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What is Uber Clone App
An Uber clone app is a ride-hailing software solution that replicates the functionalities and features of the popular ride-hailing app, Uber. It is a ready-made solution that allows entrepreneurs and businesses to launch their own ride-hailing service in a quick and cost-effective manner. The Uber clone app includes a range of features that are crucial for a ride-hailing service, such as: User-friendly app: The app is designed with a user-friendly interface that makes it easy for users to book rides, truck drivers, and make payments. GPS tracking: The app is equipped with GPS tracking capabilities that allow users to track the location of their ride in real time. Driver and passenger profiles: The app allows for the creation of driver and passenger profiles, which include information such as contact details, ratings, and ride history. In-app payments: The app provides in-app payment options, including the ability to pay for rides using credit or debit cards, mobile wallets, or other payment methods. Rating system: The app includes a rating system that allows passengers to rate their drivers, and vice versa, which helps to build trust and accountability in the ride-hailing community. Push notifications: The app sends push notifications to keep users updated on the status of their ride, such as when their driver is en route or has arrived at their location. In conclusion, an Uber clone app is a comprehensive software solution that provides everything needed to launch a ride-hailing service. To know more about it visit
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In terms of audience potential, social media marketing Buy Google Reviews Cheap offers your company one of the most direct channels for communication. Being able to communicate with customers, respond to their questions, and resolve their problems in real time is important, especially because customers are spending more time online than ever before. Before we discuss the value of social media marketing, let’s discuss some overarching benefits: it is important to consider whether your company will continue to exist if you offer ground-breaking products and first-rate customer service but no one has heard of you. Technically true, but probably not in the minds of your target clientele. No matter how many times you've made a purchase based just on name recognition or how often you've claimed, "I just saw an advertisement for that on Facebook," Businesses of all sizes across all industries should have a large digital footprint since it will boost your overall visibility online and off-line. When a social media fan shares one of your posts, your company is put right in front of their particular social network, exposing you to new audiences who might not have otherwise found out about your company. This kind of vast, quick organic exposure would be incredibly expensive to replicate through other forms of advertising, but social media makes it possible for you to do so for little to no money. It Puts You wherever Your Customers are Social media is used by numerous people globally, and by 2025, that number is expected to reach its peak. Although it's difficult to say without being asked, one may make the educated estimate that your company's website isn't getting three.8 billion unique visitors annually. Building something that people will come to doesn't necessarily apply to businesses. Instead, go to where your audience is. Customers use social media to make informed purchasing decisions, particularly in regard to a company's interaction with their followers and evaluations from prior customers. Some social media sites, such Facebook and Instagram, even let e-commerce companies link their appearance to their profile. Making it possible for users to make immediate in-app purchases streamlines the sales process. It's important to keep in mind that your company doesn't necessarily need to be active on every social media network; more on that later.
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Powerful quake kills hundreds in Turkey and Syria
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2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-801 PDF Dumps(Q110-Q144)
QUESTION 110 A remote office has a less-than-optimal WAN connection end experiences packed loss, delay, and jitter. Which VoIP codec should be used in this situation? A.G.722.1 B.G.711alaw C.iLBC D.G.729A Answer: C QUESTION 111 A user reports transfer failures from an IP phone for calls received from a PSTN to another PSTN number. What is a reason for these failures? A.The incoming calling search space of the SIP trunk does not include the partition of the line in the IP phone. B.The service parameter related to Offnet to Offnet call Transfer is set to TRUE. C.The IP phone is configured with the Wrong region. D.The gateway is configured with the wrong device pool. Answer: B QUESTION 112 A customer is deploying a SIP IOS gateway for a customer who requires that in-bond DTMF relay is first priority and out-of-band DTMF relay is second priority. Which IOS entry sets the required priority? A.dtmf-relay cisco-rtp B.sip-notify dtmf-relay rtp-nte C.dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify D.dtmf-relay sip-kmpl