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2023 Latest Braindump2go AZ-900 PDF Dumps(Q246-Q275)
QUESTION 246 Identify two options from below that reflect two valid hybrid cloud infrastructures. (Choose two) A.On premises infrastructures and public cloud B.Private and public cloud C.Multiple public clouds D.On premises infrastructures and private cloud Answer: AB QUESTION 247 A company has an Azure infrastructure deployed. Three virtual machines (VMs) are deployed to Azure as a three-tiered architecture. All three VMs host different items, with one hosting a front-end web application, one hosting a Microsoft SQL Server database and one hosting a business application programming interface (API). For public access, only the front-end web application be available and should be accessible over HTTP on port 80. All three VMs must be accessible over Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) on port 222. There should be only one account able to access the VMs usning RDP, and it should be yours. Can you determine how Network Security Groups (NSGs) will be used in this scenario? Identify the two ways NSG rules can be used. (Choose two) A.To ensure that only your account can use RDP to access the VMs B.To ensure that only the front-end VM is publicly accessible over port 80 C.To ensure that all three VMs are accessible over port 222 D.Reviewed by executive management before being released to the public Answer: BC QUESTION 248 A new policy has been implemented in your organization that limits access to resource group and resource scopes in a detailed, granular way. Various groups and users will be provided access. What would you choose to use if you want to implement the new policy? A.Azure Advisor B.Role-based access control (RBAC) C.Azure Policies D.Locks Answer: B QUESTION 249 Cost per subscriber for a cloud service provider reduces with the increase in number of subscribers. It is a public cloud service. Can you identify what this would be called? A.Consumption-based billing B.Operational expenditures C.Scalability D.Economies of scale Answer: D QUESTION 250 Identify a justification that validates that fact that Azure lowers a company’s capital expenditure costs. A.Azure allows you to reduce the level of IT staffing that is required to maintain on-premises application and services B.Azure Allow you to pay monthly based on usage rather than pay upfront of physical hardware. C.Azure allows you to pay annually to reduce overall costs that are associated with its platform-as-a-service (PaaS) offerings. D.Azure Reduces the amount of maintenance that is associated with the configuration of firewalls, which reduces costs. Answer: B QUESTION 251 Identify what purpose does the load balancer resource have. A.Its uses URL-based routing to route web traffic across multiple instances B.Its distributes virtual machine traffic evenly across multiple instances C.It delivers internet traffic to the datacenter that is geographically closest to the user. D.Its add or removes virtual machine instances as demand increases Answer: B QUESTION 252 An organization wants to develop and deploy web apps, for which it subscribes to Azure as a platform. It is desired to keep the expenses to a minimum before the app is finally released. You have to identify the features available in Azure Active Directory (AD) Free edition. Choose two options from below that are available in the Azure Active Directory (AD) Free edition. A.Company branding B.User and Group management C.Group based access management D.Self service password Change for cloud users Answer: B QUESTION 253 You want to extract insights by querying and transforming data for which you would require an Azure big data solution. Identify which of the following do you think is the most appropriate tool to use. A.Blob Storage B.Data Lake Analytics C.Azure SQL Database D.Cosmos DB Answer: B QUESTION 254 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has deployed Azure. There are two subnets and you are required to filter traffic between them. Filtering should be based on three things: TCP/IP Protocol in use Source IP/address and port number Destination IP address and port number. Solution: As a solution, you suggest Azure Firewall to be deployed and configured as the traffic filter. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 255 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has deployed Azure. There are two subnets and you are required to filter traffic between them. Filtering should be based on three things: TCP/IP Protocol in use Source IP/address and port number Destination IP address and port number. Solution: As a solution, you suggest Web Applications Firewall to be deployed and configured as the traffic filter. Does this meet the goal? A.No B.Yes Answer: A QUESTION 256 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has deployed Azure. There are two subnets and you are required to filter traffic between them. Filtering should be based on three things: TCP/IP Protocol in use Source IP/address and port number Destination IP address and port number. Solution: As a solution, you suggest network Security Group to be deployed and configured as the traffic filter. Does this meet the goal? A.No B.Yes Answer: B QUESTION 257 You plan to provision Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) resources in Azure. Which resource is an example of IaaS? A.an Azure web app B.an Azure virtual machine C.an Azure logic app D.an Azure SQL database Answer: B QUESTION 258 To which cloud models can you deploy physical servers? A.private cloud and hybrid cloud only B.private cloud only C.private cloud, hybrid cloud and public cloud D.hybrid cloud only Answer: A QUESTION 259 You have 50 virtual machines hosted on-premises and 50 virtual machines hosted in Azure. The on-premises virtual machines and the Azure virtual machines connect to each other. Which type of cloud model is this? A.hybrid B.private C.public Answer: A QUESTION 260 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company plans to migrate all its data and resources to Azure. The company's migration plan states that only Platform as a Service (PaaS) solutions must be used in Azure. You need to deploy an Azure environment that meets the company migration plan. Solution: You create an Azure virtual machines, Azure SQL databases, and Azure Storage accounts. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 261 Your company plans to deploy several custom applications to Azure. The applications will provide invoicing services to the customers of the company. Each application will have several prerequisite applications and services installed. You need to recommend a cloud deployment solution for all the applications. What should you recommend? A.Software as a Service (SaaS) B.Platform as a Service (PaaS) C.Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) Answer: C QUESTION 262 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. An Availability Zone in Azure has physically separate locations across two continents. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change is needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A.No change is needed. B.within a single Azure region C.within multiple Azure regions D.within a single Azure datacenter Answer: B QUESTION 263 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You sign in to the Azure portal and create a resource group named RG1. From Azure documentation, you have the following command that creates a virtual machine named VM1. az vm create --resource-group RG1 --name VM1 --image UbuntuLTS --generate-ssh- keys You need to create VM1 in Subscription1 by using the command. Solution: From the Azure portal, launch Azure Cloud Shell and select PowerShell. Run the command in Cloud Shell. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 264 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You sign in to the Azure portal and create a resource group named RG1. From Azure documentation, you have the following command that creates a virtual machine named VM1. az vm create --resource-group RG1 --name VM1 --image UbuntuLTS --generate-ssh-keys You need to create VM1 in Subscription1 by using the command. Solution: From a computer that runs Windows 10, install Azure CLI. From PowerShell, sign in to Azure and then run the command. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 265 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You sign in to the Azure portal and create a resource group named RG1. From Azure documentation, you have the following command that creates a virtual machine named VM1. az vm create --resource-group RG1 --name VM1 --image UbuntuLTS --generate-ssh-keys You need to create VM1 in Subscription1 by using the command. Solution: From a computer that runs Windows 10, install Azure CLI. From a command prompt, sign in to Azure and then run the command. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 266 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources. You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script. Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Windows 10 and has the Azure PowerShell module installed. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 267 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You sign in to the Azure portal and create a resource group named RG1. From Azure documentation, you have the following command that creates a virtual machine named VM1. az vm create --resource-group RG1 --name VM1 --image UbuntuLTS --generate-ssh- keys You need to create VM1 in Subscription1 by using the command. Solution: From the Azure portal, launch Azure Cloud Shell and select Bash. Run the command in Cloud Shell. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 268 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Azure Databricks is an Apache Spark-based analytics service. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change is needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A.No change is needed. B.Azure Data Factory C.Azure DevOps D.Azure HDInsight Answer: A QUESTION 269 Which Azure service provides a set of version control tools to manage code? A.Azure Repos B.Azure DevTest Labs C.Azure Storage D.Azure Cosmos DB Answer: A QUESTION 270 You have an Azure web app. You need to manage the settings of the web app from an iPhone. What are two Azure management tools that you can use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.Azure CLI B.the Azure portal C.Azure Cloud Shell D.Windows PowerShell E.Azure Storage Explorer Answer: BC QUESTION 271 What can you use to automatically send an alert if an administrator stops an Azure virtual machine? A.Azure Advisor B.Azure Service Health C.Azure Monitor D.Azure Network Watcher Answer: C QUESTION 272 You have an Azure environment. You need to create a new Azure virtual machine from a tablet that runs the Android operating system. What are three possible solutions? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.Use Bash in Azure Cloud Shell. B.Use PowerShell in Azure Cloud Shell. C.Use the PowerApps portal. D.Use the Security & Compliance admin center. E.Use the Azure portal. Answer: ABE QUESTION 273 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines. You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP. Solution: You modify a network security group (NSG). Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 274 Which service provides network traffic filtering across multiple Azure subscriptions and virtual networks? A.Azure Firewall B.an application security group C.Azure DDoS protection D.a network security group (NSG) Answer: A QUESTION 275 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. From Azure Cloud Shell, you can track your company's regulatory standards and regulations, such as ISO 27001. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change is needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A.No change is needed. B.the Microsoft Cloud Partner Portal C.Compliance Manager D.the Trust Center Answer: C 2023 Latest Braindump2go AZ-900 PDF and AZ-900 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/13_1lErEE0LMey9KuTE7W2HPiiIw3ymgP?usp=sharing
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2023 Latest Braindump2go SC-300 PDF Dumps(Q107-Q131)
QUESTION 107 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You use Azure Monitor to analyze Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) activity logs. Yon receive more than 100 email alerts each day for tailed Azure Al) user sign-in attempts. You need to ensure that a new security administrator receives the alerts instead of you. Solution: From Azure AD, you create an assignment for the Insights at administrator role. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 108 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You use Azure Monitor to analyze Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) activity logs. Yon receive more than 100 email alerts each day for tailed Azure Al) user sign-in attempts. You need to ensure that a new security administrator receives the alerts instead of you. Solution: From Azure monitor, you modify the action group. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: A QUESTION 109 Due to a recent company acquisition, you have inherited a new Azure tenant with 1 subscription associated that you have the manage. The security has been neglected and you are looking for a quick and easy way to enable various security settings like requiring users to Register for Multi-factor authentication, blocking legacy authentication protocols, and protecting privileged activities like access to the Azure portal. What is the best way to enforce these settings with the least amount of administrative effort. A.Enable Security Defaultsright B.Configure Conditional Access Policies C.Configuring an Azure Policy D.Utilize Active Directory Sign-In Logs Answer: A QUESTION 110 You recently created a new Azure AD Tenant for your organization, Lead2pass Inc and you were assigned a default domain of whizlabs.onmicorosft.com. You want to use your own custom domain of whizlabs.com. You added the custom domain via the Azure portal and now you have to validate that you are the owner of the custom domain through your registrar. What type of record will you need to add to your domain registrar? A.TXT record B.A record C.CNAME record D.CAA record Answer: A QUESTION 111 You are looking to improve your organizations security posture after hearing about breaches and hacks of other organizations on the news. You have been looking into Azure Identity Protection and you are commissioning a team to begin implementing this service. This team will need full access to Identity Protection but would not need to reset passwords. You should follow the principle of least privilege. What role should you grant this new team? A.Security Operator B.Global Administrator C.Security Administratorright D.HelpDesk Administrator Answer: C QUESTION 112 Hotspot Question You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains a user named User1. An administrator deletes User1. You need to identity the following: - How many days after the account of User1 is deleted can you restore the account? - Which is the least privileged role that can be used to restore User1? What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 113 Drag and Drop Question Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com that is linked to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com by using Azure AD Connect. Attire AD Connect is installed on a server named Server 1. You deploy a new server named Server? that runs Windows Server 2019. You need to implement a failover server for Azure AD Connect. The solution must minimize how long it takes to fail over if Server1 fails. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Answer: QUESTION 114 Hotspot Question You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains the users shown in the following table. For which users can you configure the Job title property and the Usage location property in Azure AD? