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The Nonbeliever’s Guide to Bible Stories


Throughout contemporary life, references from the Bible, its stories, and characters surround us. As a result, nonbelievers may be at a loss when they encounter them in conversation, art, or literature. 

Modern-day controversies such as separation of church and state, posting the Ten Commandments in government buildings, nativity displays, and other issues may not be fully understood. This represents a gap in nonbelievers’ knowledge base. 

My first book was written for my daughter as a guide to successful living. Trust Your Radar: Honest Advice for Teens and Young Adults from a Surgeon, Firefighter, Police Officer, Scuba Divemaster, Golfer, and Amateur Comedian combines life lessons with fun stories from my varied careers. A second book, Trust Your Radar, Slackers’ Edition, is a streamlined version.

Both works identify organized religion as “jammers” of our clear-thinking “brain radars.” My new book, The Nonbeliever’s Guide to Bible Stories, fills the information gap about the Bible for my daughter and lucky readers. 

It’s a secular sprint from Genesis to Revelation, hitting the characters, stories, occasional highlights, numerous lowlights, and famous quotes (featured in italics). 
Nonbelievers should have some concept of the religious fairy tales being foisted upon their believing peers. At a minimum, just to get all the jokes. 

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2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF Dumps(Q46-Q76)
QUESTION 46 A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.) A.incident response playbooks B.asset vulnerability assessment C.report of staff members with asset relations D.key assets and executives E.malware analysis report Answer: BE QUESTION 47 Refer to the exhibit. At which stage of the threat kill chain is an attacker, based on these URIs of inbound web requests from known malicious Internet scanners? A.exploitation B.actions on objectives C.delivery D.reconnaissance Answer: C QUESTION 48 What should a security analyst consider when comparing inline traffic interrogation with traffic tapping to determine which approach to use in the network? A.Tapping interrogation replicates signals to a separate port for analyzing traffic B.Tapping interrogations detect and block malicious traffic C.Inline interrogation enables viewing a copy of traffic to ensure traffic is in compliance with security policies D.Inline interrogation detects malicious traffic but does not block the traffic Answer: A QUESTION 49 Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.) A.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3 B.Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network C.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections D.Move the webserver to the internal network E.Move the webserver to the external network Answer: AB QUESTION 50 According to GDPR, what should be done with data to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability? A.Perform a vulnerability assessment B.Conduct a data protection impact assessment C.Conduct penetration testing D.Perform awareness testing Answer: B QUESTION 51 A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow? A.Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker's motives, and identify missing patches B.Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody C.Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited D.Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation plan Answer: B QUESTION 52 A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching? A.Identify the business applications running on the assets B.Update software to patch third-party software C.Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit D.Fix applications according to the risk scores Answer: D QUESTION 53 An engineer is analyzing a possible compromise that happened a week ago when the company database servers unexpectedly went down. The analysis reveals that attackers tampered with Microsoft SQL Server Resolution Protocol and launched a DDoS attack. The engineer must act quickly to ensure that all systems are protected. Which two tools should be used to detect and mitigate this type of future attack? (Choose two.) A.firewall B.Wireshark C.autopsy D.SHA512 E.IPS Answer: AE QUESTION 54 A European-based advertisement company collects tracking information from partner websites and stores it on a local server to provide tailored ads. 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The incident response team validates that an attacker has installed a remote access tool on a user's laptop while traveling. The attacker has the user's credentials and is attempting to connect to the network. What is the next step in handling the incident? A.Block the source IP from the firewall B.Perform an antivirus scan on the laptop C.Identify systems or services at risk D.Identify lateral movement Answer: C QUESTION 60 A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company's infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage? A.Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches B.Analyze event logs and restrict network access C.Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity D.Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list Answer: A QUESTION 61 A patient views information that is not theirs when they sign in to the hospital's online portal. The patient calls the support center at the hospital but continues to be put on hold because other patients are experiencing the same issue. An incident has been declared, and an engineer is now on the incident bridge as the CyberOps Tier 3 Analyst. There is a concern about the disclosure of PII occurring in real- time. What is the first step the analyst should take to address this incident? A.Evaluate visibility tools to determine if external access resulted in tampering B.Contact the third-party handling provider to respond to the incident as critical C.Turn off all access to the patient portal to secure patient records D.Review system and application logs to identify errors in the portal code Answer: C QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script? A.Seeds for existing domains are checked B.A search is conducted for additional seeds C.Domains are compared to seed rules D.A list of domains as seeds is blocked Answer: B QUESTION 63 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is reverse engineering a suspicious file by examining its resources. What does this file indicate? A.a DOS MZ executable format B.a MS-DOS executable archive C.an archived malware D.a Windows executable file Answer: D QUESTION 64 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing a static analysis on a malware and knows that it is capturing keys and webcam events on a company server. What is the indicator of compromise? A.The malware is performing comprehensive fingerprinting of the host, including a processor, motherboard manufacturer, and connected removable storage. B.The malware is a ransomware querying for installed anti-virus products and operating systems to encrypt and render unreadable until payment is made for file decryption. C.The malware has moved to harvesting cookies and stored account information from major browsers and configuring a reverse proxy for intercepting network activity. D.The malware contains an encryption and decryption routine to hide URLs/IP addresses and is storing the output of loggers and webcam captures in locally encrypted files for retrieval. Answer: D QUESTION 65 An audit is assessing a small business that is selling automotive parts and diagnostic services. Due to increased customer demands, the company recently started to accept credit card payments and acquired a POS terminal. Which compliance regulations must the audit apply to the company? A.HIPAA B.FISMA C.COBIT D.PCI DSS Answer: D QUESTION 66 A customer is using a central device to manage network devices over SNMPv2. A remote attacker caused a denial of service condition and can trigger this vulnerability by issuing a GET request for the ciscoFlashMIB OID on an affected device. Which should be disabled to resolve the issue? A.SNMPv2 B.TCP small services C.port UDP 161 and 162 D.UDP small services Answer: A QUESTION 67 Refer to the exhibit. Which indicator of compromise is represented by this STIX? A.website redirecting traffic to ransomware server B.website hosting malware to download files C.web server vulnerability exploited by malware D.cross-site scripting vulnerability to backdoor server Answer: B QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring in this packet capture? A.TCP port scan B.TCP flood C.DNS flood D.DNS tunneling Answer: B QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling? A.The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices B.Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution C.Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority D.Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution Answer: B QUESTION 70 The incident response team receives information about the abnormal behavior of a host. A malicious file is found being executed from an external USB flash drive. The team collects and documents all the necessary evidence from the computing resource. What is the next step? 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What If We Taught Students That Religion is Absurd?
We need to educate our children and teenagers to the point where they can think critically for themselves and can easily see and understand the absurdity of religion. The good news is that once someone’s brain is at this level of comprehension, a great many positive side effects occur. Life would be much better for everyone if everyone in our society is educated to the level where they understand that religion is absurd. The religiosity of America fascinates me. I am intrigued by the idea of millions of people in an advanced nation believing that they have a “relationship” with an imaginary friend and believing that this imaginary friend is answering their prayers.  In the United States, something like 76% of the population believes in God, and seventy percent of the population identifies as Christian. Three-quarters of the U.S. population believes that the Bible was at least inspired by God, and 28% (more than 89 million people) believe the stories in it are literally true. Why would anyone today believe that the Christian god is real or that the story of Noah’s ark is true? My goal here is to advocate that we, as a society, start an active campaign to make religion irrelevant to human civilization. In the same way that there have been active campaigns to eliminate diseases like smallpox and polio, we should start a similar campaign against religion.  