cisco-rtp Answer: C QUESTION 113 Refer to the exhibit. This INVITE is sent to an endpoint that only supports G.729. What must be done for this call to succeed? A.Noting: both sides support G.729. B.Add a transcoder that supports G.711ualw and G.729. C.ADD a media termination point that supports G.711ulaw and G.729. D.Nothing: both sides support payload type 101. Answer: B QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. You deploy Mobile and Remote Access for Jabber and discover that Jabber for Windows does not register to cisco Unified Communications Manager while outside of the office. What is a cause of this issue? A.The DNS record should be created for _ cisco-uds _tcp B.The DNS record should be changed from to __collab-edge C.The DNS record type should be changed from SRV to A. D.Server is not a valid DNS server. Answer: B QUESTION 115 What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and presence high-availability modes? A.Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby made provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing. B.Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing. C.Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, but is does not provide load balancing. D.Balanced mode provides user load failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always on standby node in the event of an outage, and is also provides load balancing. Answer: B QUESTION 116 Which two DNS records must be created to configure Service Discovery for on-premises Jabber? (Choose two.) com pointing to a record of IM&P pointing to a record of Cisco Unified CM pointing to the IP address of IM&P pointing to the IP address of Cisco Unified Communications manager pointing to a record of IM&P Answer: AB QUESTION 117 An engineer implements QoS in the enterprise network. Which command can to verify the correct classification and marking on a cisco IOS switch? policy-map class-map interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 access-lists policy-map interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 Answer: D QUESTION 118 Which field is configured to change the caller ID information on a SIP route pattern? A.Calling party Transformation Mask B.Route partition C.Called party Transformation Mask D.Connected Line ID Presentation Answer: A QUESTION 119 Which protocol does prime collaboration Assurance use to poll the health status of different systems in the collaboration environment? A.SIP B.SMTP C.SCCP D.SNMP Answer: D QUESTION 120 Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.) A.PRACK B.UPDATE C.SUBSCRIBE D.NOTIFY E.REGISTER Answer: CD QUESTION 121 An engineer wants to manually deploy a Cisco Webex DX80 video endpoint to a remote user. Which type of provisioning is configured on the endpoint? A.CUBE B.CMS C.CUCM D.Edge Answer: D QUESTION 122 Which DiffServ marking is the most likely to drop packets? A.AF32 B.AF12 C.AF11 D.AF13 Answer: D QUESTION 123 Endpoint A is attempting to call endpoint B. Endpoint A only supports G.711 ulaw with a packetization rate of 20 ms, and endpoint B supports packetization rate of 30 ms for G.711ulaw. Which two media are resources are allocated to normalize packetization rates through transrating? A.Hardware MTP on Cisco IOS Software B.Software MTP on Cisco Unified Communication Manager C.Software MTP on Cisco IOS Software D.Software transcoder on Cisco unified Communications manager E.Hardware transcoder on Cisco IOS Software Answer: AE QUESTION 124 When configuring Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which configuration enables phones to automatically register to a Cisco Unified Communications publisher when the connection to the subscriber is lost? A.Cisco Unified CM Group B.Device Pool C.SRST D.Route Group Answer: A QUESTION 125 Which two elements of a dial plan define the domains that are accessible and are assigned to an endpoint? (Choose two.) A.Call Admissions Control B.Route patterns C.Calling Search Spaces D.Translation patterns E.partitions Answer: CE QUESTION 126 An engineer with ID378163512 is designing a new dial plan for a customer that has offices in several countries on four continents around the world. This client also want to integrate with a Microsoft Lync backend, Which dial plan type does the engineer recommend? A.SIP URI B.TEHQ C.H.323 D.E.164 Answer: D QUESTION 127 Which version is used to provide encryption for SNMP management traffic in collaboration deployments? A.SNMPv1 B.SNMPv3 C.SNMPv2 D.SNMPv2c Answer: B QUESTION 128 Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets? A.CSRC (Contributing Source ID) B.Timestamp C.Sequence number D.SSRC (Synchronization identifier) Answer: C QUESTION 129 Refer to the exhibit. When making a call to a MRA client, what are the combinations of protocol on each of the different sections A-B-C? A.IP TCP/TLS(A) +SIP TCP/TLS (B) +TLS (C) B.SIP TLS (A) +SIP TLS (B) +SIP TLS (C) C.SIP TCP/TLS (A) + SIP TLS (B) + SIP TLS (C) D.SIP TCP/TLS +SIP TCP/TLS (B) + SIP TCP/TLS (C) Answer: C QUESTION 130 An engineer is designing a load balancing solution for two Cisco Unified Border routers. The first router ( takes 60% of the calls and the second router ( takes 40% of the calls, Assume all DNS A records have been created. Which two SRV records are needed for a load balanced