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 115 You are the lead cloud administrator for Lead2pass Inc. and you just hired a new employee that will be in charge of Azure AD Support issues. This new employee needs the ability to reset the passwords for all types of users when requested, including users with the user admin, global admin, or password admin roles. You need to ensure that you follow the principle of least privilege when granting access. What role should you grant the new employee? A.Password Admin B.Global Admin C.Security Admin D.User Admin Answer: B QUESTION 116 Your organization is considering allowing employees to work remotely and to use their own devices to access many of the organizations resources. However, to help protect against potential data loss, your organization needs to ensure that only approved applications can be used to access the company data. What can you configure to meet this requirement? A.Privileged Identity Management B.Conditional Access Policiesright C.RBAC roles D.Azure Security Center Answer: B QUESTION 117 Your organization is looking to tighten its security posture when it comes to Azure AD users passwords. There has been reports on local news recently of various organizations having user identities compromised due to using weak passwords or passwords that resemble the organization name or local sports team names. You want to provide protection for your organization as well as supplying a list of common words that are not acceptable passwords. What should you configure. A.Azure AD Password Protectionright B.Azure AD Privileged Identity Management C.Azure Defender for Passwords D.Azure AD Multi-factor Authentication Answer: A QUESTION 118 You have hired a new Azure Engineer that will be responsible for managing all aspects of enterprise applications and app registrations. This engineer will not need to manage anything application proxy related. You need to grant the proper role to the engineer to perform his job duties while maintaining the principle of least privilege. What role should you grant? A.Global Administrator B.Application Administrator C.Cloud Application Administratorright D.Enterprise Administrator Answer: C QUESTION 119 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You currently allow email clients that use Basic authentication to conned to Microsoft Exchange Online. You need to ensure that users can connect t to Exchange only run email clients that use Modern authentication protocols. You need to ensure that use Modern authentication. What should you implement? A.a compliance policy in Microsoft Endpoint Manager B.a conditional access policy in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) C.an application control profile in Microsoft Endpoint Manager D.an OAuth policy in Microsoft Cloud App Security Answer: C QUESTION 120 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You use Azure Monitor to analyze Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) activity logs. Yon receive more than 100 email alerts each day for tailed Azure Al) user sign-in attempts. You need to ensure that a new security administrator receives the alerts instead of you. Solution: From Azure monitor, you create a data collection rule. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 121 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains the following: An Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that has an Azure Active Directory Premium P2 license A Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Site1 A Microsoft Teams team named Team1 You need to create an entitlement management workflow to manage Site1 and Team1. What should you do first? A.Configure an app registration. B.Create an Administrative unit. C.Create an access package. D.Create a catalog. Answer: C QUESTION 122 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. All users must use the Microsoft Authenticator app for multi-factor authentication (MFA) when accessing Microsoft 365 services. Some users report that they received an MFA prompt on their Microsoft Authenticator app without initiating a sign-in request. You need to block the users automatically when they report an MFA request that they did not Initiate. Solution: From the Azure portal, you configure the Account lockout settings for multi-factor authentication (MFA). Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 123 Your organization is a 100% Azure cloud based organization with no on-premise resources. You recently completed an acquisition of another company that is 100% on-premise with no cloud premise. You need to immediately provide your cloud users with access to a few of the acquired companies on-premise web applications. What service can you implement to ensure Azure Active Directory can still be used to authenticate to the on-premise applications? A.Azure Active Directory Connect B.Azure Security Center C.Azure Active Directory Application Proxyright D.Azure Active Directory Domain Services Answer: C QUESTION 124 Your organization is working with a new consulting firm to help with the design, development, and deployment of a new IT service. The consultants will be joining your organization at various points throughout the project and will not know what permissions they need or who to request the access from. As the Cloud Administrator, what can you implement to ensure consultants can easily request and get all of the access they need to do their job? A.Azure Arm Templates B.Azure Blueprints C.Azure Policies D.Azure AD Entitlement Management Answer: D QUESTION 125 Drag and Drop Question Your company has an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. The company is developing a web service named App1. You need to ensure that App1 can use Microsoft Graph to read directory data in contoso.com. Which three actions should yon perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them In the correct order. Answer: QUESTION 126 Hotspot Question You have a Microsoft 36S tenant. You create a named location named HighRiskCountries that contains a list of high-risk countries. You need to limit the amount of time a user can stay authenticated when connecting from a high-risk country. What should you configure in a conditional access policy? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 127 Hotspot Question You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that has multi-factor authentication (MFA) enabled. The account lockout settings are configured as shown in the following exhibit. Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 128 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. All users have mobile phones and laptops. The users frequently work from remote locations that do not have Wi-Fi access or mobile phone connectivity. While working from the remote locations, the users connect their laptop to a wired network that has internet access. You plan to implement multi-factor authentication (MFA). Which MFA authentication method can the users use from the remote location? A.a notification through the Microsoft Authenticator app B.email C.security questions D.a verification code from the Microsoft Authenticator app Answer: D QUESTION 129 Hotspot Question You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that has an Azure Active Directory Premium Plan 2 license. The tenant contains the users shown in the following table. You have the Device Settings shown in the following exhibit. User1 has the devices shown in the following table. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Answer: QUESTION 130 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You use Azure Monitor to analyze Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) activity logs. You receive more than 100 email alerts each day for failed Azure AD user sign-in attempts. You need to ensure that a new security administrator receives the alerts instead of you. Solution: From Azure AD, you create an assignment for the Insights administrator role. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B QUESTION 131 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You use Azure Monitor to analyze Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) activity logs. You receive more than 100 email alerts each day for failed Azure AD user sign-in attempts. You need to ensure that a new security administrator receives the alerts instead of you. Solution: From Azure AD, you modify the Diagnostics settings. Does this meet the goal? A.Yes B.No Answer: B 2023 Latest Braindump2go SC-300 PDF and SC-300 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1NZuutHaYtOunblg44BrB3XLXyjNDRv4F?usp=sharing
How to Prevent Diabetes in Sleep Apnea Patients
Sleep apnea can be extremely frustrating. You may wake up earlier than expected and experience fatigue throughout the day as well as mood changes without explanation. Sleep apnea causes frequent partial and complete obstruction of the upper airway, resulting in intermittent hypoxia with decreased oxygen levels, which in turn may lead to systemic inflammation, oxidative stress loading and changes in hormonal systems - leading ultimately to insulin resistance and the accumulation of fat in livers and abdomens. Other side effects may include headaches, sore throats, difficulty focusing and difficulty maintaining a healthy weight. Studies have even revealed an overlap between people suffering from sleep apnea and type 2 diabetes - there appears to be significant overlap. Loffler recently conducted a study that demonstrated how treatment with continuous positive airway pressure, or CPAP, helped decrease progression to diabetes by improving their HOMA index score. Their findings came from substudy of CPAP Apnea Trial North American Program (CATNAP), in which OSAHS patients received either treatment with continuous positive airway pressure or continued treatment via continuous positive airway pressure as control groups. Considered closely linked, both sleep apnea and diabetes have been associated with insulin resistance. Treatment for sleep apnea with CPAP therapy has shown to decrease this resistance as well as improve glucose metabolism and tolerance. You can reach out to The Air Station for more information about sleep studies and obstructive sleep apnea treatment with an advanced CPAP machine (ResMed AirSense, AirMini, AirCurve etc.). Company Name: The Air Station Malaysia Address: Level 9 Menara Summit, Persiaran Kewajipan USJ 1, 47600 UEP Subang Jaya, Selangor Darul Ehsan, Malaysia.
Un coach personnel aide à réussir votre relation amoureuse
Les êtres humains sont des animaux sociaux qui ont soif d’attention et d’amour. Toutes nos activités tournent autour de l’objectif d’être accepté et admiré. Les relations jouent un rôle très crucial dans nos vies et nous dépendons complètement de nos relations pour notre bonheur. La relation d’une personne avec sa famille, ses amis ou un autre significatif affecte dans une large mesure sa disposition. Cependant, l’une des associations qui a le plus grand rôle à jouer dans la vie d’un individu est celle avec notre conjoint . Nos conjoints sont ceux avec qui nous promettons de passer toute notre vie, et si cette relation tourne au vinaigre, tout semble se détériorer. Un lien fort entre les époux donne la force de surmonter tout obstacle et de combattre tous les problèmes qui se présentent à eux. L’importance vitale de ce lien est la raison pour laquelle de plus en plus de gens se rendent compte du besoin de conseillers en relations et de Coaching couple. Qu’est-ce qui cause la rupture des relations? La raison pour laquelle les relations et la plupart des mariages échouent ces jours-ci est que nous ne pouvons pas voir nos partenaires comme des humains qui sont tout aussi imparfaits que nous-mêmes. Nos notions sur les relations amoureuses et le mariage ont été contaminées par le monde fictif des livres et des films. Nous considérons nos partenaires comme des individus parfaits, un chevalier aux armures étincelantes envoyé pour nous. Cependant, c’est loin de la réalité. Nos partenaires ont autant d’imperfections que n’importe qui d’autre. Au fil du temps, nous nous rendons compte qu’ils ne sont pas si parfaits que nous les avons initialement perçus. Il est évident que nous serons déçus et contrariés, tout comme nos partenaires sont parfois déçus de nous. La prise de conscience que c’est la vérité de la vie et que nous devons être une équipe en acceptant les imperfections de chacun et en nous aimant quoi qu’il en soit, est le secret d’une relation fructueuse. Malheureusement pour la plupart des gens, cette prise de conscience survient un peu plus tard, alors que beaucoup de dégâts ont été causés. Les coachs relationnels et matrimoniaux nous aident à voir nos partenaires comme des individus imparfaits qui nous aiment malgré nos défauts. Ils nous motivent à lutter contre toute attente, à s’accepter et à aimer la relation que nous entretenons avec nos partenaires. Nous avons des moments heureux et tristes, il y aura des moments où nous rirons et remercirons Dieu de nous avoir bénis avec nos partenaires, mais il y aura aussi des moments où nous ne pourrons pas nous regarder dans les yeux, où nous nous ferons pleurer, mais une relation est tout ça. Une citation d’amour est faite de temps heureux et sombres, nous devons donc accepter chaque obstacle comme une phase et non comme une fin. Pourquoi les coachs relationnels sont-ils importants? Relation amoureuse nous aident à redécouvrir pourquoi nous sommes tombés amoureux de nos partenaires. Ils nous aident à communiquer et à résoudre nos problèmes. C’est un coach matrimonial qui fait comprendre aux couples que les relations ou les mariages ne se limitent pas à la phase de lune de miel, mais se soutiennent mutuellement et partagent leur vie. L’embauche d’un coach matrimonial permet aux couples de s’attaquer efficacement aux difficultés qui se présentent à eux et d’entretenir leur relation. Pour rechercher des conseils en matière d’amour et de mariage, il faut d’abord reconnaître leurs difficultés et avoir le désir de s’amender. Les coach personnel qui aiment les relations ou leur mariage mais qui s’y sentent étouffées devraient chercher des conseils pour gérer efficacement leurs indifférences. C’est efficace parce que lorsqu’un étranger donne un aperçu et ses opinions, les deux partenaires savent que c’est la vérité et personne n’est offensé. Au contraire, ils le prennent au sérieux en tant que conseil d’un expert et y travaillent. Ces experts fournissent un plan ou une stratégie personnalisée pour chaque client afin de sauvegarder sa relation. Source link: https://www.coach-sonia.com/tout-ce-que-vous-devez-savoir-pour-reussir-vos-relations-amoureuses/
Best Coaching Institute for NEET | Neet Coaching Classes
Sri Chaitanya one of the best coaching institute for NEET exam. NEET is one of the most popular medical level entrance exams. NEET – Gateway to National Medical Entrance The National Eligibility and Entrance Test (NEET) is one of the most popular medical level entrance exams. NEET is a pre-medical test for aspirants who are looking to build their career in the medical field while pursuing courses from government or private medical institutes or colleges in India. Those who seek admission at national level medical colleges aim for a noble life in helping mankind and healing people. But to get there, one must work not just hard, but also smart to achieve the career they dream of. And that’s where Sri Chaitanya Junior College, one of the best colleges in Hyderabad for NEET coaching, assists the students by guiding them on the correct path. NEET, being a competitive exam helps students get admission to their desired medical college. At Sri Chaitanya, we ensure to offer the best mentorship and education to achieve their goal in one kick. With individual attention and a research-backed methodology that delivers results, Sri Chaitanya is the best option for students aiming to crack the NEET. Our expert faculty are experienced in teaching thousands of NEET candidates with the promise of achieving impressive outcomes. Our faculty’s always available to assist you and guide you. With a low student-teacher ratio, Sri Chaitanya is one of the best NEET coaching centres in Hyderabad. Various counselling and motivation lectures are held from time-to-time to keep students motivated and push them to stay confident in their dreams. Straight and simple teaching methodology with the basic fundamentals and well-timed completion of the syllabus makes it easy for the students to self-study and practice at home. Sri Chaitanya, the best long-term coaching for NEET in Hyderabad, provides complete comprehensive study material, test series, doubt clearing sessions, regular tests, mentoring sessions, and much more. Our aim is to help you achieve your aim with 100% confidence and prepare you well for your bright future. Our Courses – ELITE – NEET AIIMS Super 60 – NEET MPL – MEDICON IC – NEET Repeater Course Structure:- Our success lies in our students’ results, and the results of Sri Chaitanya are testimony to the quality education of the institute. Every year, our national toppers make us proud and give us more strength to prepare students for various other life challenges. Sri Chaitanya group doesn’t only include girls junior colleges in Hyderabad and schools but also has a wider network of medical, engineering, and other specialized professionals that make us superior to other NEET coaching centres in Hyderabad. If you are also looking to join NEET long term coaching in Hyderabad, we welcome you to Sri Chaitanya, the best NEET academy in Hyderabad. Get Free Study Material prepared by Sri Chaitanya Faculty to boost your entrance preparation here Features:- * Individual and special attention to every student to ensure proper understanding of concepts. * Flexible class timings for NEET coaching * Regular and periodic tests to track the student’s performance and guide them * Proper time management to complete NEET exam on time * Updated study materials for that match with the evolving examinations patterns * Pre-planned sessions after providing ample time to students for practice and clear their doubts * Analysis and communication of academic performance * Fully updated tech and infrastructure.
