS-101 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1KVZ6uvgke0CyiKN6s3PCc3F5LsZZYt7A?usp=sharing
Enriching Patient Care Experience by Shifting Access to Care Priorities
COVID-19 has been a challenging phase for medical institutions, but the treatment cannot be denied. For improving the patient care experience, telehealth was one of the essential and welcoming changes embraced by healthcare. The pandemic brought a paradigm shift in rendering medical amenities through telehealth. In order to access healthcare amenities safely yet seeking the best solution, telehealth and virtual health care were scaled up for improving patient experience in the post-pandemic phase. Hence, the critically flexible, innovative, and seamless framework of healthcare was promoted. Steps Born Out of the Pandemic to Enhance Patient Care Experience During the early stages of the pandemic, people were confined to home. The innovation in healthcare and easy accessibility to services, namely, telemedicine, started delivering timely assistance to the patients. Not only did it become a tool to revolutionize healthcare, but it eventually became an opportunity for the national health systems to improve the patient experience. Some noteworthy steps that were adopted in order to enhance the experience of existing and new patients: 1 Communication as the prime focus for practical telehealth experience With the rise in the number of people using telehealth services, the authorities need to keep communication clear. In simple words, Keeping conversations lined up was one of the strategies of healthcare institutes with front-line caregivers to address their level of anxiety. Reaching out to patients in remote locations and making every medical amenity readily available were some of the factors assessed in the modern patient care system. It further enabled the doctors to contribute to improved patient care experience. 2 Care access and coordination The healthcare officials made it a point to help patients understand the process of teleconsultation and its implementation. Moreover, the patient care technology was simplified by coordination and reaching out to people who could not access care treatment delivery. 3 Emphasizing the teamwork of healthcare professionals It takes teamwork, collective effort, and a smooth hierarchy of healthcare to deliver the best treatment and other medical services. The pandemic warriors, including the team of doctors, have coordinated with patients while following medical protocols of sanitation to line-up consultations and different conversations to spread awareness about mobile hospitals, telephonic coordination with the healthcare volunteers to seek assistance in guiding the patient in getting started with the treatment. Read more on enriching patient care experience
[September-2021]Braindump2go New 312-50v11 PDF and VCE Dumps Free Share(Q946-Q976)
QUESTION 946 Geena, a cloud architect, uses a master component in the Kubernetes cluster architecture that scans newly generated pods and allocates a node to them. This component can also assign nodes based on factors such as the overall resource requirement, data locality, software/hardware/policy restrictions, and internal workload interventions. Which of the following master components is explained in the above scenario? A.Kube-controller-manager B.Kube-scheduler C.Kube-apiserver D.Etcd cluster Answer: B QUESTION 947 _________ is a type of phishing that targets high-profile executives such as CEOs, CFOs, politicians, and celebrities who have access to confidential and highly valuable information. A.Spear phishing B.Whaling C.Vishing D.Phishing Answer: B QUESTION 948 Peter, a system administrator working at a reputed IT firm, decided to work from his home and login remotely. Later, he anticipated that the remote connection could be exposed to session hijacking. To curb this possibility, he implemented a technique that creates a safe and encrypted tunnel over a public network to securely send and receive sensitive information and prevent hackers from decrypting the data flow between the endpoints. What is the technique followed by Peter to send files securely through a remote connection? A.DMZ B.SMB signing C.VPN D.Switch network Answer: C QUESTION 949 An attacker can employ many methods to perform social engineering against unsuspecting employees, including scareware. What is the best example of a scareware attack? A.A pop-up appears to a user stating, "You have won a free cruise! Click here to claim your prize!" B.A banner appears to a user stating, "Your account has been locked. Click here to reset your password and unlock your account." C.A banner appears to a user stating, "Your Amazon order has been delayed. Click here to find out your new delivery date." D.A pop-up appears to a user stating, "Your computer may have been infected with spyware. Click here to install an anti-spyware tool to resolve this issue." Answer: D QUESTION 950 Bill has been hired as a penetration tester and cyber security auditor for a major credit card company. Which information security standard is most applicable to his role? A.FISMA B.HITECH C.PCI-DSS D.Sarbanes-OxleyAct Answer: C QUESTION 951 Tony wants to integrate a 128-bit symmetric block cipher with key sizes of 128,192, or 256 bits into a software program, which involves 32 rounds of computational operations that include substitution and permutation operations on four 32-bit word blocks using 8-variable S-boxes with 4-bit entry and 4-bit exit. Which of the following algorithms includes all the above features and can be integrated by Tony into the software program? A.TEA B.CAST-128 C.RC5 D.serpent Answer: D QUESTION 952 Morris, an attacker, wanted to check whether the target AP is in a locked state. He attempted using different utilities to identify WPS-enabled APs in the target wireless network. Ultimately, he succeeded