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Microsoft 365 Prüfung MS-100 Unterlagen und Materialien

Wir www.it-pruefungen.de bieten Übungsexamen zur Vorbereitung auf Ihre IT-Zertifizierungs-prüfung. Die Prüfungsfragen zur Prüfungsvorbereitung auf Microsoft Microsoft 365 Prüfung MS-100 Unterlagen und Materialien((deutsche Version und englische Version) Microsoft 365 Identity and Services )bei www.it-pruefungen.de sind aktuell und original. Jedem, der die Schulungsfragen zur Microsoft Zertifizierung MS-100 nutzt und die IT Prüfungen beim ersten Mal nicht erfolgreich besteht, versprechen wir, die Kosten für das Schulungsunterlagen 100% zu erstatten.
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Microsoft Microsoft 365 MS-100 Prüfungsfragen Prüfungsunterlagen

Info zu dieser Prüfungsvorbereitung MS-100
Prüfungsname:(deutsche Version und englische Version) Microsoft 365 Identity and Services
Anzahl:348 Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen
Die Fragen&Antworten bei www.it-pruefungen.de stammen aus den wahren Originalfragen im Testcenter, und werden von unserem professionellen Team zusammenfasst und dann werden von den erfahrenen IT Zertifizierungsdozenten im Testcenter korrekturgelesen, wir garantieren die fachliche Qualität zu den MS-100 Fragen&Antworte.
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Alle Microsoft MS-100 Prüfung Fragen&Antworten www.it-pruefungen.de Microsoft 365 Identity and Services werden gut ausgearbeitet. Sie enthalten mehr als 98%ige Fragen der Microsoft 365 Identity and Services Zertifizierungsprüfung. Sie brauchen nur diese Fragen&Antworten zu lernen, dann können Sie die Prüfung bei der ersten Probe bestimmt bestehen.
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2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-720 PDF Dumps(Q46-Q76)
QUESTION 46 Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.) A.The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters. B.Message filters configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters. C.The filterconfig command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters. D.Message filters can be configured only from the CLI. E.Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface. Answer: AD QUESTION 47 What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies? A.message splintering B.message exceptions C.message detachment D.message aggregation Answer: A QUESTION 48 Which default port is used by the Cisco ESA to quarantine the message on the Cisco Security Management Appliance? A.port 25fTCP B.port110/TCP C.port443/TCP D.port 6025/TCP E.port4766/UDP Answer: D QUESTION 49 When configuring CRES, where do you enable read receipts? A.In the encryption profile B.In the content filter condition menu C.In the content filter action menu D.In the mail policy Answer: A QUESTION 50 Which type of query must be configured when setting up the Spam Quarantine while merging notifications? A.Spam Quarantine Alias Routing Query B.Spam Quarantine Alias Consolidation Query C.Spam Quarantine Alias Authentication Query D.Spam Quarantine Alias Masquerading Query Answer: B QUESTION 51 Which two factors must be considered when message filter processing is configured? (Choose two.) A.message-filter order B.lateral processing C.structure of the combined packet D.mail policies E.MIME structure of the message Answer: AE QUESTION 52 How does the graymail safe unsubscribe feature function? A.It strips the malicious content of the URI before unsubscribing. B.It checks the URI reputation and category and allows the content filter to take an action on it. C.It redirects the end user who clicks the unsubscribe button to a sandbox environment to allow a safe unsubscribe. D.It checks the reputation of the URI and performs the unsubscribe process on behalf of the end user. Answer: D QUESTION 53 Which method enables an engineer to deliver a flagged message to a specific virtual gateway address in the most flexible way? A.Set up the interface group with the flag. B.Issue the altsrchost command. C.Map the envelope sender address to the host. D.Apply a filter on the message. Answer: D QUESTION 54 An administrator is trying to enable centralized PVO but receives the error, "Unable to proceed with Centralized Policy, Virus and Outbreak Quarantines configuration as esa1 in Cluster has content filters / DLP actions available at a level different from the cluster level." What is the cause of this error? A.Content filters are configured at the machine-level on esa1. B.DLP is configured at the cluster-level on esa2. C.DLP is configured at the domain-level on esa1. D.DLP is not configured on host1. Answer: A QUESTION 55 Which feature must be configured before an administrator can use the outbreak filter for nonviral threats? A.quarantine threat level B.antispam C.data loss prevention D.antivirus Answer: B QUESTION 56 Which type of attack is prevented by configuring file reputation filtering and file analysis features? A.denial of service B.zero-day C.backscatter D.phishing Answer: B QUESTION 57 Which two service problems can the Cisco Email Security Appliance solve? (Choose two.) A.DLP B.IPS C.Antispam D.URL filtering Answer: AC QUESTION 58 Which of the following types of DNS records deals with mail delivery for a specific domain? A.A B.TXT C.MX D.PTR Answer: C QUESTION 59 When DKIM signing is configured, which DNS record must be updated to load the DKIM public signing key? A.AAAA record B.PTR record C.TXT record D.MX record Answer: C QUESTION 60 Which attack is mitigated by using Bounce Verification? A.spoof B.denial of service C.eavesdropping D.smurf Answer: B QUESTION 61 When outbreak filters are configured, which two actions are used to protect users from outbreaks? (Choose two.) A.redirect B.return C.drop D.delay E.abandon Answer: AD QUESTION 62 Which two features are applied to either incoming or outgoing mail policies? (Choose two.) A.Indication of Compromise B.application filtering C.outbreak filters D.sender reputation filtering E.antivirus Answer: CE QUESTION 63 What must be configured to allow the Cisco ESA to encrypt an email using the Cisco Registered Envelope Service? A.provisioned email encryption profile B.message encryption from a content filter that select "Message Encryption" over TLS C.message encryption from the mail flow policies with "CRES" selected D.content filter to forward the email to the Cisco Registered Envelope server Answer: A QUESTION 64 Which two configurations are used on multiple LDAP servers to connect with Cisco ESA? (Choose two.) A.load balancing B.SLA monitor C.active-standby D.failover E.active-active Answer: AD QUESTION 65 What is the default port to deliver emails from the Cisco ESA to the Cisco SMA using the centralized Spam Quarantine? A.8025 B.6443 C.6025 D.8443 Answer: C QUESTION 66 Which two steps are needed to disable local spam quarantine before external quarantine is enabled? (Choose two.) A.Uncheck the Enable Spam Quarantine check box. B.Select Monitor and click Spam Quarantine. C.Check the External Safelist/Blocklist check box. D.Select External Spam Quarantine and click on Configure. E.Select Security Services and click Spam Quarantine. Answer: AB QUESTION 67 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the steps to configure Cisco ESA to use SPF/SIDF verification from the left into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 68 Drag and Drop Question An