The tool I propose for religion’s elimination is across-the-board education in critical thinking. But first, let’s step back for a moment and ask, How do we find ourselves in this position as a species? There are many interesting things that human beings do. Music, math, tools, cooking, science, engineering, art, and language all come to mind. But religion ranks up there as perhaps the most interesting.  Religion stands out because it is so irrational and bizarre. Billions of people on this planet believe in their various imaginary beings so firmly that disagreements about religion often escalate to violence and warfare.  Read the full story: https://www.fadewblogs.eu.org/2021/11/teaching-about-religion-in-school.html  
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QUESTION 236 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPCand non-vPC switches, however, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receives the same STP bridge ID from the upstream which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.peer-switch B.peer-gateway C.systam-mac 0123.4567.89ab D.vpc local role-priority 4000 Answer: A QUESTION 237 A network engineer must perform a backup and restore of the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch configuration. The backup must be made to an external backup server. The only protocol permitted between the Cisco Nexus switch and the backup server is UDP. The backup must be used when the current working configuration of the switch gets corrupted. Which set of steps must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Perform a startup-config backup to an FTP server 2. Copy startup-config in the boot flash to the running-config file B.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the SFTP server to the running-config file C.1. Perform a running-config backup to an SCP server 2. Copy running-config in the boot flash to the running-config file D.1. Perform a startup-config backup to a TFTP server 2. Copy backup-config from the backup server to the running-config file Answer: D QUESTION 238 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer requires remote access via SSH to a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. The solution must support secure access using the local user database when the RADIUS servers are unreachable from the switches. Which command meets these requirements? 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An environment variable needs to be created so that several policies use the monitored events in in their actions. The external email server is represented by IP address 10.10.10.10. Which command sets the environment variable? A.N9k2(config)# event manager policy environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' B.N9k2# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' C.N9k2 (config-apple1)# environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' D.N9k2 (config)# event manager environment mallserver `'10.10.10.10'' Answer: D QUESTION 242 Which communication method does NFS use for requests between servers and clients? A.XDR B.SSC C.RPC D.SMB Answer: C QUESTION 243 A customer reports Fibre Channel login requests to a cisco MDS 9000 series Switch from an unauthorized source. The customer requires a feature that will allow all devices already logged in and learned in and learned to be added to the Fibre channel active database. Which two features must be enabled to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.) A.Auto-learning B.Port security C.Enhanced zoning D.Device aliases E.Smart aliases Answer: AB QUESTION 244 An engineer evaluates a UI-based infrastructure management system capable of monitoring and deploying standalone VXLAN BGP EVPN deployments. The storage administrators also need the solution to manage the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. Which solution meets these requirements? A.Cisco Intersight B.Cisco UCSD C.Cisco Tetration D.Cisco DCNM Answer: D QUESTION 245 Refer to the exhibit. Which backup operation type not include the preserve identities feature? A.Full state B.Logical configuration C.System configuration D.All configuration Answer: A QUESTION 246 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration ensure that the cisco Nexus 7000 series switches are the primary devices for LACP? A.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 4000 B.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 100 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 200 C.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain)# system-priority 32768 D.N7K_A(config-vpc-domain)# role priority 1 N7K_B(config-vpc-domain )# role priority 2 Answer: A QUESTION 247 A network engineer must enable port security on all Cisco MDS Series Switches in the fabric. The requirement is to avoid the extensive manual configuration of the switch ports. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Activate CFS distribution and the auto-learning port security feature. B.Activate CFS distribution and file auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. C.Enable the auto-learning port security feature on a per-VSAN basis. D.Enable the auto-learning port security feature. Answer: B QUESTION 248 A network engineer is deploying a Cisco All-Flash HyperFlex solution. Which local storage configuration is required for the operating system and persistent logging? A.Two solid state drives B.Two SATA drives C.One SATA drive D.One solid state drive Answer: A QUESTION 249 An engineer configures the properties of a Cisco UCS Cisco Integrated Management Controller network adapter for a standalone Cisco C-Series Server. The Failback Timeout in the vNIC was set to 600. When the failure occurs, the secondary interfaces must be used and then failback when the primary interface becomes available again. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements? A.Set default VLAN on the adapters. B.Increase Cos to 6. C.Disable VNTAG mode. D.Enable Uplink failover. Answer: D QUESTION 250 A network engineer must prevent data comuption due to cross fabric communication in an FCoE environment. Which configuration must be applied to the Cisco Nexus Unified Switches to achieve this objective? A.Switch(config)#fcoe fcmap 0x0efc2a B.Switch(config-if)# no fcoe fcf-priority 0 C.Switch(config-if) # shutdown lan D.Switch(config) # no fcoe fcf-priority Answer: A QUESTION 251 Which component is disrupted when the Cisco Integrated Management Controller is upgraded on a Cisco UCS Series Server? A.Cisco UCS Manager B.SAN traffic C.KVM sessions D.Data traffic Answer: C QUESTION 252 A company is investigating different options for IT automation tools. The IT team has experience with Python programming language and scripting using a declarative language. The proposed tool should be easy to set up and should not require installing an agent on target devices. The team will also need to build custom modules based on the Python programming language to extend the tool's functionality. Which automation tool should be used to meet these requirements? A.Puppet B.Ansible C.NX-API D.Chef Answer: B QUESTION 253 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer needs to implement streaming telemetry on a cisco MDS 9000 series switch. The requirement is for the show command data to be collected every 30 seconds and sent to receivers. Which command must be added to the configuration meet this requirement? A.Sensor-grp 200 sample-period 30000 B.Snsr-grp 200 sample-interval 30 C.Sensor-grp 200 sample-period 30 D.Snsr-grp 200 sample-interval 30000 Answer: D QUESTION 254 A Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch experiences a startup configuration corruption. The engineer must implement a procedure to recover the backup configuration file from the switch. Which command set must be used? A.1. Copy the running-configuration to the startup configuration. 2. Clear the current configuration of the switch. 3. Restart the device. 4. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running configuration. B.1. Clear the current configuration of the switch 2. Restart the device. 3. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration 4. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running configuration C.1. Clear the current configuration of the switch 2. Restart the device. 3. Copy a previously saved configuration file to the running-configuration 4. Copy the running-configuration to the startup configuration. D.1. Restarting device. 2. Copy the running-configuration file to a remote server. 3. Clear the current configuration of the switch. 4. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration Answer: C QUESTION 255 An engineer must configure OSPF in the data center. The external routes have already been redistributed OSPF. The network must meet these criteria: - The data centre servers must reach services in the cloud and the services behind the redistributed routes. - The exit point toward the internet should be propagated only when there is a dynamically learned default route from the upstream router. Which feature is required? A.Default-information originate B.Stubby area C.Totally stubby area D.Default-information originate always Answer: A QUESTION 256 What is a characteristic of the install all command on the cisco Nexus series switch? A.Upgrades only certain modules B.Automatically checks the image integrity C.Impact data plan traffic D.Continues the upgrade process if any step in the sequence fails Answer: B QUESTION 257 An engineer is using REST API calls to configure the cisco APIC. Which data structure must be used within a post message to receive a login token? A.{"aaaUser":{"attributes":{"name":"apiuser","pwd":"cisco123"}}} B.<aaaUser><name="apiuser"/><pwd="cisco123"/></aaaUser> C.{aaaUser:{attributes:{name:apiuser,pwd:cisco123}}} D.