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2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-735 PDF Dumps(Q36-Q59)

QUESTION 36
Which description of synchronous calls to an API is true?

A.They can be used only within single-threaded processes.
B.They pause execution and wait for the response.
C.They always successfully return within a fixed time.
D.They can be used only for small requests.

Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. What does the response from the API contain when this code is executed?

A.error message and status code of 403
B.newly created domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate
C.updated domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate
D.status and security details for the domains

Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. A security engineer attempts to query the Cisco Security Management appliance to retrieve details of a specific message.
What must be added to the script to achieve the desired result?

A.Add message ID information to the URL string as a URI.
B.Run the script and parse through the returned data to find the desired message.
C.Add message ID information to the URL string as a parameter.
D.Add message ID information to the headers.

Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. A network operator must generate a daily flow report and learn how to act on or manipulate returned data. When the operator runs the script, it returns an enormous amount of information.
Which two actions enable the operator to limit returned data? (Choose two.)

A.Add recordLimit. followed by an integer (key:value) to the flow_data.
B.Add a for loop at the end of the script, and print each key value pair separately.
C.Add flowLimit, followed by an integer (key:value) to the flow_data.
D.Change the startDateTime and endDateTime values to include smaller time intervals.
E.Change the startDate and endDate values to include smaller date intervals.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Which expression prints the text "802.1x"?

A.print(quiz[0]['choices']['b'])
B.print(quiz['choices']['b'])
C.print(quiz[0]['choices']['b']['802.1x'])
D.print(quiz[0]['question']['choices']['b'])

Answer: A

QUESTION 41
What are two advantages of Python virtual environments? (Choose two.)

A.Virtual environments can move compiled modules between different platforms.
B.Virtual environments permit non-administrative users to install packages.
C.The application code is run in an environment that is destroyed upon exit.
D.Virtual environments allow for stateful high availability.
E.Virtual environments prevent packaging conflicts between multiple Python projects.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 42
When the URI "/api/fmc_config/v1/domain/e276abec-e0f2-11e3-8169-6d9ed49b625f/policy/accesspolicies" is used to make a POST request, what does "e276abec-e0f2-11e3-8169-6d9ed49b625f" represent?

A.API token
B.domain UUID
C.access policy UUID
D.object UUID

Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Which Cisco AMP file disposition valid?

A.pristine
B.malware
C.dirty
D.nonmalicios

Answer: B

QUESTION 45
In Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which API queues to find the list of endpoints in the group "Finance Hosts," which has a GUID of 6c3c2005-4c74-4ba7-8dbb- c4d5b6bafe03?


Answer: B

QUESTION 46
For which two programming languages does Cisco offer an SDK for Cisco pxGrid 1.0? (Choose two.)

A.Python
B.Perl
D.C
E.JavaScript

Answer: CD

QUESTION 47
Which two URI parameters are needed for the Cisco Stealthwatch Top Alarm Host v1 API? (Choose two.)

A.startAbsolute
B.externalGeos
C.tenantId
D.intervalLength
E.tagID

Answer: CE

QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. Which URL returned the data?


Answer: A

QUESTION 49
After changes are made to the Cisco Firepower Threat Defense configuration using the Cisco Firepower Device Manager API, what must be done to ensure that the new policy is activated?

A.Submit a POST to the /api/fdm/latest/operational/deploy URI.
B.Submit a GET to the /api/fdm/latest/operational/deploy URI.
C.Submit a PUT to the /api/fdm/latest/devicesettings/pushpolicy URI.
D.Submit a POST to the /api/fdm/latest/devicesettings/pushpolicy URI.

Answer: A

QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit. A Python function named "query" has been developed and the goal is to use it to query the service "com.cisco.ise.session" via Cisco pxGrid 2.0 APIs.
How is the function called, if the goal is to identify the sessions that are associated with the IP address 10.0.0.50?

A.query(config, secret, "getSessionByIpAddress/10.0.0.50", "ipAddress")
B.query(config, "10.0.0.50", url, payload)
C.query(config, secret, url, "10.0.0.50")
D.query(config, secret, url, '{"ipAddress": "10.0.0.50"}')

Answer: D

QUESTION 51
Which API is used to query if the domain "example.com" has been flagged as malicious by the Cisco Security Labs team?


Answer: B

QUESTION 53
Which request searches for a process window in Cisco ThreatGRID that contains the word "secret"?

A./api/v2/search/submissions?term=processwindow&title=secret
B./api/v2/search/submissions?term=processwindow&q=secret
C./api/v2/search/submissions?term=window&title=secret
D./api/v2/search/submissions?term=process&q=secret

Answer: D

QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit. A network operator wrote a Python script to retrieve events from Cisco AMP.
Against which API gateway must the operator make the request?


Answer: A

QUESTION 56
What is the purpose of the snapshot APIs exposed by Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud?

A.Report on flow data during a customizable time period.
B.Operate and return alerts discovered from infrastructure observations.
C.Return current configuration data of Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud infrastructure.
D.Create snapshots of supported Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud infrastructure.

Answer: B

QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the API represented by this URL?

A.Getting or setting intrusion policies in FMC
B.Creating an intrusion policy in FDM
C.Updating access policies
D.Getting the list of intrusion policies configured in FDM

Answer: D

QUESTION 58
Which query parameter is required when using the reporting API of Cisco Security Management Appliances?

A.device_type
B.query_type
C.filterValue
D.startDate + endDate

Answer: D

QUESTION 59
Which step is required by Cisco pxGrid providers to expose functionality to consumer applications that are written in Python?

A.Look up the existing service using the /pxgrid/control/ServiceLookup endpoint.
B.Register the service using the /pxgrid/control/ServiceRegister endpoint.
C.Configure the service using the /pxgrid/ise/config/profiler endpoint.
D.Expose the service using the /pxgrid/ise/pubsub endpoint.