MBBS in Kazakhstan: Study Medicine in Central Asia
Kazakhstan has emerged as a popular destination for studying medicine for several reasons :- Well-established education system The country has a well-established education system with several universities that offer high-quality medical education at a relatively low cost. This makes it an attractive option for international students who are looking for affordable alternatives to expensive medical schools in other countries. Recognized by several international bodies The medical universities in Kazakhstan are recognized by several international bodies such as the World Health Organization (WHO), the Medical Council of India (MCI), and the General Medical Council (GMC) of the United Kingdom. This means that graduates from these universities are eligible to practice medicine in several countries around the world. Rich cultural heritage Kazakhstan has a rich cultural heritage and offers a unique opportunity for students to immerse themselves in a different culture and learn from a diverse patient population. Experienced faculty members Studying mbbs in kazakhstan provides students with the opportunity to learn from experienced faculty members who have a wealth of knowledge and expertise in their respective fields. The curriculum is designed to provide a well-rounded education that emphasizes practical skills and clinical experience, preparing students to become competent and compassionate healthcare professionals. Advantages of studying MBBS in Kazakhstan There are several advantages to studying MBBS in Kazakhstan: Affordable Education One of the biggest advantages for study mbbs in kazakhstan is the low cost of education compared to many other countries. This makes it an attractive option for international students who are looking for affordable alternatives to expensive medical schools. Studying in Kazakhstan is a cost-effective option for students who want to pursue higher education in medicine. The cost of living and tuition fees are relatively low compared to other countries, making it an affordable option for international students. The cost-effectiveness is further enhanced by the high-quality education and infrastructure that is available to students. High-Quality Education The medical universities in Kazakhstan offer high-quality education with experienced faculty members, modern facilities, and a curriculum that emphasizes practical skills and clinical experience. These universities are recognized by several international bodies such as the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Medical Council of India (MCI), which ensures that the education is of high standard. Medical universities in Kazakhstan have state-of-the-art facilities and experienced faculty members who provide students with a high-quality education that emphasizes practical skills and hands-on experience. Students have access to modern equipment and technology that prepares them for their future careers as healthcare professionals. International Recognition Graduates from medical universities in Kazakhstan are eligible to practice medicine in several countries around the world. The medical universities are recognized by several international bodies such as the World Health Organization (WHO), the Medical Council of India (MCI), and the General Medical Council (GMC) of the United Kingdom. The medical universities in Kazakhstan are equipped with modern facilities and state-of-the-art technology. This ensures that students have access to the latest equipment and technology, which helps them gain practical skills and hands-on experience. Cultural Diversity Kazakhstan is a culturally diverse country with a rich cultural heritage. Studying medicine in Kazakhstan provides students with the opportunity to immerse themselves in a different culture and learn from a diverse patient population. This enhances their overall learning experience and makes them better healthcare professionals. Studying in Kazakhstan also provides students with a multi-cultural exposure and diverse learning opportunities. The country has a rich cultural heritage and a diverse population, which provides students with a unique opportunity to learn from a variety of patients and gain a broader perspective on healthcare. Safe and Secure Environment Kazakhstan is a safe and secure country with a low crime rate. International students can feel safe and secure while studying in Kazakhstan. A degree from a medical university in Kazakhstan is globally recognized, which means that graduates are eligible to practice medicine in several countries around the world. This provides students with ample employment opportunities and a chance to pursue their career goals. Academic requirements To be eligible to study MBBS in Kazakhstan, students must meet certain academic requirements. They must have completed their 12th standard or equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. In addition, there may be age limit and nationality criteria that vary depending on the university.
What is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
An airflow blockage and breathing problems are the symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or COPD. COPD typically advances slowly, so you might not notice its development at first. An early indicator may be feeling out of breath during everyday activities such as walking up stairs. After this happens, coughing with mucus could follow and this symptom known as a flare-up could last days or even weeks before subsiding again. Assuming COPD puts you at greater risk for additional health conditions, including respiratory infections, cardiovascular issues and depression. Your lifespan could also decrease more rapidly from COPD due to smoking; your outlook depends on how long and what type of COPD is present in your case. People who smoke more than 20 cigarettes daily and/or for at least 10 years are most at risk for COPD, although anyone currently or previously smoking can develop it. Other risk factors for the condition can include dust or fume exposure as well as having alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency - an inherited genetic condition which increases their chances of COPD. There's no single test for COPD. Instead, your doctor will use your medical history and physical exam to diagnose you with it. Breathing tests such as spirometry may be performed to measure how effectively your lungs work by blowing into a machine that measures how much air can flow in and out at one time; it helps rule out other lung conditions as well. In some cases an X-ray or CT scan might also be taken in order to inspect for signs of damage in your lungs; blood testing to measure oxygen levels in your arteries may also aid diagnosis. The chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is an ongoing lung condition that cannot be cured, but you can take steps to control its progression, relieve its symptoms and help stay out of hospital. Commit to ongoing treatments and lifestyle modifications such as quitting smoking and taking medicines such as bronchodilators (inhaled medications used to open airways) or steroids; drink plenty of fluids, make healthy food and exercise choices; get regular medical check-ups; act quickly when there's a flare-up; get emotional support if needed. Maintaining a daily log of your COPD symptoms, diet and activity can help you identify any flare-ups so you can notify your doctor quickly and seek treatment sooner. Your doctor might prescribe long-acting bronchodilators or steroids; or suggest other approaches like dietary supplements or acupuncture as potential solutions. If you have sleep apnea and other sleep disorder condition, you should talk to your doctor for more details about sleep study and obstructive sleep apnea treatment based on your current medical condition.
What is Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA)?
Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA) occurs when throat muscles relax too much during sleep, narrowing or closing off your airway and cutting off oxygen flow to your blood and leading to carbon dioxide build-up in your system. Your brain detects this and briefly awakens you so that breathing again is possible. This may occur several times an hour. OSA is the leading cause of snoring and disrupted sleep as well as increasing risk factors like heart disease, high blood pressure, stroke depression or any number of other health conditions. OSA should also raises risks like heart disease high blood pressure high blood pressure stroke depression among others as well. Symptoms of sleep disorder vary from person to person and are usually first noticed by their spouse or family member. You might experience sore throat or dry mouth symptoms, fatigue during the daytime hours, headaches or feel fatigued at nighttime. Your physician will conduct a physical exam and ask about symptoms, family history and sleeping patterns before possibly referring you to a sleep clinic for diagnosis. Sleep studies, or polysomnograms, are used to confirm obstructive sleep apnea diagnoses and measure its severity. You may stay overnight at a hospital or sleep center, or be given a portable device at home that measures oxygen flow in and out of your body as well as muscle activity during sleep - this information helps your doctor find appropriate treatments. Consult with The Air Station in Malaysia about sleep studies and sleep apnea treatment with a continuous positive airway machine, or CPAP machine, such as ResMed AirMini and AirSense 10 Autoset.
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Trường Nhật ngữ Osaka toạ lạc tại thành phố Sakai thuộc tỉnh Osaka. Trường có truyền thống gần 20 năm đào tạo tiếng Nhật cho du học sinh quốc tế. Với phương châm trở thành cầu nối giữa sinh viên và xã hội Nhật Bản, mang đến cơ hội hiểu biết, phát triển và học hỏi giữa các nền văn hoá khác nhau, trường Nhật ngữ Osaka là điểm đến uy tín của nhiều du học sinh quốc tế mong muốn được học hỏi văn hoá và ngôn ngữ Nhật. >> https://newb.com.vn/truong-nhat-ngu-osaka/ 1.Giới thiệu chung về trường Nhật ngữ Osaka Tên tiếng Anh: Osaka Japanese Language School (OJLS) Năm thành lập: 2003 Loại trường: tư thục Địa chỉ cơ sở 1: 2-74-26 Higashiasakayamacho, Kita, Sakai, Osaka (+81 722-51-2139) Địa chỉ cơ sở 2: 315 Higashiasakayamacho, Kita, Sakai, Osaka (+81 722-67-4375) Địa chỉ cơ sở 3: 314 Higashiasakayamacho, Kita, Sakai, Osaka (+81 722-67-4375) Website: http://osaka-jls.net/ Phương châm hoạt động: trở thành cầu nối giữa sinh viên và xã hội Nhật Bản, mang đến cơ hội hiểu biết, phát triển và học hỏi giữa các nền văn hoá khác nhau. 2. Chuyên ngành đào tạo Trường Nhật ngữ Osaka tuyển sinh các khoá học bao gồm: Khoá tiếng Nhật 2 năm Khoá tiếng Nhật 1 năm 9 tháng Khoá tiếng Nhật 1 năm 6 tháng Khoá tiếng Nhật 1 năm 3 tháng _______________________________________________________________________ Để được tư vấn và cung cấp các thông tin du học Nhật Bản mới nhất, đừng ngần ngại liên hệ với New B Việt Nam nhé! NEW B VIỆT NAM – Hotline 0986.988.076
2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-420 PDF Dumps(Q76-Q120)
QUESTION 76 How do endpoints inside an SD-Access network reach resources outside the fabric? A.a VRF fusion router is used to map resources in one VN to another VN B.Fabric borders use VRFs to map VNs to VRFs C.SD-Access transit links are used to transport encapsulated traffic from one fabric to another D.A fabric edge is used to de-encapsulate VXLAN traffic to normal IP traffic then transported over the outside network Answer: B Explanation: Fabric border routers handle the ingress & egress traffic for the SD-Access fabric, they are responsible for translating the policy, VRF & SGT information between the SD-Access fabric and the external networks. QUESTION 77 Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose three) A.metric B.authentication type C.link state D.IP subnet E.external route tag F.subnet mask Answer: ADF QUESTION 78 Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two) A.NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router. B.NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub. C.NHRP disables multicast D.The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes. E.The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers. Answer: AB QUESTION 79 In a simple MPLS L3VPN, which two tasks are performed by the PE router? (Choose two.) A.It establishes pseudo wires with other PEs. B.It exchanges VPNv4 and VPNv6 routes with CE Devices. C.It assigns labels to routes in individual VPNs. D.It forwards labeled packets to CE devices. E.It exchanges VPNv4 or VPNv6 route with other PE routers. Answer: CE QUESTION 80 Refer to the exhibit. Which action would make the router the active VRRP router? A.Recover interface Serial 1/0. B.Increase priority in the configuration to 100. C.Change the interface tracking priority to 100. D.Recover interface Serial 1/1. Answer: A QUESTION 81 Which design principle involves redundancy through hardware, software, and connectivity? A.Performance B.Security C.Scalability D.High availability Answer: D QUESTION 82 NAT-PT translates between what address types? A.RFC 1918 private addresses and public IPv4 addresses B.IPv4 and IPv6 addresses C.Network addresses and IPv6 ports D.Private IPv6 addresses and public IPv6 addresses Answer: B QUESTION 83 By default, if IS-IS is enabled on all routers, and this is an IPv6 network, what path is taken? A.Path 1 B.Path 2 C.Unequal-cost load balancing with Path 1 and Path 2 D.Equal-cost load balancing with Path 1 and Path 2 Answer: A QUESTION 84 How many host addresses are available with a Class B network with the default mask? A.63,998 B.64,QQQ C.65,534 D.65,536 Answer: C QUESTION 85 A packet sent to a multicast address reaches what destinations? A.The nearest destination in a set of hosts B.All destinations in a set of hosts C.All hosts D.Reserved global destinations Answer: B QUESTION 86 What does a hierarchical EIGRP design help with? (Choose two.) A.Redistribution B.Route summarization C.Faster convergence D.Load balancing Answer: BC QUESTION 87 During the integration of ISE and DNA Center, which of the following are used to establish trust through ISE? A.REST APIs B.pxGRID services C.Scalable groups D.SGACLs Answer: B QUESTION 88 In IS-IS networks, the backup designated router (BDR) forms adjacencies to what router or routers? A.It forms an adjacency only with the DR B.It forms adjacencies with all routers C.The BDR only becomes adjacent when the DR is down D.There is no BDR in IS-IS Answer: D QUESTION 89 You need to connect sites that are 8 kilometers apart by using fiber. Which media do you recommend? A.10GBASE-T B.10GBASE-ER C.10GBASE-LR D.10GBASE-SR Answer: C QUESTION 90 The customization of routing decisions is an example of which policy type? A.Centralized control policy B.Centralized data Policy C.Localized data policy D.Localized control policy Answer: A QUESTION 91 A client is moving to Model-Driven Telemetry and requires periodic updates. What must the network architect consider with this design? A.Updates that contain changes within the data are sent only when changes occur. B.Empty data subscriptions do not generate empty update notifications. C.Periodic updates include a full copy of the data that is subscribed to. D.The primary push update is sent immediately and cannot be delayed. Answer: C QUESTION 92 An architect is designing a multicast solution for a network that contains over 100 routers. The architect plans to create several multicast domains and balance the PIM-SM traffic within the network. Which technology should the architect include in the design? A.DVMRP B.IGMP C.MOSPF D.MSDP Answer: D QUESTION 93 An architect is designing a network that will utilize the spanning tree protocol to ensure a loop-free topology. The network will support an engineering environment where it is necessary for end users to connect their own network switches for testing purposes. Which feature should the architect include