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Mobile App Development Cost: A Complete Guide
There is no one answer to the question of how much it costs to develop a mobile app. Costs can range from a few thousand dollars to hundreds of thousands of dollars, depending on the features and complexity of the app. In addition, the cost of android app development cost may vary depending on the platform (Android or iOS) and the country where the development is taking place. How Much Does It Cost to Run an App? When it comes to developing a mobile app, the cost is always a factor to consider. How much does it cost to develop a mobile app, and what are the factors that influence the cost? The cost of developing a mobile app can vary greatly, depending on factors such as the complexity of the app, the number of platforms it needs to be developed for, and the level of design and functionality required. Generally speaking, you can expect between $50,000 and $200,000 to develop a mobile app. One of the main factors that affect the cost of developing a mobile app is the complexity of the app. An app that is more complex, with more features and functionality, will cost you more to develop than an app that is simpler. Another major factor that affects cost is the number of platforms the app needs to be developed for. An app that needs to be developed for both Android and iOS, for example, will cost more than an app that is only for Android. The level of design and functionality required can also affect the cost of development. An app that needs to be highly customized, for example, will cost more to develop than an app that is more basic. Factors that Affect the Cost of A Mobile App Development The price of developing an app might vary depending on a variety of factors. Some of the most important factors are the complexity of the app, the features that are included, the development team's experience, and the country where the development is taking place such as the Mobile App development company in Dubai. The complexity of the app can have a large impact on the cost. For example, a simple app that just displays text or images will be much cheaper to develop than an app that includes complex features such as video playback or online payments. The features that are included in the app also play a role in the cost. For example, an app that includes GPS tracking or a custom user interface will be more expensive to develop than an app that does not include these features. The development team's experience is another important factor. A team that has a lot of experience in developing mobile apps will be able to finish the project more quickly and at low-cost mobile app development. The country where the development is taking place can also affect the cost. For example, an Android App development company in Dubai. How Much Does It Cost to Make an App on The App Store? The following stage is to upload it into the App Stores so that users can access and download the app on their devices. Therefore, Apple's App Store and Google Play for Android are the two most popular app shops. You must join the Apple Developer Program to access the iOS App Store, and a license costs $99 annually. This then enables you to upload as many apps as you like to the iOS App Store. You must sign up for the $25 one-time charge for the Android Developer Program in order to access the Google Play store for Android. How to reduce the cost of app development? There are a few ways to reduce the cost of app development. One is to use a pre-built template or platform, which can be significantly less expensive than starting from scratch. Another is to outsource some of the development work to a third-party vendor. Additionally, it's important to be realistic about what can be completed in the timeframe and budget you have available. Striking a balance between features and cost is essential, and it's often necessary to make compromises. By taking these factors into account, you can develop an app that meets your needs without breaking the bank.
Bôi kem chống nắng có làm trắng da không? Lý do sử dụng kem chống nắng?
Kem chống nắng là một sản phẩm giúp ngăn chặn sự tàn phá da của tia cực tím (UV) từ ánh nắng mặt trời. Nó được ví như “vật bất ly thân” mà ai cũng cần có nhằm bảo vệ làn da tối ưu dù là ở nhà hay đi du lịch, dù là ngày nắng hay những ngày trời âm u. Tuy vậy liệu việc Bôi kem chống nắng có làm trắng da không? Lý do sử dụng kem chống nắng? Hãy để Hương Thị giải đáp thắc mắc ấy qua bài viết này nhé! 1/ Sơ lược về kem chống nắng Kem chống nắng là một loại sản phẩm dưỡng da được sử dụng để ngăn ngừa tia tử ngoại và giúp bảo vệ da khỏi tác hại của ánh nắng mặt trời. Nó có thể được sử dụng trên mọi loại da, trong đó có da nhạy cảm hoặc da dễ bị kích ứng. Ứng dụng của kem chống nắng có thể thấy rõ thông qua việc hỗ trợ người sử dụng ngăn ngừa một số vấn đề da như nám, giãn nở, giảm rủi ro bị ung thư da và lão hóa do tia UV gây ra. Ngoài ra, nó còn được linh động sử dụng trước khi bạn ra ngoài hoặc khi bạn đang ở ngoài đường trong một khoảng thời gian dài, đặc biệt là trong các thời điểm mà tia UV rất mạnh. Nó giúp ngăn ngừa tia tử ngoại và giúp bảo vệ da khỏi tác hại của ánh nắng mặt trời, chẳng hạn như