with one special command-line utility. Which of the following command-line utilities allowed Morris to discover the WPS-enabled APs? A.wash B.ntptrace C.macof D.net View Answer: A QUESTION 953 What type of virus is most likely to remain undetected by antivirus software? A.Cavity virus B.Stealth virus C.File-extension virus D.Macro virus Answer: B QUESTION 954 Ben purchased a new smartphone and received some updates on it through the OTA method. He received two messages: one with a PIN from the network operator and another asking him to enter the PIN received from the operator. As soon as he entered the PIN, the smartphone started functioning in an abnormal manner. What is the type of attack performed on Ben in the above scenario? A.Advanced SMS phishing B.Bypass SSL pinning C.Phishing D.Tap 'n ghost attack Answer: A QUESTION 955 Jack, a professional hacker, targets an organization and performs vulnerability scanning on the target web server to identify any possible weaknesses, vulnerabilities, and misconfigurations. In this process, Jack uses an automated tool that eases his work and performs vulnerability scanning to find hosts, services, and other vulnerabilities in the target server. Which of the following tools is used by Jack to perform vulnerability scanning? A.Infoga B.WebCopier Pro C.Netsparker D.NCollector Studio Answer: C QUESTION 956 Stephen, an attacker, targeted the industrial control systems of an organization. He generated a fraudulent email with a malicious attachment and sent it to employees of the target organization. An employee who manages the sales software of the operational plant opened the fraudulent email and clicked on the malicious attachment. This resulted in the malicious attachment being downloaded and malware being injected into the sales software maintained in the victim's system. Further, the malware propagated itself to other networked systems, finally damaging the industrial automation components. What is the attack technique used by Stephen to damage the industrial systems? A.Spear-phishing attack B.SMishing attack C.Reconnaissance attack D.HMI-based attack Answer: A QUESTION 957 Shiela is an information security analyst working at HiTech Security Solutions. She is performing service version discovery using Nmap to obtain information about the running services and their versions on a target system. Which of the following Nmap options must she use to perform service version discovery on the target host? A.-SN B.-SX C.-sV D.-SF Answer: C QUESTION 958 Kate dropped her phone and subsequently encountered an issue with the phone's internal speaker. Thus, she is using the phone's loudspeaker for phone calls and other activities. Bob, an attacker, takes advantage of this vulnerability and secretly exploits the hardware of Kate's phone so that he can monitor the loudspeaker's output from data sources such as voice assistants, multimedia messages, and audio files by using a malicious app to breach speech privacy. What is the type of attack Bob performed on Kate in the above scenario? A.Man-in-the-disk attack B.aLTEr attack C.SIM card attack D.ASpearphone attack Answer: B QUESTION 959 Jude, a pen tester, examined a network from a hacker's perspective to identify exploits and vulnerabilities accessible to the outside world by using devices such as firewalls, routers, and servers. In this process, he also estimated the threat of network security attacks and determined the level of security of the corporate network. What is the type of vulnerability assessment that Jude performed on the organization? A.External assessment B.Passive assessment C.A Host-based assessment D.Application assessment Answer: C QUESTION 960 Roma is a member of a security team. She was tasked with protecting the internal network of an organization from imminent threats. To accomplish this task, Roma fed threat intelligence into the security devices in a digital format to block and identify inbound and outbound malicious traffic entering the organization's network. Which type of threat intelligence is used by Roma to secure the internal network? A.Technical threat intelligence B.Operational threat intelligence C.Tactical threat intelligence D.Strategic threat intelligence Answer: B QUESTION 961 Becky has been hired by a client from Dubai to perform a penetration test against one of their remote offices. Working from her location in Columbus, Ohio, Becky runs her usual reconnaissance scans to obtain basic information about their network. When analyzing the results of her Whois search, Becky notices that the IP was allocated to a location in Le Havre, France. Which regional Internet registry should Becky go to for detailed information? A.ARIN B.APNIC C.RIPE D.LACNIC Answer: C QUESTION 962 Joel, a professional hacker, targeted a company and identified the types of websites frequently visited by its employees. Using this information, he searched for possible loopholes in these websites and injected a malicious script that can redirect users from the web page and download malware onto a victim's machine. Joel waits for the victim to access the infected web application so as to compromise the victim's machine. Which of the following techniques is used by Joel in the above scenario? A.DNS rebinding attack B.Clickjacking attack C.MarioNet attack D.Watering hole attack Answer: B QUESTION 963 Juliet, a security researcher in an organization, was tasked with checking for the authenticity of images to be used in the organization's magazines. She used these images as a search query and tracked the original source and details of the images, which included photographs, profile pictures, and memes. Which of the following footprinting techniques did Rachel use to finish her task? A.Reverse image search B.Meta search engines C.Advanced image search D.Google advanced search Answer: C QUESTION 964 A security analyst uses Zenmap to perform an ICMP timestamp ping scan to acquire information related to the current time from the target host machine. Which of the following Zenmap options must the analyst use to perform the ICMP timestamp ping scan? A.