in the design to ensure the spanning tree topology is not affected by these rogue switches? A.BPDU Skew Detection B.BPDU guard C.loop guard D.root guard Answer: D QUESTION 94 An engineer is designing a Layer 3 campus network running EIGRP between the core, aggregation, and access layers. The access layer switches will be connected to the aggregation layer using Layer 3 copper connections. The engineer wants to improve convergence time for access layer switch failures. Which technique must the design include? A.enabling BFD for EIGRP on the access layer uplinks B.reducing the EIGRP Hello / Hold timer values C.EIGRP summarization from core to aggregation layer D.EIGRP summarization from access to aggregation layer Answer: A QUESTION 95 An engineer must design a solution to provide backup connectivity between two sites. The engineer plans to use an Internet connection but company policy requires the connection to be encrypted. Additionally, there are several applications that utilize multicast to deliver video streams between the sites. Which technology should the design include? A.GRE over IPsec B.IPsec direct encapsulation C.GETVPN D.DMVPN Answer: A QUESTION 96 An existing network solution is using BFD in echo mode. Several of the network devices are experiencing high CPU utilization which an engineer has determined is related to the BFD feature. Which solution should the engineer leverage to reduce the CPU load? A.Implement slow timers between peers with low CPU resources. B.Implement BED asynchronous mode between peers with low CPU resources. C.Enable BFD multi-hop on the devices with low CPU resources. D.Utilize carrier delay on all routers in the network. Answer: A QUESTION 97 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing a BGP solution for a client that peers with ISP1 for full Internet connectivity and with ISP2 for direct exchange of routes for several third parties. Which action, when implemented on the edge routers, enables the client network to reach the Internet through ISP1? A.Run an eBGP session within different VRFs for each ISP. B.Advertise a default route for downstream routers within the client network. C.Apply the AS path prepend feature for ISP2. D.Apply route filtering such that the client advertises only routes originated from its own AS. Answer: B QUESTION 98 An architect is working on a design to connect a company's main site to several small to medium- sized remote branches. The solution must include redundant WAN links, but the customer has a limited budget and wants the ability to increase the link speed easily in the future. QoS will not on the branch routers so there is no need for consistent end-to-end QoS. Which solution does the architect propose? A.dual-homed WAN MPLS with single edge router B.dual-homed Internet with a single edge router running a site-to-site VPN topology C.dual-homed WAN MPLS and Internet links via dual edge routers D.dual-homed Internet with dual edge routers running a hub-and-spoke VPN topology Answer: D QUESTION 99 Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design an IP addressing scheme for a multisite network connected via a WAN transit. The campus site must accommodate 12,000 devices and the branch sites must accommodate 1,000 devices. Which address scheme optimizes network device resources, contains convergence events to the different blocks of the network, and ensures future growth of the network? A.Campus: 10.0.0.0/18 Branch1: 10.0.192.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.200.0/21 B.Campus: 10.0.0.0/16 Branch1: 10.255.0.0/20 Branch2: 10.255.16.0/20 C.Campus: 10.0.0.0/10 Branch1: 10.64.0.0/10 Branch2: 10.128.0.0/10 D.Campus: 10.0.0.0/20 Branch1: 10.0.64.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.128.0/21 Answer: A QUESTION 100 An engineer must design a solution to connect a customer to the Internet. The solution will include a Layer 3 circuit with a CIR of 50 Mbps from the service provider. The hand-off from the provider's switch to the customer's router is 1Gbps. Which solution should the engineer include to prevent potential issues with choppy voice traffic? A.Reduce the bandwidth of the connection to the router. B.Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent policing policy. C.Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent shaping policy D.Add a bandwidth statement to the router interface. Answer: C QUESTION 101 Refer to the exhibit. Customers report low video quality and delays when having point-to-point telepresence video calls between the two locations. An architect must optimize a design so that traffic follows the same path for egress and ingress traffic flows. Which technique optimizes the design? A.Configure route leaking on the router in area 2. B.Configure route leaking on he router in area 1. C.Configure the high metric on the router in area 4. D.Configure route filter on the router in area 4. Answer: A QUESTION 102 An engineer must design a scalable QoS architecture that allows the separation of the traffic into classes on predefined business requirements. The design must also utilize the differentiated services code points as the QoS priority descriptor value and support at least 10 levels of classification. Which QoS technology should the engineer include in the design? A.RSVP B.DiffSery C.Best Effort D.InterServ Answer: B QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. Area 10 is a regular OSPF area and networks 10.1.1.0/24 and 172.16.1.0/24 are internal. Which design provides optimal routing between both networks when the link between routers C and E fails? A.Move the link between routers C and D to area 10. B.Create an OSPF virtual link between routers E and F. C.Create a tunnel between routers E and F in area 10. D.Make area 10 a not-so-stubby area. Answer: A QUESTION 104 An architect is creating a migration strategy for a large organization in which the choice made by the application between IPv6 and IPv4 is based on the DNS request. Which migration strategy does the architect choose? A.AFT for public web presence B.host-initiated tunnels C.dual stack D.site-to-site IPv6 over IPv4 tunnels Answer: C QUESTION 105 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing an OSPF network for a client. Requirements dictate that the routers in Area 1 should receive all routes belonging to the network, including EIGRP, except the ones originated in the RIP domain. Which action should the engineer take? A.Make area 1 a NSSA. B.Make area 1 a stub. C.Make area 1 a standard OSPF area. D.Make the area 1 routers part of area 0. Answer: A QUESTION 106 An engineer must propose a solution for a campus network that includes the capability to create multiple Layer 3 virtual networks. Each network must have its own addressing structure and routing table for data forwarding. The solution must be scalable to support hundreds of virtual networks and allow simple configuration and management with minimal administrative overhead. Which solution does the engineer recommend? A.hop-by-hop EVN B.multihop MPLS core C.multihop IPsec tunneling D.hop-by-hop VRF-Lite Answer: D QUESTION 107 Refer to the exhibit. Which two solutions maximize the use of the links between the core and distribution layers? (Choose two.) A.use multiple equal-cost links B.use an IGP C.use HSRP D.use RPVSTP+ E.use multiple unequal-cost links Answer: AB QUESTION 108 An engineer is tasked with designing a dual BGP peering solution with a service provider. The design must meet these conditions: - The routers will not learn any prefix with a subnet mask greater than /24. - The routers will determine the routes to include in the routing table based on the length of the mask alone. - The routers will make this selection regardless of the service provider configuration. Which solution should the engineer include in the design? A.Use a route map and access list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors inbound. B.Use a route map and prefix list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors outbound. C.Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors outbound. D.Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors inbound. Answer: D QUESTION 109 An engineer is designing an EIGRP network for a small branch site where there is only one Layer 3 router. The engineer wants the router to advertise the local LAN network to remote EIGRP neighbors without sending any unnecessary multicast messages on the local LAN. Which action should the engineer take? A.Use a static default route for this site instead of EIGRP B.Advertise the local LAN using the network command and the passive-interface feature C.Redistribute the local LAN network using the redistribute connected command D.Advertise the local LAN subnet as a stub network Answer: B QUESTION 110 A network engineer is redesigning a company's QoS solution. The company is currently using IP Precedence, but the engineer plans to move to DiffServ. It is important that the new solution provide backward compatibility with the current solution. Which technology should the design include? A.expedited forwarding B.assured forwarding C.class selector code points D.default per hop behavior Answer: C QUESTION 111 A customer's current Layer 2 infrastructure is running Spanning Tree 802.1d, and all configuration changes are manually implemented on each switch. An architect must redesign the Layer 2 domain to achieve these goals: - reduce the impact of topology changes - reduce the time spent on network administration - reduce manual configuration errors Which two solutions should the architect include in the new design? (Choose two.) A.Implement Rapid PVST+ instead of STP. B.Implement MST instead of STP. C.Use VTP to propagate VLAN information and to prune unused VLANs. D.Configure broadcast and multicast storm control on all switches. E.Configure dynamic trunking protocol to propagate VLAN information. Answer: AC QUESTION 112 How is sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network? A.Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. B.BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers. C.BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. D.Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers. Answer: B QUESTION 113 Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design a solution to connect the network behind R3 with the EIGRP network. Which mechanism should be included to avoid routing loops? A.down bit B.split horizon C.route tags D.summarization Answer: C QUESTION 114 Drag and Drop Question An engineer must design an addressing plan for a small business using a single /24 network. Each department must have its own subnet. Drag and drop the subnets from the left onto the departments requirements that they fulfill on the right. Not all options are used. Answer: QUESTION 115 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the Yang model they describe on the right. Answer: QUESTION 116 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the model driven telemetry characteristics from the left onto the mode they belong to on the right. Answer: QUESTION 117 A customer has several remote sites connected with their headquarters through microwave links. An engineer must propose a backup WAN solution based on these conditions: Which backup WAN link type the engineer recommend? A.LTE B.802.16 WiMAX C.Laser link D.802.15.1 Bluetooth Answer: A QUESTION 118 How is internet access provided to a WAN edge router that is connected to a MPLS transport link? A.OMP advertises a default route from a WAN Edge router that is connected to the MPLS and internet transport networks B.Internet access must be provided at the WAN Edge router through either a 4G/5G link or local Internet circuit C.An extranet must be provided in the MPLS transport network to allow private traffic to reach the public internet D.TLOC extensions are used to route traffic to a WAN Edge router that is connected to the Internet transport network Answer: D QUESTION 119 A network engineer must segregate three interconnected campus networks using IS-IS routing. A two-layer hierarchy must be used to support large routing domains and to avoid more specific routes from each campus network being advertised to other campus network routers automatically. Which two actions does the engineer take to accomplish this segregation? (Choose two.) A.Designate two IS-IS routers as BDR routers at the edge of each campus, and configure one BDR for all Level 1 routers and one BDR for all Level 2 routers. B.Designate two IS-IS routers from each campus to act as Level 1/Level 2 backbone routers at the edge of each campus network. C.Assign the same IS-IS NET value for each campus, and configure internal campus routers with Level 1/ Level 2 routing. D.Utilize different MTU values for each campus network segment. Level 2 backbone routers must utilize a larger MTU size of 9216. E.Assign a unique IS-IS NET value for each campus, and configure internal campus routers with Level 1 routing. Answer: BE QUESTION 120 Refer to the exhibit. All routers currently reside in OSPF area 0. The network manager recently used R1 and R2 as aggregation routers for remote branch locations and R3 and R4 for aggregation routers for remote office locations. The network has since been suffering from outages, which are causing frequent SPF runs. To enhance stability and introduce areas to the OSPF network with the minimal number of ABRs possible, which two solutions should the network manager recommend? (Choose two.) A.a new OSPF area for R1 and R2 connections, with R1 and R2 as ABRs B.a new OSPF area for R3 and R4 connections, with R5 and R6 as ABRs C.a new OSPF area for R3 and R4 connections, with R3 and R4 as ABRs D.a new OSPF area for R1, R2, R3, and R4 connections, with R1, R2, R3, and R4 as ABRs E.a new OSPF area for R1 and R2 connections, with R5 and R6 as ABRs Answer: BE 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-420 PDF and 300-420 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1SXwfGxRyjBzcw1iBNd9T4FhKWBoH7WUo?usp=sharing
Ciri-Ciri Sembuh dari Trikomoniasis
Klinik Apollo, Jakarta – Mengetahui ciri ciri sembuh dari trikomoniasis. Pengobatan yang tepat dan tepat waktu penting untuk mengatasi infeksi ini. Setelah menjalani pengobatan, penting untuk memahami ciri ciri sembuh dari trikomoniasis. Dalam artikel ini, kita akan membahas beberapa tanda-tanda kesembuhan setelah pengobatan trikomoniasis. Konsultasi online gratis: https://bit.ly/3Y112N5 Tanda-Tanda Kesembuhan Trikomoniasis Kenali tanda-tanda sembuhnya trikomoniasis: 1. Meredanya gejala Salah satu tanda utama kesembuhan dari trikomoniasis adalah meredanya gejala yang sebelumnya dialami. Gejala yang umum terkait dengan trikomoniasis termasuk: Keputihan yang berwarna kekuningan atau hijau dengan bau yang tidak sedap. Rasa sakit atau ketidaknyamanan saat kencing atau berhubungan seksual. Setelah menjalani pengobatan yang tepat, gejala ini seharusnya mulai mereda dan hilang seiring waktu. Namun, setiap orang dapat merespons pengobatan dengan cara yang berbeda. Jika gejala tetap ada atau kambuh setelah pengobatan, penting untuk berkonsultasi dengan dokter ahli atau penyedia layanan kesehatan. 2. Hasil negatif pada tes Untuk memastikan kesembuhan dari trikomoniasis, tes diagnostik dapat digunakan untuk mengevaluasi keberadaan parasit Trichomonas vaginalis. Setelah menjalani pengobatan, tes ini dapat menunjukkan hasil negatif, menandakan bahwa parasit telah hilang dari tubuh. Tes yang umum berguna termasuk tes pemeriksaan mikroskopis dan tes PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) untuk mendeteksi DNA parasit. Penting untuk Anda tahu bahwa tes harus dilakukan setelah beberapa waktu setelah pengobatan, seperti yang ditentukan oleh dokter ahli, untuk memastikan hasil yang akurat. Selalu ikuti petunjuk dari dokter ahli atau penyedia layanan kesehatan terkait dengan jadwal pengujian atau tes pasca pengobatan. 3. Tidak ada penularan kembali (kekambuhan) Setelah pengobatan yang tepat, tanda kesembuhan yang penting adalah ketiadaan penularan kembali (kambuh) infeksi kepada pasangan seksual. Dalam kasus trikomoniasis, pasangan seksual harus melakukan tes dan jika perlu melakukan pengobatan untuk menghindari penularan kembali (kambuh). Penting untuk menjaga praktik seks yang aman dengan menggunakan kondom (pengaman) saat berhubungan seksual dan mengurangi jumlah pasangan seksual untuk mencegah penularan infeksi menular seksual termasuk trikomoniasis. Kesembuhan dari trikomoniasis tandanya dengan meredanya gejala yang sebelumnya terjadi, hasil negatif pada tes diagnostik yang relevan dan ketiadaan penularan kembali infeksi kepada pasangan seksual. Jika ada kekhawatiran atau gejala yang mencurigakan setelah pengobatan, segera temui dokter ahli atau penyedia layanan kesehatan untuk evaluasi lebih lanjut dan pengobatan yang perlu. Blog terkait: https://klinikapollojakartapusat.blogspot.com/ https://klinikapollo99.blogspot.com/