Answer: D
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2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-401 PDF Dumps(Q517-Q550)
QUESTION 517 A network engineer must configure a router to send logging messages to a syslog server based on these requirements: uses syslog IP address: 10.10.10.1 uses a reliable protocol must not use any well-known TCP/UDP ports Which configuration must be used? A.logging host 10.10.10.1 transport tcp port 1024 B.logging origin-id 10.10.10.1 C.logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1023 D.logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1024 Answer: A QUESTION 518 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line, but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration? A.Device(config)# netconf max-sessions 100 B.Device(config)# no netconf ssh acl 1 C.Device(config)# netconf lock-time 500 D.Device(config)# netconf max-message 1000 Answer: D QUESTION 519 An engineer is configuring a new SSID to present users with a splash page for authentication. Which WLAN Layer 3 setting must be configured to provide this functionally? A.CCKM B.WPA2 Policy C.Local Policy D.Web Policy Answer: D QUESTION 520 An engineer must create an EEM script to enable OSPF debugging in the event the OSPF neighborship goes down. Which script must the engineer apply? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: C QUESTION 521 Refer to the exhibit. Router BRDR-1 is configured to receive the 0.0.0.0/0 and 172.17.1.0/24 networks via BGP and advertise them into OSPF area 0. An engineer has noticed that the OSPF domain is receiving only the 172.17.1.0/24 route and default route 0.0.0.0/0 is still missing. Which configuration must an engineer apply to resolve the problem? A.router ospf 1 redistribute bgp 65001 metric 100 route-policy BGP-TO-OSPF end B.router ospf 1 default-information originate end C.router ospf 1 default-metric 100 end D.router ospf 1 default-information originate always end Answer: D QUESTION 522 AN engineer is implementing a route map to support redistribution within BGP. The route map must configured to permit all unmatched routes. Which action must the engineer perform to complete this task? A.Include a permit statement as the first entry B.Include at least one explicit deny statement C.Remove the implicit deny entry D.Include a permit statement as the last entry Answer: D QUESTION 523 Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is attempting to configure an IS-IS adjacency between two routers, but the adjacency cannot be established. To troubleshoot the problem, the operator collects this debugging output. Which interfaces are misconfigured on these routers? A.The peer router interface is configured as Level 1 only, and the R2 interface is configured as Level 2 only B.The R2 interface is configured as Level 1 only, and the Peer router interface is configured as Level 2 only C.The R2 interface is configured as point-to-point, and the peer router interface is configured as multipoint. D.The peer router interface is configured as point-as-point, and the R2 interface is configured as multipoint. Answer: B QUESTION 524 AN engineer is implementing MPLS OAM to monitor traffic within the MPLS domain. Which action must the engineer perform to prevent from being forwarded beyond the service provider domain when the LSP is down? A.Disable IP redirects only on outbound interfaces B.Implement the destination address for the LSP echo request packet in the 127.x.y.z/8 network C.Disable IP redirects on all ingress interfaces D.Configure a private IP address as the destination address of the headend router of Cisco MPLS TE. Answer: B QUESTION 525 An engineer is implementing a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to improve the streaming experience for the clients of a video-on-demand server. Which action must the engineer perform to configure extended discovery to support the MPLS LDP session between the headend and tailend routers? A.Configure the interface bandwidth to handle TCP and UDP traffic between the LDP peers B.Configure a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel on both ends of the session C.Configure an access list on the interface to permit TCP and UDP traffic D.Configure a targeted neighbor session. Answer: B QUESTION 526 What occurs when a high bandwidth multicast stream is sent over an MVPN using Cisco hardware? A.The traffic uses the default MDT to transmit the data only if it isa (S,G) multicast route entry B.A data MDT is created to if it is a (*, G) multicast route entries C.A data and default MDT are created to flood the multicast stream out of all PIM-SM neighbors. D.A data MDT is created to allow for the best transmission through the core for (S, G) multicast route entries. Answer: D QUESTION 527 Drag and Drop Question An engineer is working with the Cisco DNA Center API Drag and drop the methods from the left onto the actions that they are used for on the right. Answer: QUESTION 528 Drag and Drop Question A network engineer is adding an additional 10Gps link to an exiting 2x10Gps LACP-based LAG to augment its capacity. Network standards require a bundle interface to be taken out of service if one of its member links goes down, and the new link must be added with minimal impact to the production network. Drag and drop the tasks that the engineer must perform from the left into the sequence on the right. Not all options are used. Answer: QUESTION 529 Which protocol is used to encrypt control plane traffic between SD-WAN controllers and SD-WAN endpoints? A.DTLS B.IPsec C.PGP D.HTTPS Answer: A QUESTION 530 An engineer must configure the strongest password authentication to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used? A.username netadmin secret 5 $1$b1JUSkZbBS1Pyh4OzwXyZ1kSZ2 B.username netadmin secret $15b1JuSk404850110QzwXyZ1k SZ2 C.line Console 0 password $15b1Ju$ D.username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMfBelbRVV8SseX/bDAxtuV Answer: D QUESTION 531 Which network devices secure API platform? A.next-generation intrusion detection systems B.Layer 3 transit network devices C.content switches D.web application firewalls Answer: A QUESTION 532 Which threat defence mechanism, when deployed at the network perimeter, protects against zero-day attacks? A.intrusion prevention B.stateful inspection C.sandbox D.SSL decryption Answer: A QUESTION 533 Refer to the exhibit. A company requires that all wireless users authenticate using dynamic key generation. Which configuration must be applied? A.AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open wep wep_methods B.AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic wep wep_methods C.AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic open wep_dynamic D.AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open eap eap_methods Answer: D QUESTION 534 An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational? A.(config-if)#tunnel destination <ip address> B.(config-if)#keepalive <seconds retries> C.(config-if)#ip mtu <value> D.(config-if)#ip tcp adjust-mss <value> Answer: A QUESTION 535 What Is a Type 2 hypervisor? A.installed as an application on an already installed operating system B.runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system C.supports over-allocation of physical resources D.also referred to as a "bare metal hypervisor" because it sits directly on the physical server Answer: A QUESTION 536 Which two statements about static route configuration are true? (Choose two) A.They add to the number of routes in the routing table. B.The distance command modifies the administrative distance C.The redistribute static command will redistribute classful networks into OSPF. D.They add significant overhead to the router CPU. E.The ip route static bfd command is used for BFD peer discovery. F.The permanent key word allows the route to remain in the route table if the interface goes down. Answer: CF QUESTION 537 What is a characteristic of Cisco DNA Northbound APIs? A.They simplify the management of network infrastructure devices. B.They enable automation of network infrastructure based on intent. C.They utilize RESTCONF. D.They utilize multivendor support APIs. Answer: B QUESTION 538 Which two items are found in YANG data models? (Choose two.) A.HTTP return codes B.rpc statements C.JSON schema D.container statements E.XML schema Answer: BE QUESTION 539 What is required for a virtual machine to run? A.a Type 1 hypervisor and a host operating system B.a hypervisor and physical server hardware C.only a Type 1 hypervisor D.only a Type 2 hypervisor Answer: B QUESTION 540 An engineer configures GigabitEthernet 0/1 for VRRP group 115. The router must assume the primary role when it has the highest priority in the group. Which command set is required to complete this task? interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0 vrrp 115 ip 10.10.10.1 vrrp 115 authentication 407441579 A.Router(config if)# vrrp 115 track 1 decrement 100 Router(config-if)# vrrp 115 preempt B.Router(config-if)# vrrp 115 track 1 decrement 10 Router(config-if)# vrrp 115 preempt C.Router(config-if)# standby 115 priority 100 Router(config-if)# standby 115 preempt D.Router(config-if)# vrrp 115 priority 100 Answer: B QUESTION 541 An engineer must configure AAA on a Cisco 9800 WLC for central web authentication. Which two commands are needed to accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A.(Cisco Controller) > config wlan aaa-override disable <wlan-id> B.(Cisco Controller) > config radius acct add 10.10.10.12 1812 SECRET C.