-PY B.-PU C.-PP D.-Pn Answer: C QUESTION 965 Elante company has recently hired James as a penetration tester. He was tasked with performing enumeration on an organization's network. In the process of enumeration, James discovered a service that is accessible to external sources. This service runs directly on port 21. What is the service enumerated byjames in the above scenario? A.Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) B.File Transfer Protocol (FTP) C.Network File System (NFS) D.Remote procedure call (RPC) Answer: B QUESTION 966 Given below are different steps involved in the vulnerability-management life cycle. 1) Remediation 2) Identify assets and create a baseline 3) Verification 4) Monitor 5) Vulnerability scan 6) Risk assessment Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in vulnerability management. A.2-->5-->6-->1-->3-->4 B.2-->1-->5-->6-->4-->3 C.2-->4-->5-->3-->6--> 1 D.1-->2-->3-->4-->5-->6 Answer: A QUESTION 967 Tony is a penetration tester tasked with performing a penetration test. After gaining initial access to a target system, he finds a list of hashed passwords. Which of the following tools would not be useful for cracking the hashed passwords? A.John the Ripper B.Hashcat C.netcat D.THC-Hydra Answer: A QUESTION 968 Which Nmap switch helps evade IDS or firewalls? A.-n/-R B.-0N/-0X/-0G C.-T D.-D Answer: D QUESTION 969 Harper, a software engineer, is developing an email application. To ensure the confidentiality of email messages. Harper uses a symmetric-key block cipher having a classical 12- or 16-round Feistel network with a block size of 64 bits for encryption, which includes large 8 x 32-bit S-boxes (S1, S2, S3, S4) based on bent functions, modular addition and subtraction, key-dependent rotation, and XOR operations. This cipher also uses a masking key(Km1)and a rotation key (Kr1) for performing its functions. What is the algorithm employed by Harper to secure the email messages? A.CAST-128 B.AES C.GOST block cipher D.DES Answer: C QUESTION 970 Which of the following Google advanced search operators helps an attacker in gathering information about websites that are similar to a specified target URL? A.[inurl:] B.[related:] C.[info:] D.[site:] Answer: D QUESTION 971 The security team of Debry Inc. decided to upgrade Wi-Fi security to thwart attacks such as dictionary attacks and key recovery attacks. For this purpose, the security team started implementing cutting-edge technology that uses a modern key establishment protocol called the simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE), also known as dragonfly key exchange, which replaces the PSK concept. What is the Wi-Fi encryption technology implemented by Debry Inc.? A.WEP B.WPA C.WPA2 D.WPA3 Answer: C QUESTION 972 Stella, a professional hacker, performs an attack on web services by exploiting a vulnerability that provides additional routing information in the SOAP header to support asynchronous communication. This further allows the transmission of web-service requests and response messages using different TCP connections. Which of the following attack techniques is used by Stella to compromise the web services? A.XML injection B.WS-Address spoofing C.SOAPAction spoofing D.Web services parsing attacks Answer: B QUESTION 973 James is working as an ethical hacker at Technix Solutions. The management ordered James to discover how vulnerable its network is towards footprinting attacks. James took the help of an open- source framework for performing automated reconnaissance activities. This framework helped James in gathering information using free tools and resources. What is the framework used by James to conduct footprinting and reconnaissance activities? A.WebSploit Framework B.Browser Exploitation Framework C.OSINT framework D.SpeedPhish Framework Answer: C QUESTION 974 Thomas, a cloud security professional, is performing security assessment on cloud services to identify any loopholes. He detects a vulnerability in a bare-metal cloud server that can enable hackers to implant malicious backdoors in its firmware. He also identified that an installed backdoor can persist even if the server is reallocated to new clients or businesses that use it as an laaS. What is the type of cloud attack that can be performed by exploiting the vulnerability discussed in the above scenario? A.Man-in-the-cloud (MITC) attack B.Cloud cryptojacking C.Cloudborne attack D.Metadata spoofing attack Answer: C QUESTION 975 Which among the following is the best example of the third step (delivery) in the cyber kill chain? A.An intruder sends a malicious attachment via email to a target. B.An intruder creates malware to be used as a malicious attachment to an email. C.An intruder's malware is triggered when a target opens a malicious email attachment. D.An intruder's malware is installed on a target's machine. Answer: C QUESTION 976 Dayn, an attacker, wanted to detect if any honeypots are installed in a target network. For this purpose, he used a time-based TCP fingerprinting method to validate the response to a normal computer and the response of a honeypot to a manual SYN request. Which of the following techniques is employed by Dayn to detect honeypots? A.Detecting honeypots running on VMware B.Detecting the presence of Honeyd honeypots C.A Detecting the presence of Snort_inline honeypots D.Detecting the presence of Sebek-based honeypots Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go 312-50v11 PDF and 312-50v11 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/13uhEZnrNlkAP8a1O5NNI-yHndoWuz7Cj?usp=sharing
What COVID-19 Impacted on Cleaning Robot in Semiconductors & Electronics Industry ?