chống lão hóa, giảm nếp nhăn và giúp da khỏe mạnh hơn. Ngoài việc kem chống nắng giúp ngăn ngừa viêm da và các vết thương do ánh nắng mặt trời gây ra, nó còn có thể giúp ngăn ngừa các bệnh về da như nám và mụn. 2/ Các loại kem chống nắng hiện nay Hiện nay, với sự phát triển của công nghệ trong ngành làm đẹp, rất nhiều sản phẩm dưỡng da chống nắng đã được ra đời với nhiều dạng và công dụng khác nhau. Có nhiều dạng kem chống nắng mà bạn có thể bắt gặp khi mua sắm như: dạng xịt, dạng kem, dạng gel, dạng sữa, dạng sáp,… nhằm phục vụ đa dạng hơn cho nhu cầu của khách hàng. Tuy vậy, nhìn chung thì để dễ dàng nhận biết và phân loại thì kem chống nắng được chia thành 2 loại là: Kem chống nắng vật lý (Sunblock) và Kem chống nắng hóa học (Sunscreen). Về cơ bản, hai loại kem chống nắng hóa học và vật lý đều có tác dụng bảo vệ da như nhau. Hơn nữa là mỗi loại đều có thể được đưa vào các công thức được tạo ra cho để phù hợp với từng loại da và chỉ khác nhau ở cách sử dụng và cơ chế bảo vệ da 3/ Bôi kem chống nắng có làm trắng da không? Trong các loại kem chống nắng thông thường không có bất kỳ 1 hoạt chất nào có thể làm cho da trở nên sáng hơn hoặc trắng hơn. Thay vào đó, mục đích chính của kem chống nắng là để bảo vệ da khỏi tác hại của tia UV – Nhân tố làm cho sắc tố da bị tối đi. Như đã đề cập ở phía trên, việc sử dụng kem chống nắng sẽ ngăn melanin hình thành trong da.  Do vậy, bôi kem chống nắng có làm trắng da không? Thì câu trả lời là không. Nó chỉ giúp da không trở nên đen sạm hơn, lão hóa hơn mà thôi.  Bôi kem chống nắng có thể giúp trắng da một chút bởi vì nó giúp ngăn chặn một phần ánh nắng mặt trời trực tiếp vào da, từ đó giúp giảm sự sản sinh của melanin (màu da). Tuy nhiên, việc sử dụng kem chống nắng chỉ có tác dụng trắng da tạm thời và không thể làm trắng da mãi mãi. Nếu bạn muốn trắng da, hãy chú ý đến cách sử dụng kem chống nắng và hạn chế số lần tiếp xúc với ánh nắng mặt trời, cũng như sử dụng các sản phẩm dưỡng da với các thành phần trắng da. Tuy nhiên, hãy chú ý rằng việc trắng da quá mạnh có thể gây ra các vấn đề về sức khỏe và đẹp da, vì vậy hãy tìm kiếm sự tư vấn của chuyên viên sức khỏe trước khi sử dụng bất cứ sản phẩm nào liên quan đến việc trắng da. Chắc chắn bạn cũng không mong muốn da mình ngày càng sẫm màu hơn đúng không? Và điều đó sẽ không xảy ra nếu bạn thoa kem chống nắng đúng cách. Việc thoa kem chống nắng có chỉ số SPF trên kem chống nắng đủ mạnh thì việc ngăn chặn tất cả các tia nắng mặt trời xâm nhập vào da bạn là điều hoàn toàn dễ dàng. Đây cũng là Lý do bạn phải sử dụng kem chống nắng khi ra ngoài nắng sẽ được Hương Thị đề cập tiếp theo. 4/ Lý do phải sử dụng kem chống nắng Bảo vệ da khỏi tia UVA và UVB Trong ánh nắng mặt trời, 2 loại tia là UVA và UVB được xem là gây ra nhiều tác động tới làn da. Nguyên nhân khiến làn da bạn bị lão hóa sớm, sạm, nám, tàn nhang thông thường đều xuất phát từ yếu tố này. Cụ thể:  Tia UVA dễ dàng xuyên qua lớp biểu bì của da, gây ra những đốm nâu, nám, tàn nhang. Tia UVB là nguyên nhân khiến da bị cháy nắng, da không đều màu… Ánh nắng mặt trời có thể gây ra tác hại nghiêm trọng cho da, bao gồm lão hóa da, nếp nhăn và sẹo. Sử dụng kem chống nắng có thể giúp ngăn chặn một phần tác hại của ánh nắng mặt trời. Cho dù bạn đang có phương pháp chăm sóc da như thế nào, thì kem chống nắng vẫn luôn là sản phẩm không thể thiếu để ngăn chặn sự phá hủy da mặt của tia UV từ ánh nắng mặt trời. Làm tăng hiệu quả dưỡng trắng Như đã nói qua ở trên, sử dụng kem chống nắng là bước quan trọng trong quá trình dưỡng trắng của bạn.  Ai cũng mong muốn có làn da trắng hồng mịn màng, nên bạn thường tập trung vào các sản phẩm dưỡng trắng da ban đêm. Nhưng nếu bạn không biết cách bảo vệ làn da khỏi ánh nắng cũng như sự tác động của môi trường, việc dưỡng trắng của bạn sẽ đổ sông đổ bể.  Bên cạnh đó, các tia có hại này còn có thể làm oxy hóa những thành phần có trong kem dưỡng trắng, khiến chúng không còn mang lại tác dụng như mong muốn. Trường hợp bạn đang nỗ lực dưỡng trắng nhưng da vẫn ngày một đen đi hoặc bật tông rất ít thì hãy xem lại bước chống nắng nhé!  Ngăn ngừa thâm sạm và ung thư da Sử dụng kem chống nắng không chỉ bảo vệ da không bị sạm nám mà nó còn ngăn ngừa ung thư da.  Như bạn cũng đã từng nghe tới, tia nắng mặt trời có khả năng tổng hợp melamine; đây là sắc tố làm hình thành những đốm nâu trên da.  Với những bạn đang dùng sản phẩm dưỡng trắng cũng nên lưu ý rằng, các loại kem hoặc serum này đều có chứa những thành phần có tác dụng tẩy đi lớp tế bào chết, thúc đẩy da nhanh hình thành lớp da non. Do đó, da bạn lúc này sẽ cực kỳ nhạy cảm. Khi để da thường xuyên tiếp xúc với ánh nắng, da sẽ nhanh đen sạm hơn, đồng thời dẫn tới nguy cơ bị ung thư da.  Cải thiện hệ miễn dịch cho da Ánh nắng mặt trời cũng là tác nhân phá vỡ hàng rào bảo vệ da, khiến da ngày một yếu và nhạy cảm hơn. Nhất là các thành phần quan trọng của da như collagen và elastin cũng bị nắng mặt trời làm hư hại và bị suy giảm nhanh chóng.  Dùng kem chống nắng chính là giải pháp khắc phục được vấn đề này!  