Encryption Profile has been set up on the Cisco ESA. Drag and drop the steps from the left for creating an outgoing content filter to encrypt emails that contains the subject "Secure:" into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 69 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the Cisco ESA reactions to a possible DLP from the left onto the correct action types on the right. Answer: QUESTION 70 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the AsyncOS methods for performing DMARC verification from the left into the correct order on the right. Answer: QUESTION 71 A network administrator is modifying an outgoing mail policy to enable domain protection for the organization. A DNS entry is created that has the public key. Which two headers will be used as matching criteria in the outgoing mail policy? (Choose two.) A.message-ID B.sender C.URL reputation D.from E.mail-from Answer: BD QUESTION 72 To comply with a recent audit, an engineer must configure anti-virus message handling options on the incoming mail policies to attach warnings to the subject of an email. What should be configured to meet this requirement for known viral emails? A.Virus Infected Messages B.Unscannable Messages C.Encrypted Messages D.Positively Identified Messages Answer: C QUESTION 73 An administrator is managing multiple Cisco ESA devices and wants to view the quarantine emails from all devices in a central location. How is this accomplished? A.Disable the VOF feature before sending SPAM to the external quarantine. B.Configure a mail policy to determine whether the message is sent to the local or external quarantine. C.Disable the local quarantine before sending SPAM to the external quarantine. D.Configure a user policy to determine whether the message is sent to the local or external quarantine. Answer: B QUESTION 74 A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy match using a specific sender, the email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason of this? A.The Tram* header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. B.The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion. C.The To" header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. D.The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion. Answer: D QUESTION 75 An administrator identifies that, over the past week, the Cisco ESA is receiving many emails from certain senders and domains which are being consistently quarantined. The administrator wants to ensure that these senders and domain are unable to send anymore emails. Which feature on Cisco ESA should be used to achieve this? A.incoming mail policies B.safelist C.blocklist D.S/MIME Sending Profile Answer: A QUESTION 76 An engineer is testing mail flow on a new Cisco ESA and notices that messages for domain abc.com are stuck in the delivery queue. Upon further investigation, the engineer notices that the messages pending delivery are destined for, when they should instead be routed to What configuration change needed to address this issue? A.Add an address list for domain abc.com. B.Modify Destination Controls entry for the domain abc.com. C.Modify the SMTP route for the domain and change the IP address to D.Modify the Routing Tables and add a route for IP address to Answer: C 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-720 PDF and 300-720 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1CWQxEgDC6s96s0xdef_OXd8TQRMElfP0?usp=sharing
Outsource Managed Services: The Smart Choice for Business Growth
https://techmatterglobal.com/outsource-managed-services-for-business-growth/ are tasks that are taken care of by a third party, most often as part of corporate IT solutions. The managed services model is a method of general outsourcing activities to a professional to minimize expenses, increase service quality, or free up internal teams to engage in business-specific chores. A managed service provider (MSP) is a firm that delivers such services. Some of the features of these services include network and infrastructure management, security, and monitoring. MSPs handle administration services regularly, allowing customers to focus on developing their services rather than stressing about long system downtimes or service disruptions. Since each business has a unique configuration, an MSP may offer a wide range of service alternatives. Technical assistance, repair, and subscription services are two categories of MSP products. The main goal of MSP technical support fix services is to remotely fix problems or dispatch professionals to a company’s site to do so. MSPs who offer this service will charge the business for the troubleshooting time and any parts necessary to fix the issue. How Outsource Managed Services Can Help Your Business Grow? More and more small businesses are turning to managed IT services in an effort to cut costs and improve efficiency. You won’t ever have to waste your time and money managing in-house IT specialists or studying the newest technological developments when you have a managed IT service on speed dial. Instead, hiring a third party with the necessary knowledge to handle your company’s IT demands is best. It’s common for business leaders to associate their IT teams with managed service providers (MSPs). They believe that by hiring one on the recommendation of their CIO or IT director, they have authorized an IT remedy. However, MSPs are more than just technical resources that can be utilized while connectivity is unavailable. Trustworthy MSPs provide the answers that companies of all kinds and all market sectors need to realize their maximum expansion potential. MSPs can utilize their IT knowledge to benefit businesses by increasing efficiency, reducing costs, and generating income. The key ways in which a outsourced Managed Service Provider can aid in the expansion of your business are as follows: 1. Increased Efficiency An MSP can help you tailor your company’s IT infrastructure to your needs. Furthermore, it is possible to create an operational environment that increases worker productivity while limiting downtime and the possibility of system breakdowns. Most of the time, your MSP can manage your infrastructure. This saves you time and makes sure that your business runs smoothly. Additionally, many MSPs provide service around the clock, although the majority of in-house IT departments need help to do so. Employees in businesses without MSPs will experience some downtime in the morning, whereas MSPs can fix an overnight network issue before the first workers arrive in the morning. Additionally, you risk losing more money and clients the longer your systems remain down. MSPs work with several clients from various industries. As a direct result, their crew has amassed a wealth of expertise concerning the various technical and business issues that call for IT solutions. MSPs can recommend and assist you in planning and installing workable solutions that can help you maximize the efficiency of your company based on their experience. 