Impact of COVID-19 on Cleaning Robot in Semiconductors & Electronics Industry ANALYSIS ON IMPACT OF COVID-19 ON THE MARKET The pandemic started with its epicenter in China in 2019 and has been continuously spreading by then to all over the world, so far 216 countries and territories have been affected with Covid-19, the U.S. being on the top with cases reaching about 4.38 million, followed by Brazil, India and then by many European countries such as Russia, Spain, Italy, and others. The COVID-19 cases reaching to the big named countries with strong dominance in the global market which has adversely affected the economy globally. The spread of the coronavirus has led to the global recession, many companies are being bound to take stringent actions of laying off their employees, small businesses are being shut, and manufacturing facilities are being put on hold. There has been a disruption in the supply chain of many industries due to restrictions in logistics and the closing of manufacturing facilities. In addition, the slowdown in the economy has lowered the spending capability of individuals and people are saving money for emergencies. However, now almost in every country, the factories are started to reopen by taking some prevention such as 20% -50% employees on the field, social distancing, extreme hygiene measures, and others to support the economy. It is supporting the economy and helping to lower the recession rate at a certain level. COVID-19 highly impacted the personal and domestic cleaning robots market due to the recession gripping the world and a decline in disposable income, the demand for personal and domestic robots declined. Also, the behavior of the individuals has certainly changed in the pandemic, people are now more concerned about their health and spending for future use due to incurred losses which lead to a decrease in the sale of cleaning robots. However, cleaning robots have a huge demand in the healthcare sector. During the time of social distancing, hospitals are demanding mobile robots integrated with UV-C light disinfection equipment to sanitize the wards and rooms to minimize any physical contact. For instance, In June 2020, According to the founder and chairman of Milagrow Robots, there has been a huge surge in demand for floor and window cleaning robots. The total sale is expected to be 300,000 to 400,000 cleaning robots in 2020 when compared to 10,000 cleaning robots in 2019. STEPS TAKEN BY MANUFACTURERS DURING COVID-19 SITUATION As the COVID-19 crisis continues to expand, makers would possibly face challenges on varied fronts. Producing firms would be searching for immediate measures to stay their workforces safe and their businesses solvent. Makers would conjointly have to be compelled to look on the far side of their economic viability. Because the COVID-19 pandemic intensifies, makers would possibly face continued downward pressure on demand, production, and revenues. They would continuously face cash-flow liquidity challenges and difficulties in managing debt obligations. In December 2020, LG Electronics announced the launch of the autonomous robot with disinfecting UV light for various B2B applications. This robot uses ultraviolet (UV-C) light to disinfect high-touch, high-traffic areas and is designed for hospitality, education, corporate, retail, restaurant, and transportation customers to reduce exposure to harmful bacteria and germs The pandemic may drive the enhancement of automation, digitalization, and artificial intelligence (AI) in almost all sectors. In a situation like social distancing automation and robotics could reduce dependence on human labor and increase productivity, preventing the chances of losses. The pandemic has boosted the growth of healthcare industries. As people need to maintain physical distancing, manufacturers can gain the advantage of this norm to address the mass public in hospitals and crowded places. Manufacturers were engaged in product development with advanced technologies, partnerships, and collaborations to gain a competitive advantage in the market. For instance, In January 2021, SAMSUNG announced the launch of new AI-powered robotic vacuum and laundry products. The new JetBot 90 AI+ features smart technologies that optimize the cleaning route and respond to its environment. The JetBot 90 AI+ is the world’s first smart robotic vacuum that helps to automate home cleaning in these Covid times IMPACT ON DEMAND The behavior of the individuals has certainly changed in the pandemic, people are now more concerned about their health. The government is also working on research and development to develop a vaccine and avoid any further pandemic as such. The government is using augmented and virtual reality for the known disasters which can help in reducing the effects of the disaster. The pandemic has boosted the digital transformation of industries, companies are focusing more on a digital platform to interact with their clients and customers. The pandemic has brought a huge demand for cleaning robots to ensure safety as COVID-19 has put cleaning and disinfection front and center in facility maintenance and at other places. Huge adoption of technology, automation, and smart buildings is gradually increasing the scope of growth for the cleaning robot market. IMPACT ON SUPPLY CHAIN The pandemic has brought a huge impact on the supply chain of the cleaning robot market. The logistics and transportation of assets deteriorated a lot. The supply chain was adversely affected as the lockdown prevailed in many regions globally, the government has limited the workers. Companies are making their operations work according to the government regulations by making limited workers work in different shifts. The supply chain is experiencing disruption in Chinese parts exports, large-scale manufacturing interruptions across Europe, and the closure of assembly plants in the U.S. The manufacturers were facing a shortage of raw material, shifting of production to other countries, liquidity crunch to delays in availability of models, and deferred launches. However, now there is an improvement in the supply chain as most of the facilities and travel restrictions have opened and working in most optimum capacity. CONCLUSION As the Covid-19 prevails the cleaning robot market has witnessed a gradual increase in the demand for cleaning robots and services. Most of the manufacturing facilities were closed bringing down the production of cleaning robots which leads to disruption in the supply chain. However, as the markets are getting digitally transformed and people are being more reliable on digital sources the market seems to be growing. Organizations operating under this market were building up new strategies to maintain all the safety measures at facilities and focusing on technological up-gradation to boost the growth of the market. Even after the pandemic automation of industries will continue to increase which acts as a major driver for the market. Growing demand from the healthcare, media & entertainment, and retail sector will act as a major boosting factor for the growth of the market in this pandemic.