(Cisco Controller) > config wlan aaa-override enable <wlan-id> D.Device(config-locsvr-da-radius)# client 10.10.10.12 server-key 0 SECRET E.Device(config)# aaa server radius dynamic-author Answer: DE QUESTION 542 What is a benefit of Type 1 hypervisors? A.Administrators are able to load portable virtual machine packages in OVA or QCOW2 formats. B.Network engineers are able to create virtual networks o interconnect virtual machines in Layer 2 topologies C.Operators are able to leverage orchestrators to manage workloads that run on multiple Type 1 hypervisors D.Storage engineers are able to leverage VMDK files to provide storage to virtual machine. Answer: B QUESTION 543 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting an application running on Apple phones. The application Is receiving incorrect QoS markings. The systems administrator confirmed that ail configuration profiles are correct on the Apple devices. Which change on the WLC optimizes QoS for these devices? A.Enable Fastlane B.Set WMM to required C.Change the QoS level to Platinum D.Configure AVC Profiles Answer: A QUESTION 544 A client device roams between wireless LAN controllers that are mobility peers, Both controllers have dynamic interface on the same client VLAN which type of roam is described? A.intra-VLAN B.inter-controller C.intra-controller D.inter-subnet Answer: B QUESTION 545 Refer to the exhibit. Which result does the python code achieve? A.The code encrypts a base64 decrypted password. B.The code converts time to the "year/month/day" time format. C.The code converts time to the yyyymmdd representation. D.The code converts time to the Epoch LINUX time format. Answer: C QUESTION 546 Which technology uses network traffic telemetry, contextual information, and file reputation to provide insight into cyber threats? A.threat defense B.security services C.security intelligence D.segmentation Answer: A QUESTION 547 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment models on the right. Answer: QUESTION 548 Which two new security capabilities are introduced by using a next-generation firewall at the Internet edge? (Choose two.) A.VPN B.integrated intrusion prevention C.application-level inspection D.NAT E.stateful packet inspection Answer: BC QUESTION 549 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the characteristics from the left to the deployment models on the right. Not all options are used. Answer: QUESTION 550 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer attempts to connect to the Router1 console port. Which configuration is needed to allow Telnet connections? A.Router1(config)# line vty 0 15 Router1(config-line)# transport output telnet B.Router1(config)# telnet client C.Router1(config)# line console 0 Router1(config-line)# transport output telnet D.Router1(config)# access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq telnet Router1(config)# line console 0 Router1(config-line)# access-class 100 out Answer: C 2023 Latest Braindump2go 350-401 PDF and 350-401 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1EIsykNTrKvqjDVs9JMySv052qbrCpe8V?usp=sharing
Process to immigrate to Canada - MyStudia
When we talk about immigrate to anywhere, there can be more than ways and more than one types of immigration. Immigration can be temporary or permanent with purpose of studying, working, establish business and/or settling down. Immigrate typically means to settle in another country permanently. So let’s discuss different ways. For Canada, they have program of Express Entry and Provincial Nominee Program (PNP) where they invite the application and choose the candidates based on various factors through their point system. These factors include but not limited to your age, education, work experience, Canadian education and work experience, your blood relative or family member staying in Canada and job offer in Canada. Let’s discuss the Express Entry process in brief 1 . Find out if your profile is eligible. You can check out on official website “canada.ca”. There are various streams available for the profile. 2. If you are eligible, you can start gathering the documents as per the requirements. 3. Once you fill the form, your profile in the pool will have certain points as per their Comprehensive Ranking System (CRS) score. This score depend upon the factors mentioned above. 4. You can submit your profile and get your score and wait for the draw to happen. If your points are higher than their cut off point, you will receive Invitation to Apply (ITA). 5. Receiving ITA, you can submit final application and on approval, you will receive PR. Let’s move to another part called PNP 1. There are different programs available as per the provinces. So first determine which province you want to move and check if you are eligible for the same. Again, you check their official website. 2. Check the timeline as per the program that helps you to plan for future. 3. Nominee Programs are aligned with Express Entry programs as well. You can start process by determining if you want to apply with Express Entry or Non-Express Entry. We recommend applying through Express Entry aligned program. 4. Once you fill out your form and submit the profile, you will again have to wait for nomination which is just like ITA. 5. Receiving the nomination, you can go for final step of application and PR is just one acceptance away. If you are applying through Express Entry aligned program, and you receive nomination from a province, you will get 600 points in your Express Entry profile on acceptance making your way easy for PR. There is another option as well. If you are young enough, you can apply for student visa, go there and study for the given period, then you can receive the Post Graduate Work Permit on your eligibility. While you work there, you can find out how you can be eligible for Express Entry or PNP, and apply for the same. Degree and Experience within Canada will earn you higher points in draw system and gets you higher chances of reaching cut-off points. Let us tell you about brief process of studying abroad 1. You can first find out the higher education study program that suits your profile, and apply to the best suitable college. 2. Gather the required documents and apply for your admission application. 3. You may need to submit Statement of Purpose (SOP) why you want to study there. 4. Pay your tuition fees and other required funds. 5. Wait for the offer. On receiving the offer, you can apply for study permit and visa and relocate to Canada and start studying. Along with that, you can work part time that helps you with the expenses as well. Until December 31, 2023, students are allowed to work full time. If you wish to apply for study permit, you can get in touch with us where our counsellors will guide you from each and every process. Or you can check out our MyStudia web and application to explore the program and apply yourself without any hustle. For the other pathways to apply for the immigration, you can get in touch with our service partner Winny Immigration where you will be given up to end guidance for the process with experience of more than 4 decades. Please note that in the process, if your profile or documentation is incomplete, it may have adverse consequences. Therefore always make sure you fill out the profile properly. Mostly, Canadian govt gives you an option to submit remaining documents by requesting the same and gives you sufficient time. You have different pathways to apply for immigration to Canada and you can seek an expert consultant’s guidance on what suits the best. Choose wisely, process actively!
Data Privacy Breach Reporting: A Comprehensive Guide for Organizations
In today's interconnected world, data privacy has become a critical issue for individuals and organizations alike. Data breaches can cause significant harm to individuals by exposing their personal information, such as social security numbers, credit card information, and addresses. At the same time, data breaches can damage the reputation of the affected organization, erode customer trust, and lead to regulatory sanctions and legal liabilities. Therefore, data privacy breach reporting is an essential process that helps to mitigate the impact of a breach and prevent similar incidents in the future. Data privacy breach reporting refers to the process of notifying affected individuals, regulators, and other stakeholders about a data breach. The reporting process typically involves several steps, including investigation, assessment, notification, and follow-up. Let's explore each of these steps in more detail. Investigation: The first step in the data breach reporting process is to conduct a thorough investigation to determine the scope and nature of the breach. The investigation may involve reviewing logs, interviewing witnesses, and analyzing the systems and networks affected by the breach. The goal of the investigation is to identify what information was compromised, how the breach occurred, and who was affected. Assessment: Once the investigation is complete, the next step is to assess the impact of the breach. This involves determining the potential harm to affected individuals, such as identity theft, financial fraud, or reputational damage. The assessment may also consider the regulatory and legal implications of the breach and the organization's ability to respond and remediate the incident. Notification: After assessing the impact of the breach, the organization should promptly notify affected individuals, regulators, and other stakeholders. Notification should be clear, concise, and timely and should include information about the nature of the breach, the type of data affected, and any steps the organization is taking to mitigate the harm. Depending on the severity of the breach and the jurisdiction involved, the organization may be legally required to notify affected individuals and regulators within a certain timeframe. Follow-up: Once notification is complete, the organization should take steps to follow up with affected individuals and other stakeholders to address any concerns or questions they may have. This may involve providing credit monitoring services, answering inquiries, or offering compensation or restitution where appropriate. The organization should also take steps to remediate any vulnerabilities that led to the breach to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. In conclusion, data privacy breach reporting is a critical process that helps to mitigate the impact of a data breach and prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. By conducting a thorough investigation, assessing the impact of the breach, promptly notifying affected individuals and other stakeholders, and following up with remediation efforts, organizations can demonstrate their commitment to data privacy and build trust with their customers and partners.