solution? (Choose two.) 60 IN SRV 1 40 5060 60 IN SRV 3 60 5060 60 IN SRV 60 1 5060 60 IN SRV 2 60 5060 60 IN SRV 1 60 5060 Answer: AE QUESTION 131 Refer to the exhibit. A call to an international number has failed. Which action corrects this problem? A.Assign a transcoder to the MRGL of the gateway. B.Strip the leading 011 from the called party number C.Add the bearer-cap speech command to the voice port. D.Add the isdn switch-type primart-dms100 command to the serial interface. Answer: B QUESTION 132 Which user group is targeted by MRA services? A.Call center agents who dial out to remote customers B.Mobile workers in a host desk environment at HQ who log in every morning at possibility a different phone C.Production floor users who need wireless mobility in remote areas of the factory D.On-the-go mobile workforce who connect to corporate phone services using their own mobile device Answer: D QUESTION 133 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager feature is to determine the maximum bit rate for a call between two video-endpoints? A.Partitions B.Locations C.Regions D.transformations Answer: C QUESTION 134 When a 8800 series phone is registered over MRA, where does it register? A.Cisco Unified Communications Manager B.Expressway-C C.Cisco Unified Presence Server D.Expressway-E Answer: A QUESTION 135 An engineer must manually provision a Cisco IP Phone 8845 using SIP. Which two fields must be configured for a successful provision? (Choose two.) A.Media resources group list B.SIP profile C.CSS D.Location E.Device security profile Answer: BE QUESTION 136 What is the correct statement about CUCM and Cisco IM&P backups? A.Backups should the scheduled during hours to avoid system performance issues. B.Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account. C.Backups are saved as unencrypted tar files. D.Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communication Manager and Cisco IM and Presence servers. Answer: A QUESTION 137 Due to service provider restriction, Cisco Unified Communications Manager cannot send video in the SDP. Which two options on Cisco Unified CM are configured to suppress video in the SDP is outgoing invites? (Choose two.) A.Check the Send send-receive SDP in mid-call INVITE check box on the SIP trunk SIP profile. B.Add the audio forced command to voice service voip on the Unified Border Elements. C.Check the Retry Call as Audio on the SIP trunk D.Set Video bandwidth in the Region settings to 0. E.Change the Video Capabilities dropdown on the endpoint to Disabled. Answer: CD QUESTION 138 There is a saturated link that has traffic shaping configured. How is incoming traffic processed? A.Excess traffic is queued for later transmission. B.Excess traffic is dropped. C.Traffic is compressed so that the traffic fits within the bandwidth of the link. D.Excess traffic is queued, and then dropped after the timer expires. Answer: A QUESTION 139 Refer to the exhibit. A customer submits this output, captured on a Cisco IOS router. Assuming that an MGCP gateway is configured with a ISDN BRI interface, which BRI changes resolve the issue? A.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 B.interface BRI0/1/0 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-multipoint-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 C.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-point-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 D.interface BRI0/1/1 no ip address isdn switch-type basic-net3 isdn point-to-multipoint-setup isdn incoming-voice voice isdn send-alerting isdn static-tei 0 Answer: C QUESTION 140 Which SNMP service must be activated manually on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager after installation? A.Cisco CallManager SNMP B.SNMP Master Agent C.Connection SNMP Agent D.Host Resources Agent Answer: A QUESTION 141 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer verifies the configured of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is necessary to enable MGCP? A.Device(config)# mgcp enable B.Device(config)# ccm-manager enable C.Device (config)# com-manager active D.Device (config)# mgcp Answer: D QUESTION 142 What are two key features of the Expressway series? (Choose two.) A.VPN connect toward the internal UC resources B.B2B calls C.IP to PSTN call connectivity D.Device registration over the internet E.SIP header modification Answer: BD QUESTION 143 An engineer deploys a Cisco Expressway edge server for a customer who wants to utilize all feature on the server. Which feature does the engineer configure on the Expressway edge? A.VTC bridge B.H.323 endpoint registration C.SIP gateway for PSTN providers D.MRA Answer: D QUESTION 144 An engineer is configuring a Cisco Unified Border Element to allow the video endpoints to negotiate without the Cisco Unified Border Element interfering in the process. What should the engineer configure on the Cisco Unified Border Element to support this process? A.Configure path-thru content sdp on the voice service. B.Configure a hardcoded codec on the dial peers. C.Configure a transcoder for video protocols. D.Configure codec transparent on the dial peers. Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-801 PDF and 350-801 VCE Dumps Free Share:
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