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QUESTION 120 A SysOps administrator is troubleshooting connection timeouts to an Amazon EC2 instance that has a public IP address. The instance has a private IP address of 172.31.16.139. When the SysOps administrator tries to ping the instance's public IP address from the remote IP address 203.0.113.12, the response is "request timed out." The flow logs contain the following information: What is one cause of the problem? A.Inbound security group deny rule B.Outbound security group deny rule C.Network ACL inbound rules D.Network ACL outbound rules Answer: D QUESTION 121 A company has multiple Amazon EC2 instances that run a resource-intensive application in a development environment. A SysOps administrator is implementing a solution to stop these EC2 instances when they are not in use. Which solution will meet this requirement? A.Assess AWS CloudTrail logs to verify that there is no EC2 API activity. Invoke an AWS Lambda function to stop the EC2 instances. B.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to stop the EC2 instances when the average CPU utilization is lower than 5% for a 30-minute period. C.Create an Amazon CloudWatch metric to stop the EC2 instances when the VolumeReadBytes metric is lower than 500 for a 30-minute period. D.Use AWS Config to invoke an AWS Lambda function to stop the EC2 instances based on resource configuration changes. Answer: B QUESTION 122 A SysOps administrator needs to configure a solution that will deliver digital content to a set of authorized users through Amazon CloudFront. Unauthorized users must be restricted from access. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that does not have public access blocked. Use signed URLs to access the S3 bucket through CloudFront. B.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that has public access blocked. Use an origin access identity (OAI) to deliver the content through CloudFront. Restrict S3 bucket access with signed URLs in CloudFront. C.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that has public access blocked. Use an origin access identity (OAI) to deliver the content through CloudFront. Enable field-level encryption. D.Store the digital content in an Amazon S3 bucket that does not have public access blocked. Use signed cookies for restricted delivery of the content through CloudFront. Answer: B QUESTION 123 A company has attached the following policy to an IAM user: Which of the following actions are allowed for the IAM user? A.Amazon RDS DescribeDBInstances action in the us-east-1 Region B.Amazon S3 Putobject operation in a bucket named testbucket C.Amazon EC2 Describe Instances action in the us-east-1 Region D.Amazon EC2 AttachNetworkinterf ace action in the eu-west-1 Region Answer: C QUESTION 124 A company runs a web application on three Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The company notices that random periods of increased traffic cause a degradation in the application's performance. A SysOps administrator must scale the application to meet the increased traffic. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to monitor application latency and increase the size of each EC2 instance if the desired threshold is reached. B.Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to monitor application latency and add an EC2 instance to the ALB if the desired threshold is reached. C.Deploy the application to an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with a target tracking scaling policy. Attach the ALB to the Auto Scaling group. D.Deploy the application to an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with a scheduled scaling policy. Attach the ALB to the Auto Scaling group. Answer: C QUESTION 125 A company's public website is hosted in an Amazon S3 bucket in the us-east-1 Region behind an Amazon CloudFront distribution. The company wants to ensure that the website is protected from DDoS attacks. A SysOps administrator needs to deploy a solution that gives the company the ability to maintain control over the rate limit at which DDoS protections are applied. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Deploy a global-scoped AWS WAF web ACL with an allow default action. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to block matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the CloudFront distribution. B.Deploy an AWS WAF web ACL with an allow default action in us-east-1. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to block matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the S3 bucket. C.Deploy a global-scoped AWS WAF web ACL with a block default action. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to allow matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the CloudFront distribution. D.Deploy an AWS WAF web ACL with a block default action in us-east-1. Configure an AWS WAF rate-based rule to allow matching traffic. Associate the web ACL with the S3 bucket. Answer: B QUESTION 126 A company hosts an internal application on Amazon EC2 instances. All application data and requests route through an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection between the on-premises network and AWS. The company must monitor the application for changes that allow network access outside of the corporate network. Any change that exposes the application externally must be restricted automatically. Which solution meets these requirements in the MOST operationally efficient manner? A.Create an AWS Lambda function that updates security groups that are associated with the elastic network interface to remove inbound rules with noncorporate CIDR ranges. Turn on VPC Flow Logs, and send the logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that matches traffic from noncorporate CIDR ranges, and publish a message to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic with the Lambda function as a target. B.Create a scheduled Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that targets an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to check for public IP addresses on the EC2 instances. If public IP addresses are found on the EC2 instances, initiate another Systems Manager Automation document to terminate the instances. C.Configure AWS Config and a