Tóm lại, sử dụng kem chống nắng là một trong những bước quan trọng để bảo vệ da và giữ cho nó trông tốt. Hãy chọn loại kem chống nắng phù hợp với loại da của bạn và sử dụng nó theo cách đúng để có thể tối đa hóa tác dụng của nó. 5/ Lượng kem chống nắng cần thoa cho mỗi lần sử dụng Không giống với những sản phẩm chăm sóc da thông thường, bạn chỉ nên bôi một lượng vừa phải để tránh bí tắc da; thì kem chống nắng bạn cần phải bôi một lớp khá dày mới đủ khả năng bảo vệ da khỏi tác hại của ánh nắng mặt trời. Thế nhưng không phải ai cũng biết điều này. Thông thường, một số bạn chỉ dùng một lượng khoảng 1/4 hay 1/5 so với yêu cầu nên da bạn dù đã bôi kem chống nắng vẫn bị đen như thường.  Hậu quả của việc bôi không đủ lượng kem chống nắng sẽ làm giảm hiệu quả của sản phẩm, nên da bạn vẫn sẽ bị tác động bởi ánh nắng mặt trời. Lượng kem chống nắng được khuyên dùng riêng cho vùng mặt là 1 ngón tay trỏ hoặc 1 đồng xu. Hương Thị khuyên rằng bạn hãy đảm bảo luôn sử dụng đủ lượng kem chống nắng cho da. Việc bôi kem lên da từ 2 đến 3 lần có thể giúp bạn ước lượng được lượng kem chống nắng cần sử dụng đấy nhé! Trên đây là bài viết của Hương Thị về Bôi kem chống nắng có làm trắng da không? Lý do sử dụng kem chống nắng? mà bạn có thể tham khảo. Hãy luôn chú ý đến việc bảo vệ làn da của mình khỏi tia UVA và UVB bằng cách dùng kem chống nắng, áo chống nắng, kính râm và trang bị những thông tin bổ ích về kem chống nắng bạn nhé. 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DP-500 Prüfungsfragen deutsch, DP-500 Prüfungstraining
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How to Setup Rockspace AC750 Extender
You are also the one who is not aware about the Setup of Rockspace AC750 Extender? But we must tell you, that you are not only the one facing the same number of users facing the same problem. The good part is we are up with a lot of Rockspace Extender Setup steps. Some Special Features Of AC750 Extender. To begin with, Rockspace AC750 extender, also known as Rockspace RSD0607 Extender, is however a wireless Wifi extender that helps to eliminate dead spots at your workplace or at your home. So, connect the extender with the current network. It has the best class display and design as well. It consists of multiple features that help in making this extender unique. Permanent Signal Connection. Complete Signal Coverage. Compatible with every sort of router. Apart from this, you can establish a definite spot with the help of the smart signal indicator. However you can easily connect the extender via a Graphical User Interface or a WPS method. Follow the given steps: But we are starting with the manual Setup. Rockspace extender setup using Manual method Rockspace Extender Setup Manual methodology Follow the below-given steps to line up your rockspace repeater employing a manual method: Unbox your Rockspace extender and prepare it. Plug in your extender Go to computer or laptop computer. Make sure your rockspace extender is close to the router. Connect your device with the net. Select any net browser like Firefox or Chrome. Then make your rockspace account. Then follow the onscreen instruction. If you're confused in any setup method. you'll conjointly set your rockspace extender with the WPS methodology. On this web log we are going to share the WPS methodology too, to put together your Rockspace extender. Robust Extender Setup In the very beginning, You have to plug in the Rockspace AC750 Extender into the power outlet. Therefore, connect your extender to a closed power outlet. After successfully connecting the device to the extender's wifi network, ensure that mobile data of your device should not be on. Thereafter open a web browser and therefore enter the URL in the address bar like, re.rockspace.local You need to create a login username and a specific password. Or choose the default username for the extended networks. In the meantime enter the WiFI password and wait until the extender starts appearing. As a result of successful setup of RSD0607 Rockspace Extender, amid the extender besides the router and dead area. Hence the Setup is over, you will get to know about it via an LED indicator which turns blue on successful setup. Rockspace AC750 WiFi Extender Setup via WPS Rockspace AC750 WLAN Extender Setup via WPS Go through the below directions step by step for rockspace ac750 WLAN extender setup through WPS: On the terribly initial Setup step of Rockspace AC750 WLAN extender setup, you wish to plug your extender into the ability socket that is found close to the router. You'll begin the rockspace AC750 WLAN setup once junction rectifier power starts blinking blue. Press the WPS button of your router once the junction rectifier indicator starts lightening. Press the WPS button of the extender inside 2-3 minutes once pressing the WPS button of your router. Check whether or not the junction rectifier signal turns red or blue. Therefore, relocate your rockspace AC750 extender between dead spots and router. Also, check the network coverage strength victimization Associate in Nursing junction rectifier indicator. Once you get the total coverage strength of the WLAN association, you'll use the network freely with non interference. Conclusion: We hope the above given methods are easy, and you are able to set up your extender through this way. But however, the Steps seem a little bit technical. Though it's so easy. No issues, you can do it by login into the portal of re.rockspace.local login and Setup the extender easily.