2023 Latest Braindump2go DOP-C02 PDF Dumps(Q1-Q31)
QUESTION 1 A company has multiple member accounts that are part of an organization in AWS Organizations. The security team needs to review every Amazon EC2 security group and their inbound and outbound rules. The security team wants to programmatically retrieve this information from the member accounts using an AWS Lambda function in the management account of the organization. Which combination of access changes will meet these requirements? (Choose three.) A.Create a trust relationship that allows users in the member accounts to assume the management account IAM role. B.Create a trust relationship that allows users in the management account to assume the IAM roles of the member accounts. C.Create an IAM role in each member account that has access to the AmazonEC2ReadOnlyAccess managed policy. D.Create an I AM role in each member account to allow the sts:AssumeRole action against the management account IAM role's ARN. E.Create an I AM role in the management account that allows the sts:AssumeRole action against the member account IAM role's ARN. F.Create an IAM role in the management account that has access to the AmazonEC2ReadOnlyAccess managed policy. Answer: BCE QUESTION 2 A space exploration company receives telemetry data from multiple satellites. Small packets of data are received through Amazon API Gateway and are placed directly into an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) standard queue. A custom application is subscribed to the queue and transforms the data into a standard format. Because of inconsistencies in the data that the satellites produce, the application is occasionally unable to transform the data. In these cases, the messages remain in the SQS queue. A DevOps engineer must develop a solution that retains the failed messages and makes them available to scientists for review and future processing. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Configure AWS Lambda to poll the SQS queue and invoke a Lambda function to check whether the queue messages are valid. If validation fails, send a copy of the data that is not valid to an Amazon S3 bucket so that the scientists can review and correct the data. When the data is corrected, amend the message in the SQS queue by using a replay Lambda function with the corrected data. B.Convert the SQS standard queue to an SQS FIFO queue. Configure AWS Lambda to poll the SQS queue every 10 minutes by using an Amazon EventBridge schedule. Invoke the Lambda function to identify any messages with a SentTimestamp value that is older than 5 minutes, push the data to the same location as the application's output location, and remove the messages from the queue. C.Create an SQS dead-letter queue. Modify the existing queue by including a redrive policy that sets the Maximum Receives setting to 1 and sets the dead-letter queue ARN to the ARN of the newly created queue. Instruct the scientists to use the dead-letter queue to review the data that is not valid. Reprocess this data at a later time. D.Configure API Gateway to send messages to different SQS virtual queues that are named for each of the satellites. Update the application to use a new virtual queue for any data that it cannot transform, and send the message to the new virtual queue. Instruct the scientists to use the virtual queue to review the data that is not valid. Reprocess this data at a later time. Answer: C QUESTION 3 A company wants to use AWS CloudFormation for infrastructure deployment. The company has strict tagging and resource requirements and wants to limit the deployment to two Regions. Developers will need to deploy multiple versions of the same application. Which solution ensures resources are deployed in accordance with company policy? A.Create AWS Trusted Advisor checks to find and remediate unapproved CloudFormation StackSets. B.Create a Cloud Formation drift detection operation to find and remediate unapproved CloudFormation StackSets. C.Create CloudFormation StackSets with approved CloudFormation templates. D.Create AWS Service Catalog products with approved CloudFormation templates. Answer: D QUESTION 4 A company requires that its internally facing web application be highly available. The architecture is made up of one Amazon EC2 web server instance and one NAT instance that provides outbound internet access for updates and accessing public data. Which combination of architecture adjustments should the company implement to achieve high availability? (Choose two.) A.Add the NAT instance to an EC2 Auto Scaling group that spans multiple Availability Zones. Update the route tables. B.Create additional EC2 instances spanning multiple Availability Zones. Add an Application Load Balancer to split the load between them. C.Configure an Application Load Balancer in front of the EC2 instance. Configure Amazon CloudWatch alarms to recover the EC2 instance upon host failure. D.Replace the NAT instance with a NAT gateway in each Availability Zone. Update the route tables. E.Replace the NAT instance with a NAT gateway that spans multiple Availability Zones. Update the route tables. Answer: BD QUESTION 5 A DevOps engineer is building a multistage pipeline with AWS CodePipeline to build, verify, stage, test, and deploy an application. A manual approval stage is required between the test stage and the deploy stage. The development team uses a custom chat tool with webhook support that requires near-real-time notifications. How should the DevOps engineer configure status updates for pipeline activity and approval requests to post to the chat tool? A.Create an Amazon CloudWatch Logs subscription that filters on CodePipeline Pipeline Execution State Change. Publish subscription events to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. Subscribe the chat webhook URL to the SNS topic, and complete the subscription validation. B.Create an AWS Lambda function that is invoked by AWS CloudTrail events. When a CodePipeline Pipeline Execution State Change event is detected, send the event details to the chat webhook URL. C.Create an Amazon EventBridge rule that filters on CodePipeline Pipeline Execution State Change. Publish the events to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. Create an AWS Lambda function that sends event details to the chat webhook URL. Subscribe the function to the SNS topic. D.Modify the pipeline code to send the event details to the chat webhook URL at the end of each stage. Parameterize the URL so that each pipeline can send to a different URL based on the pipeline environment. Answer: C QUESTION 6 A company's application development team uses Linux-based Amazon EC2 instances as bastion hosts. Inbound SSH access to the bastion hosts is restricted to specific IP addresses, as defined in the associated security groups. The company's security team wants to receive a notification if the security group rules are modified to allow SSH access from any IP address. What should a DevOps engineer do to meet this requirement? A.Create an Amazon EventBridge rule with a source of aws.cloudtrail and the event name AuthorizeSecurityGroupIngress. Define an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic as the target. B.Enable Amazon GuardDuty and check the findings for security groups in AWS Security Hub. Configure an Amazon EventBridge rule with a custom pattern that matches GuardDuty events with an output of NON_COMPLIANT. Define an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic as the target. C.Create an AWS Config rule by using the restricted-ssh managed rule to check whether security groups disallow unrestricted incoming SSH traffic. Configure automatic remediation to publish a message to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. D.Enable Amazon Inspector. Include the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures-1.1 rules package to check the security groups that are associated with the bastion hosts. Configure Amazon Inspector to publish a message to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. Answer: C QUESTION 7 A DevOps team manages an API running on-premises that serves as a backend for an Amazon API Gateway endpoint. Customers have been complaining about high response latencies, which the development team has verified using the API Gateway latency metrics in Amazon CloudWatch. To identify the cause, the team needs to collect relevant data without introducing additional latency. Which actions should be taken to accomplish this? (Choose two.) A.Install the CloudWatch agent server side and configure the agent to upload relevant logs to CloudWatch. B.Enable AWS X-Ray tracing in API Gateway, modify the application to capture request segments, and upload those segments to X-Ray during each request. C.Enable AWS X-Ray tracing in API Gateway, modify the application to capture request segments, and use the X-Ray daemon to upload segments to X-Ray. D.Modify the on-premises application to send log information back to API Gateway with each request. E.Modify the on-premises application to calculate and upload statistical data relevant to the API service requests to CloudWatch metrics. Answer: AC QUESTION 8 A company has an application that is using a MySQL-compatible Amazon Aurora Multi-AZ DB cluster as the database. A cross-Region read replica has been created for disaster recovery purposes. A DevOps engineer wants to automate the promotion of the replica so it becomes the primary database instance in the event of a failure. Which solution will accomplish this? A.Configure a latency-based Amazon Route 53 CNAME with health checks so it points to both the primary and replica endpoints. Subscribe an Amazon SNS topic to Amazon RDS failure notifications from AWS CloudTrail and use that topic to invoke an AWS Lambda function that will promote the replica instance as the primary. B.Create an Aurora custom endpoint to point to the primary database instance. Configure the application to use this endpoint. Configure AWS CloudTrail to run an AWS Lambda function to promote the replica instance and modify the custom endpoint to point to the newly promoted instance. C.Create an AWS Lambda function to modify the application's AWS CloudFormation template to promote the replica, apply the template to update the stack, and point the application to the newly promoted instance. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to invoke this Lambda function after the failure event occurs. D.Store the Aurora endpoint in AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store. Create an Amazon EventBridge event that detects the database failure and runs an AWS Lambda function to promote the replica instance and update the endpoint URL stored in AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store. Code the application to reload the endpoint from Parameter Store if a database connection fails. Answer: D QUESTION 9 A company hosts its staging website using an Amazon EC2 instance backed with Amazon EBS storage. The company wants to recover quickly with minimal data losses in the event of network connectivity issues or power failures on the EC2 instance. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Add the instance to an EC2 Auto Scaling group with the minimum, maximum, and desired capacity set to 1. B.Add the instance to an EC2 Auto Scaling group with a lifecycle hook to detach the EBS volume when the EC2 instance shuts down or terminates. C.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the StatusCheckFailed System metric and select the EC2 action to recover the instance. D.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the StatusCheckFailed Instance metric and select the EC2 action to reboot the instance. Answer: C QUESTION 10 A company wants to use AWS development tools to replace its current bash deployment scripts. The company currently deploys a LAMP application to a group of Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). During the deployments, the company unit tests the committed application, stops and starts services, unregisters and re-registers instances with the load balancer, and updates file permissions. The company wants to maintain the same deployment functionality through the shift to using AWS services. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Use AWS CodeBuild to test the application. Use bash scripts invoked by AWS CodeDeploy's appspec.yml file to restart services, and deregister and register instances with the ALB. Use the appspec.yml file to update file permissions without a custom script. B.Use AWS CodePipeline to move the application from the AWS CodeCommit repository to AWS CodeDeploy. Use CodeDeploy's deployment group to test the application, unregister and re-register instances with the ALand restart services. Use the appspec.yml file to update file permissions without a custom script. C.Use AWS CodePipeline to move the application source code from the AWS CodeCommit repository to AWS CodeDeploy. Use CodeDeploy to test the application. Use CodeDeploy's appspec.yml file to restart services and update permissions without a custom script. Use AWS CodeBuild to unregister and re-register instances with the ALB. D.Use AWS CodePipeline to trigger AWS CodeBuild to test the application. Use bash scripts invoked by AWS CodeDeploy's appspec.yml file to restart services. Unregister and re-register the instances in the AWS CodeDeploy deployment group with the ALB. Update the appspec.yml file to update file permissions without a custom script. Answer: D QUESTION 11 A company runs an application with an Amazon EC2 and on-premises configuration. A DevOps engineer needs to standardize patching across both environments. Company policy dictates that patching only happens during non-business hours. Which combination of actions will meet these requirements? (Choose three.) A.Add the physical machines into AWS Systems Manager using Systems Manager Hybrid Activations. B.Attach an IAM role to the EC2 instances, allowing them to be managed by AWS Systems Manager. C.Create IAM access keys for the on-premises machines to interact with AWS Systems Manager. D.Run an AWS Systems Manager Automation document to patch the systems every hour E.Use Amazon EventBridge scheduled events to schedule a patch window. F.Use AWS Systems Manager Maintenance Windows to schedule a patch window. Answer: ABF QUESTION 12 A company has chosen AWS to host a new application. The company needs to implement a multi-account strategy. A DevOps engineer creates a new AWS account and an organization in AWS Organizations. The DevOps engineer also creates the OU structure for the organization and sets up a landing zone by using AWS Control Tower. The DevOps engineer must implement a solution that automatically deploys resources for new accounts that users create through AWS Control Tower Account Factory. When a user creates a new account, the solution must apply AWS CloudFormation templates and SCPs that are customized for the OU or the account to automatically deploy all the resources that are attached to the account. All the OUs are enrolled in AWS