2. Cost Savings Using a managed service provider can prevent your business from paying for expensive new hires with specialized skillsets, such as cybersecurity. MSP workers can enhance your in-house staff by covering significant talent gaps. Additionally, MSPs often charge either a per-use cost model or a regular monthly price, allowing you to change the services you require as necessary. You can swiftly scale up the assistance and services required if demand increases. You can easily take a service out of your contract if you no longer need it. Businesses frequently experience significant cost savings in two other areas when partnering with an MSP. MSPs often assist organizations in locating the hardware and software they want at prices below the competition. MSPs have extensive supplier networks and can often get better prices. And because they can, they can assist you in acquiring and deploying applications and solutions that you have resisted for a long time, which can significantly influence your organization. 3. Improved Security The question of when a cybercriminal will target a firm is now the only one that remains in the modern world. And cyberattacks may be disastrous, with the physical, financial, and reputational losses frequently sufficient to drive a corporation out of existence. Even though you can’t stop someone from trying, you can make and use the right cybersecurity plan to make it much less likely that they will succeed. Furthermore, MSPs and MSSPs typically have access to advanced security tools that most firms do not have. You need to protect your company as much as possible from cybersecurity threats, which requires a combination of experience, resources, and focused time. Cybercriminals are only one threat, though. 4. Access to Expertise It’s difficult and time-consuming to hire an IT team, and you will know how capable they are once a critical network issue arises. Some people do exceptionally well on the test. It’s risky to rely on someone else to fix the problem for your business because they might need more time to do so. Even if your IT personnel are knowledgeable and familiar with your systems, you may discover that they need to be equipped to operate or maintain new equipment and techniques when they are added. The biggest problem is that even the best-trained staff members need the depth of expertise and experience of an MSP’s massive team. When your staff lacks certain areas of expertise, an MSP can help. It does not make sense to require an employee to master a new skill set to complete a one-time project. A Managed Service Provider (MSP) provides access to a group of specialists with particular expertise that you otherwise would not have. 5. Scalability The cost of keeping an IT team in-house is high, which is why you often see them understaffed, overworked, and unable to finish all their tasks because they need more time or resources. That is not effective daily and certainly not while your business is trying to grow. Even training one more employee for your IT department can cost thousands of dollars, and there is no assurance that they will stay with the company.  Network scaling requires a lot of planning, personnel, and new hardware. It is an enormous expense for any business and frequently diverts an IT team’s attention away from other crucial functions like security. Managed services can assist you in expanding or upgrading your systems as needed without the need to hire and train personnel that you may not require in the future. How to Choose an Outsource Managed Services Provider? There is a wide selection of options to choose from when it comes to managed IT service providers. Check that you can put your company’s data and security in the hands of the managed IT provider. Before committing to managed IT services, consider the following questions: What kinds of solutions does the provider deliver? What is the scale of the provider? What history do they have? There are multiple sorts of managed IT service companies. More extensive managed IT service providers operate worldwide, but smaller ones may be preferable for your business. Additionally, you should be aware of whether they offer end users 24/7 support. Finding the right managed IT service provider for your business will depend on its specific requirements. For instance, the managed IT provider should have experience in cyber security if your organization places a high priority on data security. IT services can play a crucial role in your company’s expansion by offering outstanding support that will enable you to operate more effectively and free up your time for the priorities most important to your organization. Factors to Consider When Outsource Managed Services Finding the right partner for your Managed Services needs is significant. When selecting a managed services provider, it is essential to consider the following factors: Accessibility Your IT supplier, however, should be available at all hours to monitor your network and ensure its security. Make sure your managed services provider is reachable at all hours of the day, every day of the year, before committing to any agreement. It is critical to your company’s success. Rapid response and service Your service provider must always be accessible and responsive to your requirements and issues. Ensure your IT company answers the phone and doesn’t send calls to a call center. Look for a response time guarantee. Yearly budgeting for IT A reputable managed services company will sit with you to assist with future technology planning. Ask for their guidance and experience to help you with your annual planning, and search for methods to save costs and increase productivity with technology that will help your business go to the next level. Check if your managed services supplier is proactive and considers your needs. Emergency Recovery Planning Are you ready if a weather calamity, vandalism, or other outage affects your business? A good managed services provider will assist you in making plans, preserving your data, and ensuring your company can bounce back from a jarring occurrence. Partnerships with Third Party Vendors Utilizing a managed services provider has the benefit of handling your technology providers, saving you the time required to locate several vendors for service and support. When deciding on a provider, it is essential to consider the companies with which they partner and to ensure that they have experience with the software you intend to utilize. Conclusion Your company can benefit significantly from managed IT services because they increase security, scalability, and compliance. Small business owners can now gain a strategic advantage through modern business technology and assistance, enabling you and your staff to concentrate on what matters most.
Exam MS-220 Prüfungsfragen Prüfungsunterlagen