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2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF Dumps(Q83-Q120)
QUESTION 83 Which statement about hot-potato routing architecture design is true? A.Hot-potato routing is the preferred architecture when connecting to content providers B.Hop-potato keeps traffic under the control of the network administrator for longer C.OSPF uses hot-potato routing if all ASBRs use the same value for the external metric D.Hot-potato routing is prone to misconfiguration as well as poor coordination between two networks Answer: A QUESTION 84 Two enterprise networks must be connected together. Both networks are using the same private IP addresses. The client requests from both sides should be translated using hide NAT (dynamic NAT) with the overload feature to save IF addresses from the NAT pools. Which design addresses this requirement using only one Cisco I OS NAT router for both directions? A.This is not possible, because two Cisco IOS NAT routers are required to do dynamic NAT, with overload in both directions. B.The ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands must be configured at the interfaces with the overload option in both directions. C.The overload feature is the default and does not have to be configured. D.Two different NAT pools must be used for the ip nat inside source and the ip nat outside source commands for the overload feature in both directions. E.The Nat Virtual interface must be used to achieve this requirement. Answer: D QUESTION 85 Refer to the exhibit. As part of a redesign project, you must predict multicast behavior. What happens to the multicast traffic received on the shared tree (*,G), if it is received on the LHR interface indicated*? A.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPF check against the multicast source B.It is switched give that no RPF check is performed C.It is switched due to a successful RPF check against the routing table D.It is dropped due to an unsuccessful RPk8t8ck against the multicast receiver. Answer: A QUESTION 86 A BGP route reflector in the network is taking longer than expected to coverage during large network changes. Troubleshooting shows that the router cannot handle all the TCP acknowledgements during route updates. Which action can be performed to tune the device performance? A.Increase the size of the hold queue. B.Increase the size of the large buffers. C.Decrease the size of the small buffers. D.Increase the keepalive timers for each BGP neighbor. Answer: A QUESTION 87 Which two application requirements are mandatory tor traffic to receive proper treatment when placed in the priority queue? (Choose two.) A.small transactions (HTTP-like behavior) B.WRED drop treatment C.tolerance to packet loss D.intolerance to jitter E.TCP-based application Answer: CD QUESTION 88 Which two conditions must be met for EIGRP to maintain an alternate loop-free path to a remote network? (Choose two.) A.The Reported Distance from a successor is lower than the local Feasible Distance. B.The Reported Distance from a successor is higher than the local Feasible Distance. C.The feasibility condition does not need to be met. D.The Feasible Distance from a successor is lower than the local Reported Distance. E.A feasible successor must be present. Answer: AE QUESTION 89 You are designing a new Ethernet-based metro-area network for an enterprise customer to connect 50 sites within the same city OSPF will be the routing protocol used. The customer is primarily concerned with IPv4 address conservation and convergence time. Which two combined actions do you recommend? (Choose two) A.Use a multipoint Metro-E service for router connections B.Use a single address per router for all P2P links C.Use P2P links between routers in a hub-and-spoke design D.Configure address aggregation at each site router E.Determine which OSPF routers will be DR/BDR Answer: AC QUESTION 90 Which two statements about MLD snooping are true? (Choose two) A.When MLD snooping is enabled, QoS is automatically enabled. B.A VLAN can support multiple active MLD snooping queries, as long as each one is associated to a different multicast group. C.AN MLD snooping querier election occurs when any MLD snooping querier goes down or if there is an IP address change on the active querier. D.When multiple MLD snooping queriers are enabled in a VLAN, the querier with the lowest IP address in the VLAN is elected as the active MLD snooping querier. Answer: CD QUESTION 91 Which two design option are available to dynamically discover the RP in an IPv6 multicast network? (Choose two) A.embedded RP B.MSDP C.BSR D.Auto-RP E.MLD Answer: AC QUESTION 92 Company A has a hub-and spoke topology over an SP-managed infrastructure. To measure traffic performance metrics. IP SLA senders on all spoke CE routers and an IP SLA responder on the hub CE router. What must they monitor to have visibility on the potential performance impact due to the constantly increasing number of spoke sites? A.memory usage on the hub router B.interface buffers on the hub and spoke routers C.CPU and memory usage on the spoke routers D.CPU usage on the hub router Answer: D QUESTION 93 Which two descriptions of CWDM are true? (Choose two) A.typically used over long distances, but requires optical amplification B.uses the 850nm band C.allows up to 32 optical earners to be multiplexed onto a single fiber D.shares the same transmission window as DWDM E.Passive CWDM devices require no electrical power Answer: DE QUESTION 94 SDWAN networks capitalize the usage of broadband Internet links over traditional MPLS links to offer more cost benefits to enterprise customers. However, due to the insecure nature of the public Internet, it is mandatory to use encryption of traffic between any two SDWAN edge devices installed behind NAT gateways. Which overlay method can provide optimal transport over unreliable underlay networks that are behind NAT gateways? A.TLS B.DTLS C.IPsec D.GRE Answer: C QUESTION 95 Company XYZ runs OSPF in their network. A design engineer decides to implement hot-potato routing architecture. How can this implementation be achieved? A.Enable iBGP and apply prepend to ensure all prefixes will have the same length of the AS path attribute value. B.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure the total metric calculation includes only the ext value and the value is the same in all ASBRs. C.Enable OSPF load-balancing over unequal cost path. D.Redistribute the external prefixes onto OSPF and ensure that the total metric calculation includes external internal values. Answer: D QUESTION 96 What are two primary design constraints when a robust infrastructure solution is created? (Choose two.) A.monitoring capabilities B.project time frame C.staff experience D.component availability E.total cost Answer: BE QUESTION 97 SD-WAN can be used to provide secure connectivity to remote offices, branch offices, campus networks, data centers, and the cloud over any type of IP-based underlay transport network. Which two statements describe SD WAN solutions? (Choose two.) A.SD-WAN networks are inherently protected against slow performance. B.Control and data forwarding planes are kept separate. C.Improved operational efficiencies result In cost savings. D.Solutions include centralized orchestration, control, and zero-touch provisioning. E.Solutions allow for variations of commodity and specialized switching hardware. Answer: CD QUESTION 98 An architect designs a multi-controller network architecture with these requirements: - Achieve fast failover to control traffic when controllers fail. - Yield a short distance and high resiliency in the connection between the switches and the controller. - Reduce connectivity loss and enable smart recovery to improve the SDN survivability. - Improve connectivity by adding path diversity and capacity awareness for controllers. Which control plane component of the multi-controller must be built to meet the requirements? A.control node reliability B.controller stale