Control Tower. Which solution will meet these requirements in the MOST automated way? A.Use AWS Service Catalog with AWS Control Tower. Create portfolios and products in AWS Service Catalog. Grant granular permissions to provision these resources. Deploy SCPs by using the AWS CLI and JSON documents. B.Deploy CloudFormation stack sets by using the required templates. Enable automatic deployment. Deploy stack instances to the required accounts. Deploy a CloudFormation stack set to the organization's management account to deploy SCPs. C.Create an Amazon EventBridge rule to detect the CreateManagedAccount event. Configure AWS Service Catalog as the target to deploy resources to any new accounts. Deploy SCPs by using the AWS CLI and JSON documents. D.Deploy the Customizations for AWS Control Tower (CfCT) solution. Use an AWS CodeCommit repository as the source. In the repository, create a custom package that includes the CloudFormation templates and the SCP JSON documents. Answer: D QUESTION 13 An online retail company based in the United States plans to expand its operations to Europe and Asia in the next six months. Its product currently runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. All data is stored in an Amazon Aurora database instance. When the product is deployed in multiple regions, the company wants a single product catalog across all regions, but for compliance purposes, its customer information and purchases must be kept in each region. How should the company meet these requirements with the LEAST amount of application changes? A.Use Amazon Redshift for the product catalog and Amazon DynamoDB tables for the customer information and purchases. B.Use Amazon DynamoDB global tables for the product catalog and regional tables for the customer information and purchases. C.Use Aurora with read replicas for the product catalog and additional local Aurora instances in each region for the customer information and purchases. D.Use Aurora for the product catalog and Amazon DynamoDB global tables for the customer information and purchases. Answer: C QUESTION 14 A company is implementing a well-architected design for its globally accessible API stack. The design needs to ensure both high reliability and fast response times for users located in North America and Europe. The API stack contains the following three tiers: - Amazon API Gateway - AWS Lambda - Amazon DynamoDB Which solution will meet the requirements? A.Configure Amazon Route 53 to point to API Gateway APIs in North America and Europe using health checks. Configure the APIs to forward requests to a Lambda function in that Region. Configure the Lambda functions to retrieve and update the data in a DynamoDB table in the same Region as the Lambda function. B.Configure Amazon Route 53 to point to API Gateway APIs in North America and Europe using latency-based routing and health checks. Configure the APIs to forward requests to a Lambda function in that Region. Configure the Lambda functions to retrieve and update the data in a DynamoDB global table. C.Configure Amazon Route 53 to point to API Gateway in North America, create a disaster recovery API in Europe, and configure both APIs to forward requests to the Lambda functions in that Region. Retrieve the data from a DynamoDB global table. Deploy a Lambda function to check the North America API health every 5 minutes. In the event of a failure, update Route 53 to point to the disaster recovery API. D.Configure Amazon Route 53 to point to API Gateway API in North America using latency-based routing. Configure the API to forward requests to the Lambda function in the Region nearest to the user. Configure the Lambda function to retrieve and update the data in a DynamoDB table. Answer: B QUESTION 15 A rapidly growing company wants to scale for developer demand for AWS development environments. Development environments are created manually in the AWS Management Console. The networking team uses AWS CloudFormation to manage the networking infrastructure, exporting stack output values for the Amazon VPC and all subnets. The development environments have common standards, such as Application Load Balancers, Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling groups, security groups, and Amazon DynamoDB tables. To keep up with demand, the DevOps engineer wants to automate the creation of development environments. Because the infrastructure required to support the application is expected to grow, there must be a way to easily update the deployed infrastructure. CloudFormation will be used to create a template for the development environments. Which approach will meet these requirements and quickly provide consistent AWS environments for developers? A.Use Fn::ImportValue intrinsic functions in the Resources section of the template to retrieve Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) and subnet values. Use CloudFormation StackSets for the development environments, using the Count input parameter to indicate the number of environments needed. Use the UpdateStackSet command to update existing development environments. B.Use nested stacks to define common infrastructure components. To access the exported values, use TemplateURL to reference the networking team's template. To retrieve Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) and subnet values, use Fn::ImportValue intrinsic functions in the Parameters section of the root template. Use the CreateChangeSet and ExecuteChangeSet commands to update existing development environments. C.Use nested stacks to define common infrastructure components. Use Fn::ImportValue intrinsic functions with the resources of the nested stack to retrieve Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) and subnet values. Use the CreateChangeSet and ExecuteChangeSet commands to update existing development environments. D.Use Fn::ImportValue intrinsic functions in the Parameters section of the root template to retrieve Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) and subnet values. Define the development resources in the order they need to be created in the CloudFormation nested stacks. Use the CreateChangeSet. and ExecuteChangeSet commands to update existing development environments. Answer: C QUESTION 16 A company uses AWS Organizations to manage multiple accounts. Information security policies require that all unencrypted Amazon EBS volumes be marked as non-compliant. A DevOps engineer needs to automatically deploy the solution and ensure that this compliance check is always present. Which solution will accomplish this? A.Create an AWS CloudFormation template that defines an AWS Inspector rule to check whether EBS encryption is enabled. Save the template to an Amazon S3 bucket that has been shared with all accounts within the company. Update the account creation script pointing to the CloudFormation template in Amazon S3. B.Create an AWS Config organizational rule to check whether EBS encryption is enabled and deploy the rule using the AWS CLI. Create and apply an SCP to prohibit stopping and deleting AWS Config across the organization. C.Create an SCP in Organizations. Set the policy to prevent the launch of Amazon EC2 instances without encryption on the EBS volumes using a conditional expression. Apply the SCP to all AWS accounts. Use Amazon Athena to analyze the AWS CloudTrail output, looking for events that deny an ec2:RunInstances action. D.Deploy an IAM role to all accounts from a single trusted account. Build a pipeline with AWS CodePipeline with a stage in AWS Lambda to assume the IAM role, and list all EBS volumes in the account. Publish a report to Amazon S3. Answer: B QUESTION 17 A company is performing vulnerability scanning for all Amazon EC2 instances across many accounts. The accounts are in an organization in AWS Organizations. Each account's VPCs are attached to a shared transit gateway. The VPCs send traffic to the internet through a central egress VPC. The company has enabled Amazon Inspector in a delegated administrator account and has enabled scanning for all member accounts. A DevOps engineer discovers that some EC2 instances are listed in the "not scanning" tab in Amazon Inspector. Which combination of actions should the DevOps engineer take to resolve this issue? (Choose three.) A.Verify that AWS Systems Manager Agent is installed and is running on the EC2 instances that Amazon Inspector is not scanning. B.Associate the target EC2 instances with security groups that allow outbound communication on port 443 to the AWS Systems Manager service endpoint. C.Grant inspector:StartAssessmentRun permissions to the IAM role that the DevOps engineer is using. D.Configure EC2 Instance Connect for the EC2 instances that Amazon Inspector is not scanning. E.Associate the target EC2 instances with instance profiles that grant permissions to communicate with AWS Systems Manager. F.Create a managed-instance activation. Use the Activation Code and the Activation ID to register the EC2 instances. Answer: ABE QUESTION 18 A development team uses AWS CodeCommit for version control for applications. The development team uses AWS CodePipeline, AWS CodeBuild. and AWS CodeDeploy for CI/CD infrastructure. In CodeCommit, the development team recently merged pull requests that did not pass long-running tests in the code base. The development team needed to perform rollbacks to branches in the codebase, resulting in lost time and wasted effort. A DevOps engineer must automate testing of pull requests in CodeCommit to ensure that reviewers more easily see the results of automated tests as part of the pull request review. What should the DevOps engineer do to meet this requirement? A.Create an Amazon EventBridge rule that reacts to the pullRequestStatusChanged event. Create an AWS Lambda function that invokes a CodePipeline pipeline with a CodeBuild action that runs the tests for the application. Program the Lambda function to post the CodeBuild badge as a comment on the pull request so that developers will see the badge in their code review. B.Create an Amazon EventBridge rule that reacts to the pullRequestCreated event. Create an AWS Lambda function that invokes a CodePipeline pipeline with a CodeBuild action that runs the tests for the application. Program the Lambda function to post the CodeBuild test results as a comment on the pull request when the test results are complete. C.Create an Amazon EventBridge rule that reacts to pullRequestCreated and pullRequestSourceBranchUpdated events. Create an AWS Lambda function that invokes a CodePipeline pipeline with a CodeBuild action that runs the tests for the application. Program the Lambda function to post the CodeBuild badge as a comment on the pull request so that developers will see the badge in their code review. D.Create an Amazon EventBridge rule that reacts to the pullRequestStatusChanged event. Create an AWS Lambda function that invokes a CodePipeline pipeline with a CodeBuild action that runs the tests for the application. Program the Lambda function to post the CodeBuild test results as a comment on the pull request when the test results are complete. Answer: C QUESTION 19 A company has deployed an application in a production VPC in a single AWS account. The application is popular and is experiencing heavy usage. The company's security team wants to add additional security, such as AWS WAF, to the application deployment. However, the application's product manager is concerned about cost and does not want to approve the change unless the security team can prove that additional security is necessary. The security team believes that some of the application's demand might come from users that have IP addresses that are on a deny list. The security team provides the deny list to a DevOps engineer. If any of the IP addresses on the deny list access the application, the security team wants to receive automated notification in near real time so that the security team can document that the application needs additional security. The DevOps engineer creates a VPC flow log for the production VPC. Which set of additional steps should the DevOps engineer take to meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively? A.Create a log group in Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Configure the VPC flow log to capture accepted traffic and to send the data to the log group. Create an Amazon CloudWatch metric filter for IP addresses on the deny list. Create a CloudWatch alarm with the metric filter as input. Set the period to 5 minutes and the datapoints to alarm to 1. Use an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to send alarm notices to the security team. B.Create an Amazon S3 bucket for log files. Configure the VPC flow log to capture all traffic and to send the data to the S3 bucket. Configure Amazon Athena to return all log files in the S3 bucket for IP addresses on the deny list. Configure Amazon QuickSight to accept data from Athena and to publish the data as a dashboard that the security team can access. Create a threshold alert of 1 for successful access. Configure the alert to automatically notify the security team as frequently as possible when the alert threshold is met. C.Create an Amazon S3 bucket for log files. Configure the VPC flow log to capture accepted traffic and to send the data to the S3 bucket. Configure an Amazon OpenSearch Service cluster and domain for the log files. Create an AWS Lambda function to retrieve the logs from the S3 bucket, format the logs, and load the logs into the OpenSearch Service cluster. Schedule the Lambda function to run every 5 minutes. Configure an alert and condition in OpenSearch Service to send alerts to the security team through an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic when access from the IP addresses on the deny list is detected. D.Create a log group in Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Create an Amazon S3 bucket to hold query results. Configure the VPC flow log to capture all traffic and to send the data to the log group. Deploy an Amazon Athena CloudWatch connector in AWS Lambda. Connect the connector to the log group. Configure Athena to periodically query for all accepted traffic from the IP addresses on the deny list and to store the results in the S3 bucket. Configure an S3 event notification to automatically notify the security team through an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic when new objects are added to the S3 bucket. Answer: A QUESTION 20 A DevOps engineer has automated a web service deployment by using AWS CodePipeline with the following steps: 1. An AWS CodeBuild project compiles the deployment artifact and runs unit tests. 2. An AWS CodeDeploy deployment group deploys the web service to Amazon EC2 instances in the staging environment. 