Best CBSE Schools in Coimbatore 2023-2024
Best CBSE Schools in Coimbatore 2023-2024 edustoke is India’s most comprehensive school search platform. Playschools, PreSchools, Day Schools and Boarding Schools. Coimbatore, popularly known as “Manchester of South India”, is the second most important city in Tamil Nadu. Coimbatore is also one of the preferred cities for education with being a home to eminent universities and colleges. There are several good International and CBSE schools in Coimbatore which provide quality education and have a futuristic approach in their learning strategies. Some of the best CBSE Schools in Coimbatore are Chinmaya International Residential School, Scad World School, Anan International School, PSG Public Schools, Delhi Public School, Peepal Prodigy Senior Secondary School, Yuvabharti Public School, Shree Sarasswathi Vidhyaah Mandheer Institutions, Nava Bharath National School, and Kovai Public School. The top 10 Schools in Coimbatore affiliated with CBSE Board ensure that the students passing out have an all-round development with emphasis to co-curricular and extracurricular activities along with making them academically competent. Coimbatore, also called as Kovai or Covai, is one of the key metropolitan cities in the state of Tamil Nadu. In the vicinity of Western Ghats, on the banks of Noyyal river, Coimbatore is an industrial centre with extensive textile, industrial, educational, commercial, healthcare sects along with manufacturing units. The city is also growing to be as an education hub with eminent universities and colleges like Tamil Nadu Agricultural University, Government College of Education For Women Coimbatore, Bharathiar University, Coimbatore Medical College, Coimbatore Institute of Technology, Hindusthan College of Arts & Science, Rathinam Group of Institutions. There are also some of the best CBSE Schools in Coimbatore which impart the finest quality education and have a striking balance of academic and extracurricular activities. Consider the following options if you are interested in admissions for the best CBSE Schools in Coimbatore are elicited as follows: 1. Chinmaya International Residential School With a positive learning ambience integrating the Indian cultural values, Chinmaya International Residential School is one of the best CBSE Schools in Coimbatore. Founded in the year 1996, the school is known for imparting quality education with attention-to-detail and care for children. School Type: Boarding School Board: CBSE, IB Type of School: Co-Ed School Grade Upto: Class 12 Establishment Year: 1996 2. PSG Public Schools With the vision to change the future of the world with the tool of educating the young minds, the school was founded in 2002. With its immense growth in the education sector, the senior section of the school was launched in 2009. With classes running from Pre-KG to Grade 12, PSG is one of the best CBSE schools in Coimbatore. School Type: Day School Board: CBSE Type of School: Co-Ed School Grade Upto: Class 12 Establishment Year: 2002 3. Scad World School With a 30 acre eco-friendly campus, Scad World School is known to serve the mankind with educational institutions by spreading its reach to the downtrodden and add extraordinary touch with education. With exceptional facilities and highly qualified staff, Scad World School is one of the best CBSE Schools in Coimbatore. School Type: Day cum Boarding Board: IGCSE, CBSE Type of School: Co-Ed School Grade Upto: Class 12 Establishment Year: 2012 4. Yuvabharati Public School A well-accorded school, Yuvabharati Public School has been given the recognition as “Future 50 Schools Shaping Success” and has been ranked by Eduworld as the Best CBSE School in Coimbatore. The school has excelled in Co-Curricular activities, STEM Curriculum, academics, Happiness Quotient and several other parameters. School Type: Day School Board: CBSE Type of School: Co-Ed School Grade Upto: Class 12 Establishment Year: NA 5. Shree Sarasswathi Vidhyaah Mandeer Institutions Shree Sarasswathi Vidhyaah Mandeer is one of the best CBSE Schools in Coimbatore which imparts a national curriculum and has a standard teaching practice which nurtures the minds in a very dynamic way. The school constantly focuses on fundamentals of literacy and numeracy and inclines to build the character of every individual. School Type: Day cum Boarding Board: CBSE Type of School: Co-Ed School Grade Upto : Class 12 Establishment Year: 1998
The Future of Ruby on Rails Development in India
Ruby on Rails is a popular web application framework that has gained widespread recognition and adoption in recent years. India has emerged as a leading destination for outsourcing software development, and the future of Ruby on Rails development in India looks bright. In this blog, we will discuss the future of Ruby on Rails development in India and how it is likely to evolve in the coming years. Increased Adoption of Ruby on Rails Ruby on Rails has already gained significant adoption in India, and this trend is likely to continue in the future. As more businesses realize the benefits of using Ruby on Rails, they will look to hire Ruby on Rails development companies in India to build their web applications. Emphasis on Scalability and Security In the future, there will be an increased emphasis on scalability and security in Ruby on Rails development. As web applications become more complex and handle more data, they need to be scalable to handle the increased traffic. Security will also be a critical concern, with businesses looking to ensure that their web applications are secure and protected from cyber threats. Integration with AI and Machine Learning The integration of Ruby on Rails with AI and machine learning is likely to become more common in the future. Businesses will look to leverage these technologies to build more intelligent and personalized web applications that provide a better user experience. Focus on DevOps and Automation The future of Ruby on Rails development in India will also see a focus on DevOps and automation. DevOps practices will become more prevalent, with businesses looking to streamline their development processes and improve collaboration between development and operations teams. Automation will also play a crucial role in improving productivity and reducing the time-to-market for web applications. Adoption of Cloud Computing Cloud computing is already popular in India, and the adoption of cloud-based solutions is likely to increase in the future. Businesses will look to leverage cloud-based solutions to build scalable, secure, and cost-effective web applications. Conclusion The future of Ruby on Rails development in India looks bright, with increased adoption of Ruby on Rails, an emphasis on scalability and security, integration with AI and machine learning, a focus on DevOps and automation, and the adoption of cloud computing. As businesses look to build high-quality web applications that meet their specific needs, they will continue to turn to Ruby on Rails development companies in India for their expertise and experience. With its large pool of talented developers, cost-effective solutions, and a reputation for delivering high-quality work, India is well-positioned to become a leading destination for Ruby on Rails development.
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2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-420 PDF Dumps(Q76-Q120)
QUESTION 76 How do endpoints inside an SD-Access network reach resources outside the fabric? A.a VRF fusion router is used to map resources in one VN to another VN B.Fabric borders use VRFs to map VNs to VRFs C.SD-Access transit links are used to transport encapsulated traffic from one fabric to another D.A fabric edge is used to de-encapsulate VXLAN traffic to normal IP traffic then transported over the outside network Answer: B Explanation: Fabric border routers handle the ingress & egress traffic for the SD-Access fabric, they are responsible for translating the policy, VRF & SGT information between the SD-Access fabric and the external networks. QUESTION 77 Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose three) A.metric B.authentication type C.link state D.IP subnet E.external route tag F.subnet mask Answer: ADF QUESTION 78 Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two) A.NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router. B.NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub. C.NHRP disables multicast D.The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes. E.The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers. Answer: AB QUESTION 79 In a simple MPLS L3VPN, which two tasks are performed by the PE router? (Choose two.) A.It establishes pseudo wires with other PEs. B.It exchanges VPNv4 and VPNv6 routes with CE Devices. C.It assigns labels to routes in individual VPNs. D.It forwards labeled packets to CE devices. E.It exchanges VPNv4 or VPNv6 route with other PE routers. Answer: CE QUESTION 80 Refer to the exhibit. Which action would make the router the active VRRP router? A.Recover interface Serial 1/0. B.Increase priority in the configuration to 100. C.Change the interface tracking priority to 100. D.Recover interface Serial 1/1. Answer: A QUESTION 81 Which design principle involves redundancy through hardware, software, and connectivity? A.Performance B.Security C.Scalability D.High availability Answer: D QUESTION 82 NAT-PT translates between what address types? A.RFC 1918 private addresses and public IPv4 addresses B.IPv4 and IPv6 addresses C.Network addresses and IPv6 ports D.Private IPv6 addresses and public IPv6 addresses Answer: B QUESTION 83 By default, if IS-IS is enabled on all routers, and this is an IPv6 network, what path is taken? A.Path 1 B.Path 2 C.Unequal-cost load balancing with Path 1 and Path 2 D.Equal-cost load balancing with Path 1 and Path 2 Answer: A QUESTION 84 How many host addresses are available with a Class B network with the default mask? A.63,998 B.64,QQQ C.65,534 D.65,536 Answer: C QUESTION 85 