consistency C.control path reliability D.controller clustering Answer: D QUESTION 99 Company XYZ is planning to deploy primary and secondary (disaster recovery) data center sites. Each of these sites will have redundant SAN fabrics and data protection is expected between the data center sites. The sites are 100 miles (160 km) apart and target RPO/RTO are 3 hrs and 24 hrs, respectively. Which two considerations must Company XYZ bear in mind when deploying replication in their scenario? (Choose two.) A.Target RPO/RTO requirements cannot be met due to the one-way delay introduced by the distance between sites. B.VSANs must be routed between sites to isolate fault domains and increase overall availability. C.Synchronous data replication must be used to meet the business requirements. D.Asynchronous data replication should be used in this scenario to avoid performance impact in the primary site. E.VSANs must be extended from the primary to the secondary site to improve performance and availability. Answer: CD Explanation: RPO and RTO tend to vary based on the application involved. These metrics tend to fluctuate between data that cannot be lost (i.e., low RPO but high RTO) such as financial and healthcare data as well as real-time systems that cannot be down (i.e., high RPO but low RTO) such as an E-commerce web server. QUESTION 100 Which undesired effect of increasing the jitter compensation buffer is true? A.The overall transport jitter decreases and quality improves. B.The overall transport jitter increases and quality issues can occur. C.The overall transport delay increases and quality issues can occur. D.The overall transport delay decreases and quality improves. Answer: C QUESTION 101 Which three tools are used for ongoing monitoring and maintenance of a voice and video environment? (Choose three.) A.flow-based analysis to measure bandwidth mix of applications and their flows B.call management analysis to identify network convergence-related failures C.call management analysis to identify CAC failures and call quality issues D.active monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter E.passive monitoring via synthetic probes to measure loss, latency, and jitter F.flow-based analysis with PTP time-stamping to measure loss, latency, and jitter Answer: ACD QUESTION 102 Which two advantages of using DWDM over traditional optical networks are true? (Choose two.) A.inherent topology flexibility and service protection provided without penalty through intelligent oversubscription of bandwidth reservation B.ability to expand bandwidth over existing optical Infrastructure C.inherent topology flexibility with built-in service protection D.inherent topology flexibility with intelligent chromatic dispersion E.inherent topology flexibility with a service protection provided through a direct integration with an upper layer protocol Answer: AB QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. This network is running OSPF and EIGRP as the routing protocols. Mutual redistribution of the routing protocols has been configured on the appropriate ASBRs. The OSPF network must be designed so that flapping routes in EIGRP domains do not affect the SPF runs within OSPF. The design solution must not affect the way EIGRP routes are propagated into the EIGRP domains. Which technique accomplishes the requirement? A.route summarization the ASBR interfaces facing the OSPF domain B.route summarization on the appropriate ASBRS. C.route summarization on the appropriate ABRS. D.route summarization on EIDRP routers connecting toward the ASBR Answer: D QUESTION 104 Company XYZ is running OSPF in their network. They have merged with another company that is running EIGRP as the routing protocol. Company XYZ now needs the two domains to talk to each other with redundancy, while maintaining a loop free environment. The solution must scale when new networks are added into the network in the near future. Which technology can be used to meet these requirements? A.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs B.multipoint route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags C.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using route tags D.single point route-redistribution with route filtering using ACLs Answer: B QUESTION 105 Company XYZ is in the process of identifying which transport mechanism(s) to use as their WAN technology. Their main two requirements are. - a technology that could offer DPI, SLA, secure tunnels, privacy, QoS, scalability, reliability, and ease of management - a technology that is cost-effective Which WAN technology(ies) should be included in the design of company XYZ? A.Software-defined WAN should be the preferred choice because it complements both technologies, covers all the required features, and it is the most cost-effective solution. B.Internet should be the preferred option because it is cost effective and supports BFD, IP SLA. and IPsec for secure transport over the public Internet. C.Both technologies should be used. Each should be used to back up the other one; where the primary links are MPLS, the internet should be used as a backup link with IPsec (and vice versa). D.MPLS meets all these requirements and it is more reliable than using the Internet. It is widely used with defined best practices and an industry standard. Answer: A QUESTION 106 Which MPLS TE design consideration is true? A.MPLS TE replaces LDP and the dependency of the IGP to identify the best path. B.MPLS TE provides link and node protection C.MPLS TE optimizes the routing of IP traffic, given the constraints imposed by backbone capacity and application requirements. D.MPLS TE requires Layer 3 VPN full-mesh topology deployment Answer: C QUESTION 107 The network designer needs to use GLOP IP address in order make them unique within their ASN, which multicast address range will be considered? A.239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 B.224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 C.233.0.0.0 to 233.255.255.255 D.232.0.0.0 to 232.255.255.255 Answer: C QUESTION 108 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right. Answer: QUESTION 109 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the end-to-end network virtualization elements from the left onto the correct network areas on the right. Answer: QUESTION 110 Which two data plane hardening techniques are true? (Choose two) A.warning banners B.redundant AAA servers C.Control Plane Policing D.SNMPv3 E.infrastructure ACLs F.disable unused services G.routing protocol authentication Answer: CE QUESTION 111 You have been asked to design a high-density wireless network for a university campus. Which two principles would you apply in order to maximize the wireless network capacity? (Choose two.) A.Implement a four-channel design on 2.4 GHz to increase the number of available channels B.Choose a high minimum data rate to reduce the duty cycle. C.increases the number of SSlDs to load-balance the client traffic. D.Make use of the 5-GHz band to reduce the spectrum utilization on 2.4 GHz when dual-band clients are used. E.Enable 802.11n channel bonding on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz to increase the maximum aggregated cell throughput. Answer: BD QUESTION 112 Company XYZ is redesigning their QoS policy. Some of the applications used by the company are real- time applications. The QoS design must give these applications preference in terms of transmission. Which QoS strategy can be used to fulfill the requirement? A.weighted fair queuing B.weighted random early detection C.low-latency queuing D.first-in first-out Answer: C QUESTION 113 As part of workspace digitization, a large enterprise has migrated all their users to Desktop as a Sen/ice (DaaS), by hosting the backend system in their on-premises data center. Some of the branches have started to experience disconnections to the DaaS at periodic intervals, however, local users in the data center and head office do not experience this behavior. Which technology can be