3. A CodeDeploy deployment group deploys the web service to EC2 instances in the production environment. The quality assurance (QA) team requests permission to inspect the build artifact before the deployment to the production environment occurs. The QA team wants to run an internal penetration testing tool to conduct manual tests. The tool will be invoked by a REST API call. Which combination of actions should the DevOps engineer take to fulfill this request? (Choose two.) A.Insert a manual approval action between the test actions and deployment actions of the pipeline. B.Modify the buildspec.yml file for the compilation stage to require manual approval before completion. C.Update the CodeDeploy deployment groups so that they require manual approval to proceed. D.Update the pipeline to directly call the REST API for the penetration testing tool. E.Update the pipeline to invoke an AWS Lambda function that calls the REST API for the penetration testing tool. Answer: AE QUESTION 21 A company is hosting a web application in an AWS Region. For disaster recovery purposes, a second region is being used as a standby. Disaster recovery requirements state that session data must be replicated between regions in near-real time and 1% of requests should route to the secondary region to continuously verify system functionality. Additionally, if there is a disruption in service in the main region, traffic should be automatically routed to the secondary region, and the secondary region must be able to scale up to handle all traffic. How should a DevOps engineer meet these requirements? A.In both regions, deploy the application on AWS Elastic Beanstalk and use Amazon DynamoDB global tables for session data. Use an Amazon Route 53 weighted routing policy with health checks to distribute the traffic across the regions. B.In both regions, launch the application in Auto Scaling groups and use DynamoDB for session data. Use a Route 53 failover routing policy with health checks to distribute the traffic across the regions. C.In both regions, deploy the application in AWS Lambda, exposed by Amazon API Gateway, and use Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL with cross-region replication for session data. Deploy the web application with client-side logic to call the API Gateway directly. D.In both regions, launch the application in Auto Scaling groups and use DynamoDB global tables for session data. Enable an Amazon CloudFront weighted distribution across regions. Point the Amazon Route 53 DNS record at the CloudFront distribution. Answer: A QUESTION 22 A company runs an application on Amazon EC2 instances. The company uses a series of AWS CloudFormation stacks to define the application resources. A developer performs updates by building and testing the application on a laptop and then uploading the build output and CloudFormation stack templates to Amazon S3. The developer's peers review the changes before the developer performs the CloudFormation stack update and installs a new version of the application onto the EC2 instances. The deployment process is prone to errors and is time-consuming when the developer updates each EC2 instance with the new application. The company wants to automate as much of the application deployment process as possible while retaining a final manual approval step before the modification of the application or resources. The company already has moved the source code for the application and the CloudFormation templates to AWS CodeCommit. The company also has created an AWS CodeBuild project to build and test the application. Which combination of steps will meet the company's requirements? (Choose two.) A.Create an application group and a deployment group in AWS CodeDeploy. Install the CodeDeploy agent on the EC2 instances. B.Create an application revision and a deployment group in AWS CodeDeploy. Create an environment in CodeDeploy. Register the EC2 instances to the CodeDeploy environment. C.Use AWS CodePipeline to invoke the CodeBuild job, run the CloudFormation update, and pause for a manual approval step. After approval, start the AWS CodeDeploy deployment. D.Use AWS CodePipeline to invoke the CodeBuild job, create CloudFormation change sets for each of the application stacks, and pause for a manual approval step. After approval, run the CloudFormation change sets and start the AWS CodeDeploy deployment. E.Use AWS CodePipeline to invoke the CodeBuild job, create CloudFormation change sets for each of the application stacks, and pause for a manual approval step. After approval, start the AWS CodeDeploy deployment. Answer: BD QUESTION 23 A DevOps engineer manages a web application that runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The instances run in an EC2 Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. The engineer needs to implement a deployment strategy that: Launches a second fleet of instances with the same capacity as the original fleet. Maintains the original fleet unchanged while the second fleet is launched. Transitions traffic to the second fleet when the second fleet is fully deployed. Terminates the original fleet automatically 1 hour after transition. Which solution will satisfy these requirements? A.Use an AWS CloudFormation template with a retention policy for the ALB set to 1 hour. Update the Amazon Route 53 record to reflect the new ALB. B.Use two AWS Elastic Beanstalk environments to perform a blue/green deployment from the original environment to the new one. Create an application version lifecycle policy to terminate the original environment in 1 hour. C.Use AWS CodeDeploy with a deployment group configured with a blue/green deployment configuration Select the option Terminate the original instances in the deployment group with a waiting period of 1 hour. D.Use AWS Elastic Beanstalk with the configuration set to Immutable. Create an .ebextension using the Resources key that sets the deletion policy of the ALB to 1 hour, and deploy the application. Answer: C QUESTION 24 A video-sharing company stores its videos in Amazon S3. The company has observed a sudden increase in video access requests, but the company does not know which videos are most popular. The company needs to identify the general access pattern for the video files. This pattern includes the number of users who access a certain file on a given day, as well as the number of pull requests for certain files. How can the company meet these requirements with the LEAST amount of effort? A.Activate S3 server access logging. Import the access logs into an Amazon Aurora database. Use an Aurora SQL query to analyze the access patterns. B.Activate S3 server access logging. Use Amazon Athena to create an external table with the log files. Use Athena to create a SQL query to analyze the access patterns. C.Invoke an AWS Lambda function for every S3 object access event. Configure the Lambda function to write the file access information, such as user. S3 bucket, and file key, to an Amazon Aurora database. Use an Aurora SQL query to analyze the access patterns. D.Record an Amazon CloudWatch Logs log message for every S3 object access event. Configure a CloudWatch Logs log stream to write the file access information, such as user, S3 bucket, and file key, to an Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for SQL application. Perform a sliding window analysis. Answer: B QUESTION 25 A development team wants to use AWS CloudFormation stacks to deploy an application. However, the developer IAM role does not have the required permissions to provision the resources that are specified in the AWS CloudFormation template. A DevOps engineer needs to implement a solution that allows the developers to deploy the stacks. The solution must follow the principle of least privilege. Which solution will meet these requirements? A.Create an IAM policy that allows the developers to provision the required resources. Attach the policy to the developer IAM role. B.Create an IAM policy that allows full access to AWS CloudFormation. Attach the policy to the developer IAM role. C.Create an AWS CloudFormation service role that has the required permissions. Grant the developer IAM role a cloudformation:* action. Use the new service role during stack deployments. D.Create an AWS CloudFormation service role that has the required permissions. Grant the developer IAM role the iam:PassRole permission. Use the new service role during stack deployments. Answer: B QUESTION 26 A production account has a requirement that any Amazon EC2 instance that has been logged in to manually must be terminated within 24 hours. All applications in the production account are using Auto Scaling groups with the Amazon CloudWatch Logs agent configured. How can this process be automated? A.Create a CloudWatch Logs subscription to an AWS Step Functions application. Configure an AWS Lambda function to add a tag to the EC2 instance that produced the login event and mark the instance to be decommissioned. Create an Amazon EventBridge rule to invoke a second Lambda function once a day that will terminate all instances with this tag. B.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that will be invoked by the login event. Send the notification to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic that the operations team is subscribed to, and have them terminate the EC2 instance within 24 hours. C.Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that will be invoked by the login event. Configure the alarm to send to an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue. Use a group of worker instances to process messages from the queue, which then schedules an Amazon EventBridge rule to be invoked. D.Create a CloudWatch Logs subscription to an AWS Lambda function. Configure the function to add a tag to the EC2 instance that produced the login event and mark the instance to be decommissioned. Create an Amazon EventBridge rule to invoke a daily Lambda function that terminates all instances with this tag. Answer: D QUESTION 27 A company has enabled all features for its organization in AWS Organizations. The organization contains 10 AWS accounts. The company has turned on AWS CloudTrail in all the accounts. The company expects the number of AWS accounts in the organization to increase to 500 during the next year. The company plans to use multiple OUs for these accounts. The company has enabled AWS Config in each existing AWS account in the organization. A DevOps engineer must implement a solution that enables AWS Config automatically for all future AWS accounts that are created in the organization. Which solution will meet this requirement? A.In the organization's management account, create an Amazon EventBridge rule that reacts to a CreateAccount API call. Configure the rule to invoke an AWS Lambda function that enables trusted access to AWS Config for the organization. B.In the organization's management account, create an AWS CloudFormation stack set to enable AWS Config. Configure the stack set to deploy automatically when an account is created through Organizations. C.In the organization's management account, create an SCP that allows the appropriate AWS Config API calls to enable AWS Config. Apply the SCP to the root-level OU. D.In the organization's management account, create an Amazon EventBridge rule that reacts to a CreateAccount API call. Configure the rule to invoke an AWS Systems Manager Automation runbook to enable AWS Config for the account. Answer: B QUESTION 28 A company has many applications. Different teams in the company developed the applications by using multiple languages and frameworks. The applications run on premises and on different servers with different operating systems. Each team has its own release protocol and process. The company wants to reduce the complexity of the release and maintenance of these applications. The company is migrating its technology stacks, including these applications, to AWS. The company wants centralized control of source code, a consistent and automatic delivery pipeline, and as few maintenance tasks as possible on the underlying infrastructure. What should a DevOps engineer do to meet these requirements? A.Create one AWS CodeCommit repository for all applications. Put each application's code in a different branch. Merge the branches, and use AWS CodeBuild to build the applications. Use AWS CodeDeploy to deploy the applications to one centralized application server. B.Create one AWS CodeCommit repository for each of the applications. Use AWS CodeBuild to build the applications one at a time. Use AWS CodeDeploy to deploy the applications to one centralized application server. C.Create one AWS CodeCommit repository for each of the applications. Use AWS CodeBuild to build the applications one at a time and to create one AMI for each server. Use AWS CloudFormation StackSets to automatically provision and decommission Amazon EC2 fleets by using these AMIs. D.Create one AWS CodeCommit repository for each of the applications. Use AWS CodeBuild to build one Docker image for each application in Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR). Use AWS CodeDeploy to deploy the applications to Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) on infrastructure that AWS Fargate manages. Answer: D QUESTION 29 A company's application is currently deployed to a single AWS Region. Recently, the company opened a new office on a different continent. The users in the new office are experiencing high latency. The company's application runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB) and uses Amazon DynamoDB as the database layer. The instances run in an EC2 Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. A DevOps engineer is tasked with minimizing application response times and improving availability for users in both Regions. Which combination of actions should be taken to address the latency issues? (Choose three.) A.Create a new DynamoDB table in the new Region with cross-Region replication enabled. B.Create new ALB and Auto Scaling group global resources and configure the new ALB to direct traffic to the new Auto Scaling group. C.Create new ALB and Auto Scaling group resources in the new Region and configure the new ALB to direct traffic to the new Auto Scaling group. D.Create Amazon Route 53 records, health checks, and latency-based routing policies to route to the ALB. E.Create Amazon Route 53 aliases, health checks, and failover routing policies to route to the ALB. F.Convert the DynamoDB table to a global table. Answer: CDF QUESTION 30 A DevOps engineer needs to apply a core set of security controls to an existing set of AWS accounts. The accounts are in an organization in AWS Organizations. Individual teams will administer individual accounts by using the AdministratorAccess AWS managed policy. For all accounts. AWS CloudTrail and AWS Config must be turned on in all available AWS Regions. Individual account administrators must not be able to edit or delete any of the baseline resources. However, individual account administrators must be able to edit or delete their own CloudTrail trails and AWS Config rules. Which solution will meet these requirements in the MOST operationally efficient way? A.Create an AWS CloudFormation template that defines the standard account resources. Deploy the template to all accounts from the organization's management account by using CloudFormation StackSets. Set the stack policy to deny Update:Delete actions. B.Enable AWS Control Tower. Enroll the existing accounts in AWS Control Tower. Grant the individual account administrators access to CloudTrail and AWS Config. C.Designate an AWS Config management account. Create AWS Config recorders in all accounts by using AWS CloudFormation StackSets. Deploy AWS Config rules to the organization by using the AWS Config management account. Create a CloudTrail organization trail in the organization's management account. Deny modification or deletion of the AWS Config recorders by using an SCP. D.Create an AWS CloudFormation template that defines the standard account resources. Deploy the template to all accounts from the organization's management account by using Cloud Formation StackSets Create an SCP that prevents updates or deletions to CloudTrail resources or AWS Config resources unless the principal is an administrator of the organization's management account. Answer: C QUESTION 31 A company has its AWS accounts in an organization in AWS Organizations. AWS Config is manually configured in each AWS account. The company needs to implement a solution to centrally configure AWS Config for all accounts in the organization The solution also must record resource changes to a central account. Which combination of actions should a DevOps engineer perform to meet these requirements? (Choose two.) A.Configure a delegated administrator account for AWS Config. Enable trusted access for AWS Config in the organization. B.Configure a delegated administrator account for AWS Config. Create a service-linked role for AWS Config in the organization's management account. C.Create an AWS CloudFormation template to create an AWS Config aggregator. Configure a CloudFormation stack set to deploy the template to all accounts in the organization. D.Create an AWS Config organization aggregator in the organization's management account. Configure data collection from all AWS accounts in the organization and from all AWS Regions. E.Create an AWS Config organization aggregator in the delegated administrator account. Configure data collection from all AWS accounts in the organization and from all AWS Regions. Answer: AE 2023 Latest Braindump2go DOP-C02 PDF and DOP-C02 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1FhCZoaDCriYOlfYbMyFXhVN9z4p7HNoX?usp=sharing