custom rule to monitor whether a security group allows inbound requests from noncorporate CIDR ranges. Create an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to remove any noncorporate CIDR ranges from the application security groups. D.Configure AWS Config and the managed rule for monitoring public IP associations with the EC2 instances by tag. Tag the EC2 instances with an identifier. Create an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to remove the public IP association from the EC2 instances. Answer: A QUESTION 127 A SysOps administrator needs to create alerts that are based on the read and write metrics of Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes that are attached to an Amazon EC2 instance. The SysOps administrator creates and enables Amazon CloudWatch alarms for the DiskReadBytes metric and the DiskWriteBytes metric. A custom monitoring tool that is installed on the EC2 instance with the same alarm configuration indicates that the volume metrics have exceeded the threshold. However, the CloudWatch alarms were not in ALARM state. Which action will ensure that the CloudWatch alarms function correctly? A.Install and configure the CloudWatch agent on the EC2 instance to capture the desired metrics. B.Install and configure AWS Systems Manager Agent on the EC2 instance to capture the desired metrics. C.Reconfigure the CloudWatch alarms to use the VolumeReadBytes metric and the VolumeWriteBytes metric for the EBS volumes. D.Reconfigure the CloudWatch alarms to use the VolumeReadBytes metric and the VolumeWriteBytes metric for the EC2 instance. Answer: C QUESTION 128 A company is partnering with an external vendor to provide data processing services. For this integration, the vendor must host the company's data in an Amazon S3 bucket in the vendor's AWS account. The vendor is allowing the company to provide an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) key to encrypt the company's data. The vendor has provided an IAM role Amazon Resource Name (ARN) to the company for this integration. What should a SysOps administrator do to configure this integration? A.Create a new KMS key. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the KMS key policy. Provide the new KMS key ARN to the vendor. B.Create a new KMS key. Create a new IAM user. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to an inline policy that is attached to the IAM user. Provide the new IAM user ARN to the vendor. C.Configure encryption using the KMS managed S3 key. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the KMS managed S3 key policy. Provide the KMS managed S3 key ARN to the vendor. D.Configure encryption using the KMS managed S3 key. Create an S3 bucket. Add the vendor's IAM role ARN to the S3 bucket policy. Provide the S3 bucket ARN to the vendor. Answer: C QUESTION 129 A company has an Auto Scaling group of Amazon EC2 instances that scale based on average CPU utilization. The Auto Scaling group events log indicates an InsufficientlnstanceCapacity error. Which actions should a SysOps administrator take to remediate this issue? (Select TWO. A.Change the instance type that the company is using. B.Configure the Auto Scaling group in different Availability Zones. C.Configure the Auto Scaling group to use different Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume sizes. D.Increase the maximum size of the Auto Scaling group. E.Request an increase in the instance service quota. Answer: AB QUESTION 130 A company stores files on 50 Amazon S3 buckets in the same AWS Region. The company wants to connect to the S3 buckets securely over a private connection from its Amazon EC2 instances. The company needs a solution that produces no additional cost. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Create a gateway VPC endpoint for each S3 bucket. Attach the gateway VPC endpoints to each subnet inside the VPC. B.Create an interface VPC endpoint for each S3 bucket. Attach the interface VPC endpoints to each subnet inside the VPC. C.Create one gateway VPC endpoint for all the S3 buckets. Add the gateway VPC endpoint to the VPC route table. D.Create one interface VPC endpoint for all the S3 buckets. Add the interface VPC endpoint to the VPC route table. Answer: C QUESTION 131 A company has a VPC with public and private subnets. An Amazon EC2 based application resides in the private subnets and needs to process raw .csv files stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. A SysOps administrator has set up the correct IAM role with the required permissions for the application to access the S3 bucket, but the application is unable to communicate with the S3 bucket. Which action will solve this problem while adhering to least privilege access? A.Add a bucket policy to the S3 bucket permitting access from the IAM role. B.Attach an S3 gateway endpoint to the VPC. Configure the route table for the private subnet. C.Configure the route table to allow the instances on the private subnet access through the internet gateway. D.Create a NAT gateway in a private subnet and configure the route table for the private subnets. Answer: B QUESTION 132 A large company is using AWS Organizations to manage hundreds of AWS accounts across multiple AWS Regions. The company has turned on AWS Config throughout the organization. The company requires all Amazon S3 buckets to block public read access. A SysOps administrator must generate a monthly report that shows all the S3 buckets and whether they comply with this requirement. Which combination of steps should the SysOps administrator take to collect this data? {Select TWO). A.Create an AWS Config aggregator in an aggregator account. Use the organization as the source. Retrieve the compliance data from the aggregator. B.Create an AWS Config aggregator in each account. Use an S3 bucket in an aggregator account as the destination. Retrieve the compliance data from the S3 bucket C.Edit the AWS Config policy in AWS Organizations. Use the organization's management account to turn on the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule for the entire organization. D.Use the AWS Config compliance report from the organization's management account. Filter the results by resource, and select Amazon S3. E.Use the AWS Config API to apply