used to mitigate this issue? A.tail drop B.traffic shaping C.WRED D.traffic policing Answer: B QUESTION 114 A healthcare provider discovers that protected health information of patients was altered without patient consent. The healthcare provider is subject to HIPAA compliance and is required to protect PHI data. Which type of security safeguard should be implemented to resolve this issue? A.technical and physical access control B.administrative security management processes C.physical device and media control D.technical integrity and transmission security Answer: D QUESTION 115 Which two technologies enable multilayer segmentation? (Choose two.) A.policy-based routing B.segment routing C.data plane markings D.firewalls E.filter lists Answer: AD QUESTION 116 IPFIX data collection via standalone IPFIX probes is an alternative to flow collection from routers and switches. Which use case is suitable for using IPFIX probes? A.performance monitoring B.security C.observation of critical links D.capacity planning Answer: A QUESTION 117 Company XYZ wants to use the FCAPS ISO standard for network management design. The focus of the design should be to monitor and keep track of any performance issues by continuously collecting and analyzing statistical information to monitor, correct, and optimize any reduced responsiveness across the network. Which layer accomplishes this design requirement? A.fault management B.accounting management C.performance management D.security management Answer: C QUESTION 118 While designing a switched topology, in which two options is UplinkFast recommended? (Choose two ) A.when switches of different spanning-tree types are connected (for example. 802.1d connecting to 802.1w) B.on distribution layer switches C.when hello timers are changed to more aggressive values D.on access layer switches E.on the core switches Answer: AD QUESTION 119 You are using iSCSI to transfer files between a 10 Gigabit Ethernet storage system and a 1 Gigabit Ethernet server. The performance is only approximately 700 Mbps and output drops are occurring on the server switch port. Which action will improve performance in a cost-effective manner? A.Change the protocol to CIFS. B.Increase the queue to at least 1 GB C.Use a WRED random drop policy D.Enable the TCP Nagle algorithm on the receiver Answer: A QUESTION 120 Customer XYZ network consists of an MPLS core. IS-IS running as IGP a pair of BGP route reflectors for route propagation, and a few dozens of MPLS-TE tunnels for specific tactical traffic engineering requirements. The customer's engineering department has some questions about the use of the Overload Bit in the IS-IS networks and how it could be used to improve their current network design. Which two concepts about the Overload Bit are true? (Choose two.) A.It can be set on a router during the startup process for a fixed period of time B.Networks advertised within the LSPs of the respective node will become unreachable C.It forces the midpoint MPLS-TE node to reoptimize the primary tunnels going through the OL node. D.It can be set on a router until other interacting protocols have signaled convergence. E.It is not recommended on BGP Route Reflectors Answer: AD 2023 Latest Braindump2go 400-007 PDF and 400-007 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1wV28HLjscHjQ8TOrCglIRRU5nn6jytDd?usp=sharing
2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-735 PDF Dumps(Q36-Q59)
QUESTION 36 Which description of synchronous calls to an API is true? A.They can be used only within single-threaded processes. B.They pause execution and wait for the response. C.They always successfully return within a fixed time. D.They can be used only for small requests. Answer: B QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit. What does the response from the API contain when this code is executed? A.error message and status code of 403 B.newly created domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate C.updated domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate D.status and security details for the domains Answer: D QUESTION 38 Refer to the exhibit. A security engineer attempts to query the Cisco Security Management appliance to retrieve details of a specific message. What must be added to the script to achieve the desired result? A.Add message ID information to the URL string as a URI. B.Run the script and parse through the returned data to find the desired message. C.Add message ID information to the URL string as a parameter. D.Add message ID information to the headers. Answer: C QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit. A network operator must generate a daily flow report and learn how to act on or manipulate returned data. When the operator runs the script, it returns an enormous amount of information. Which two actions enable the operator to limit returned data? (Choose two.) A.Add recordLimit. followed by an integer (key:value) to the flow_data. B.Add a for loop at the end of the script, and print each key value pair separately. C.Add flowLimit, followed by an integer (key:value) to the flow_data. D.Change the startDateTime and endDateTime values to include smaller time intervals. E.Change the startDate and endDate values to include smaller date intervals. Answer: AB QUESTION 40 Refer to the exhibit. Which expression prints the text "802.1x"? A.print(quiz[0]['choices']['b']) B.print(quiz['choices']['b']) C.print(quiz[0]['choices']['b']['802.1x']) D.print(quiz[0]['question']['choices']['b']) Answer: A QUESTION 41 What are two advantages of Python virtual environments? (Choose two.) A.Virtual environments can move compiled modules between different platforms. B.Virtual environments permit non-administrative users to install packages. C.The application code is run in an environment that is destroyed upon exit. D.Virtual environments allow for stateful high availability. E.Virtual environments prevent packaging conflicts between multiple Python projects. Answer: CE QUESTION 42 When the URI "/api/fmc_config/v1/domain/e276abec-e0f2-11e3-8169-6d9ed49b625f/policy/accesspolicies" is used to make a POST request, what does "e276abec-e0f2-11e3-8169-6d9ed49b625f" represent? A.API token B.domain UUID C.access policy UUID D.object UUID Answer: B QUESTION 44 Which Cisco AMP file disposition valid? A.pristine B.malware C.dirty D.nonmalicios Answer: B QUESTION 45 In Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which API queues to find the list of endpoints in the group "Finance Hosts," which has a GUID of 6c3c2005-4c74-4ba7-8dbb- c4d5b6bafe03? A.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/endpoints?group[]=6c3c2005-4c74-4ba7-8dbb-c4d5b6bafe03 B.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?group_guid[]=6c3c2005-4c74-4ba7-8dbb-c4d5b6bafe03 C.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?group_guid-6c3c2005-4c74-4ba7-8dbb-c4d5b6bafe03 D.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/endpoints?group-6c3c2005-4c74-4ba7-8dbb-c4d5b6bafe03 Answer: B QUESTION 46 For which two programming languages does Cisco offer an SDK for Cisco pxGrid 1.0? (Choose two.) A.Python B.Perl C.Java D.C E.JavaScript Answer: CD QUESTION 47 Which two URI parameters are needed for the Cisco Stealthwatch Top Alarm Host v1 API? (Choose two.) A.startAbsolute B.externalGeos C.tenantId D.intervalLength E.tagID Answer: CE QUESTION 48 Refer to the exhibit. Which URL returned the data? A.