<aaaUser><name>apiuser</name><pwd>cisco123</pwd></aaaUser> Answer: A QUESTION 258 The EPLD update of the supervisor module has been scheduled for several Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches. What will be the impact of the update? A.All control plane traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch remain operational for the duration of the upgrade. B.The redundant supervisor lakes over while the EPLD update is in progress and there is no service disruption. C.All traffic is stopped for the duration of the EPLD update and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. D.The redundant supervisor lakes while the EPLD update is in progress and the switch is rebooted after the upgrade is completed. Answer: C QUESTION 259 An engineer configures an intersignt virtual application and must claim over 200 targets. The engineer starts the Claim target procedure. The engineer has prepared this initial comma- separated value file to provision the targets: UCSFI,10.1.1.3,user-1,pwd5516b917 IMC,10.1.1.5/26,user-2,pwdc65b1c43f HX,10.1.2.1/30,user-3,pwd39913690 UCSD,1.1.1.1.user-4,pwd5003e9d5 Which Information must be included In the comma-separated value flit to provision the targets? A.FQON, AD name, IP address, email B.location, address, name. password C.certificate, user name, password. email D.target type, hostname or P address, user name, password Answer: D QUESTION 260 What is an advantage of NFSv4 over Fibre Channel protocol? A.Improved security B.Lossless throughout C.Congestion management D.Uses IP transport Answer: A QUESTION 261 Which two configuration settings are available in the in the cisco UCS flmware Auto sync server policy? A.User Notification B.User Acknowledge C.No Action D.Delayed Action E.Immediate Action Answer: BC QUESTION 262 An administrator is implementing DCNM so that events are triggered when monitored traffic exceeds the configured percent utilization threshold. The requirement is to configure a maximum limit of 39913690 bytes that applies directly to the statistics collected as a ratio of the total link capacity. Which DCNM performance monitoring configuration parameter must be implemented to achieve this result? A.Absolution Values B.Baseline C.Utill% D.Per port Monitoring Answer: A QUESTION 263 A network architect must redesign a data center network based on OSPFv2. The network must perform fast reconvergence between directly connected switches. Which two actions must be taken to meet the requirements? (Choose two.) A.Configure all links on AREA 0. B.Implement a virtual link between the switches. C.Use OSPF point-to-point links only. D.Set low OSPF hello and DEAD timers. E.Enable BFD for failure detection. Answer: CE QUESTION 264 Refer to the exhibit. A host with source address 10.10.10.10 sends traffic to multicast group 239.1.1.1. How do the vPC switches forward the multicast traffic? A.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 Switch2, the traffic is forwarded out only one Po20. B.If multicast traffic is received on Po10 Switch1, the traffic is forwarded out on Po1 and Po20. C.If multicast traffic is received on Po11 and Switch2, the traffic is dropped. D.If multicast traffic is received on Switch over the vPC peer-link, the traffic is dropped. Answer: C QUESTION 265 An engineer configured an environment that contains the vPC and non-vPC switches. However, it was noticed that the downstream non-vPC switches do not receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers. Which vPC feature must be implemented to ensure that vPC and non-vPC switches receive the same STP bridge ID from the upstream vPC switch peers? A.System-mac 0123.4567.89ab B.Peer-switch C.VPC local role-priority 4000 D.Peer-gateway Answer: B QUESTION 266 A company is running a pair of cisco Nexus 7706 series switches as part of a data center segment. All network engineers have restricted read-Write access to the core switches. A network engineer must a new FCoE VLAN to allow traffic from services toward FCoE storage. Which set of actions must be taken to meet these requirements? A.1. Create a user-defined role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a role to a user. B.1. Add the required privilege to the VDC-admin role. 2. Commit the changes to the active user database. C.1. Modify a network-operator role and add the required privileges. 2. Assign a VDC-operator role to a user. D.1. Assign the network-admin role to a user. 2. Commit the role to the switch to the active user database Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-601 PDF and 350-601 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1M-Px6bHjOJgp4aPsLoYq-hgm90ZKxV_i?usp=sharing
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What is a rabbit vibrator In the past, multifunctional sex toys focused more on women’s clitoris and G-spot, providing them with extensive and powerful stimulation and helping them achieve orgasm. However, the rabbit vibrators we are about to introduce have significantly progressed compared with the traditional C-spot-G-spot vibrators. In addition to satisfying the simultaneous stimulation of the C-spot and G-spot, Anesidora rabbit vibrators can penetrate the deep vagina, touch your A-spot. Where are the three sensitive spots? Before you can have better masturbation with sex toys, you need to exactly where those ever-mentioned sensitive spots are. C spot: This is the easiest to touch and the quickest sensitive point to help women reach orgasm. G spot: The G-spot is the most well-known female sensitive spot, about 5 cm deep from the vaginal opening. When you're excited, this spongy tissue becomes swollen and congested. A spot: A spot, technically known as the anterior fornix erogenous zone, it's about two inches deeper than the G-spot, between the cervix and the bladder. A-sp ot orgasms are usually more intense and longer-lasting than G-spot orgasms. Anesidora best rabbit style vibrators Anesidora's newest rabbit vibrators are different from the traditional rabbit vibrators in that it consists of three parts to stimulate three spots at the same time. Of course, it's a lot of work to cater to three different positioned spots simultaneously, which is why they are so much more visible in terms of appearance and size than single-function vibrators. 