Die neuesten Prüfungsfragen zu Microsoft Microsoft 365 MS-220 Prüfung ((deutsche Version und englische Version) Problembehandlung für Microsoft Exchange Online)von it-pruefungen.ch sind direkt aus den Testzentren PROMETRIC oder VUE in der Schweiz. Microsoft Microsoft 365 MS-220 Prüfungsunterlagen Prüfungsfragen Info zu dieser Prüfungsvorbereitung Prüfungsnummer:MS-220 Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen Prüfungsname:(deutsche Version und englische Version) Problembehandlung für Microsoft Exchange Online Anzahl:95 Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen it-pruefungen----Die Prüfungsunterlagen zu Microsoft Microsoft 365 MS-220 enthalten alle originalen Fragen und Antworten für die Prüfung. Die Abdeckungsrate von unseren Testfragen ist mehr als 99%. Beispielfragen: https://pdf.it-pruefungen.ch/MS-220.pdf 1.Ihr Unternehmen verwendet Exchange Online. Ein Benutzer erhält einen Unzustellbarkeitsbericht, wenn er E-Mails an externe Empfänger sendet. Sie führen eine Nachrichtenablaufverfolgung durch und stellen fest, dass keine E-Mails aus der Exchange-Umgebung gesendet werden. Sie müssen die Komponente identifizieren, die das Problem verursacht. Welche Komponente verursacht das Problem? A.Antiphishing-Schutz B.Antispoofing-Schutz C.Richtlinien für Verbindungsfilter D.E-Mail-Nachrichtenflussregeln Korrekte Antwort: D Erläuterungen: Antiphishing-Schutz, Antispoofing-Schutz und Richtlinien für Verbindungsfilter wirken auf eingehende Nachrichten. Die wahrscheinlichste Ursache dafür, dass keine Nachrichten an externe Empfänger versendet werden, ist eine E-Mail-Flussregel, die ausgehende E-Mails an externe Empfänger blockiert. In Exchange Online Organisationen oder eigenständigen Exchange Online Protection (EOP)-Organisationen ohne Exchange Online Postfächer können Sie E-Mail-Flussregeln (auch als Transportregeln bezeichnet) verwenden, um nach bestimmten Bedingungen für Nachrichten zu suchen, die ihre Organisation passieren, und Entsprechendes zu unternehmen. Der folgende Microsoft Docs-Artikel enthält weitere Informationen zum Thema: Verwalten von Nachrichtenflussregeln in Exchange Online 2.Ein Unternehmen hat eine Microsoft Exchange Server 2019-Hybridumgebung. Der Exchange Server ist für die Verwendung der TLS-Verschlüsselung für SMTP konfiguriert. Das TLS-Verschlüsselungszertifikat läuft ab. Sie müssen ein neues Zertifikat für SMTP auf dem Server installieren. Welche drei Cmdlets sollten Sie nacheinander ausführen? (Die verfügbaren Cmdlets werden in der Abbildung dargestellt. Klicken Sie auf die Schaltfläche Zeichnung und ordnen Sie die erforderlichen Cmdlets in der richtigen Reihenfolge an.) Abbildung A.Reihenfolge: 1, 4, 2 B.Reihenfolge: 1, 4, 3 C.Reihenfolge: 4, 6, 2 D.Reihenfolge: 4, 6, 3 Korrekte Antwort: B Erläuterungen: Transport Layer Security (TLS) und SSL, das vor TLS vorhanden war, sind kryptografische Protokolle, die die Kommunikation über ein Netzwerk sichern, indem Sicherheitszertifikate zum Verschlüsseln einer Verbindung zwischen Computern verwendet werden. TLS ersetzt Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) und wird häufig als SSL 3.1 bezeichnet. Exchange Online verwendet TLS, um die Verbindungen zwischen Exchange Servern und die Verbindungen zwischen Exchange Servern und anderen Servern wie Ihren lokalen Exchange servern oder den E-Mail-Servern Ihrer Empfänger zu verschlüsseln. Nachdem die Verbindung verschlüsselt ist, werden alle über diese Verbindung gesendeten Daten über den verschlüsselten Kanal gesendet. Wenn Sie eine Nachricht weiterleiten, die über eine TLS-verschlüsselte Verbindung gesendet wurde, ist diese Nachricht nicht unbedingt verschlüsselt. TLS verschlüsselt die Nachricht nicht, nur die Verbindung. Zum Aktivieren der Verschlüsselung für einen oder mehrere Exchange-Dienste, muss der Exchange-Server ein Zertifikat verwenden. SMTP-Kommunikation zwischen internen Exchange-Servern wird durch das standardmäßige selbstsignierte Zertifikat verschlüsselt, das auf dem Exchange-Server installiert ist. Zum Verschlüsseln der Kommunikation mit internen oder externen Clients, Servern oder Diensten möchten Sie wahrscheinlich ein Zertifikat verwenden, das automatisch von allen Clients, Diensten und Servern, die mit Ihrer Exchange-Organisation eine Verbindung herstellen, als vertrauenswürdig eingestuft wird. Im ersten Schritt müssen wir das Cmdlet New-ExchangeCertificate verwenden, um eine neue Zertifikatsanforderungen (auch als Zertifikatssignierungsanforderungen bezeichnet) für ein neues Zertifikat bzw. eine Zertifikatserneuerung von einer Zertifizierungsstelle (CA) zu erstellen. Im zweiten Schritt müssen wir das Cmdlet Import-ExchangeCertificate verwenden, um das neue Zertifikat auf unseren Exchange-Servern zu importieren. Im dritten Schritt müssen wir das Cmdlet Switch-Certificate verwenden, um das alte Zertifikat durch das neue Zertifikat zu ersetzen. Die folgenden Microsoft Docs-Artikel enthalten weitere Informationen zum Thema: Verlängern eines Exchange Server Zertifikats New-ExchangeCertificate Import-ExchangeCertificate Switch-Certificate 3.Sie werten die folgenden DMARC-TXT-Einträge aus: Wählen Sie für jede der folgenden Aussagen "Ja", wenn die Aussage wahr ist. Andernfalls wählen Sie "Nein". (Für jede korrekte Markierung erhalten Sie einen Punkt.) Abbildung A.E-Mails für Contoso, Ltd., bei denen die DMARC-Authentifizierung fehlschlägt, werden abgelehnt: Ja E-Mails von Unterdomänen von Fabrikam, Inc. werden abgelehnt: Ja Fünfzig Prozent der E-Mails für Litware, Inc., die die DMARC-Authentifizierung nicht bestehen, werden unter Quarantäne gestellt: Ja B.E-Mails für Contoso, Ltd., bei denen die DMARC-Authentifizierung fehlschlägt, werden abgelehnt: Ja E-Mails von Unterdomänen von Fabrikam, Inc. werden abgelehnt: Ja Fünfzig Prozent der E-Mails für Litware, Inc., die die DMARC-Authentifizierung nicht bestehen, werden unter Quarantäne gestellt: Nein C.E-Mails für Contoso, Ltd., bei denen die DMARC-Authentifizierung fehlschlägt, werden abgelehnt: Ja E-Mails von Unterdomänen von Fabrikam, Inc. werden abgelehnt: Nein Fünfzig Prozent der E-Mails für Litware, Inc., die die DMARC-Authentifizierung nicht bestehen, werden unter Quarantäne gestellt: Ja D.E-Mails für Contoso, Ltd., bei denen die DMARC-Authentifizierung fehlschlägt, werden abgelehnt: Nein E-Mails von Unterdomänen von Fabrikam, Inc. werden abgelehnt: Ja Fünfzig Prozent der E-Mails für Litware, Inc., die die DMARC-Authentifizierung nicht bestehen, werden unter Quarantäne gestellt: Nein E.E-Mails für Contoso, Ltd., bei denen die DMARC-Authentifizierung fehlschlägt, werden abgelehnt: Nein E-Mails von Unterdomänen von Fabrikam, Inc. werden abgelehnt: Nein Fünfzig Prozent der E-Mails für Litware, Inc., die die DMARC-Authentifizierung nicht bestehen, werden unter Quarantäne gestellt: Ja F.E-Mails für Contoso, Ltd., bei denen die DMARC-Authentifizierung fehlschlägt, werden abgelehnt: Nein E-Mails von Unterdomänen von Fabrikam, Inc. werden abgelehnt: Nein Fünfzig Prozent der E-Mails für Litware, Inc., die die DMARC-Authentifizierung nicht bestehen, werden unter Quarantäne gestellt: Nein Korrekte Antwort: F Erläuterungen: Die domänenbasierte Nachrichtenauthentifizierung, Berichterstellung und Konformität (DMARC) funktioniert zusammen mit Sender Policy Framework (SPF) und DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) bei der E-Mail-Absender-Authentifizierung. DMARC stellt sicher, dass die Ziel-E-Mail-Systeme Nachrichten vertrauen, die von Ihrer Domäne gesendet werden. Die Verwendung von DMARC mit SPF und DKIM bietet Organisationen mehr Schutz vor Spoofing und Phishing-E-Mails. DMARC hilft beim Empfangen von E-Mail-Systemen bei der Entscheidung, was mit Nachrichten aus Ihrer Domäne geschieht, bei denen SPF- oder DKIM-Überprüfungen fehlschlagen. Eine E-Mail-Nachricht kann mehrere Ersteller- oder Absenderadressen enthalten. Diese Adressen können für verschiedene Zwecke verwendet werden. Sehen Sie sich beispielsweise die folgenden Adressen an: "E-Mail von"-Adresse: Identifiziert den Absender und gibt an, wohin Rücksendebenachrichtigungen gesendet werden sollen, wenn Probleme mit der Zustellung der Nachricht auftreten (z. B. Unzustellbarkeitsbenachrichtigungen). Mail "Von"-Adresse erscheint im Umschlagteil einer E-Mail-Nachricht und wird von Ihrer E-Mail-Anwendung nicht angezeigt, und wird manchmal als 5321.MailFrom-Adresse oder umgekehrte Pfadadresse bezeichnet.