the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule in all accounts for all available Regions. Answer: CD QUESTION 133 A SysOps administrator launches an Amazon EC2 Linux instance in a public subnet. When the instance is running, the SysOps administrator obtains the public IP address and attempts to remotely connect to the instance multiple times. However, the SysOps administrator always receives a timeout error. Which action will allow the SysOps administrator to remotely connect to the instance? A.Add a route table entry in the public subnet for the SysOps administrator's IP address. B.Add an outbound network ACL rule to allow TCP port 22 for the SysOps administrator's IP address. C.Modify the instance security group to allow inbound SSH traffic from the SysOps administrator's IP address. D.Modify the instance security group to allow outbound SSH traffic to the SysOps administrator's IP address. Answer: C QUESTION 134 A recent organizational audit uncovered an existing Amazon RDS database that is not currently configured for high availability. Given the critical nature of this database, it must be configured for high availability as soon as possible. How can this requirement be met? A.Switch to an active/passive database pair using the create-db-instance-read-replica with the -- availability-zone flag. B.Specify high availability when creating a new RDS instance, and live-migrate the data. C.Modify the RDS instance using the console to include the Multi-AZ option. D.Use the modify-db-instance command with the --na flag. Answer: C QUESTION 135 A SysOps administrator noticed that the cache hit ratio for an Amazon CloudFront distribution is less than 10%. Which collection of configuration changes will increase the cache hit ratio for the distribution? (Select TWO.) A.Ensure that only required cookies, query strings, and headers are forwarded in the Cache Behavior Settings. B.Change the Viewer Protocol Policy to use HTTPS only. C.Configure the distribution to use presigned cookies and URLs to restrict access to the distribution. D.Enable automatic compression of objects in the Cache Behavior Settings. E.Increase the CloudFront time to live (TTL) settings in the Cache Behavior Settings. Answer: AE QUESTION 136 A company has mandated the use of multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all IAM users, and requires users to make all API calls using the CLI. However. users are not prompted to enter MFA tokens, and are able to run CLI commands without MFA. In an attempt to enforce MFA, the company attached an IAM policy to all users that denies API calls that have not been authenticated with MFA. What additional step must be taken to ensure that API calls are authenticated using MFA? A.Enable MFA on IAM roles, and require IAM users to use role credentials to sign API calls. B.Ask the IAM users to log into the AWS Management Console with MFA before making API calls using the CLI. C.Restrict the IAM users to use of the console, as MFA is not supported for CLI use. D.Require users to use temporary credentials from the get-session token command to sign API calls. Answer: D QUESTION 137 A company is running a flash sale on its website. The website is hosted on burstable performance Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The Auto Scaling group is configured to launch instances when the CPU utilization is above 70%. A couple of hours into the sale, users report slow load times and error messages for refused connections. A SysOps administrator reviews Amazon CloudWatch metrics and notices that the CPU utilization is at 20% across the entire fleet of instances. The SysOps administrator must restore the website's functionality without making changes to the network infrastructure. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Activate unlimited mode for the instances in the Auto Scaling group. B.Implement an Amazon CloudFront distribution to offload the traffic from the Auto Scaling group. C.Move the website to a different AWS Region that is closer to the users. D.Reduce the desired size of the Auto Scaling group to artificially increase CPU average utilization. Answer: B QUESTION 138 A gaming application is deployed on four Amazon EC2 instances in a default VPC. The SysOps administrator has noticed consistently high latency in responses as data is transferred among the four instances. There is no way for the administrator to alter the application code. The MOST effective way to reduce latency is to relaunch the EC2 instances in: A.a dedicated VPC. B.a single subnet inside the VPC. C.a placement group. D.a single Availability Zone. Answer: C QUESTION 139 A company uses AWS Organizations to manage multiple AWS accounts with consolidated billing enabled. Organization member account owners want the benefits of Reserved Instances (RIs) but do not want to share RIs with other accounts. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Purchase RIs in individual member accounts. Disable Rl discount sharing in the management account. B.Purchase RIs in individual member accounts. Disable Rl discount sharing in the member accounts. C.Purchase RIs in the management account. Disable Rl discount sharing in the management account. D.Purchase RIs in the management account. Disable Rl discount sharing in the member accounts. Answer: D QUESTION 140 An errant process is known to use an entire processor and run at 100%. A SysOps administrator wants to automate restarting the instance once the problem occurs for more than 2 minutes. How can this be accomplished? A.