3-in-1 rabbit vibrators are not very common on the market, and relatively few articles are available to consumers. To give those interested in 3-in-1 vibrators a better understanding of the type of sex toy, we conduct a series of reviews to help you better understand this type of vibrator. What will be test of the two rabbit vibrators in this review? Design Power Noise Waterproof Design It is clear that both of the two vibrators have nothing to do with compactness. The Version 1 and Version 2 are both over 25cm long, making them large sex toys. Overall length: 27cm A woman's A point is located about 12 cm deep in the vagina. If you want to get an A-point orgasm, you must choose an insertion sex toy or a penis that is larger than 12 cm long. Both the rabbit vibrators have a thickest circumference of over 10 cm on the dildo and are over 15 cm long, perfectly suited for vaginal penetration and A-spot stimulation. Power As we mentioned, these two rabbit vibrators work on the A-spot, G-spot, and C-spot of women, so we will test the power of each of these three functions. A spot: Version 1 has a vibrating dildo and version 2 has a thrusting dildo. The differences between the two dildo vibrators can be seen in the following GIFs. They perform the same function in different ways - stimulating the A spot. You can't compare which is better because they are designed for people with different preferences. But you can rest assured that both vibrators guarantee strong power. Waterproof Whether Version 1 or Version 2, they are all made of silicone, and you can barely see a gap. Their super waterproof performance is ensured by good craftsmanship and quality materials. They can be safely used in the bathroom and rinsed directly under the faucet. Other features you may concern Materials Both are made of silicone and ABS materials. They are body safe and widely used in sex toy industry. So you don’t need to worry about the safety of the rabbit vibrator. Mode Version 1 has 7 A spot vibrating modes, 7 G spot patting modes, and 7 clit vibrating modes. Version 2 has 3 A spot thrusting modes, 9 G spot patting modes, and 7 clit suction modes. Rechargeable Both are charged by magnetic USB, which is eco-friendly. Charge time These large sex products need a longer charge time compared to compact sex toys. Version 1 needs 2 hours to charge, and Version 2 takes 1 hour to charge.   Battery Life The duration of the vibrator depends on the method of use. Usually, the available time is between 45-90 minutes. Here is a form to help you have a clearer understanding between the two rabbit vibrators: Version 1 Version 2 Color RED RED Material Silicone & ABS Silicone & ABS Whole length 25CM 27CM Insertable length 15.5CM 15.5CM G spot length 5.9CM 5.3CM C sopt diameter 2.5CM 1.4CM Mode 7 A spot vibrating modes 7 G spot patting modes 7 clit vibrating modes 3 A spot thrusting modes 9 G spot patting modes 7 clit suction modes. Noise level 50-80dbs 40-80dbs Charge time 2H 2H Battery Life 45-90 mins 45-90 mins Rechargeable YES YES Waterproof IPX7 IPX7 Pros & Cons of the multifunctional rabbit vibrators Pros: Body safe silicone Three functions in one toy, providing triple pleasure Powerful & Effective Excellent waterproof performance Rechargeable, eco-friendly Cons: This level of noise is unacceptable to some people Heavyweight, not suitable for long periods of use Large size, not convenient for storage How to use the rabbit vibrators? Before talking about how to use the rabbit vibrators, let's figure out how to operate them. Version 1 This rabbit vibrator has three buttons that control four functions. The arrangement of the three buttons follows the layout of the vibrator's functions. From top to bottom, they are the A-point vibrator switch, the G-point vibrator switch, and the C-point vibrator switch. 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Lube not only helps sex toys move better inside the vagina, but also relieves women from vaginal dryness caused by hormonal disruptions. 4. Use condoms if you need. If you want to share sex toys with your partner or develop the anal play, it is recommended that you wear condoms. Condoms will help reduce the spread of anal bacteria. Final thoughts These two rabbit vibrators are perfect for veteran players, with the powerful three features that will help you achieve orgasms in different realms. If you're new to the sex toy world and want a one-step sex toy, then these are fascinating sex toys you should invest in. But when thinking about value for money, you might also want to consider whether you can handle them comfortably. Anesidora has a number of vibrators that are more suitable for newcomers, and you can read our other sex toy reviews.