2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF Dumps(Q83-Q120)
QUESTION 83 Which statement about hot-potato routing architecture design is true? A.Hot-potato routing is the preferred architecture when connecting to content providers B.Hop-potato keeps traffic under the control of the network administrator for longer C.OSPF uses hot-potato routing if all ASBRs use the same value for the external metric D.Hot-potato routing is prone to misconfiguration as well as poor coordination between two networks Answer: A QUESTION 84 Two enterprise networks must be connected together. Both networks are using the same private IP addresses. The client requests from both sides should be translated using hide NAT (dynamic NAT) with the overload feature to save IF addresses from the NAT pools. Which design addresses this requirement using only one Cisco I OS NAT router for both directions? A.This is not possible, because two Cisco IOS NAT routers are required to do dynamic NAT, with overload in both directions. B.The ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands must be configured at the interfaces with the overload option in both directions. C.The overload feature is the default and does not have to be configured. D.Two different NAT pools must be used for the ip nat inside source and the ip nat outside source commands for the overload feature in both directions. E.The Nat Virtual interface must be used to achieve this requirement. Answer: D QUESTION 85 Refer to the exhibit. As part of a redesign project, you must predict multicast behavior. What happens to the multicast traffic received on the shared tree (*,G), if it is received on the LHR interface indicated*? A.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPF check against the multicast source B.It is switched give that no RPF check is performed C.It is switched due to a successful RPF check against the routing table D.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPk8t8ck against the multicast receiver. Answer: A QUESTION 86 A BGP route reflector in the network is taking longer than expected to coverage during large network changes. Troubleshooting shows that the router cannot handle all the TCP acknowledgements during route updates. Which action can be performed to tune the device performance? A.Increase the size of the hold queue. B.Increase the size of the large buffers. C.Decrease the size of the small buffers. D.Increase the keepalive timers for each BGP neighbor. Answer: A QUESTION 87 Which two application requirements are mandatory tor traffic to receive proper treatment when placed in the priority queue? (Choose two.) A.small transactions (HTTP-like behavior) B.WRED drop treatment C.tolerance to packet loss D.intolerance to jitter E.TCP-based application Answer: CD QUESTION 88 Which two conditions must be met for EIGRP to maintain an alternate loop-free path to a remote network? (Choose two.) A.The Reported Distance from a successor is lower than the local Feasible Distance. B.The Reported Distance from a successor is higher than the local Feasible Distance. C.The feasibility condition does not need to be met. D.The Feasible Distance from a successor is lower than the local Reported Distance. E.A feasible successor must be present. Answer: AE QUESTION 89 You are designing a new Ethernet-based metro-area network for an enterprise customer to connect 50 sites within the same city OSPF will be the routing protocol used. The customer is primarily concerned with IPv4 address conservation and convergence time. Which two combined actions do you recommend? (Choose two) A.Use a multipoint Metro-E service for router connections B.Use a single address per router for all P2P links C.Use P2P links between routers in a hub-and-spoke design D.Configure address aggregation at each site router E.Determine which OSPF routers will be DR/BDR Answer: AC QUESTION 90 Which two statements about MLD snooping are true? (Choose two) A.When MLD snooping is enabled, QoS is automatically enabled. B.A VLAN can support multiple active MLD snooping queries, as long as each one is associated to a different multicast group. C.AN MLD snooping querier election occurs when any MLD snooping querier goes down or if there is an IP address change on the active querier. D.When multiple MLD snooping queriers are enabled in a VLAN, the querier with the lowest IP address in the VLAN is elected as the active MLD snooping querier. Answer: CD QUESTION 91 Which two design option are available to dynamically discover the RP in an IPv6 multicast network? (Choose two) A.embedded RP B.MSDP C.BSR D.Auto-RP E.MLD Answer: AC QUESTION 92 Company A has a hub-and spoke topology over an SP-managed infrastructure. To measure traffic performance metrics. IP SLA senders on all spoke CE routers and an IP SLA responder on the hub CE router. What must they monitor to have visibility on the potential performance impact due to the constantly increasing number of spoke sites? A.memory usage on the hub router B.interface buffers on the hub and spoke routers C.CPU and memory usage on the spoke routers D.CPU usage on the hub router Answer: D QUESTION 93 Which two descriptions of CWDM are true? (Choose two) A.typically used over long distances, but requires optical amplification B.uses the 850nm band C.allows up to 32 optical earners to be multiplexed onto a single fiber D.shares the same transmission window as DWDM E.Passive CWDM devices require no electrical power Answer: DE QUESTION 94 SDWAN networks capitalize the usage of broadband Internet links over traditional MPLS links to offer more cost benefits to enterprise customers. However, due to the insecure nature of the public Internet, it is mandatory to use encryption of traffic between any two SDWAN edge devices installed behind NAT gateways. Which overlay method can provide optimal transport over unreliable underlay networks that are behind NAT gateways? A.TLS B.DTLS C.IPsec D.GRE Answer: C QUESTION 95 Company XYZ runs OSPF in their network. A design engineer decides to implement hot-potato routing architecture. How can this implementation be achieved? A.Enable iBGP and apply prepend to ensure all prefixes will have the same length of the AS path attribute value. B.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure the total metric calculation includes only the ext value and the value is the same in all ASBRs. C.Enable OSPF load-balancing over unequal cost path. D.