A packet sent to a multicast address reaches what destinations? A.The nearest destination in a set of hosts B.All destinations in a set of hosts C.All hosts D.Reserved global destinations Answer: B QUESTION 86 What does a hierarchical EIGRP design help with? (Choose two.) A.Redistribution B.Route summarization C.Faster convergence D.Load balancing Answer: BC QUESTION 87 During the integration of ISE and DNA Center, which of the following are used to establish trust through ISE? A.REST APIs B.pxGRID services C.Scalable groups D.SGACLs Answer: B QUESTION 88 In IS-IS networks, the backup designated router (BDR) forms adjacencies to what router or routers? A.It forms an adjacency only with the DR B.It forms adjacencies with all routers C.The BDR only becomes adjacent when the DR is down D.There is no BDR in IS-IS Answer: D QUESTION 89 You need to connect sites that are 8 kilometers apart by using fiber. Which media do you recommend? A.10GBASE-T B.10GBASE-ER C.10GBASE-LR D.10GBASE-SR Answer: C QUESTION 90 The customization of routing decisions is an example of which policy type? A.Centralized control policy B.Centralized data Policy C.Localized data policy D.Localized control policy Answer: A QUESTION 91 A client is moving to Model-Driven Telemetry and requires periodic updates. What must the network architect consider with this design? A.Updates that contain changes within the data are sent only when changes occur. B.Empty data subscriptions do not generate empty update notifications. C.Periodic updates include a full copy of the data that is subscribed to. D.The primary push update is sent immediately and cannot be delayed. Answer: C QUESTION 92 An architect is designing a multicast solution for a network that contains over 100 routers. The architect plans to create several multicast domains and balance the PIM-SM traffic within the network. Which technology should the architect include in the design? A.DVMRP B.IGMP C.MOSPF D.MSDP Answer: D QUESTION 93 An architect is designing a network that will utilize the spanning tree protocol to ensure a loop-free topology. The network will support an engineering environment where it is necessary for end users to connect their own network switches for testing purposes. Which feature should the architect include in the design to ensure the spanning tree topology is not affected by these rogue switches? A.BPDU Skew Detection B.BPDU guard C.loop guard D.root guard Answer: D QUESTION 94 An engineer is designing a Layer 3 campus network running EIGRP between the core, aggregation, and access layers. The access layer switches will be connected to the aggregation layer using Layer 3 copper connections. The engineer wants to improve convergence time for access layer switch failures. Which technique must the design include? A.enabling BFD for EIGRP on the access layer uplinks B.reducing the EIGRP Hello / Hold timer values C.EIGRP summarization from core to aggregation layer D.EIGRP summarization from access to aggregation layer Answer: A QUESTION 95 An engineer must design a solution to provide backup connectivity between two sites. The engineer plans to use an Internet connection but company policy requires the connection to be encrypted. Additionally, there are several applications that utilize multicast to deliver video streams between the sites. Which technology should the design include? A.GRE over IPsec B.IPsec direct encapsulation C.GETVPN D.DMVPN Answer: A QUESTION 96 An existing network solution is using BFD in echo mode. Several of the network devices are experiencing high CPU utilization which an engineer has determined is related to the BFD feature. Which solution should the engineer leverage to reduce the CPU load? A.Implement slow timers between peers with low CPU resources. B.Implement BED asynchronous mode between peers with low CPU resources. C.Enable BFD multi-hop on the devices with low CPU resources. D.Utilize carrier delay on all routers in the network. Answer: A QUESTION 97 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing a BGP solution for a client that peers with ISP1 for full Internet connectivity and with ISP2 for direct exchange of routes for several third parties. Which action, when implemented on the edge routers, enables the client network to reach the Internet through ISP1? A.Run an eBGP session within different VRFs for each ISP. B.Advertise a default route for downstream routers within the client network. C.Apply the AS path prepend feature for ISP2. D.Apply route filtering such that the client advertises only routes originated from its own AS. Answer: B QUESTION 98 An architect is working on a design to connect a company's main site to several small to medium- sized remote branches. The solution must include redundant WAN links, but the customer has a limited budget and wants the ability to increase the link speed easily in the future. QoS will not on the branch routers so there is no need for consistent end-to-end QoS. Which solution does the architect propose? A.dual-homed WAN MPLS with single edge router B.dual-homed Internet with a single edge router running a site-to-site VPN topology C.dual-homed WAN MPLS and Internet links via dual edge routers D.dual-homed Internet with dual edge routers running a hub-and-spoke VPN topology Answer: D QUESTION 99 Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design an IP addressing scheme for a multisite network connected via a WAN transit. The campus site must accommodate 12,000 devices and the branch sites must accommodate 1,000 devices. Which address scheme optimizes network device resources, contains convergence events to the different blocks of the network, and ensures future growth of the network? A.Campus: 10.0.0.0/18 Branch1: 10.0.192.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.200.0/21 B.Campus: 10.0.0.0/16 Branch1: 10.255.0.0/20 Branch2: 10.255.16.0/20 C.Campus: 10.0.0.0/10 Branch1: 10.64.0.0/10 Branch2: 10.128.0.0/10 D.Campus: 10.0.0.0/20 Branch1: 10.0.64.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.128.0/21 Answer: A QUESTION 100 An engineer must design a solution to connect a customer to the Internet. The solution will include a Layer 3 circuit with a CIR of 50 Mbps from the service provider. The hand-off from the provider's switch to the customer's router is 1Gbps. Which solution should the engineer include to prevent potential issues with choppy voice traffic? A.Reduce the bandwidth of the connection to the router. B.Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent policing policy. C.Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent shaping policy D.Add a bandwidth statement to the router interface. Answer: C QUESTION 101 Refer to the exhibit. Customers report low video quality and delays when having point-to-point telepresence video calls between the two locations. An architect must optimize a design so that traffic follows the same path for egress and ingress traffic flows. Which technique optimizes the design? A.Configure route leaking on the router in area 2. B.Configure route leaking on he router in area 1. C.Configure the high metric on the router in area 4. D.Configure route filter on the router in area 4. Answer: A QUESTION 102 An engineer must design a scalable QoS architecture that allows the separation of the traffic into classes on predefined business requirements. The design must also utilize the differentiated services code points as the QoS priority descriptor value and support at least 10 levels of classification. Which QoS technology should the engineer include in the design? A.RSVP B.DiffSery C.Best Effort D.InterServ Answer: B QUESTION 103 Refer to the exhibit. Area 10 is a regular OSPF area and networks 10.1.1.0/24 and 172.16.1.0/24 are internal. Which design provides optimal routing between both networks when the link between routers C and E fails? A.Move the link between routers C and D to area 10. B.Create an OSPF virtual link between routers E and F. C.Create a tunnel between routers E and F in area 10. D.Make area 10 a not-so-stubby area. Answer: A QUESTION 104 An architect is creating a migration strategy for a large organization in which the choice made by the application between IPv6 and IPv4 is based on the DNS request. Which migration strategy does the architect choose? A.AFT for public web presence B.host-initiated tunnels C.dual stack D.site-to-site IPv6 over IPv4 tunnels Answer: C QUESTION 105 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing an OSPF network for a client. Requirements dictate that the routers in Area 1 should receive all routes belonging to the network, including EIGRP, except the ones originated in the RIP domain. Which action should the engineer take? A.Make area 1 a NSSA. B.Make area 1 a stub. C.Make area 1 a standard OSPF area. D.Make the area 1 routers part of area 0. Answer: A QUESTION 106 An engineer must propose a solution for a campus network that includes the capability to create multiple Layer 3 virtual networks. Each network must have its own addressing structure and routing table for data forwarding. The solution must be scalable to support hundreds of virtual networks and allow simple configuration and management with minimal administrative overhead. Which solution does the engineer recommend? A.hop-by-hop EVN B.multihop MPLS core C.multihop IPsec tunneling D.hop-by-hop VRF-Lite Answer: D QUESTION 107 Refer to the exhibit. Which two solutions maximize the use of the links between the core and distribution layers? (Choose two.) A.use multiple equal-cost links B.use an IGP C.use HSRP D.use RPVSTP+ E.use multiple unequal-cost links Answer: AB QUESTION 108 An engineer is tasked with designing a dual BGP peering solution with a service provider. The design must meet these conditions: - The routers will not learn any prefix with a subnet mask greater than /24. - The routers will determine the routes to include in the routing table based on the length of the mask alone. - The routers will make this selection regardless of the service provider configuration. Which solution should the engineer include in the design? A.Use a route map and access list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors inbound. B.Use a route map and prefix list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors outbound. C.Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors outbound. D.Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors inbound. Answer: D QUESTION 109 An engineer is designing an EIGRP network for a small branch site where there is only one Layer 3 router. The engineer wants the router to advertise the local LAN network to remote EIGRP neighbors without sending any unnecessary multicast messages on the local LAN. Which action should the engineer take? A.Use a static default route for this site instead of EIGRP B.Advertise the local LAN using the network command and the passive-interface feature C.Redistribute the local LAN network using the redistribute connected command D.Advertise the local LAN subnet as a stub network Answer: B QUESTION 110 A network engineer is redesigning a company's QoS solution. The company is currently using IP Precedence, but the engineer plans to move to DiffServ. It is important that the new solution provide backward compatibility with the current solution. Which technology should the design include? A.expedited forwarding B.assured forwarding C.class selector code points D.default per hop behavior Answer: C QUESTION 111 A customer's current Layer 2 infrastructure is running Spanning Tree 802.1d, and all configuration changes are manually implemented on each switch. An architect must redesign the Layer 2 domain to achieve these goals: - reduce the impact of topology changes - reduce the time spent on network administration - reduce manual configuration errors Which two solutions should the architect include in the new design? (Choose two.) A.Implement Rapid PVST+ instead of STP. B.Implement MST instead of STP. C.Use VTP to propagate VLAN information and to prune unused VLANs. D.Configure broadcast and multicast storm control on all switches. E.Configure dynamic trunking protocol to propagate VLAN information. Answer: AC QUESTION 112 How is sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network? A.Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. B.BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers. C.BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. D.Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers. Answer: B QUESTION 113 Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design a solution to connect the network behind R3 with the EIGRP network. Which mechanism should be included to avoid routing loops? A.down bit B.split horizon C.route tags D.summarization Answer: C QUESTION 114 Drag and Drop Question An engineer must design an addressing plan for a small business using a single /24 network. Each department must have its own subnet. Drag and drop the subnets from the left onto the departments requirements that they fulfill on the right. Not all options are used. Answer: QUESTION 115 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the Yang model they describe on the right. Answer: QUESTION 116 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the model driven telemetry characteristics from the left onto the mode they belong to on the right. Answer: QUESTION 117 A customer has several remote sites connected with their headquarters through microwave links. An engineer must propose a backup WAN solution based on these conditions: Which backup WAN link type the engineer recommend? A.LTE B.802.16 WiMAX C.Laser link D.802.15.1 Bluetooth Answer: A QUESTION 118 How is internet access provided to a WAN edge router that is connected to a MPLS transport link? A.OMP advertises a default route from a WAN Edge router that is connected to the MPLS and internet transport networks B.Internet access must be provided at the WAN Edge router through either a 4G/5G link or local Internet circuit C.An extranet must be provided in the MPLS transport network to allow private traffic to reach the public internet D.TLOC extensions are used to route traffic to a WAN Edge router that is connected to the Internet transport network Answer: D QUESTION 119 A network engineer must segregate three interconnected campus networks using IS-IS routing. A two-layer hierarchy must be used to support large routing domains and to avoid more specific routes from each campus network being advertised to other campus network routers automatically. Which two actions does the engineer take to accomplish this segregation? (Choose two.) A.Designate two IS-IS routers as BDR routers at the edge of each campus, and configure one BDR for all Level 1 routers and one BDR for all Level 2 routers. B.Designate two IS-IS routers from each campus to act as Level 1/Level 2 backbone routers at the edge of each campus network. C.Assign the same IS-IS NET value for each campus, and configure internal campus routers with Level 1/ Level 2 routing. D.Utilize different MTU values for each campus network segment. Level 2 backbone routers must utilize a larger MTU size of 9216. E.Assign a unique IS-IS NET value for each campus, and configure internal campus routers with Level 1 routing. Answer: BE QUESTION 120 Refer to the exhibit. All routers currently reside in OSPF area 0. The network manager recently used R1 and R2 as aggregation routers for remote branch locations and R3 and R4 for aggregation routers for remote office locations. The network has since been suffering from outages, which are causing frequent SPF runs. To enhance stability and introduce areas to the OSPF network with the minimal number of ABRs possible, which two solutions should the network manager recommend? (Choose two.) A.a new OSPF area for R1 and R2 connections, with R1 and R2 as ABRs B.a new OSPF area for R3 and R4 connections, with R5 and R6 as ABRs C.a new OSPF area for R3 and R4 connections, with R3 and R4 as ABRs D.a new OSPF area for R1, R2, R3, and R4 connections, with R1, R2, R3, and R4 as ABRs E.a new OSPF area for R1 and R2 connections, with R5 and R6 as ABRs Answer: BE 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-420 PDF and 300-420 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1SXwfGxRyjBzcw1iBNd9T4FhKWBoH7WUo?usp=sharing
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Empowering Women Through Fashion: Novita'S Partnership With Dress For Success Charity
Novita partnered with Dress for Success, a Novita charity partnership that provides professional attire and services to empower women in need. Through this partnership, Novita has been able to provide hundreds of disadvantaged women with the clothing they need to look their best and feel confident when entering the workforce. In addition, Novita also helps these women by providing career advice and guidance through workshops and mentoring programs. The goal is not only to ensure that these women have appropriate clothing upon entering the workforce but also offer them support so they can be successful once employed. This program has helped many low-income individuals enhance their confidence which leads to better job opportunities as well as an improved quality of life. Ultimately, this partnership between Novita and Dress for Success serves as an example of how fashion can be used to empower women who often don't have access or resources on their own. Novita, a fashion company dedicated to empowering women, recently partnered with Dress For Success Charity and launched an impactful project. The initiative aims to provide stylish clothing that is both affordable and accessible for the less privileged. Through this project, Novita hopes to help those economically disadvantaged women look their best while also providing them with the confidence they need in order to succeed professionally. With this partnership, Novita has taken an important step towards advancing economic equality and affording all women equal opportunities in life. Is Dress for Success a Charity? Yes, Dress for Success is a charity. Established in 1997, it is an international non-profit organization that provides professional attire to women who are entering or re-entering the workforce and offers support services such as job search assistance and lifestyle coaching. The mission of Dress for Success is to promote economic independence of disadvantaged women by providing them with professional attire, the necessary tools and resources they need to be successful in work and life. The organization has over 150 affiliates located throughout the United States, Canada, Mexico, New Zealand, Poland, Australia and the United Kingdom. In addition to its clothing donations program which supplies thousands of suits each year through its global network of partners including corporations and individual donors; Dress for Success also supports programs like "Women's Empowerment Workshops" which focus on building self-esteem skills that help clients gain meaningful employment opportunities. How is Dress for Success Funded? Dress for Success is a non-profit organization that helps women in need become economically independent. It is funded through donations from individuals, corporations, foundations, and government grants. Donations are accepted online or by mail and can be designated for specific programs or geographical areas. Corporate partnerships are also an important source of funding; companies may sponsor clothing drives, host fundraising events, or provide volunteer support. Grants from governments and foundations often target particular projects within Dress for Success’s mission to empower disadvantaged women with job placement services, career development resources and professional attire at no cost to them. Conclusion The partnership between Novita and Dress for Success is a powerful example of how fashion can be used to uplift women in the community. Through their collaboration, they are creating an empowering environment that provides essential resources and support for those who need it most.
Klinik Spesialis Ginekologi Terpercaya di Jakarta, Gratis Konsultasi!