Seven Figure Online Success From Ken Bluttman
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Health Insurance Options in NJ: How Brokers Provide Benefits in the Process
Navigating the world of health insurance can be daunting, primarily when residing in New Jersey. With various policies, coverage options, and legal requirements, understanding and selecting the right health insurance plan can quickly become overwhelming. This is where health insurance brokers in NJ step in to provide invaluable assistance. They play a crucial role in demystifying the complex landscape of health insurance, helping individuals and businesses find the best coverage that suits their needs and budgets. In this article, we will explore how health insurance brokers provide exceptional benefits throughout the decision-making process. 1. Objective risk assessments. With the help of brokers, insurance selection becomes much easier. Every insurance policy has numerous possibilities with different limitations, coverage, and exclusions. Insurance brokers help you overcome challenges like determining which coverage is ideal for your circumstances. First, the broker assesses your risks and responsibilities based on experience and training. Then with the help of unbiased risk assessment, you may rationally select what kind of coverage you require Before offering any coverage solutions, health insurance brokers in NJ can comprehend your coverage requirements fully. 2. A broker helps you. A broker's job is to assist you when getting insurance for your company, vehicle, home, or family. They collaborate with you to identify your insurance requirements. You may be confident that your broker chooses the best options at the most reasonable costs because they work for you, not insurance companies. Their expertise implies that an objective risk assessment reveals your requirements even if you are unfamiliar with the hazards. Because it is not your focus, business owners, in particular, need to realize the dangers that their organization faces. To address all risks, your broker executes risk mitigation plans. 3. Accurate policy comparisons. First, doing your insurance plan research and comparisons is, at best, time-consuming. It takes a lot of time to consider each alternative and determine whether it meets your needs. With professional help, there is always a greater chance of choosing the correct coverage. Moreover, if you need to file a claim, this can be expensive in the long run. A good broker will always help you by providing accurate advice without increasing the price. 4. Negotiating premiums. You have likely seen advertisements from large insurance providers urging you to purchase directly from them. The companies also help you by cutting out the intermediary to save money. Moreover, brokers' professional training in accurate risk assessment presents a lower risk, so insurance companies discount the premiums. 5. Claim Assistance During any claim settlement process, your broker can represent you. Knowing your advocate and your choices if a claim is denied gives you peace of mind. You may need to consult the court and your attorney if you deal with insurance directly. An experienced, knowledgeable, and licensed health insurance broker in NJ handles claims settlement on your behalf. Therefore, encouraging an efficient resolution of any claim is in their best interests. This helps avoid further legal fees and any potential future consequences. Conclusion Health insurance brokers play a vital role in demystifying health insurance options and making the entire process more manageable for individuals and businesses. Through their extensive knowledge of the New Jersey health insurance landscape, brokers bring expertise and insights to help you navigate the complexities of coverage options, policies, and legal requirements. Working with a health insurance broker in NJ gives you access to personalized guidance and support tailored to your specific needs. These professionals are well-versed in the intricacies of health insurance plans, including their coverage limits, deductibles, copayments, and network providers. Murray Talks Insurance is your one-stop shop for all your insurance needs. To learn more, visit our website.
LOVE ISNT COMPLICATED WE ARE
We have heard people saying that love is like air; you can’t see it; instead, you can feel it. Love is something which could change your complete life and that also for good. Love doesn’t enter your life after giving a knock or after texting you anywhere. Love always comes unexpectedly, but whenever it comes, it spread happiness everywhere. Everything suddenly becomes beautiful and what adds to the beauty are our emotions. People usually say that love is complicated, but love is not complicated; instead, we humans are. When we don’t get someone we love, we keep chasing them, and when we get them, we start taking them for granted. We stop making efforts or increase our expectations and make a mess of everything and sometimes even lose our loved ones. Many couples give us ideal couple goals, and we even feel jealous of them sometimes. But as Rome was not built in a day, these couple goals didn’t even happen all of a sudden. It takes a lot of effort to develop an understanding among each other and be the perfect couple. But sometimes, things go out of control. Sometimes we forget that not everybody in this world gets this beautiful and pure gift of God referred to as love. We stop making efforts for our relationship, or sometimes we start losing interest in our partner. Couples end up fighting and then getting divorced. But instead of getting separated, we could also visit coach personnel. They are the professionals who work to save our relationships. They are best at giving us a new outlook and giving us a second chance to our relationships instead of getting separated. When to see coach personnel? There are situations that we think we can’t handle. Instead of solving them, we start ignoring them. This is where the problem arises. And when things seem to go out of control, we should go for a coach personnel. Problems like ignoring each other’s feelings, showing attitude to each other, or not giving much time make things worse. The first thing we should do is try to solve things on our own because no one could understand us as a couple better than us. But if things didn’t work out and we want to save our relationship at any cost, we should take the help of a personnel coach. They will listen to us and understand our problems and then guide us in the right direction. They will show us a new outlook and will try to create an understanding between the couple. They will try their best to resolve all the issues between a couple and change their decision to get separated. Here, the best part of coach personnel is that they are not biased. Most of the time, we usually talk to our friends or relatives about our relationship problems, but their suggestions could be biased, which is not the case with personnel coaches. Instead, they are expert professionals who would look into the matter by taking both the partners into consideration and giving a piece of sensible advice that will help us make the right decision. I would conclude by saying that love is not at all complicated. Instead, it is magical, but we are complicated, and our thoughts are. We usually fight on the simplest things and make them complicated. But during this stage, there is no harm going for a coach personnel. They are for our help and will always give the right suggestion without being partial to anyone.
Understanding Sleep Disorders in Children
Sleep disorders in children are an all too common affliction that can significantly impair normal development and functioning. Many times these issues stem from behavioral factors and can be resolved with behavioral management. Other times a medical issue like sleep apnea may be the culprit and require treatment. Typically however poor sleep results from several factors acting together and requires an in-depth assessment and plan for resolution. Sleep issues in children with physical disabilities or learning difficulties often include breathing issues and/or decreased overall amounts of restful slumber compared to age-matched peers without such conditions. Epilepsy patients and those taking certain antiepileptic and stimulant drugs, including antiepileptics and stimulants may experience greater disturbance. Furthermore, rare conditions like Angelman syndrome and mucopolysaccharidoses have been associated with sleep issues as well. Lack of sleep in children can result in impaired concentration, irritability and attention deficits that negatively impact relationships between parents and children, leading to problems at school and at home. Therefore it is crucial that we identify any factors contributing to poor sleeping habits like eating patterns or an unfavorable sleeping environment and address them before considering professional help from medical providers or psychologists as potential solutions. Insomnia is one of the most frequently experienced sleep issues and may be brought on by numerous factors, such as an inadequate bedtime routine, stress or anxiety, lack of a quiet place to sleep and late-night television or cell phone use, poor nutrition intake or family discord. A consultation with a doctor or specialist in sleep disorders is often necessary when diagnosing something like central sleep apnea, restless legs syndrome narcolepsy or obstructive sleep apnea is suspected or diagnosed in the children.
Executive Coaching in Miami: Empowering Leaders for Success
“Sven is to-go-to guy when it comes to Executive Coaching in Miami” As a leader in Miami, you face unique challenges that require a tailored approach to your professional growth. Whether you’re looking to enhance your communication skills, overcome obstacles to success, or simply lead with greater confidence, executive coaching in Miami can help you achieve your goals. At Leadertrip Coaching, we offer executive coaching services designed specifically for Miami’s business leaders. Our experienced coaches work with you to identify your strengths and areas for improvement, creating a personalized development plan to help you achieve your goals. What is Executive Coaching? Executive coaching is a process in which an experienced coach works one-on-one with a client to help them improve their professional performance. This can include developing new skills, improving communication, building stronger relationships with colleagues, and more. At Leadertrip Coaching, our executive coaching services are designed to help Miami’s leaders achieve their goals and reach their full potential. We work with executives, business owners, and other professionals to create customized coaching programs that meet their specific needs and objectives.Benefits of Executive Coaching for Miami Professionals There are many benefits to working with an executive coach in Miami. Here are just a few: Improved Leadership Skills: Our executive coaching services can help you develop the skills you need to lead your team with confidence, clarity, and effectiveness. Enhanced Communication: Effective communication is critical to success in any leadership role. Our coaching can help you improve your communication skills, including listening, articulating ideas, and presenting with impact. Increased Productivity: By focusing on your goals and developing a plan of action, executive coaching can help you be more productive and achieve better results. Better Decision Making: Our coaches can help you develop your decision-making skills, providing you with tools and strategies to make more informed and effective decisions. Greater Confidence: With the support of an executive coach, you can develop greater self-awareness and confidence in your abilities, allowing you to tackle new challenges with ease. Why Choose Leadertrip Coaching? At Leadertrip Coaching, we specialize in executive coaching for Miami’s business leaders. Our team of experienced coaches brings a wealth of knowledge and expertise to every coaching session, helping our clients achieve their goals and reach their full potential. Here are just a few reasons why you should choose Leadertrip Coaching for your executive coaching needs: Tailored Coaching Programs: We work with you to create a personalized coaching program that meets your unique needs and goals. Experienced Coaches: Our coaches are experienced professionals who have worked with a variety of clients across a range of industries. Results-Oriented Approach: We focus on delivering measurable results, helping you achieve your goals and take your career to the next level. Confidentiality: We maintain strict confidentiality with all of our clients, ensuring that you can trust us with even the most sensitive information. Flexibility: We offer flexible coaching options to fit your schedule and budget, including in-person, phone, and video coaching sessions. Conclusion If you’re looking to take your leadership skills to the next level, executive coaching can help you achieve your goals. At Leadertrip Coaching, our experienced coaches are here to support you every step of the way, helping you develop the skills, confidence, and strategies you need to succeed. Contact us today to learn more about our executive coaching services and how we can help you achieve your professional goals. Visit Website: https://leadertrip-coaching.com/executive-coaching-miami/
Can Healthy Sleep Schedule Lower Mortality Risk?
Researchers have discovered the importance of quality sleep in maintaining overall health. A study presented at Sleep 2023's annual meeting revealed that adults who follow a consistent healthy sleeping schedule have a significantly lower mortality risk compared to those who maintain an irregular schedule. Research using data from 1759 adults participating in the Multi-Ethnic Study of Atherosclerosis (MESA) Sleep Study evaluated both self-reported sleep as well as objectively measured wrist actigraphy measurements to evaluate sleep duration and regularity patterns, and all-cause mortality, cardiovascular diseases or CVD mortality, and cancer mortality compared with irregular or insufficient sleeping patterns. Regular and optimal sleeping duration patterns had lower all-cause death, CVD mortality, and cancer mortality compared with irregular sleep patterns with insufficient duration or frequency. As reported by Sleep Research Society International (RSI), those with four or more favorable sleep factors were at reduced risk of all-cause mortality by 30%, CVD mortality by 45%, and 29% less cancer mortality compared with those who only had zero to one favorable factors, which increased by 40% for overall deaths, 50% more heart disease related deaths, and 35% greater cancer mortality risk. Note that this study's results are based on an average seven years of follow up. While sleep habits can have a tremendous effect on overall health, remember it may take up to 10 days for your body clock to reset completely if something goes amiss. While maintaining the same bedtime routine and wake up times should be adhered to, don't fret over late nights every now and again if this means late bedtimes. If you encounter sleep disorder problem, talk to your doctor or sleep specialist at The Air Station to arrange a home-based sleep study and sleep apnea treatment with ResMed AirSense 10 Autoset CPAP machine based on your current medical condition.