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure that the total metric calculation includes external internal values. Answer: D QUESTION 96 What are two primary design constraints when a robust infrastructure solution is created? (Choose two.) A.monitoring capabilities B.project time frame C.staff experience D.component availability E.total cost Answer: BE QUESTION 97 SD-WAN can be used to provide secure connectivity to remote offices, branch offices, campus networks, data centers, and the cloud over any type of IP-based underlay transport network. Which two statements describe SD WAN solutions? (Choose two.) A.SD-WAN networks are inherently protected against slow performance. B.Control and data forwarding planes are kept separate. C.Improved operational efficiencies result In cost savings. D.Solutions include centralized orchestration, control, and zero-touch provisioning. E.Solutions allow for variations of commodity and specialized switching hardware. Answer: CD QUESTION 98 An architect designs a multi-controller network architecture with these requirements: - Achieve fast failover to control traffic when controllers fail. - Yield a short distance and high resiliency in the connection between the switches and the controller. - Reduce connectivity loss and enable smart recovery to improve the SDN survivability. - Improve connectivity by adding path diversity and capacity awareness for controllers. Which control plane component of the multi-controller must be built to meet the requirements? A.control node reliability B.controller stale consistency C.control path reliability D.controller clustering Answer: D QUESTION 99 Company XYZ is planning to deploy primary and secondary (disaster recovery) data center sites. Each of these sites will have redundant SAN fabrics and data protection is expected between the data center sites. The sites are 100 miles (160 km) apart and target RPO/RTO are 3 hrs and 24 hrs, respectively. Which two considerations must Company XYZ bear in mind when deploying replication in their scenario? (Choose two.) A.Target RPO/RTO requirements cannot be met due to the one-way delay introduced by the distance between sites. B.VSANs must be routed between sites to isolate fault domains and increase overall availability. C.Synchronous data replication must be used to meet the business requirements. D.Asynchronous data replication should be used in this scenario to avoid performance impact in the primary site. E.VSANs must be extended from the primary to the secondary site to improve performance and availability. Answer: CD Explanation: RPO and RTO tend to vary based on the application involved. These metrics tend to fluctuate between data that cannot be lost (i.e., low RPO but high RTO) such as financial and healthcare data as well as real-time systems that cannot be down (i.e., high RPO but low RTO) such as an E-commerce web server. QUESTION 100 Which undesired effect of increasing the jitter compensation buffer is true? A.The overall transport jitter decreases and quality improves. B.The overall transport jitter increases and quality issues can occur. C.The overall transport delay increases and quality issues can occur. D.The overall transport delay decreases and quality improves. Answer: C QUESTION 101 Which three tools are used for ongoing monitoring and maintenance of a voice and video environment? (Choose three.) A.flow-based analysis to measure bandwidth mix of applications and their flows B.call management analysis to identify network convergence-related failures C.call management analysis to identify CAC failures and call quality issues D.active monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter E.passive monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter F.flow-based analysis with PTP time-stamping to measure loss, latency, and jitter Answer: ACD QUESTION 102 Which two advantages of using DWDM over traditional optical networks are true? (Choose two.) A.inherent topology flexibility and service protection provided without penalty through intelligent oversubscription of bandwidth reservation B.ability to expand bandwidth over existing optical Infrastructure C.inherent topology flexibility with built-in service protection D.inherent topology flexibility with intelligent chromatic dispersion E.inherent topology flexibility with a service protection provided through a direct integration with an upper layer protocol Answer: AB QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. This network is running OSPF and EIGRP as the routing protocols. Mutual redistribution of the routing protocols has been configured on the appropriate ASBRs. The OSPF network must be designed so that flapping routes in EIGRP domains do not affect the SPF runs within OSPF. The design solution must not affect the way EIGRP routes are propagated into the EIGRP domains. Which technique accomplishes the requirement? A.route summarization the ASBR interfaces facing the OSPF domain B.route summarization on the appropriate ASBRS. C.route summarization on the appropriate ABRS. D.route summarization on EIDRP routers connecting toward the ASBR Answer: D QUESTION 104 Company XYZ is running OSPF in their network. They have merged with another company that is running EIGRP as the routing protocol. Company XYZ now needs the two domains to talk to each other with redundancy, while maintaining a loop free environment. The solution must scale when new networks are added into the network in the near future. Which technology can be used to meet these requirements? A.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs B.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags C.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags D.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs Answer: B QUESTION 105 Company XYZ is in the process of identifying which transport mechanism(s) to use as their WAN technology. Their main two requirements are. - a technology that could offer DPI, SLA, secure tunnels, privacy, QoS, scalability, reliability, and ease of management - a technology that is cost-effective Which WAN technology(ies) should be included in the design of company XYZ? A.Software-defined WAN should be the preferred choice because it complements both technologies, covers all the required features, and it is the most cost-effective solution. B.Internet should be the preferred option because it is cost effective and supports BFD, IP SLA. and IPsec for secure transport over the public Internet. C.Both technologies should be used. Each should be used to back up the other one; where the primary links are MPLS, the internet should be used as a backup link with IPsec (and vice versa). D.MPLS meets all these requirements and it is more reliable than using the Internet. It is widely used with defined best practices and an industry standard. Answer: A QUESTION 106 Which MPLS TE design consideration is true? A.MPLS TE replaces LDP and the dependency of the IGP to identify the best path. B.MPLS TE provides link and node protection C.MPLS TE optimizes the routing of IP traffic, given the constraints imposed by backbone capacity and application requirements. D.MPLS TE requires Layer 3 VPN full-mesh topology deployment Answer: C QUESTION 107 The network designer needs to use GLOP IP address in order make them unique within their ASN, which multicast address range will be considered? A. to B. to C. to D. to Answer: C QUESTION 108 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right. Answer: QUESTION 109 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the end-to-end network virtualization elements from the left onto the correct network areas on the right. Answer: QUESTION 110 Which two data plane hardening techniques are true? (Choose two) A.warning banners B.redundant AAA servers C.Control Plane Policing D.SNMPv3 E.infrastructure ACLs F.disable unused services G.routing protocol authentication Answer: CE QUESTION 111 You have been asked to design a high-density wireless network for a university campus. Which two principles would you apply in order to maximize the wireless network capacity? (Choose two.) A.Implement a four-channel design on 2.4 GHz to increase the number of available channels B.Choose a high minimum data rate to reduce the duty cycle. C.increases the number of SSlDs to load-balance the client traffic. D.Make use of the 5-GHz band to reduce the spectrum utilization on 2.4 GHz when dual-band clients are used. E.Enable 802.11n channel bonding on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz to increase the maximum aggregated cell throughput. Answer: BD QUESTION 112 Company XYZ is redesigning their QoS policy. Some of the applications used by the company are real- time applications. The QoS design must give these applications preference in terms of transmission. Which QoS strategy can be used to fulfill the requirement? A.weighted fair queuing B.weighted random early detection C.low-latency queuing D.first-in first-out Answer: C QUESTION 113 As part of workspace digitization, a large enterprise has migrated all their users to Desktop as a Sen/ice (DaaS), by hosting the backend system in their on-premises data center. Some of the branches have started to experience disconnections to the DaaS at periodic intervals, however, local users in the data center and head office do not experience this behavior. Which technology can be used to mitigate this issue? A.tail drop B.traffic shaping C.WRED D.traffic policing Answer: B QUESTION 114 A healthcare provider discovers that protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data. Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue? A.technical and physical access control B.administrative security management processes C.physical device and media control D.technical integrity and transmission security Answer: D QUESTION 115 Which two technologies enable multilayer segmentation? (Choose two.) A.policy-based routing B.segment routing C.data plane markings D.firewalls E.filter lists Answer: AD QUESTION 116 IPFIX data collection via standalone IPFIX probes is an alternative to flow collection from routers and switches. Which use case is suitable for using IPFIX probes? A.performance monitoring B.security C.observation of critical links D.capacity planning Answer: A QUESTION 117 Company XYZ wants to use the FCAPS ISO standard for network management design. The focus of the design should be to monitor and keep track of any performance issues by continuously collecting and analyzing statistical information to monitor, correct, and optimize any reduced responsiveness across the network. Which layer accomplishes this design requirement? A.fault management B.accounting management C.performance management D.security management Answer: C QUESTION 118 While designing a switched topology, in which two options is UplinkFast recommended? (Choose two ) A.when switches of different spanning-tree types are connected (for example. 802.1d connecting to 802.1w) B.on distribution layer switches C.when hello timers are changed to more aggressive values D.on access layer switches E.on the core switches Answer: AD QUESTION 119 You are using iSCSI to transfer files between a 10 Gigabit Ethernet storage system and a 1 Gigabit Ethernet server. The performance is only approximately 700 Mbps and output drops are occurring on the server switch port. Which action will improve performance in a cost-effective manner? A.Change the protocol to CIFS. B.Increase the queue to at least 1 GB C.Use a WRED random drop policy D.Enable the TCP Nagle algorithm on the receiver Answer: A QUESTION 120 Customer XYZ network consists of an MPLS core. IS-IS running as IGP a pair of BGP route reflectors for route propagation, and a few dozens of MPLS-TE tunnels for specific tactical traffic engineering requirements. The customer's engineering department has some questions about the use of the Overload Bit in the IS-IS networks and how it could be used to improve their current network design. Which two concepts about the Overload Bit are true? (Choose two.) A.It can be set on a router during the startup process for a fixed period of time B.Networks advertised within the LSPs of the respective node will become unreachable C.It forces the midpoint MPLS-TE node to reoptimize the primary tunnels going through the OL node. D.It can be set on a router until other interacting protocols have signaled convergence. 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QUESTION 45 Which feature allows the ASA to handle nonstandard applications and web resources so that they display correctly over a clientless SSL VPN connection? A.single sign-on B.Smart Tunnel C.WebType ACL D.plug-ins Answer: B QUESTION 46 Which command automatically initiates a smart tunnel when a user logs in to the WebVPN portal page? A.auto-upgrade B.auto-connect C.auto-start D.auto-run Answer: C QUESTION 48 Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands under the tunnel-group webvpn-attributes result in a Cisco AnyConnect user receiving the AnyConnect prompt in the exhibit? (Choose two.) A.group-url enable B.group-policy General internal C.authentication aaa D.authentication certificate E.group-alias General enable Answer: CE QUESTION 49 Which two statements are true when designing a SSL VPN solution using Cisco AnyConnect? (Choose two.) A.The VPN server must have a self-signed certificate. B.A SSL group pre-shared key must be configured on the server. C.Server side certificate is optional if using AAA for client authentication. D.The VPN IP address pool can overlap with the rest of the LAN networks. E.DTLS can be enabled for better performance. Answer: DE QUESTION 50 An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and wants to choose an authentication protocol that is reliable and supports ACK and sequence. Which protocol accomplishes this goal? A.IKEv1 B.AES-192 C.ESP D.AES-256 Answer: C QUESTION 51 Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel? A.incorrect PSK B.crypto access list mismatch C.incorrect tunnel group D.crypto policy mismatch E.incorrect certificate Answer: B QUESTION 52 Which requirement is needed to use local authentication for Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Clients that connect to a FlexVPN server? A.use of certificates instead of username and password B.EAP-AnyConnect C.EAP query-identity D.AnyConnect profile Answer: D QUESTION 53 Which IKE identity does an IOS/IOS-XE headend expect to receive if an IPsec Cisco AnyConnect client uses default settings? A.