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the Amazon EC2 instance with basic monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance. B.Create a CloudWatch alarm for the EC2 instance with detailed monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance. C.Create an AWS Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered on a scheduled basis every 2 minutes. D.Create a Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered by EC2 health checks. Answer: B QUESTION 141 A company is expanding its fleet of Amazon EC2 instances before an expected increase of traffic. When a SysOps administrator attempts to add more instances, an InstanceLimitExceeded error is returned. What should the SysOps administrator do to resolve this error? A.Add an additional CIDR block to the VPC. B.Launch the EC2 instances in a different Availability Zone. C.Launch new EC2 instances in another VPC. D.Use Service Quotas to request an EC2 quota increase. Answer: D QUESTION 142 A company hosts its website on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The company manages its DNS with Amazon Route 53. and wants to point its domain's zone apex to the website. Which type of record should be used to meet these requirements? A.A CNAME record for the domain's zone apex B.An A record for the domain's zone apex C.An AAAA record for the domain's zone apex D.An alias record for the domain's zone apex Answer: D QUESTION 143 A company has launched a social media website that gives users the ability to upload images directly to a centralized Amazon S3 bucket. The website is popular in areas that are geographically distant from the AWS Region where the S3 bucket is located. Users are reporting that uploads are slow. A SysOps administrator must improve the upload speed. What should the SysOps administrator do to meet these requirements? A.Create S3 access points in Regions that are closer to the users. B.Create an accelerator in AWS Global Accelerator for the S3 bucket. C.Enable S3 Transfer Acceleration on the S3 bucket. D.Enable cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) on the S3 bucket. Answer: C 2021 Latest Braindump2go SOA-C02 PDF and SOA-C02 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1SwmRv-OKTAJzLTMirp_O8l8tjGIFElzz?usp=sharing
Camera hội nghị Jabra Panacast 20 lý tưởng cho cuộc họp cá nhân
Đã đến lúc trải nghiệm thế hệ cộng tác video di động, an toàn, thông minh tiếp theo với Camera hội nghị Jabra PanaCast 20. Bạn đã sẵn sàng cho cuộc họp hội nghị cá nhân với Jabra Panacast 20 của mình chưa? Camera hội nghị Jabra Panacast 20 Với một phương thức giao tiếp mới, hội nghị truyền hình đã tự đổi mới và giờ đây, video kết hợp là cần thiết:  Panacast 20 là một camera được thiết kế nhỏ gọn có thể mang đi khắp mọi nơi mà không ảnh hưởng về chất lượng hình ảnh và âm thanh. Jabra Panacast 20 thiết bị hội nghị truyền hình cá nhân cao cấp này sử dụng công nghệ tiên tiến để mang lại trải nghiệm thông minh, mạnh mẽ và hoàn toàn độc đáo - Camera 4K USB với Mic tích hợp - Chất lượng video 4K Ultra HD với xử lý hình ảnh tiên tiến - Thu phóng thông minh giúp lấy nét liên tục trên loa - Trường nhìn dọc và ngang: 54 ° / 180 ° - Trường nhìn xoay chéo 90 ° - Tự động điều chỉnh ánh sáng và chức năng Picture-in-Picture - Màn trập tích hợp để đảm bảo sự riêng tư của bạn - Kích thước nhỏ gọn, dễ dàng mang theo và cắm vào - Được tối ưu hóa cho Microsoft Teams và Zoom Jabra Panacast 20 là một thiết bị hội nghị USB với độ phân giải 4K, nó được thiết kế sử dụng cho mục đích cá nhân. Trường nhìn rộng 120 ° của nó không bị thiếu bất kỳ thứ gì và tính năng thu phóng thông minh (tự động định khung hình) thu hút người nói trong suốt bài thuyết trình. Chức năng Picture-to-Picture cũng rất thiết thực và cho phép bạn kết hợp luồng video thứ hai: lý tưởng cho các bài thuyết trình của bạn. Jabra PanaCast 20 là thiết bị hội nghị truyền hình chất lượng cao sử dụng công nghệ AI tiên tiến để mang đến cộng tác video di động, an toàn và thông minh tiếp theo. Máy ảnh PanaCast 20 plug-and-play mang đến trải nghiệm hội nghị truyền hình cá nhân, được sáng tạo lại hoàn toàn cho thế giới kết hợp ngày nay. Thiết bị hội nghị Jabra PanaCast 20 ghi hình vào bất kỳ màn hình nào và sử dụng bộ vi xử lý tiên tiến, AI tích hợp mạnh mẽ và camera 13 megapixel cao cấp, mang đến hình ảnh Ultra-HD 4K trong thời gian thực, sắc nét và rõ ràng như pha lê, hầu như không có độ trễ. Tính năng của Camera hội nghị Jabra Panacast 20 - Một webcam hiện đại và thông minh     + PanaCast 20 được Jabra giới thiệu là giải pháp giao tiếp tất cả trong một dành riêng cho không gian làm việc nhỏ như văn phòng cá nhân. Được thiết kế để tái tạo và hiện đại hóa hội nghị truyền hình, webcam thông minh này sẽ cho phép bạn tham gia vào các cuộc họp ảo với chất lượng nghe nhìn ngoạn mục và sẽ đảm bảo sự thành công của các cuộc họp của bạn. - Chức năng Picture-in-Picture để tác động đến bản trình bày của bạn     + Để tiếp thêm sinh lực cho các cuộc họp của bạn, Jabra PanaCast 20 kết hợp chức năng Hình ảnh trong Hình để cho phép bạn kết hợp luồng video thứ hai trong các cuộc họp ảo của mình, một chế độ lý tưởng khi bạn đang trình bày. Chế độ này hoạt động với bất kỳ nền tảng UC nào. - Camera độ phân giải Full HD với chức năng quay cận cảnh và toàn cảnh 4K     + Jabra cung cấp giải pháp hội nghị truyền hình với các tính năng thông minh sẽ mang đến cho bạn những cuộc trao đổi nghe nhìn ngoạn mục. Webcam này được trang bị camera độ phân giải Full HD với độ phân giải 4K toàn cảnh nên chất lượng hình ảnh không gì sánh bằng: sắc nét và trong như pha lê, hầu như không có độ trễ hay độ trễ. Trường nhìn 90 ° của nó mang đến cơ hội chụp cận cảnh nhờ tính năng Thu phóng thông minh trực quan do AI điều khiển, vì vậy bạn luôn là trung tâm của sự chú ý và nó sẽ tự động theo dõi chuyển động của bạn. Làm thế nào để cài đặt thiết bị hội nghị Jabra PanaCast 20 của bạn? - Bạn không cần phải là chuyên gia CNTT để cài đặt giải pháp Plug & Play này. Chỉ cần kết nối Jabra PanaCast 20 của bạn qua USB với máy tính của bạn để bắt đầu hội nghị truyền hình ngay lập tức. Nếu bạn quyết định thêm tai nghe hoặc loa ngoài để hoàn thiện giải pháp của mình, tất cả những gì bạn cần làm là kết nối nó với máy tính của mình thông qua kết nối được chỉ định cho nó: USB hoặc Bluetooth. Tôi có thể sử dụng phụ kiện với Jabra PanaCast 20 không? - Rất dễ dàng ghép nối PanaCast 20 với Jabra Speak 750 nếu bạn đang ở văn phòng nhưng nếu bạn là người làm việc linh hoạt, bạn có thể sử dụng nó với Jabra Evolve 2 65. Cả hai thiết bị đều không dây với kết nối Bluetooth và được Microsoft Teams chứng nhận . Camera hội nghị Jabra Panacast 20 mang đến sự kết hợp tuyệt vời giữa hình ảnh chất lượng cao và cộng tác video an toàn, bất kể bạn đang tổ chức các cuộc trò chuyện của mình từ đâu luôn đảm bảo bạn có được trải nghiệm đầy đủ. Xem Thêm:  Jabra Panacast ............. Thông tin chi tiết xin liên hệ Công ty CP Liên Kết Công Nghệ Toàn Cầu - GTC Địa chỉ: Tầng 7, Số 49 trung Kính, Cầu Giấy, Hà Nội. Điện thoại: 024.777.99.777 E-mail:contact@gtctelecom.vn Website: https://gtctelecom.vn