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers B.https://api.amp.cisco.com/v0/computers C.https://amp.cisco.com/api/v0/computers D.https://amp.cisco.com/api/v1/computers Answer: A QUESTION 49 After changes are made to the Cisco Firepower Threat Defense configuration using the Cisco Firepower Device Manager API, what must be done to ensure that the new policy is activated? A.Submit a POST to the /api/fdm/latest/operational/deploy URI. B.Submit a GET to the /api/fdm/latest/operational/deploy URI. C.Submit a PUT to the /api/fdm/latest/devicesettings/pushpolicy URI. D.Submit a POST to the /api/fdm/latest/devicesettings/pushpolicy URI. Answer: A QUESTION 50 Refer to the exhibit. A Python function named "query" has been developed and the goal is to use it to query the service "com.cisco.ise.session" via Cisco pxGrid 2.0 APIs. How is the function called, if the goal is to identify the sessions that are associated with the IP address 10.0.0.50? A.query(config, secret, "getSessionByIpAddress/10.0.0.50", "ipAddress") B.query(config, "10.0.0.50", url, payload) C.query(config, secret, url, "10.0.0.50") D.query(config, secret, url, '{"ipAddress": "10.0.0.50"}') Answer: D QUESTION 51 Which API is used to query if the domain "example.com" has been flagged as malicious by the Cisco Security Labs team? A.https://s-platform.api.opendns.com/1.0/events?example.com B.https://investigate.api.umbrella.com/domains/categorization/example.com C.https://investigate.api.umbrella.com/domains/volume/example.com D.https://s-platform.api.opendns.com/1.0/domains?example.com Answer: B QUESTION 53 Which request searches for a process window in Cisco ThreatGRID that contains the word "secret"? A./api/v2/search/submissions?term=processwindow&title=secret B./api/v2/search/submissions?term=processwindow&q=secret C./api/v2/search/submissions?term=window&title=secret D./api/v2/search/submissions?term=process&q=secret Answer: D QUESTION 54 Refer to the exhibit. A network operator wrote a Python script to retrieve events from Cisco AMP. Against which API gateway must the operator make the request? A.BASE_URL = "https://api.amp.cisco.com" B.BASE_URL = "https://amp.cisco.com/api" C.BASE_URL = "https://amp.cisco.com/api/" D.BASE_URL = "https://api.amp.cisco.com/" Answer: A QUESTION 56 What is the purpose of the snapshot APIs exposed by Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud? A.Report on flow data during a customizable time period. B.Operate and return alerts discovered from infrastructure observations. C.Return current configuration data of Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud infrastructure. D.Create snapshots of supported Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud infrastructure. Answer: B QUESTION 57 Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the API represented by this URL? A.Getting or setting intrusion policies in FMC B.Creating an intrusion policy in FDM C.Updating access policies D.Getting the list of intrusion policies configured in FDM Answer: D QUESTION 58 Which query parameter is required when using the reporting API of Cisco Security Management Appliances? A.device_type B.query_type C.filterValue D.startDate + endDate Answer: D QUESTION 59 Which step is required by Cisco pxGrid providers to expose functionality to consumer applications that are written in Python? A.Look up the existing service using the /pxgrid/control/ServiceLookup endpoint. B.Register the service using the /pxgrid/control/ServiceRegister endpoint. C.Configure the service using the /pxgrid/ise/config/profiler endpoint. D.Expose the service using the /pxgrid/ise/pubsub endpoint. Answer: D 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-735 PDF and 300-735 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1m19PdiWiEdzrVfv_C_JxguM15u1-V5mx?usp=sharing
2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF Dumps(Q46-Q76)
QUESTION 46 A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.) A.incident response playbooks B.asset vulnerability assessment C.report of staff members with asset relations D.key assets and executives E.malware analysis report Answer: BE QUESTION 47 Refer to the exhibit. At which stage of the threat kill chain is an attacker, based on these URIs of inbound web requests from known malicious Internet scanners? A.exploitation B.actions on objectives C.delivery D.reconnaissance Answer: C QUESTION 48 What should a security analyst consider when comparing inline traffic interrogation with traffic tapping to determine which approach to use in the network? A.Tapping interrogation replicates signals to a separate port for analyzing traffic B.Tapping interrogations detect and block malicious traffic C.Inline interrogation enables viewing a copy of traffic to ensure traffic is in compliance with security policies D.Inline interrogation detects malicious traffic but does not block the traffic Answer: A QUESTION 49 Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.) A.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3 B.Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network C.Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections D.Move the webserver to the internal network E.Move the webserver to the external network Answer: AB QUESTION 50 According to GDPR, what should be done with data to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability? A.Perform a vulnerability assessment B.Conduct a data protection impact assessment C.Conduct penetration testing D.Perform awareness testing Answer: B QUESTION 51 A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow? A.Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker's motives, and identify missing patches B.Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody C.Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited D.Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation plan Answer: B QUESTION 52 A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching? A.Identify the business applications running on the assets B.Update software to patch third-party software C.Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit D.Fix applications according to the risk scores Answer: D QUESTION 53 An engineer is analyzing a possible compromise that happened a week ago when the company database servers unexpectedly went down. The analysis reveals that attackers tampered with Microsoft SQL Server Resolution Protocol and launched a DDoS attack. The engineer must act quickly to ensure that all systems are protected. Which two tools should be used to detect and mitigate this type of future attack? (Choose two.) A.firewall B.Wireshark C.autopsy D.SHA512 E.IPS Answer: AE QUESTION 54 A European-based advertisement company collects tracking information from partner websites and stores it on a local server to provide tailored ads. Which standard must the company follow to safeguard the resting data? A.HIPAA B.PCI-DSS C.Sarbanes-Oxley D.GDPR Answer: D QUESTION 55 An organization had a breach due to a phishing attack. An engineer leads a team through the recovery phase of the incident response process. Which action should be taken during this phase? A.Host a discovery meeting and define configuration and policy updates B.Update the IDS/IPS signatures and reimage the affected hosts C.Identify the systems that have been affected and tools used to detect the attack D.Identify the traffic with data capture using Wireshark and review email filters Answer: B QUESTION 56 An engineer is going through vulnerability triage with company management because of a recent malware outbreak from which 21 affected assets need to be patched or remediated. Management decides not to prioritize fixing the assets and accepts the vulnerabilities. What is the next step the engineer should take? A.Investigate the vulnerability to prevent further spread B.Acknowledge the vulnerabilities and document the risk C.Apply vendor patches or available hot fixes D.Isolate the assets affected in a separate network Answer: B QUESTION 57 A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs. Which technology should be used to accomplish this task? A.application whitelisting/blacklisting B.network NGFW C.host-based IDS D.antivirus/antispyware software Answer: A QUESTION 58 Which command does an engineer use to set read/write/execute access on a folder for everyone who reaches the resource? A.chmod 666 B.chmod 774 C.chmod 775 D.chmod 777 Answer: D QUESTION 59 A SIEM tool fires an alert about a VPN connection attempt from an unusual location. The incident response team validates that an attacker has installed a remote access tool on a user's laptop while traveling. The attacker has the user's credentials and is attempting to connect to the network. What is the next step in handling the incident? A.Block the source IP from the firewall B.Perform an antivirus scan on the laptop C.Identify systems or services at risk D.Identify lateral movement Answer: C QUESTION 60 A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company's infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage? A.Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches B.Analyze event logs and restrict network access C.Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity D.Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list Answer: A QUESTION 61 A patient views information that is not theirs when they sign in to the hospital's online portal. The patient calls the support center at the hospital but continues to be put on hold because other patients are experiencing the same issue. An incident has been declared, and an engineer is now on the incident bridge as the CyberOps Tier 3 Analyst. There is a concern about the disclosure of PII occurring in real- time. What is the first step the analyst should take to address this incident? A.Evaluate visibility tools to determine if external access resulted in tampering B.Contact the third-party handling provider to respond to the incident as critical C.Turn off all access to the patient portal to secure patient records D.Review system and application logs to identify errors in the portal code Answer: C QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script? A.Seeds for existing domains are checked B.A search is conducted for additional seeds C.Domains are compared to seed rules D.A list of domains as seeds is blocked Answer: B QUESTION 63 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is reverse engineering a suspicious file by examining its resources. What does this file indicate? A.a DOS MZ executable format B.a MS-DOS executable archive C.an archived malware D.a Windows executable file Answer: D QUESTION 64 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing a static analysis on a malware and knows that it is capturing keys and webcam events on a company server. What is the indicator of compromise? A.The malware is performing comprehensive fingerprinting of the host, including a processor, motherboard manufacturer, and connected removable storage. B.The malware is a ransomware querying for installed anti-virus products and operating systems to encrypt and render unreadable until payment is made for file decryption. C.The malware has moved to harvesting cookies and stored account information from major browsers and configuring a reverse proxy for intercepting network activity. D.The malware contains an encryption and decryption routine to hide URLs/IP addresses and is storing the output of loggers and webcam captures in locally encrypted files for retrieval. Answer: D QUESTION 65 An audit is assessing a small business that is selling automotive parts and diagnostic services. Due to increased customer demands, the company recently started to accept credit card payments and acquired a POS terminal. Which compliance regulations must the audit apply to the company? A.HIPAA B.FISMA C.COBIT D.PCI DSS Answer: D QUESTION 66 A customer is using a central device to manage network devices over SNMPv2. A remote attacker caused a denial of service condition and can trigger this vulnerability by issuing a GET request for the ciscoFlashMIB OID on an affected device. Which should be disabled to resolve the issue? A.SNMPv2 B.TCP small services C.port UDP 161 and 162 D.UDP small services Answer: A QUESTION 67 Refer to the exhibit. Which indicator of compromise is represented by this STIX? A.website redirecting traffic to ransomware server B.website hosting malware to download files C.web server vulnerability exploited by malware D.cross-site scripting vulnerability to backdoor server Answer: B QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring in this packet capture? A.TCP port scan B.TCP flood C.DNS flood D.DNS tunneling Answer: B QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling? A.The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices B.Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution C.Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority D.Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution Answer: B QUESTION 70 The incident response team receives information about the abnormal behavior of a host. A malicious file is found being executed from an external USB flash drive. The team collects and documents all the necessary evidence from the computing resource. What is the next step? A.Conduct a risk assessment of systems and applications B.Isolate the infected host from the rest of the subnet C.Install malware prevention software on the host D.Analyze network traffic on the host's subnet Answer: B QUESTION 71 An organization had several cyberattacks over the last 6 months and has tasked an engineer with looking for patterns or trends that will help the organization anticipate future attacks and mitigate them. Which data analytic technique should the engineer use to accomplish this task? A.diagnostic B.qualitative C.predictive D.statistical Answer: C QUESTION 72 A malware outbreak is detected by the SIEM and is confirmed as a true positive. The incident response team follows the playbook to mitigate the threat. What is the first action for the incident response team? A.Assess the network for unexpected behavior B.Isolate critical hosts from the network C.Patch detected vulnerabilities from critical hosts D.Perform analysis based on the established risk factors Answer: B QUESTION 73 Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report? A.Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified B.Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified C.Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified D.Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected Answer: D QUESTION 74 An organization is using a PKI management server and a SOAR platform to manage the certificate lifecycle. The SOAR platform queries a certificate management tool to check all endpoints for SSL certificates that have either expired or are nearing expiration. Engineers are struggling to manage problematic certificates outside of PKI management since deploying certificates and tracking them requires searching server owners manually. Which action will improve workflow automation? A.Implement a new workflow within SOAR to create tickets in the incident response system, assign problematic certificate update requests to server owners, and register change requests. B.Integrate a PKI solution within SOAR to create certificates within the SOAR engines to track, update, and monitor problematic certificates. C.Implement a new workflow for SOAR to fetch a report of assets that are outside of the PKI zone, sort assets by certification management leads and automate alerts that updates are needed. D.Integrate a SOAR solution with Active Directory to pull server owner details from the AD and send an automated email for problematic certificates requesting updates. Answer: D QUESTION 75 Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is being used? A.JSON B.HTML C.XML D.CSV Answer: C QUESTION 76 The incident response team was notified of detected malware. The team identified the infected hosts, removed the malware, restored the functionality and data of infected systems, and planned a company meeting to improve the incident handling capability. Which step was missed according to the NIST incident handling guide? A.Contain the malware B.Install IPS software C.Determine the escalation path D.Perform vulnerability assessment Answer: A 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-201 PDF and 350-201 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1AxXpeiNddgUeSboJXzaOVsnt5wFFoDnO?usp=sharing
10X Profit Bots System Review – $5000 Bonuses, Discount, OTO Details
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