*$SecureMobilityClient$* B.*$AnyConnectClient$* C.*$RemoteAccessVpnClient$* D.*$DfltlkeldentityS* Answer: B QUESTION 54 Refer to the exhibit. Which VPN technology is allowed for users connecting to the Employee tunnel group? A.SSL AnyConnect B.IKEv2 AnyConnect C.crypto map D.clientless Answer: D QUESTION 55 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting a new GRE over IPsec tunnel. The tunnel is established but the engineer cannot ping from spoke 1 to spoke 2. Which type of traffic is being blocked? A.ESP packets from spoke2 to spoke1 B.ISAKMP packets from spoke2 to spoke1 C.ESP packets from spoke1 to spoke2 D.ISAKMP packets from spoke1 to spoke2 Answer: A QUESTION 56 Which command is used to troubleshoot an IPv6 FlexVPN spoke-to-hub connectivity failure? A.show crypto ikev2 sa B.show crypto isakmp sa C.show crypto gkm D.show crypto identity Answer: A QUESTION 57 In a FlexVPN deployment, the spokes successfully connect to the hub, but spoke-to-spoke tunnels do not form. Which troubleshooting step solves the issue? A.Verify the spoke configuration to check if the NHRP redirect is enabled. B.Verify that the spoke receives redirect messages and sends resolution requests. C.Verify the hub configuration to check if the NHRP shortcut is enabled. D.Verify that the tunnel interface is contained within a VRF. Answer: B QUESTION 58 An engineer is troubleshooting a new DMVPN setup on a Cisco IOS router. After the show crypto isakmp sa command is issued, a response is returned of "MM_NO_STATE." Why does this failure occur? A.The ISAKMP policy priority values are invalid. B.ESP traffic is being dropped. C.The Phase 1 policy does not match on both devices. D.Tunnel protection is not applied to the DMVPN tunnel. Answer: C QUESTION 59 What are two variables for configuring clientless SSL VPN single sign-on? (Choose two.) A.CSCO_WEBVPN_OTP_PASSWORD B.CSCO_WEBVPN_INTERNAL_PASSWORD C.CSCO_WEBVPN_USERNAME D.CSCO_WEBVPN_RADIUS_USER Answer: BC QUESTION 60 Which two NHRP functions are specific to DMVPN Phase 3 implementation? (Choose two.) A.registration request B.registration reply C.resolution request D.resolution reply E.redirect Answer: DE QUESTION 61 Refer to the exhibit. The customer can establish a Cisco AnyConnect connection without using an XML profile. When the host "ikev2" is selected in the AnyConnect drop down, the connection fails. What is the cause of this issue? A.The HostName is incorrect. B.The IP address is incorrect. C.Primary protocol should be SSL. D.UserGroup must match connection profile. Answer: D QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. A site-to-site tunnel between two sites is not coming up. Based on the debugs, what is the cause of this issue? A.An authentication failure occurs on the remote peer. B.A certificate fragmentation issue occurs between both sides. C.UDP 4500 traffic from the peer does not reach the router. D.An authentication failure occurs on the router. Answer: C QUESTION 63 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the debug output, which type of mismatch is preventing the VPN from coming up? A.interesting traffic B.lifetime C.preshared key D.PFS Answer: A Explanation: TS unacceptable: The IPsec SA setup has failed due to a mismatch in the policy rule definition between the gateways for the tunnel configuration. Check the local and remote network configuration on both gateways. QUESTION 64 Refer to the exhibit. The IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel between two routers is down. Based on the debug output, which type of mismatch is the problem? A.preshared key B.peer identity C.transform set D.ikev2 proposal Answer: B QUESTION 65 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of mismatch is causing the problem with the IPsec VPN tunnel? A.crypto access list B.Phase 1 policy C.transform set D.preshared key Answer: D QUESTION 66 Refer to the exhibit. What is a result of this configuration? A.Spoke 1 fails the authentication because the authentication methods are incorrect. B.Spoke 2 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2. C.Spoke 2 fails the authentication because the remote authentication method is incorrect. D.Spoke 1 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2. Answer: A QUESTION 67 Which two cryptographic technologies are recommended for use with FlexVPN? (Choose two.) A.SHA (HMAC variant) B.Diffie-Hellman C.DES D.MD5 (HMAC variant) Answer: AB QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator had the above configuration working with SSL protocol, but as soon as the administrator specified IPsec as the primary protocol, the Cisco AnyConnect client was not able to connect. What is the problem? A.IPsec will not work in conjunction with a group URL. B.The Cisco AnyConnect implementation does not allow the two group URLs to be the same. SSL does allow this. C.If you specify the primary protocol as IPsec, the User Group must be the exact name of the connection profile (tunnel group). D.A new XML profile should be created instead of modifying the existing profile, so that the clients force the update. Answer: C QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. Client 1 cannot communicate with client 2. Both clients are using Cisco AnyConnect and have established a successful SSL VPN connection to the hub ASA. Which command on the ASA is missing? A.dns-server value B.same-security-traffic permit intra-interface C.same-security-traffic permit inter-interface D.dns-server value Answer: B QUESTION 70 Refer to the exhibit. An SSL client is connecting to an ASA headend. The session fails with the message "Connection attempt has timed out. Please verify Internet connectivity." Based on how the packet is processed, which phase is causing the failure? A.phase 9: rpf-check B.phase 5: NAT C.phase 4: ACCESS-LIST D.phase 3: UN-NAT Answer: D QUESTION 71 Which redundancy protocol must be implemented for IPsec stateless failover to work? A.SSO B.GLBP C.HSRP D.VRRP Answer: C QUESTION 72 Which technology works with IPsec stateful failover? A.GLBR B.HSRP C.GRE D.VRRP Answer: B QUESTION 73 What are two functions of ECDH and ECDSA? (Choose two.) A.nonrepudiation B.revocation C.digital signature D.key exchange E.encryption Answer: CD QUESTION 74 What uses an Elliptic Curve key exchange algorithm? A.ECDSA B.ECDHE C.AES-GCM D.SHA Answer: B QUESTION 75 Which two remote access VPN solutions support SSL? (Choose two.) A.FlexVPN B.clientless C.EZVPN D.L2TP E.Cisco AnyConnect Answer: BE 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-730 PDF and 300-730 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1zBS7xcmszvPHlrS_lPaM4uUF1VvomE4a?usp=sharing
MD-100 Online-Schulung, MD-100 PDF Prüfungsfragen
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