Setiap pasien yang berobat tentu membutuhkan penanganan berkualitas, bukan? Apollo merupakan klinik ginekologi di Jakarta yang selalu mempermudah pasien ketika mereka meminta penyembuhan penyakit kelamin khusus wanita. Memantapkan hati dan pikiran memang sangat diperlukan, tetapi penanganan langsung merupakan hal yang tidak kalah penting dari dua aspek tersebut. Oleh karena itu, percayakan semua gangguan organ intim kepada kami. Menjadi salah satu klinik ginekologi yang bermutu di Jakarta, kami berfokus mendiagnosis gejala yang Anda rasakan dengan berbagai prosedur, yakni medis, hormonal, dan bedah sehingga infeksi menular seksual, infeksi selama masa kehamilan dan lain sebagainya dapat terdeteksi dan akan segera diobati. Penanganan Dokter Spesialis Ginekologi di Apollo Apollo adalah salah satu klinik kelamin yang memiliki dokter spesialis khusus, seperti ginekologi, andrologi, dan juga urologi. Menjadi wanita yang sehat merupakan impian, bukan? Ketika bagian reproduksi (vagina) tidak pernah atau jarang mendapat perawatan, berbagai bakteri, virus, atau mikroorganisme lain akan senang dengan itu. Anda akan mengalami serangkaian gejala dari infeksi yang menjerat alat kemaluan saat lalai membersihkan bagian sensitif tersebut. Tidak hanya itu, pola hidup yang tidak sehat dan aktivitas seksual yang sama sekali tidak aman pun bisa membuat kaum Hawa mengalami penyakit berbahaya. Hal penting yang tidak boleh disepelekan adalah pengobatan pada saat menderita kondisi tertentu. Anda tidak perlu bingung karena pada zaman sekarang ini, klinik ginekologi di Jakarta telah banyak yang beroperasi. Seperti tempat pengobatan lain, klinik ginekologi yang ada di Jakarta memiliki dokter spesialis ginekologi atau ginekolog. Dokter Klinik Ginekologi Jakarta (Apollo) mampu mengatasi berbagai penyakit dan kondisi sistem reproduksi berikut: Gangguan hormonal yang memengaruhi perempuan; Masalah kesehatan seksual, antara lain vagina kering dan sakit pada saat berhubungan intim; Perkara keputihan dan kesuburan wanita; Permasalahan pada panggul (radang); Penyakit menular seksual, kanker serviks; Masalah terhadap uretra yang membengkak; dan Peradangan pada leher rahim. Sementara itu, untuk metode penanganan selain yang disebutkan di atas adalah Pap smear, deteksi kanker serviks, operasi selaput dara, dan pengencangan vagina. Sumber: https://klinikapollojakarta.com/klinik-ginekologi-jakarta/
Tại sao phải sử dụng Apache? Những lợi ích của phần mềm máy chủ web này
Apache là một phần mềm máy chủ web mã nguồn mở phổ biến nhất trên thế giới, được sử dụng để phục vụ nội dung web trên internet. Tính đến năm 2021, hơn 40% các trang web trên internet đang sử dụng Apache. Với khả năng mở rộng và linh hoạt, Apache đã trở thành một lựa chọn phổ biến cho các doanh nghiệp, tổ chức và cá nhân cần cung cấp nội dung web cho người dùng. Apache được phát triển bởi Quỹ phần mềm Apache và có sẵn dưới dạng phần mềm mã nguồn mở miễn phí. Với hơn 20 năm phát triển, Apache đã được cộng đồng mã nguồn mở đánh giá cao về tính năng và độ ổn định của nó. Với các tính năng như hỗ trợ mã hóa SSL/TLS, quản lý máy chủ, bảo mật và giám sát, Apache là một phần mềm máy chủ web linh hoạt và mạnh mẽ. Apache được cấu trúc để hoạt động trên nhiều hệ điều hành, bao gồm cả Windows, Linux và macOS. Bằng cách sử dụng Apache, người dùng có thể dễ dàng tùy chỉnh cấu hình máy chủ web của họ để phù hợp với nhu cầu cụ thể của họ. Điều này cũng giúp tối ưu hiệu suất máy chủ web và cải thiện trải nghiệm người dùng. Một trong những đặc điểm đáng chú ý của Apache là khả năng mở rộng. Nó cho phép người dùng tạo ra các module tùy chỉnh để mở rộng tính năng của nó. Điều này giúp cho Apache trở thành một giải pháp phù hợp với các yêu cầu đặc biệt của các doanh nghiệp và tổ chức. Với sự phát triển của công nghệ, các module mở rộng cho Apache ngày càng được phát triển để hỗ trợ các tính năng mới như xử lý tải trọng lớn, bảo mật và quản lý dịch vụ web. Tuy nhiên, với sự phát triển của các phần mềm máy chủ web khác như Nginx và Microsoft IIS, Apache đang phải đối mặt với sự cạnh tranh khốc liệt #phamsite #tkbphamsite #apachelagips #apacheps #apachephamsite Xem Thêm: https://phamsite.com/apache-la-gi/
2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-410 PDF Dumps(Q354-Q400)
QUESTION 354 What is the function of BFD? A.It provides uniform failure detection regardless of media type. B.It creates high CPU utilization on hardware deployments. C.It negotiates to the highest version if the neighbor version differs. D.It provides uniform failure detection on the same media type. Answer: A QUESTION 355 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must establish communication between three different customer sites with these requirements: * Site-A: must be restricted to access to any users at Site-B or Site-C. * Site-B and Site-C: must be able to communicate between sites and share routes using OSPF. PE interface configuration: interface FastEthernet0/0 ip vrf forwarding Site-A ! interface FastEthernet0/1 ip vrf forwarding SharedSites ! interface FastEthernet0/2 ip vrf forwarding SharedSites Which configuration meets the requirements? A.PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf Site-A PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf SharedSites PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 1 B.PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf Site-A PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 PE(config)#router ospf 20 vrf SharedSites PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 1 C.PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf Site-A PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf SharedSites PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 D.PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf Site-A PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 PE(config)#router ospf 20 vrf SharedSites PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 Answer: C QUESTION 356 Refer to the exhibit. Site1 must perform unequal cost load balancing toward the segments behind Site2 and Site3. Some of the routes are getting load balanced but others are not. Which configuration allows Site1 to load balance toward all the LAN segments of the remote routers? A.Site3 router eigrp 100 variance 2 B.Site2 router eigrp 100 variance 2 C.Site2 router eigrp 100 variance 3 D.Site1 router eigrp 100 variance 3 Answer: D QUESTION 357 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer implemented an access list on R1 to allow anyone to Telnet except R2 Loopback0 to R1 Loopback4. How must sequence 20 be replaced on the R1 access list to resolve the issue? A.sequence 20 permit tcp host 1001:ABC:2011:7::1 host 400A:0:400C::1 eq telnet B.sequence 20 deny tcp host 400A:0:400C::1 host 1001:ABC:2011:7::1 eq telnet C.sequence 20 permit tcp host 400A:0:400C::1 host 1001:ABC:2011:7::1 eq telnet D.sequence 20 deny tcp host 1001:ABC:2011:7::1 host 400A:0:400C::1 eq telnet Answer: D QUESTION 358 An engineer notices that R1 does not hold enough log messages to Identity the root cause during troubleshooting. Which command resolves this issue? A.#logging buffered 4096 critical B.(config)#logging buffered 16000 informational C.#logging buffered 16000 critical D.(config)#logging buffered 4096 informational Answer: B QUESTION 359 Refer to the Exhibit. R1 and R2 use IGP protocol to route traffic between AS 100 and AS 200 despite being configured to use BGP. Which action resolves the issue and ensures the use of BGP? A.Configure distance to 100 under the EIGRP process of R1 and R2. B.Remove distance commands under BGP AS 100 and AS 200. C.Remove distance commands under BGP AS 100. D.Configure distance to 100 under the OSPF process of R1 and R2 Answer: B QUESTION 360 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to connect to R1 via Telnet with no success. Which configuration resolves the issue? A.tacacs server prod address ipv4 10.221.10.10 exit B.ip route 10.221.10.10 255.255.255.255 ethernet 0/1 C.tacacs server prod address ipv4 10.221.10.11 exit D.ip route 10.221.0.11 255.255.255.255 ethernet 0/1 Answer: B QUESTION 361 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure PBR on R1 to reach to 10.2.2.0/24 via R3 AS64513 as the primary path and a backup route through default route via R2 AS64513. All BGP routes are in the routing table of R1, but a static default route overrides BGP routes. Which PBR configuration achieves the objective? A.access-list 100 permit ip 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop 10.3.3.1 B.access-list 100 permit ip 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop recursive 10.3.3.1 C.access-list 100 permit ip 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 ! route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop recursive 10.3.3.1 D.access-list 100 permit ip 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 ! route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop 10.3.3.1 Answer: B QUESTION 362 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configured a Cisco router for TACACS authentication, but the router is using the local enable password instead. Which action resolves the issue? A.Configure the aaa authentication login default group admin local if-authenticated command instead. B.Configure the aaa authentication login admin group tacacs+ local enable none command instead. C.Configure the aaa authentication login admin group tacacs+ local if-authenticated command instead. D.Configure the aaa authentication login admin group admin local enable command instead. Answer: D QUESTION 363 How do devices operate in MPLS L3VPN topology? A.P and associated PE routers with IGP populate the VRF table in different VPNs. B.CE routers connect to the provider network and perform LSP functionality C.P routers provide connectivity between PE devices with MPLS switching. D.P routers support PE to PE VPN tunnel without LSP functionality Answer: C QUESTION 364 What is LDP label binding? A.neighboring router with label B.source prefix with label C.destination prefix with label D.two routers with label distribution session Answer: C QUESTION 365 Which table is used to map the packets in an MPLS LSP that exit from the same interface, via the same next hop, and have the same queuing policies? A.RIB B.FEC C.LDP D.CEF Answer: B Explanation: A forwarding equivalence class (FEC) is a term used in Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) to describe a set of packets with similar or identical characteristics which may be forwarded the same way; that is, they may be bound to the same MPLS label. QUESTION 366 Refer to the exhibit. The IT router has been configured with the Science VRF and the interfaces have been assigned to the VRF. Which set of configurations advertises Science-1 and Science-2 routes using EIGRPAS 111? A.router eigrp 111 address-family ipv4 vrf Science autonomous-system 1 network 192.168.1.0 network 192.168.2.0 B.router eigrp 111 address-family ipv4 vrf Science network 192.168.1.0 network 192.168.2.0 C.router eigrp 111 network 192.168.1.0 network 192.168.2.0 D.router eigrp 1 address-family ipv4 vrf Science autonomous-system 111 network 192.168.1.0 network 192.168.2.0 Answer: D QUESTION 367 Refer to the exhibit. When an FTP client attempts to use passive FTP to connect to the FTP server, the file transfers fail Which action resolves the issue? A.Configure active FTP traffic. B.Modify FTP-SERVER access list to remove established at the end. C.Modify traffic filter FTP-SERVER in to the outbound direction. D.Configure to permit TCP ports higher than 1023. Answer: D QUESTION 368 In a DMVPN network, the Spoke1 user observed that the voice traffic is coming to Spoke2 users via the hub router. Which command is required on both spoke routers to communicate directly to one another? A.ip nhrp map dynamic B.ip nhrp shortcut C.ip nhrp nhs multicast D.ip nhrp redirect Answer: B QUESTION 369 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the network to establish connectivity between all devices and notices that the ASBRs do not have routes for each other. Which set of configurations resolves this issue? RR Configuration: router bgp 100 neighbor IBGP peer-group neighbor IBGP route-reflector-client neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 100 neighbor 10.1.2.2 remote-as 100 neighbor 10.1.3.3 remote-as 100 A.router bgp 100 neighbor IBGP update-source Loopback0 B.router bgp 100 neighbor IBGP next-hop-self C.router bgp 100 neighbor 10.1.1.1 next-hop-self neighbor 10.1.2.2 next-hop-self neighbor 10.1.3.3 next-hop-self D.router bgp 100 neighbor 10.1.1.1 peer-group IBGP neighbor 10.1.2.2 peer-group IBGP neighbor 10.1.3.3 peer-group IBGP Answer: D QUESTION 370 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the Chicago router to mutually redistribute the LA and NewYork routes with OSPF routes to be summarized as a single route in EIGRP using the longest summary mask: router eigrp 100 redistribute ospf 1 metric 10 10 10 10 10 router ospf 1 redistribute eigrp 100 subnets ! interface E 0/0 ip summary-address eigrp 100 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 After the configuration, the New York router receives all the specific LA routes but the summary route. Which set of configurations resolves the issue on the Chicago router? A.interface E 0/1 ip summary-address eigrp 100 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 B.interface E 0/1 ip summary-address eigrp 100 172.16.8.0 255.255.252.0 C.router eigrp 100 summary-address 172.16.8.0 255.255.252.0 D.router eigrp 100 summary-address 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 Answer: B QUESTION 371 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure DMVPN Phase 3 hub-and-spoke topology to enable a spoke-to-spoke tunnel. Which NHRP configuration meets the requirement on R6? A.interface Tunnel 1 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source e 0/0 tunnel mode gre multipoint ip nhrp network-id 1 B.interface Tunnel1 ip nhrp authentication Cisco123 ip nhrp map multicast dynamic ip nhrp network-id 1 ip nhrp holdtime 300 ip nhrp redirect C.interface Tunnel1 ip nhrp authentication Cisco123 ip nhrp map multicast dynamic ip nhrp network-id 1 ip nhrp holdtime 300 ip nhrp shortcut D.interface Tunnel 1 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source e 0/1 tunnel mode gre multipoint ip nhrp network-id 1 ip nhrp map 192.168.1.2 192.1.20.2 Answer: B QUESTION 372 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer implemented CoPP to limit Telnet traffic to protect the router CPU. It was noticed that the Telnet traffic did not pass through CoPP. Which configuration resolves the issue? A.policy-map COPP class TELNET police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit B.policy-map COPP class TELNET police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit violate-action drop C.ip access-list extended TELNET permit tcp host 10.2.2.1 host 10.2.2.4 eq telnet permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 10.1.1.3 eq telnet D.ip access-list extended TELNET permit tcp host 10.2.2.4 host 10.2.2.1 eq telnet permit tcp host 10.1.1.3 host 10.1.1.1 eq telnet Answer: D QUESTION 373 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer implemented CoPP but did not see OSPF traffic going through it. Which configuration resolves the issue? A.ip access-list extended OSFP permit ospf any any B.policy-map COPP class OSFP police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit violate-action drop C.control-plane service-policy input COPP D.class-map match-all OSFP match access-group name OSFP Answer: A QUESTION 374 An engineer must override the normal routing behavior of a router for Telnet traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.10 from 10.10.1.0/24 via a next hop of 10.4.4.4 which is directly connected to the router that is connected to the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet. Which configuration reroutes traffic according to this requirement? A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D Answer: B QUESTION 375 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must redistribute networks 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24 into OSPF from EIGRP. Where the metric must be added when traversing through multiple hops to start an external route of 20. The engineer notices that the external metric is fixed and does not add at each hop. Which configuration resolves the issue? A.R2(config)#access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 R2(config)#access-list 10 permit 192.168.20.0 0.0.0.255 ! R2(config)#route-map RD permit 10 R2(config-route-map)#match ip address 10 R2(config-route-map)#set metric 20 R2(config-route-map)#set metric-type type-2 ! R2(config)#router ospf 10 R2(confjg-router)#redistribute eigrp 10 subnets route-map RD B.R2(config)#access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 R2(config)#access-list 10 permit 192.168.20.0 0.0.0.255 ! R2(config)#route-map RD permit 10 R2(config-route-map)#match ip address 10 R2(config-route-map)#set metric 20 R2(config-route-map)#set metric-type type-1 ! R2(config)#router ospf 10 R2(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 10 subnets route-map RD C.R1(config)#access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 (config)#access-list 10 permit 192.168.20.0 0.0.0.255 ! R1(config)#route-map RD permit 10 R1(config-route-map)#match ip address 10 R1(config-route-map)#set metric 20 R1(config-route-map)#set metric-type type-1 ! R1(config)#router ospf 10 R1(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 10 subnets route-map RD D.R1(config)#access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 R1(config)#access-list 10 permit 192.168.20.0 0.0.0.255 ! R1(config)#route-map RD permit 10 R1(config-route-map)#match ip address 10 R1(config-route-map)#set metric 20 R1(config-route-map)#set metric-type type-2 ! R1(config)#router ospf 10 R1(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 10 subnets route-map RD Answer: B 2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-410 PDF and 300-410 VCE Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1NkZ6PH5JebhsyHrMEXD3IWxkOLRjQ-B-?usp=sharing
Tough Times Call for Mood Off Quotes
Life can be challenging at times, and we all face situations that can leave us feeling overwhelmed, frustrated, or even defeated. During these tough times, it's essential to have a way to cope with these negative emotions and find a way to keep going. One way to do that is by turning to mood off quotes. Mood off quotes are phrases or sayings that capture the essence of negative emotions, such as sadness, anger, or disappointment. They are powerful tools that can help us express our feelings, find comfort, and even provide inspiration during difficult times. Here are Some Examples of Mood off Quotes that can Help you Get Through Tough Times: "When life gives you a hundred reasons to cry, show life that you have a thousand reasons to smile." "Tough times don't last, but tough people do." "Sometimes, you have to go through the worst to get to the best." "Every day may not be good, but there is something good in every day." "You're allowed to scream, you're allowed to cry, but do not give up." "Pain is inevitable, suffering is optional." "You are stronger than you think." "This too shall pass." "Don't let the darkness swallow you whole." "You are not alone." Reading these mood off quotes can help you gain perspective, find motivation, and stay positive during difficult times. They can remind you that you're not alone and that there is always hope, even when things seem impossible. In addition to turning to mood off quotes, there are other things you can do to cope with tough times. Here are some tips: Practice self-care: Taking care of yourself is essential during difficult times. Make sure to eat well, exercise, and get enough rest. Reach out for support: Talk to friends, family, or a mental health professional if you need help coping with negative emotions. Find a creative outlet: Writing, painting, or playing music can help you express your emotions and find a sense of relief. Focus on what you can control: There are some things in life that we can't control, but we can always control our reactions and attitudes towards them. Conclusion Tough times call for mood off quotes. They are powerful tools that can help us cope with negative emotions, gain perspective, and find motivation during difficult times. Remember to take care of yourself, reach out for support when needed, and focus on the things you can control.